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CSMLS Exam > Safety Guidelines > Flashcards

Safety Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

What are the categories of hazards?

A

chemical
biological
physical
ergonomic
psychological

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2
Q

a commonly used approach to identify and control hazards is called a

A

TASK HAZARD ANALYSIS

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3
Q

steps of a task hazard analysis

A
  • list critical (major) steps of task
  • identify potential hazards at each step
  • review available control measures
  • verify the task, ensuring the requirements for proper procedures and use of all required controls
  • if current control measures are not adequate, identify more appropriate controls
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4
Q

a risk assessment should take into consideration these three things:

A

severity
probability
frequency

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5
Q

hierarchy of controls

A

engineering (substitution)
administrative (adherence)
personal controls (last line)

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6
Q

T or F. Administrative controls are considered the most effective

A

F! engineering controls are considered most effective

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7
Q

what is due diligence?

A

doing everything reasonable to protect the health and safety of workers
- employers shall take all reasonable precautions, under the particular circumstances, to prevent injuries/accidents in the workplace

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8
Q

Management is responsible to:

A
  • provide appropriate resources for safe work
  • conduct accident investigations
  • orient and train all staff
  • identify hazards and advise employees accordingly
  • take corrective action for identified safety hazards
  • participate in program development and implementation
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9
Q

employees are responsible to:

A
  • report hazards
  • report accidents and incidents
  • follow rules
  • undergo training
  • participate in program development and implementation
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10
Q

T or F. Health and safety legislation is primarily a provincial jurisdiction in Canada

A

T! each province and territory have its own occupational health and safety act and associated regulatory agency

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11
Q

what are the three major elements of WHMIS 2015?

A

safety data sheets
labels
training

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12
Q

the most important element of WHMIS legislation is

A

training

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13
Q

this control includes actions, items, or equipment designed to reduce harmful exposures

A

engineering controls
- isolation of hazard
- guarding to prevent contact between worker and moving parts
- ventilation
- safety containment

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14
Q

this control is composed of actions that can be taken by administrators of an organization to reduce employee exposure to hazards

A

administrative controls

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15
Q

the major components of an emergency preparedness plan are:

A
  • identification of potential emergency situations
  • development of emergency response procedures and contingency plans
  • communication protocols uring emergencies, both internal and external communications
  • training of staff on emergency response procedures, including periodic drills
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16
Q

what is a hazard?

A

anything that present the potential to cause injury or illness to a lab worker

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17
Q

what is risk?

A

takes into account the real possibility that there will be an exposure as well as the extent of damage an exposure will cause

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18
Q

T or F. Not all hazards are risks

A

T! but all risks are derived from hazards; first step is always ID of hazards

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19
Q

the chance or probability that the hazard will cause an injury or illness

A

risk

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20
Q

steps of a job hazard assessment

A
  • list critical/major steps of the job
  • identify all equipment to be used and procedures to be performed
  • identify potential hazards at each step (include all types of hazards)
  • review available control measures (hierarchy of controls)
  • verify effectiveness of controls
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21
Q

who publishes the Canadian biosafety standard and Canadian biosafety handbook?

A

PHAC

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22
Q

risk group 1

A

low indiv risk, low community risk

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23
Q

risk group 2

A

moderate indiv risk, low community risk

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24
Q

risk group 3

A

high indiv risk, low community risk

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25
Q

risk group 4

A

high indiv risk, high community risk

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26
Q

this contains a list of human pathogens classified according to risk group

A

human pathogens and toxins act

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27
Q

this is the first step in determining the appropriate containment level for handling and storing biohazards

A

classification according to risk group

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28
Q

T or F. For the most part, risk group and containment level are the same

A

T! risk group 2 = containment 2
EXCEPTIONS = HIV, HTLV-1, Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (MTBC) are risk group 3 stored and handled at containment level 2 w specific additional biosafety requirements

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29
Q

this describes the minimum physical features and operational practices needed for the safe handling and storage within an identified area such as a laboratory

