-Sam Neuro Flashcards by Jonathan Webber

Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 5 year-old Schnauzer spayed bitch that suddenly ‘collapsed’ after her evening walk:

Mental status – bright and alert.
Posture and gait – tetraplegia.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems – normal, no pain, muscle tone maybe increased. Evaluation of postural reactions – tetraplegia.
Evaluation of cranial nerves – normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – all reflexes exaggerated.
Evaluation of sensation – decreased on all 4 limbs.

Which ONE of the following conditions is the dog most likely to have?
a.) Fibrocartilagenous embolus

b. ) Bain stem tumor.
c. ) Cervical disc extrusion.

d.) Bilateral brachial plexus
avulsion.

e.) Granulomatous meningioencephalitis.

A.) FIbrocartilagenous embolus

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Which one of the following is NOT tested in the flexor withdrawal reflex on a hind limb?

A.) Muscle strength.

B.) Sensory perception.

C.) Flexion of the hip via the femoral nerve.

D.) Flexion of the stifle and hock via the sciatic nerve.

E.) Continence.

E.) Continence

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Which statement about thoracolumbar disc disease is INCORRECT?

a. ) Cage rest helps most dogs with spinal hyperesthesia and paresis.
b. ) Relapses are very rare in dogs that recover with cage rest.
c. ) Animals that do not improve with cage rest are candidates for surgery.
d. ) Surgery is the therapy of choice in dogs that are paralyzed.
e. ) Surgery usually consists of a hemilaminectomy and fenestration of the affected and surrounding discs.

b.) Relapses are very rare in dogs that recover with cage rest.

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Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 3 year-old Great Dane dog:

Mental status – normal mentation.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems - lack of muscle tone.
Evaluation of postural reactions - dog has tetraplegia.
Evaluation of cranial nerves - normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves - all reflexes markedly depressed or absent.
Evaluation of sensation - normal.

Which ONE of the following conditions is the dog most likely to have?

a. ) Canine wobbler syndrome (cervical spondylopathy).
b. )Tetanus.
c. )Aute polyradiculoneuritis (coonhound’s Paralysis)
d. Myositis.
e. Brain stem neoplasia.

C.) Acute polyradiculoneuritis (coonhound’s Paralysis)

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Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 15 year-old dog:

Mental status, posture and gait – depressed, seizures, pacing, circles to the left.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems - normal.
Evaluation of postural reactions – abnormal on the right fore and hind limbs.
Evaluation of cranial nerves – no menace in the right eye; minimal response to stimulation of the nasal mucosa on the right.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – hyperreflexia on the right fore and hind limbs.
Evaluation of sensation – depressed on the right side.

Which ONE of the following conditions is the dog most likely to have?

a. ) A tumor in the left cerebral cortex.
b. ) A tumor in the right cerebral cortex.
c. ) A tumor in the cerebellum.
d. ) A tumor in the left brain stem.
e. ) A tumor in the right vestibular apparatus.

A.) A tumore in the Left cerebral cortex.

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Which of the following are you LEAST LIKELY to see in a dog with lower motor neuron signs?

a. ) Lack of voluntary motor activity.
b. ) Decreased sensation.
c. ) Lack of muscle tone.
d. ) Areflexia.
e. ) Crossed extensor reflex.

E.) Crossed extensor reflex.

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Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 5 year-old intact male poodle:

Mental status – bright and alert.
Posture and gait – dragging back legs today, was normal last night. Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems – hind limbs a little atonic
Evaluation of postural reactions – paraplegia
Evaluation of cranial nerves – normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – hyporeflexia on hind limbs
Evaluation of sensation – superficial pain sensation absent on hind limbs.

Where is the neurological lesion MOST LIKELY to be in this dog?

a. ) T2 to L3
b. ) L3 caudally
c. ) in the muscles
d. ) C6 to T2
e. ) in the peripheral nerves

B.) L3 caudally

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A dog with vestibular signs, facial nerve signs and conscious proprioceptive deficits on the same side must have a lesion in the:

a. ) brain stem on the same side
b. ) ear on the opposite side
c. ) brain stem on the opposite side
d. ) cerebral cortex on the opposite side
e. ) cerebellum on the same side.

A.) Brain stem on the same side

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Which of the following is not consistent with a cerebellar problem?

a. ) dysmetria
b. ) ataxia
c. ) head bobbing
d. ) broad based stance
e. ) conscious proprioception deficits

E.) Conscious proprioception deficits.

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Below are findings made during a neurological examination of a 5 year-old intact male GSD (police dog):

Mental status – bright and alert.
Posture and gait – difficulty with rising over the past 3 months – getting slowly worse; avoids stairs.
Palpation of muscular and skeletal systems – pain over lumbosacral area
Evaluation of postural reactions – mild paraparesis.
Evaluation of cranial nerves – normal.
Evaluation of spinal nerves – normal forelimbs; patellar reflex exaggerated; flexor withdrawal – poor flexion of hock and stifle; reduced cranial tibial and perineal reflexes.
Evaluation of sensation – reduced superficial pain sensation in hind limbs.