A

containment levels

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30
Q

this provides a detailed description of the four containment levels used in Canada

A

Canadian Biosafety Standard

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31
Q

decontamination

A

term used to describe procedures that remove contamination by killing microorganisms, rendering the items safe for disposal or use

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32
Q

disinfection

A

means of decontamination and refers to the destruction of specific types of organisms but not all spores usually by chemical means

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33
Q

sterilization

A

the complete destruction or removal of all microorganisms by chemical or physical means, usually to provide sterile items for use

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34
Q

the three principal methods of decontamination in general use for decontamination lab waste

A
  • autoclave
  • chemical disinfectants
  • incineration
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35
Q

methods used for decontamination of reusable lab wares are:

A
  • autoclave
  • chemical disinfectants
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36
Q

how is sterilization accomplished?

A
  • autoclaves
  • gas sterilizers (ethylene oxide)
  • filtration
  • dry heat
  • boiling
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37
Q

autoclaves function efficiently through proper control of:

A
  • pressure
  • temperature
  • moisture
  • time
  • contact
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38
Q

effective operating parameters for gravity displacement steam autoclaves

A

temp = 121C
pressure = 103.4 kPa or 15 psi
time = 30-60 mins

** displacement is dependent upon proper loading of adequate steam penetration **

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39
Q

recommended test microorganisms used as bio-indicators for autoclaves

A

Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores (sterilizers that use steam, H2O2 gas plasma or peracetic acid as well as immediate use steam sterilizers

Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis) spores for sterilizers that use dry heat or ethylene oxide

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40
Q

types of chemical indicators used for sterilizers

A
  • tapes = indicate if air is removed, but are not sensitive to time and temp
  • glass tubes containing pellets = melt at 121C; independent of steam and partially dependent on time
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41
Q

recommended conctn of alcohol as a disinfectant

A

70%
more effective than 95%!

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42
Q

for highly concentrated spills of biological agents, this can be useful because it has low corrosivity, acts quickly, and is active against a wide variety of microorganisms

A

peroxyacetic acid mixed with hydrogen peroxide

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43
Q

Lagging indicators

A

measure the occurrence and frequency of events that occurred in the past, such as the number or rate of injuries, illnesses, and fatalities

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44
Q

Leading indicators

A

proactive and preventive measures that can shed light about the effectiveness of safety and health activities and reveal potential problems in a safety and health program (Occupational Safety & Health Admin)

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45
Q

Threshold Limit Values

A

highest level at which large percentage of healthy workers can be exposed to a substance without ill effects

  • allowable levels of exposure adopted by Canadian provinces
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46
Q

prions susceptibility & effective disinfectants

A

extremely resistant!

chemical disinfectants (high conctn of sodium hypochlorite or heated strong solutions of sodium hydroxide)

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47
Q

protozoal oocysts susceptibility & effective disinfectants

A

highly resistant

amm hydroxide, high conctn halogens, halogenated phenols

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48
Q

bacterial endospores susceptibility & effective disinfectants

A

highly resistant

some acids, aldehyde, high conctn halogens, some peroxygen compounds, some phenols

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49
Q

mycobacteria susceptibility & effective disinfectants

A

resistant

alcs, aldehydes some alkalis, halogens, some peroxygen, some phenols

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50
Q

non-env viruses susceptibility & effective disinfectants

A

aldehydes, halogens, peroxygen compoounds

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51
Q

susceptible organisms

A

fungal spores, GNB, env viruses, GPB

  • use alcs, aldehydes, alkalies, etc. *
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52
Q

highly susceptible organisms

A

mycoplasma

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53
Q

T or F. Incinerators are rarely under the control of the lab

A

T!

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54
Q

a term used to describe a set of procedures for dealing w patients and test specimens, based on the assumption that all patients may be positive for blood-borne pathogens such as hepatitis and HIV

A

universal precautions (1985)

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55
Q

Body Substance Isolation procedures

A

1987

same as universal precautions (same barrier precautions for all moist body substances not just those associated with transmission of HIV and Hep)

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56
Q

Standard Precautions

A

1996
airborne, droplet, contact precautions

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57
Q

Post-exposure follow-up plan

A
  • timely response (ideally within 2 hrs of exposure)
  • documentation
  • ID of source
  • testing of source patient’s blood/bodily substance
  • testing of employee’s blood
  • counselling
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58
Q

the number and size of HEPA filters used depends upon …

A

type and size of bio safety cabinet used

  • standards based on filter’s efficiency of removing particles of 0.3 um (most difficult size to filter)
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59
Q

when are HEPA filters tested and certified?

A

upon installation
when moved/repaired
annually

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60
Q

T or F. The use of UV light to disinfect BSC is highly recommended

A

F! not recommended due to limited effectiveness at disinfecting interior surfaces of BSC

should only be used as a secondary method of maintaining the disinfected status of a BSC

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61
Q

what disinfectant is included in a bio spill kit?

A

small quantities, made fresh daily if phenolics or hypochlorites

WEEKLY if activated glutaraldehyde

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62
Q

T or F. Supplier labels need to both be in French and English

A

T (either on one label or two separate labels) and no longer need hatched borders

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63
Q

What are supplier labels required to have?

A

product identifier (brand name, chemical name, etc.)
ID of supplier,
pictogram,
signal word (+ severity),
hazard statements describing nature of hazard,
precautionary statements,
supplemental info (some hazards)

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64
Q

Two choices for signal words

A

warning and danger (higher risk hazards)

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65
Q

T or F. Supplier labels on products of 100 mL or less do not need to have hazard or precautionary statements on the label

A

T! All other requirements apply though

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66
Q

what is required on a workplace label?

A

at least:
product name
safe handling precautions
reference to SDS

consult provincial requirements

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67
Q

When is the SDS updated?

A

anytime supplier becomes aware of any significant new data that impacts validity of contents

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68
Q

LD50

A

LETHAL DOSE 50
quantity of substance that when administered by a particular route, is expected to CAUSE DEATH OF 50% OF A DEFINED POPULATION

(mg/g per kg)

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69
Q

LC50

A

lethal concentration 50
conctn of substance in air that, when administered over specified period of time is expected to cause death of 50% of defined popln

(ppm or mg/m^3)

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70
Q

the max limit of exposure to an air contaminant

A

exposure limit

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71
Q

8-hr TWA (time-weighted average)

A

concentration in air, when averaged over an 8-hr work shift represents the conditions under which it is believed that nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed day after day w/out adverse health effects

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72
Q

STEL

A

short-term exposure limit

concentration in air, when averaged over a 15min period represents conditions under which is believed that nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed day after day, up to a max of 4 times per day without adverse effects

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73
Q

ceiling limit

A

the concentration in air which should never be exceeded and is applied to chemicals w acute toxic effects

74
Q

the most common route of entry for hazards for lab workers

A

resp system

75
Q

the only A1 carcinogen associated with the lab

A

benzene (mostly phased out)

76
Q

A2 carcinogens in lab

A

ethylene oxide and formaldehyde

77
Q

CARCINOGENS (5)

A

A1 - confirmed human carcinogen
A2 - suspected
A3 - animal carcinogen
A4 - not classifiable as human carcinogen
A5 - not suspected as human carcinogen

78
Q

flammable vs combustible materials

A

flammable = can burn at RT

combustible = must first be heated before they can burn

79
Q

fire triangle

A

FUEL
OXYGEN
HEAT

80
Q

what is the flash point?