Where is the neurological lesion MOST LIKELY to be in this dog?

a. Brain stem
b. C2/3
c. C7/T1
d. T2/T3
e. L7/S1

E.) L7/S1

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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. ) Megaesophagus occurs commonly in dogs with myasthenia gravis.
b. ) Botulism, tick paralysis and coonhound paralysis all cause flaccid paralysis in the dog.

c.) Deafness is a common congenital problem in Dalmatians. It is generally recommended that
bilaterally deaf animals be euthanized.

d.) In dogs with masticatory myositis there is usually a good response to antibiotic therapy.

e.) Granulomatous meningioencephalomyelitis (GME) can cause focal or multifocal
neurological signs.

D.) In dogs with masticatory myositis there is usually a good response to antibiotic therapy.

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(WE DIDNT DO BEHAVIOR PROBLEMS)
Which of the following would suggest that a given behavior was compulsive in nature?

A.) behavior appears similar to a normal behavior but is performed repeatedly and out of context

B.) behavior appears seizure-like, cannot be interrupted, and has a postictal phase

C.) behavior not seen until the animal reached old age (~11 yrs and older)

D.) both A and B would suggest a compulsive behavior

E.) both B and C would suggest a compulsive behavior

A.) behavior appears similar to a normal behavior but is performed repeatedly and out of context

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Which of the following statements is TRUE about the treatment recommendations for Compulsive Disorders presented in lecture?

A.) restraint devices and positive punishment are recommended to reduce the frequency of these behaviors, thereby solving the problem

B.) serotonin-enhancing drugs such as SSRI’s and TCA’s are sometimes used to reduce compulsive behaviors

C.) stress-reduction techniques (such as NILIF, a predictable daily routine, and providing adequate physical and mental exercise) may be helpful in reducing compulsive behaviors

D.) all of the above are true about Compulsive Disorders

E.) only B and C are true about Compulsive Disorders

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Which of the following statements is TRUE about cognitive dysfunction syndrome (CDS)?

A.) CDS can be completely cured in most cases, if correct treatment techniques are used

B.) CDS has behavioral symptoms and pathophysiology similar in many ways to Alzheimer’s in humans

C.) CDS is effectively treated with SSRI’s and TCA’s, such as fluoxetine and clomipramine

D.) CDS may be caused by acute stress and is seen in animals of all ages

E.) All of the above are true about CDS

B.) CDS has behavioral symptoms and pathophysiology similar in many ways to Alzheimer’s in humans

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Which of the following is a management and/or treatment recommendation for Cognitive Dysfunction Syndrome (CDS)?

a.) increase access to appropriate areas for elimination

b.) provide the animal with regular opportunities for increased mental and physical activity
(use it or lose it!)

c. ) supplement the diet with antioxidants, or feed an antioxidant enriched ‘prescription’ diet
d. ) use learning theory – reinforce calm, quiet behaviors; ignore anxiety-based pacing and panting
e. ) all of the above are management and/or treatment recommendations for CDS

e. all of the above are management and/or treatment recommendations for CDS

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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. ) Bethanecol can be used in dogs with a ‘lower motor neuron bladder’.
b. ) Phenoxybenzamine can be used in dogs with an ‘upper motor neuron bladder’.
c. ) Phenylpropanolamine can be used in dogs with a ‘lower motor neuron bladder’.
d. ) Prazosin can be used in dogs with an ‘upper motor neuron bladder’.
e. ) indwelling urinary catheters are better than the above drugs for the management of upper/lower motor neuron bladders

e.) indwelling urinary catheters are better than the above drugs for the management of upper/lower motor neuron bladders

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Which statement comparing cervical (CDP) and thoracolumbar disc prolapses (TLDP) is CORRECT?

a. ) CDP are more likely to cause neurological deficits and less likely to cause pain.
b. ) CDP are most commonly Hansen type II in small dogs
c. ) CDP are less likely to respond to cage rest
d. ) Surgery for a CDP involves a ventral approach; a dorsal approach is made for TLDP
e. ) Prognosis following surgery for CDP is much poorer than for TLDP

D.) Surgery for a CDP involves a ventral approach, a dorsal approach is made for TLDP

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Which statement about intervertebral disc disease is INCORRECT?

a. ) Calcification of discs occurs commonly in chondrodystrophic breeds.
b. ) Most thoracolumbar disc protrusions are between T11 and L2.
c. ) Clinical signs with a disc prolapse vary from spinal hyperesthesia with no neurological deficits to anesthesia with paralysis.
d. ) Myelography, CT or MRI are needed for the definitive diagnosis of a disc prolapse and to locate the site of the prolapse.
e. ) Onset of clinical signs is usually precipitated by exercise/ trauma.

e.) Onset of clinical signs is usually precipitated by exercise/ trauma.

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Which of the following statements about vestibular disease is INCORRECT?

a. ) Signs include head tilt, falling to one side and nystagmus.
b. ) Head tilt and falling are usually toward the side of the lesion.
c. ) The fast phase of nystagmus is usually towards the side of the lesion.
d. ) Central vestibular disease is often associated with neoplasia or infections.
e. ) Peripheral vestibular disease is usually associated with otitis.

c.) The fast phase of nystagmus is usually towards the side of the lesion.

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In animals with cranial trauma which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a. ) Shock and life threatening injuries should be treated first.
b. ) Colloids are contraindicated and Lactate
c. ) Hypercapnia must be prevented as this raises intracranial pressure.
d. ) Brain edema is best treated with mannitol.
e. ) Irregular respiration and unresponsive bilateral mydriasis indicate a poor prognosis.

b.) Colloids are contraindicated and Lactated Ringer’s Solution (LRS) must be used to treat
shock.

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Which of the following conditions is LEAST LIKELY to be painful?

a. ) fibrocartilaginous embolus.
b. )discospondylitis.
c. ) cervical disc protrusion.
d. ) lumbosacral instability.
e. ) malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor.

a.) fibrocartilaginous embolus.

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Which of the following statements about seizures is INCORRECT?

a. )Generalized tonic-clonic motor seizures are the most common form of seizures in dogs.
b. )In the preictal phase, there may be subtle behavior changes such as seeking out the owner, restlessness or anxiety.
c. ) During the ictal phase, animals usually fall unconscious and show tonic and then clonic muscle activity with autonomic signs (urination/ defecation/ salivation).
d. ) In the postictal phase, animals very rapidly regain consciousness and soon appear normal, behaviorally and neurologically.
e. )Idiopathic epilepsy is treated with anticonvulsant drugs; with secondary epilepsy the underlying cause should be treated.

d.) In the postictal phase, animals very rapidly regain consciousness and soon appear normal, behaviorally and neurologically.

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Which of the following statements about the treatment of seizures is INCORRECT?

a.) Phenobarbital is contraindicated in dogs with existing liver disease.

b.) Blood levels of phenobarbital should be measured at regular intervals to enable the correct
dose of the drug to be given.

c. ) Dogs having seizures in clusters or more frequently than every 6-8 weeks should be placed on phenobarbital.
d. ) ALP and ALT must be measured regularly so that phenobarb induced hepatopathy can be detected early.
e. ) Potassium bromide can also be used for seizure control, but it should not be used if there are signs of renal insufficiency.

d.) ALP and ALT must be measured regularly so that phenobarb induced hepatopathy can be detected early.

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Which of the following statements about seizures in cats is INCORRECT?

a. ) They are less likely to be idiopathic (primary) than in dogs.
b. ) They are more variable than those seen in dogs.
c. ) They are most commonly treated with phenobarbital.
d. ) Phenobarbital does not cause hepatotoxicity in cats.
e. ) Potassium bromide is the safest drug to treat seizures in cats.

e.) Potassium bromide is the safest drug to treat seizures in cats.

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A dog with tetraplegia as a result of a severe lesion at C6-T2 is most likely to have which of the following? a. ) Normal respiration b. ) No respiration c. ) Marked abdominal effort d. ) Marked thoracic effort e. ) Marked abdominal and thoracic effort.

c.) Marked abdominal effort

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? a. ) Monoparesis - lack of voluntary muscle activity on one limb. b. ) Hemiplegia – absence of voluntary motor activity on one side. c. ) “Root signature” - hyperesthesia with limb palpation or manipulation. d. ) Paraplegia – lack of voluntary motor activity on all four limbs. e. ) Hypesthesia – decreased sensation.

d.) Paraplegia – lack of voluntary motor activity on all four limbs.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. ) Dogs with hydrocephalus show signs as puppies and these may include seizures, tetraparesis, altered mental status and learning problems. b. ) Hydrocephalus is best treated with shunts that drain CSF into the abdominal/ peritoneal cavity. c. ) Gliomas and meningiomas are the commonest primary brain tumors in dogs. d. ) Gliomas are easier to remove surgically and have a better prognosis. e. ) Brain herniation is a possible complication of a CSF tap.

d.) Gliomas are easier to remove surgically and have a better prognosis.

Which of the following treatments is LEAST important in a neurological patient that is non-ambulatory? a. ) Physiotherapy. b. ) Regular turning. c. ) Emptying the bladder regularly. d. ) Prophylactic antibiotics. e. ) Ensure dog can reach water and food.

d.) Prophylactic antibiotics.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. ) Cerebellar hypoplasia in cats can be due to in utero infection with feline panleukopenia parvovirus. b. ) Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (GME) responds well to prednisolone therapy. c.) Dogs in the early stages of degenerative myelopathy generally have normal sensation in the limbs and are continent. d.) Dysautonomia can be seen in dogs in the mid-western US and is associated with signs due to autonomic nervous system dysfunction. e.) There is no effective treatment for degenerative myelopathy in dogs.

b.) Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (GME) responds well to prednisolone therapy.