A

minimum temp at which a liquid gives off enough vapour to ignite in the presence of a source of ignition – the lower the fp the greater the risk of fire

81
Q

ignition or auto-ignition temperature

A

temp at which a material will ignite even in the absence of source of ignition

82
Q

flammable or explosive limits

A

specify range of conctns of fuel in air that will burn/explode in presence of ignition source

below lower flammable limit = fuel too low to ignite

above upper limit = oxygen too low

83
Q

oxidizing materials (5)

A
  • provides source of oxygen
  • can cause fires if contact w flammable and combustible materials (even in absence of O2 or ignition source)
  • can increase speed/intensity of fire
  • can cause non-combustibles to burn rapidly
  • can react w other chemicals = liberate toxic gases
84
Q

organic peroxides

A

special oxidizers

provide both source of fuel and oxygen = risk of explosion

ex: benzoyl peroxide

85
Q

corrosive materials include:

A

acids
bases (caustics, alkalis)
others with corrosive properties

85
Q

T or F. We must use dry forms of oxidizers

A

F! UNSAFE; use solutions to avoid release of dusts

86
Q

T or F. The closer the pH is to 7, the more corrosive the substance

A

F! The farther away from 7

87
Q

How long should we rinse eyes for ?

A

15 minutes

88
Q

T or F. We should always store acids with bases to neutralize

A

F! store acids separate from bases

89
Q

Where should we store glacial acetic acid?

A

flammables
- flash pt of 39C
- common mistake = store w acids

90
Q

We should store liquids (below/above) eye level?

A

BELOW

91
Q

what are insidious hazards?

A

progress imperceptibly but harmfully (may not intitially be hazardous, but progress to possess harmful effects overtime)

= ether, mercury, perchloric acid, picric acid, sodium azide

92
Q

how to clean up: solvents

A

spill control pillows
activated charcoal

93
Q

how to clean up: acids

A

spill control pillows
acid neutralizer

94
Q

how to clean up: caustics (bases)

A

spill control pillows
caustic neutralizer

95
Q

how to clean up: “other liquids”

A

spill control pillows

96
Q

how to clean up: mercury

A

mercury vacuum or mercury spill kit

97
Q

what are cryogenic fluids?

A

liquefied gases at very low temps (below - 73.3C)
ex: liquid nitrogen

98
Q

radiation that has the ability to displace an electron from an atom or molecule = producing ions

A

ionizing radiation

99
Q

three major types of non-ionizing radiation found in the lab:

A

lasers
microwaves
UV

100
Q

major danger of lasers to worker

A

eye injury
- cornea and lens can focus parallel light beams and burn retina

101
Q

laser class I

A

enclosed beam/low power (unlikely to cause eye injury) = laser printers, bar code scanners, disc players

102
Q

laser class II

A

low power lasers (<1 mW)
- staring could damage eyes
- classroom pointers

103
Q

laser class IIIA

A

1-5 mW
- staring directly or through lenses is hazardous
- some pointers, therapeutic lasers

104
Q

laser class IIIB

A

5-500 mW
- instant injury to eyes from direct or specularly reflected beam
- light show lasers, engraving lasers, some medical lasers

105
Q

laser class IV

A

> 500 mW
- instant injury to eyes, skin
- can cause fires
- surgical lasers, computer controlled cutting lasers

106
Q

the principle hazard associated with microwaves is …

A

the heating of tissue

107
Q

UV wavelength

A

180 to 390nm

108
Q

three main factors determining risk of musculoskeletal injuries

A

awkward postures/movements
repetitive movements
amount of force applied

109
Q

why should the vertical position of microscope eyepieces be set a little high for comfort?

A

this forces workers to maintain head upright = prevent strain on neck

110
Q

factors that may contribute to excessive stress:

A

organizational factors, environmental factors, personal factors

111
Q

factors that determine if an infection will occur as a result to aerosol exposure:

A
  • viability of biohazard
  • conctn of particles
  • size of particles
  • persistence of aerosols
  • susceptibility of individual person
112
Q

the most commonly used disinfectant in the lab

A

bleach
- sodium hypochlorite
- 1/10 dilution for spill control

113
Q

standard precautions are now called:

A

routine practices and additional precautions (Canada, 1999)

114
Q

T or F. A current of as little as 25 milliamperes from a 100 volt power source can be fatal

A

T!