Severe peripheral nerve injuries result in which ONE of the following? a. ) Very little muscle atrophy. b. ) Hypermetria. c. ) Nerve root signs. d. ) Anesthesia and areflexia. e. ) Hyperesthesia and hyperreflexia.

d.) Anesthesia and areflexia.

Which statement about thoracolumbar disease is MOST CORRECT? a. ) Disc prolapses are commonly precipitated by exercise b. )Most animals will show lower motor neuron signs in the back legs. c. )Disc prolapses occur most commonly in the mid lumbar vertebrae. d. ) Most dachshunds with disc prolapses will have upper motor neuron bladders. e. ) Chondrodystrophic breeds most commonly have Hansen Type II prolapses.

d.) Most dachshunds with disc prolapses will have upper motor neuron bladders. #

Which statement about thoracolumbar disc disease is MOST CORRECT?? a. )Cage- rest seldom helps dogs with spinal hyperesthesia and paresis. b. ) It is acceptable to use prednisilone instead of cage- rest in mildly affected dogs. c. ) Animals that improve with cage rest quite commonly have relapses of clinical signs. d. ) Cage rest is the therapy of choice in dogs that are paralyzed. e. )Following surgery, dogs are usually fully recovered from their neurological signs in a few days.

c.) Animals that improve with cage rest quite commonly have relapses of clinical signs. #

Which of the following is not usually associated with LMN lesion? a. ) Muscle atrophy b. ) Hyporeflexia/areflexia c. ) Paralysis/paresis d. ) Hyperesthesia e. ) Hypotonia/atonia

d.) Hyperesthesia #

Which statement about diskospondylitis is most correct? a. )It is an infection of the cartilaginous endplates and intervertebral disk, especially in the caudal cervical mid thoracic and lumbosacral areas. b. ) Infections are rapidly encapsulated and fever and systemic signs of infection are rare. c. )Paresis usually develops before pain on palpation of the affected area. d. ) Radiographic changes are obvious from the early stages of infection. e. ) Short term antibiotic therapy is highly effective in treating the condition.

a.) It is an infection of the cartilaginous endplates and intervertebral disk, especially in the caudal cervical mid thoracic and lumbosacral areas. #

Which statement about degenerative myelopathy is MOST correct? a. ) there is rapidly progressive development of paresis and ataxia. b. ) It occurs especially in German Shepherd dogs. c. ) The condition is painful and urinary and fecal incontinece usually develop. d. ) Diagnosis is based on the presence of inflammatory cells in the CSF. e. )Cage rest and steroids are an effective therapy.

a.) there is rapidly progressive development of paresis and ataxia. #

Which is incorrect? a. ) Lesions in cerebral cortex cause ipsilateral UMN signs and postural reaction deficits b. ) Lesions in C1-C6 cause UMN signs in both pelvic and thoracic limbs c. ) Lesions in C6-T2 cause UMN signs in the pelvic limbs and LMN signs in the thoracic limbs d. ) Lesions in T2-L6? cause UMN signs in the pelvic limbs e. ) Lesions in L6-S2 cause LMN signs in the pelvic limbs

a.) Lesions in cerebral cortex cause ipsilateral UMN signs and postural reaction deficits &

Which of the follow not usually ass with LMN lesion? a.) Muscle atrophy b. ) Hyporeflexia/areflexia c. ) Paralysis/paresis d. ) Hyperesthesia e. ) Hypoton/atonia

d.) Hyperesthesia &

Which is not cerebellar sign? a.) Broad based stance b. ) Ataxia c. ) Dysmetria d. ) Intention tremors e. ) Conscious proprioceptive defitcits

e.) Conscious proprioceptive defitcits &

Which of the following statements about Fibrocartilaginous emboli is INCORRECT? a. ) It occurs in large breed dogs and rarely in the cat b. ) Clinical signs develop slowly over day to weeks c. ) The condition is usually non-painful d. ) Diagnosis is by exclusion of other possible causes of clinical signs e. ) Surgery is of no benefit and only supportive medical therapy is indicated

b.) Clinical signs develop slowly over day to weeks &

11. Which of the following statements about degenerative myelopathy is INCORRECT? a. ) There is a slow progressive development of paresis and ataxia b. ) It occurs especially in German Shepherd dogs c. ) The condition is painful and urinary and fecal incontinence usually develop d. ) Diagnosis is by exclusion of inflammatory and compressive conditions of the spinal cord e. ) There is no effective therapy

c.) The condition is painful and urinary and fecal &

12. Which statement about cervical spondylomyelopathy (canine wobblers) is INCORRECT? a. ) The condition occurs most in young great danes and old dobermans b. ) The pelvic limbs are usually more affected than the thoracic limbs c. ) Myelograms are not necessary for the diagnosis; vertebral changes are obvious on plain radiographs d. ) Medical therapy is only palliative as the condition is progressive e. ) surgical decompression and or surgical stabilization may provide short term benefits

c.) Myelograms are not necessary for the diagnosis; vertebral changes are obvious on plain radiographs &

What is Not a LMN signs? a. ) muscle atrophy b. ) Hyporeflexia/areflexia c. )Paralysis/paresis d. ) Hypotonia/atonia e. ) Hyperesthesia

E.) Hyperesthesia &

Does Panting resemble a murmur?

Great Dane with Atrial fibrillation- whats the rate to tx or not and whats the contractility? - poor contractility - poor heart rate

We treat with digoxin and top it up with dialtazem.

Where is the lesion ( what vertebrae) in brachial plexus avulsion? How does avulsion occur?

C6-C7- shoulder | C7-T1 elbow and amp, carpus force while abducted cranial or caudal

Miosis, protruding nictitans, enophthalmos are systems of __________. Where is the lesion?

Horners Syndrome T1 (weird ass backwards innervation)

Peripher nerve root tumor(boxer tumors) lesions are seen in the area?

Caudal cervical area T: chronic F: is progressive HYPERsthesia, MONOparesis

``` Fibrocartilage Emboli (FCE) are usually seen in what breeds? T/F: this is a disc disease it is chronic. ```

Irish Wolf hounds and amp; mini schnauzers T: originates from nucleus pulpous-->ischemia **** TEST QUESTION***

Define Neuropraxia?

Cut off blood supply "leg fell asleep" | Basic neuropathy will recover with no permanent damage

Define Axonotmesis

Axon degeneration | * endonerium and schwann intact regenereation = 1mm/day

Define Neurotmesis

Severed nerve | *** NO REGENERATION- paralysis

Patient has paraparesis where is the lesion?

Caudal to T2 | *** TEST QUESTION**

Degenerative Myelopathy is an immune mediated, non-painful, non-inflammatory disease seen classically in ____. Where is the lesion?

``` Old GSD (SOD1 gene) Thoracolumbar spinal chord is progressive knuckling/crossing over. ```

Where does IVDDD Hansens type II lesion form? What are the signs?

L7-S1 | Cauda equina : Tail jack pain

What breed is mainly effected by Hansen Type I IVDD?

WEINERS!!!

Hansens type 1 vs Hansens type II

Type 1: acute pain Chondrodystrophic breeds

What are the signs of each Grade?

Grade 1- Hyperesthesia Grade 2- Paresis, can walk Grade 3-Paresis, can't walk Grade 4- Paralysis, deep pain WELCOMING MR. DABBIN McKRACKIN!!!!

Peripheral nerve injuries will have (UMN/LMN) signs? | Name some signs ___ Plegia

LMN MONO plegia HYPOstehesia HYPOreflexia

Discospondylitis is a bacterial infection of _______. T/F: Progressive

Staph | All true

Where is the most common location for spinal neoplasias? | What is the most common primary and secondary spinal cord tumors?

Extradural Intradural-extramedullary HSA Extradural lymphosaarcoma

T/F: Spinal neoplasia cause pressure on the spinal cord, Root signs (pain) and are rapidly progressive.

False: SLOW PROGRESSION

What is schiff -Sherrington Syndrom?

A type of paresis that results in stiff front legs and paresis in the back legs.

What is a fusion vertebrae?

Incomplete segmentation of 2+ vertebrae.

What is spinal Dysaphism

Also called spinal bifida- underdeveloped/fusion of sacrum breeds: weimeraners, Manx cats, Hemivertebrae dog

What is spondylosis Deformans?

Osteophytes form spurs and bridge at IV space, generally Asymptomatic

What are the 4 main causes of tetra paresis/Tetraplegia

Spinal cord lesion (C1-T2) Myopathies Encephelopathies

What is cervical spondylomyelopathy?(wobblers)

Spinal cord compression of the C5/C6

A bony proliferation of the articular process results in hypertrophy of the ______ and _______. This condition most commonly is seen in.

Ligamentum flavum and joint capsule | Great danes

Atlanto-axial subluxation can be seen in small breeds at _______ age and large breed dogs at ____ age.

6-18 most, congenital | 2 yrs, trauma

Inflammatory myopathies are characterized by:

weakness Exercise intolerance Stiff/choppy gate muscle pain

What is the most common inflammatory myopathy?

Idiopathic polymyositis this is an immune mediated dz will see ventroflexion of the neck and megaesophagus leading to regurg.

Masticatory myscle myositis (MMM) is characterized by:

Pain opening mouth peseudotrismus (can't open the mouth)= fibrosiseosinophilia

Extraocular myositis (big eye syndrome) is primarily seen in ___________ Bilateral exophthalmus and swollen muscles are thought to be caused

Golden retrievers @ 6-18 most old autoimmune dz

Greyhounds and sled dogs suffer from _____ as a result of lactic acid ild up destroying the muscles. What other organ may be effected?

PATH 1 INFO- Exertional Myopathy Kidney: may die of renal failure

What causes hypokalemic myopathy? | (idiopathic inflammatory myopathy has same cause and symptoms) what clinical signs are seen?