115
Q

sources of ionizing radiation

A

x-rays
gamma
alpha particles
beta
neutrons

116
Q

high penetrating radiation types

A

x-rays
gamma
high-energy beta particles
(external exposures are of concern)

117
Q

internal exposure hazards

A

alpha (most damaging to human tissues when absorbed)
beta
gamma

118
Q

the most penetrating ionizing radiation

A

gamma

119
Q

technostress

A

stress caused by rapidly changing technology and reliance on technology-based equipment

120
Q

teratogen

A

substance that can cause birth defects
- can be fetotoxic or embryotoxic

121
Q

embryotoxicity

A

ability of substance to cause harm to embryo

122
Q

fetotoxicty

A

ability of substance to be harmful to fetus (eg: malformation, altered growth in utero death)

123
Q

mutagenicity

A

ability to cause changes in DNA of cells

124
Q

dibromochloropropane

A

lower sperm count

125
Q

lead

A

lower sperm count
abnormal shape
altered sperm transfer
altered hormones/sexual performance

126
Q

toluenediamine and dinitrotoluene

A

lower sperm count

127
Q

ethylene dibromide

A

lower sperm count, abnormal sperm shape and transfer

128
Q

ethylene glycol monoethyl ether

A

lower sperm count

128
Q

perchloroethylene

A

abnormal sperm shape

129
Q

mercury vapour

A

altered hormone/performance

130
Q

radiation

A

lower count
abnormal shape
altered sperm transfer
altered hormones/performance

131
Q

carbon disulfide

A

altered hormones/performance

132
Q

bromine vapour

A

lower count
abnormal shape and transfer

133
Q

2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid

A

abnormal shape and transfer

134
Q

general ventilation

A

AKA dilution ventilation
- dilution of inside air with a supply of outdoor air

135
Q

general ventilation serves to (4)

A
  • maintain comfort levels (temp, humidity, etc.)
  • dilute indoor air contaminants
  • provide make-up air to replace air being exhausted by local vent devices
  • provide control of environmental conditions for specialized applications (ex: clean rooms)
136
Q

two basic components of general vent system

A

air supply and air exhaust

137
Q

HVAC system

A

heating
vent
air conditioning

138
Q

how can air from a lab be removed?

A

either via local exhaust device (fume hoods; air released outdoors) OR via air returns (some of air is mixed w outside air and recirculated within HVAC)

139
Q

effectiveness of general ventilation system is dependent on:

A
  • volume of fresh air
  • purity of air
  • temp and humidity levels
  • proximity of air supply sources to air return grilles and local exhaust devices (don’t want to “short circuit”)
  • air distribution efficiency
  • balancing of ventilation to maintain neg pressure (more air exhausted than supplied to room to prevent c contamination of adjacent areas)
  • maintenance of system
  • renovations and other functional changes within building
140
Q

T or F. General ventilation is the preferred means of controlling exposure to airborne substances

A

F! better achieved by way of local exhaust ventilation

141
Q

common local exhaust vent devices

A

chemical fume hoods
canopy hoods
slotted hoods
BSCs
direct connections

142
Q

what is a local exhaust vent system

A

captures and removes contaminants or excess heat from pt of release

143
Q

preferred location of fan of a fume hood

A

end of the duct

144
Q

auxillary air hoods and variable air volume hoods

A

designed to conserve energy

AA = lacks reliability
VAV = dependable

145
Q

ductless fume hoods

A

self-contained devices which filter air from hood and return it to lab

146
Q

these are designed to capture heat or contaminants from machines or processes

A

canopy hoods

147
Q

why can’t we use canopy hoods as a substitute for chemical fume hoods

A

draw contaminated air through breathing zone of user

draw upwards; less effective in capturing heavy vapours & aerosols

provide less enclosure than a chemical fume hood = more vulnerable to air turbulence

fail to provide adequate suction beyond a few cm away from hood opening

148
Q

these capture emissions at the source

A

direct connections

149
Q

transient emissions

A

AKA fugitive emissions
air pollutants released into indoor environment and usually characterized by the presence of odours that sometimes disappear as mysteriously as they appear

150
Q

humidity range

A

20-60%

151
Q

source of transient emissions

A
  • inappropriate lab practices
  • building system malfunctions
  • renovation, construction or maintenance activities
  • outdoor pollution sources
152
Q

two most common errors workers make with respect to PPE

A
  • not wearing PPE when indicated
  • self-contamination during removal of PPE
153
Q

T or F. facial protection is generally the last PPE removed

A

T!