Old cats with renal dz K+ is lost in the urine acidifying diets Hyperthyroid dz

What is limber tail? | What breeds are most effected?

Flaccid tail seen after exercise. | Inflammatory origin mostly in hunting dogs.

Muscular Dystrophy is an inherited disease associated with ______ protein. What breed is most common.??

``` Dystrophin Golden retrievers (older animals will die of DCM) will see increased CK ```

Alpha 2 laminin deficiency are a loss of a large ____ protein. What breeds is it commonly seen in?

GLycoprotein Siamese and Maine coons Britney and Springer spaniels

Exercise intolerance and collapse is most commonly seen in_______. These animals develop a ______ gait and is a result of

Labs Stiff/saw horse gait Lactate: Pyruvate *** TEST QUESTION TOPIC**

Fainting goat syndrome or ______ is also seen in ______ breeds and is a result of prolonged _______ channel depolarization. ______ may be seen

Myotonia Congenita Mini Schnauzers, Chows, Westies, GSD, Labs Cl- Channel

Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory dz of _____ breeds. Signs include _______ and _______ and can resolve spontaneously in _______.

Collies, shelties, corgis, GSD Facial dermatitis and megaesophagus 1-2 years

What is Myasthenia gravis? Congenital in? Acquired in? How is it dx?

Autoimmune or thymoma dz characterized by chronic weakness | ***Megaesophagus due to muscle weakness.

Which of the following causes a block in Ach Release causing LMN Flaccid paralysis 6 days post exposure?

Botulism

Most commonly due to neospora, acquired transplacentally so seen usually in young puppies. Displayed as schiff-sherington syndrome....

Polyradiculoneuritis

Contracted from saliva via raccoon bite causing inflammation and LMN paralysis seen. spontanously resolves.

Coonhound paralysis.

Causes blocking of ACH release, LMN paralysis 5 days after exposure symptoms have rapid onset. Animal recovers when source is removed.

Tick paralysis | Dermacentor andersoni/variabilis and ixodes

Anerobic wound, horses are 300X more sensitive, signs seen in 10 days class SARDONIC GRIN, Stiff sawhorse stance, megaesophagus

Tetanus (clostridium tetani)

What idiopathic syndrome causes droopy jaw?

Trigeminal neuritis.

Harmless yet progressive condition resulting in uncontrolled flexion of pelvic limb eventually leading to atrophy of the gastrocnemius.

Dancing Dobermans

CP deficient Tetra/hemiparesis Depression (RAS) UMN

Central | Brain and spinal cord

What are the 5 types of peripheral vestibular dz? | What are the two types of central vestibular dz?

``` --PERIPHERAL-- Otitis media- interna Feline idiopathic canine geriatric Congenital Toxicity --CENTRAL-- Neoplasia Encephalitis ```

Congenital VD is commonly seen in:

Beagles, Dobbies, Siamese, burmese | animals may also have deafness= delayed development of sensory receptors

What is the most common cause of vestibular toxicity>?

AMINOGLYCOSIDES (STERLING WHAT IS AN AMINOGLYCOSIDE? used for Gram neg and inhibit protein synthesis EXAMPLES-->streptomycin, tobramycin,gentomycin, neomycin)

Shaker dog syndrome is most commonly seen in_______. The cause is unclear but presence of ______ has been found

Dogs less than 15 kg esp MALTESE cerebritis T F: also called corticosteroid.

Episodic falling is most commonly seen in ______ as puppies, Similar to scotty craps and no loss of conciousness

King charles Cavaliers

Schiff Sehringen syndrome involves injury to what area of the spine?

T2-L6/L7 = | Stiff front legs, paresis in hind legs

Whats the most common brain tumor in dogs and cats?

Meningiomas

T/F: Brain herniations are rapidly progressive causing altered mental state eventually leading to paresis, coma, rest arrest and death.

True

What neurological condition is caused by cuterebra in cats?

Feline ischemic encephalopathy - Non progressive - Seizures - Circling

Disease that is a slow progressive mass in the white matter that effects mostly females. Can cause blindness or abnormal PLRs

Canine Granulomatous | Meningeoencephalomyelitis (reticulosis)

Why is Feline Spongiform Encephalopathy important ? | How is in contracted in cattle?

Important because its Reportable. Nervous Tissue BSE

What are the 3 types of deafness?

1. Conductive: Sound does not make it to inner ear= Otitis 2. Central: Central auditory pathway damage, coupled with brainstem signs.(RARE!!) 3. Sensorineural deafness- Results fom congenital or acquired abnormalities of the cochlea

What is the best way to determine what kind of epilepsy you have

EEG

What is the most common cause of symptomatic seizures?

Toxicity

You have not seen a seizure in a patient in several years, you decide to discontinue therapy How long is the withdrawal time?

Gradually decrease in 6-12 months

Cats generalized tonic-clonic seizures may resemble ____.

Estrus behavior | Hyperesthesia syndrome

What drug would you choose for a cat with liver dz?

BKr Do NOT use phenobarb or diazepam with Liver dz ** TEST QUESTION TOPIC**

What arrhythmia is present (wide and bizarre, QRS w/o Pwave, Puserate= 140, QRS= 60) a. ) Grade II AV block b. ) Grade III AV block c. )Sinus bradycardia with escape beat d. ) Vent tachycardia

B. Grade III AV block

EKG- which of the follow statements about VPDs is correct? a. ) Dropped/absent pulses and heart sounds b. ) always dangerous and always requires immediate aggressive tx. c. ) Common in Irish wolfhound with DCM d. ) Common in small breed with myxomatous degeneration of AV valve. e. ) who gives a fuck???

a.) Dropped/absent pulses and heart sounds

Which of the following indicates Left ventricular enlargement a. ) Increase P wave b) Increase Q wave c. ) Increase R wave d. ) increase S wave e. ) increase T wave f. ) increase Sperm production and sex drive

C. Increase R wave

A 7 year old Great Dane with very low cardiac output and idiopathic DCM. EKG shows Afib with Vent rate of 270 bpm. The A fib should be tx with?

Digoxin and Beta blocker if necessary

Which of the following arryhthmias is most likely to cause no clinical signs? a. Sick Sinus Syndrome b. Wandering Atrial Pacemaker c. Grade III AV blk d. Vent tachycardia e. Supraventricular tachycardia

b. Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

7yr old male boxer with history of collapsing, irregular heart rhythm. Which diagnostic test would you do? a. measure blood pressure b. electrocardiogram c. xray heart d. Ultrasound heart e. cardiac catherization

b. electrocardiogram

12 yr old CKCS with chronic cough, you detect grade III AV block w/ midsystolic murmur loudest over mitral valve. What are the next 2 diagnostic tests? a. Echo of heart and xray chest b. EKG and echo of heart c. Measure serum electolytes and echo of heart d. measure blood pressure and xray chest e. EKG and xray chest

a. Echo of heart and xray chest

Which statement is correct? a. pericardial effusion usually results in Right Heart failure b. pericardial effusion is best treated medically w/ diuretics c. bacterial endocarditis most commonly affects papillary muscle d. a week of antibiotic therapy is usually sufficient to tx bacterial endocarditis e. hypertension in K9/Fe is most often idiopathic

a. pericardial effusion usually results in Right Heart failure

Which of the following best describes the typical signs of left heart failure? a. ventral edema, dyspnea, tachycardia b. dyspnea, cough, tachycardia, weak pulses, weakness, syncope c. tachypnea, orthopnea, and dyspnea d. ascites and weakness e. dsypnea, cough, distended jugular vein, murmur, weak pulses

b. dyspnea, cough, tachycardia, weak pulses, weakness, syncope

Which of the following is the best initial therapy for K9 in severe Left heart failure? a. beta blocker and digoxin b. O2 and furosemide c. Pimobendan and ↓Na diet d. O2 and ACE inhibitor e. Calcium channel blocker and lasix

b. O2 and furosemide

With regards to cardiac hypertrophy a. eccentric with pressure overload b. concentric with pressure overload c. concentric with volume overload d. eccentric with volume overload e. both b and d

e. both b and d

What does a Holter moniter investigate? a. murmurs b. gallop murmurs c. relative size of heart d. arryhthmias e. electrolyte distubance

d. arryhthmias

Which of the following about L-R shunts is correct? a. continuous murmur and bounding waterhammer pulses b. hypertrophy of right heart c. polycytemia/erythrocytosis d. balloon valvuloplasty is positive treatment of ? e. poor prognosis

a. continuous murmur and bounding waterhammer pulses

Which of the following about HCM in cats is correct? a. remain subclinical for years b. aspirin effective preventative for thromboembolism c. Thromboembolism with tissue plasma (?) and streptokinase is cheap and dramatically increases the survival d. diazepam used with Thromboembolism improves collateral circulation e. cats with heartfailure and Thromboembolism have good prognosis

a. remain subclinical for years

Which of the following about abnormal myxomatous AV valves is correct? a. frequency in small breed b. commonly progresses to CHF c. pulmonary edema resulting from CHF is most common in old dogs w/ a cough d. Right atrial enlargement can exacerbate coughing due to small airways e. Rt atrial enlargement can be ↓ by administration of a + inotrope like digoxin

a. frequency in small breed

Which of the following about Myxomatous AV valves is correct? a. commonly on tricuspid valve b. prssure overload of ventricle and concenric hypertrophy c. use of ACE inhibitors early in course of disease will slow degeneration and prolong life d. ACE inhib and lasix are mainstays of therapy if heart failure occurs

d. ACE inhib and lasix are mainstays of therapy if heart failure occurs

Which of the following statements is incorrect? a. Dilated cardiomyopathy is seen principally in large and giant breeds of dogs. b. Dilated cardiomyopathy in cats may be caused by a deficiency of taurine in the diet c. In dilated cardiomyopathy echocardiography usually reveals the atria and ventricles to be enlarged and “flabby”. Contractility is reduced. d. In dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy, atrial fibrillation is best controlled with propranolol or diltiazem. If these are ineffective alone then digoxin should be added to the treatment. e. Dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy have a guarded to very poor prognosis.

d. In dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy, atrial fibrillation is best controlled with propranolol or diltiazem. If these are ineffective alone then digoxin should be added to the treatment.