154
Q

T or F. Face shields are a substitute for eye protection

A

F!

155
Q

this document prescribes the baseline standards for regular emergency eyewash and shower equipment

A

ANSI
American national standards institute

156
Q

the most critical of the emergency wash devices

A

eyewash

157
Q

what are drench hoses?

A

provides a controlled flow of water to a portion of body at low velocity (non-injurious)

158
Q

which classes of fire does carbon dioxide extinguish?

A

B,C
- dissipates quickly; hot fuel may re-ignite

159
Q

which classes of fire does ABC dry chemical extinguish?

A

A,B,C
- most versatile, but leaves mildly corrosive powder which must be cleaned

160
Q

which classes of fire does water extinguish?

A

A
- dangerous if used in many lab situations (ex: electrical equipment or on water-reactive chemicals)

161
Q

which classes of fire does class D dry chemical extinguish?

A

D
- metal fires ONLY

162
Q

T or F. Fire blankets are always recommended

A

F!
- emergency blankets are used to keep injured person warm and in order to prevent shock

163
Q

T or F. During a needlestick injury, one must apply alcohol-based hand sanitizer to clean their injury

A

F! wash with soap and water
do NOT use chemical cleansers, antiseptics or disinfectants

164
Q

AED

A

automatic external defibrillator
- portable device
- automatically diagnoses certain types of cardiac arrhythmias (applies small electrical charge to heart muscle to enable heart to resume normal rhythm

165
Q

which type of tubes should we avoid

A

cellulose nitrate tubes
- highly flammable
- distort w age and can explode in autoclave

166
Q

water baths precautions

A
  • prevent microbial contamination by adding disinfectant to water bath (phenolic detergent suggested)
  • do not use sodium azide = explosion hazard
  • unplug before filling or emptying
167
Q

what type of pipette to use with biohazards?

A

pipettes plugged w cotton

168
Q

why do we expel liquids to the side of tubes slowly when pipetting?

A

to avoid aerosol formation via splashing

169
Q

what do we routinely decontaminate cryostats with?

A

100% alcohol
- tuberculocidal if suspected tuberculosis
- sodium hydroxide of CJD suspected

170
Q

T or F. Defrost and decontaminate cryostats monthly

A

F! WEEKLY

171
Q

T or F. Disposal of biological and radioactive agents are provincially and municipally regulated

A

F federally; everything else = municipal and provincial legislation

172
Q

T or F. Live vaccines are considered biomedical waste

A

F!

173
Q

what is biosecurity?

A

designed to prevent intentional or deliberate acts
- biosafety = unintentional or accidental acts

174
Q

hazards that need emergency wash devices

A
  • corrosive materials that can damage eyes or skin
  • toxic materials that can be absorbed through eyes and skin
  • open source nuclear substances
  • infectious substances that can be absorbed through eyes or skin
  • released dusts or projectiles
175
Q

an emergency eyewash should be located…

A

within ten seconds walking distance of eye hazard

176
Q

tepid water temp

A

16 - 38C

177
Q

T or F. Before using an emergency shower, you should remove your outer clothing

A

F! remove while under shower

178
Q

T or F. It is required that emergency wash devices have a drain

A

F!

179
Q

this substance can leave behind explosive crystals if it condenses in the lining of a fume hood duct

A

perchloric acid

180
Q

this can combine with copper in a drain which results in a potentially explosive compound

A

sodium azide

CSMLS Exam (1 decks)

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