Which statement from the following about hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats is incorrect? a. It is characterized by moderate to severe left ventricular concentric hypertrophy. b. It is generally idiopathic but may be secondary to genetic factors, endocrine abnormalities, hypertension or congenital heart defects. c. It often presents clinically as acute dyspnea, syncope/collapse and/or rear limb paresis. d. The most effective treatment is dobutamine infusions. Oral digoxin to improve cardiac contractility. e. Cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy have a poorer prognosis if thromboembolism is also present.

d. The most effective treatment is dobutamine infusions. Oral digoxin to improve cardiac contractility.

Which of the following statements about chronic valve disease is incorrect? a. it occurs most commonly on older, small breed dogs b. it is most often subclinical c. the abnormality is best diagnosed by ultrasound d. the mitral valve is most commonly involved e. therapy with corticosteroids will halt or delay the progression of the disease

e. therapy with corticosteroids will halt or delay the progression of the disease

Which of the following statements about chronic valve disease is incorrect? a. it is usually associated with a murmur which is loudest over the apex of the heart on the left b. the murmur is due to regurgitation of blood from the ventricle to the atrium in diasystole c. left atrial enlargement can exacerbate coughing caused by concurrent collapsing trachea d. acute heart failure can develop if there is rupture of the chordae tendinae e. most dogs with chronic valve disease die from some other condition

b. the murmur is due to regurgitation of blood from the ventricle to the atrium in diasystole

The EKG lead most commonly used to measure the amplitude and duration of depolarizations and repolarizations of the heart is: a. lead I b. lead II c. lead III d. V10 e. aVr

b. lead II

Which of the following statements about murmurs is correct? a. diastolic murmurs are more common than systolic murmurs in dogs b. the first and second heart sounds are audible with a holosytolic murmur c. murmurs only occur with heart disease d. the second heart sound is caused by the closure of the aortic and mitral valves e. a s4 gallop is common in dogs with atrial fibrillation

b. the first and second heart sounds are audible with a holosytolic murmur

Treatment for ventricular premature contraction (VPCs) is indicated when: a. over 10% of the total heart beats are VPCs b. the R-on-T phenomenon is present c. there is evidence of myocardial failure d. any of the above are present e. only a and c above are present

d. any of the above are present

Typical signs of heart failure are: a. ventral, edema, dyspnea, tachycardia b. dyspnea, cough, tachycardia, weak pulses, weakness and syncope c. tachypnea, epistaxis, hemoptysis d. ascites and weakness e. dyspnea, cough, murmur, ascites and pleural effusion

b. dyspnea, cough, tachycardia, weak pulses, weakness and syncope

Which statement about hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats is incorrect? a. it is characterized by left ventricular concentric hypertrophy b. in most cases it is idiopathic but sometimes it is secondary to hyperthyroidism, hypertension or aortic stenosis c. clinical signs include acute dyspnea, syncope/collapse and or rear limb paresis d. the primary treatments to be given are furosemide to relieve pulmonary edema and dobutamine infusions/oral digoxin to improve cardiac contractility e. thromboembolism may be controlled with aspirin or coumarin

d. the primary treatments to be given are furosemide to relieve pulmonary edema and dobutamine infusions/oral digoxin to improve cardiac contractility

What is the ventilation rate, EKG recorded at 25 mm/sec and 1cm=1mv (note-76 beats in 7sec). a. ~30bpm b. 60bpm c. ~90bpm d. ~120bpm e. not enough info

b. 60bpm

Which of the following is not associated w/ prolonged QRS a. Supraventricular predepolerization b. Left bundle branch blk c. Right bundle branch blk d. VPD e. Ventricular escape beat

a. Supraventricular predepolerization

Which of the following treatments of CHF with ACE inhibitors is correct? a. arterial dilators do not cause vasodilation b. block remodeling of myocardium induced by RAAS c. potent and very rapid onset of action d. most common side effect is ↓ liver enzymes e. if BUN and creatinine ↑, dose should be ↓

b. block remodeling of myocardium induced by RAAS

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of ascities in the dog? a. Right heart failure b. Left heart failure c. Liver disease d. Thromboembolism e. Arrhythmias

c. Liver disease

76. A L to R shunting PDA gives a systolic murmur (to and fro), so does aortic stenosis. How would you determine it was a PDA? a. Cachexia b. Cyanosis c. Bradycardia d. Fever e. Bounding water-hammer pulses

e. Bounding water-hammer pulses

The first drug you should use to try and control atrial fib is a. Atropine b. Furosemide c. Enalapril d. Digoxin e. Dopamine

d. Digoxin

-Sam Neuro Flashcards

(138 cards)