Flashcards in Samplex 2015 Deck (45)
A patient comes to you complaining of cyanosis of the lower extremities but not the upper extremities. Which among the following congenital disorders will you consider?
c. Coarctation of the aorta
This can be caused by severe PDA. Coarctation of the aorta does not typically cause cyanosis. Probably severe coarctation can.
Which of the following heart sounds is absent in patients with atrial fibrillation?
How large should a normal adult mitral valve orifice be?
a. 1-2 cm
b. 2-4 cm
c. 4-6 cm
d. 10-12 cm
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding mitral stenosis?
a. It results in tricuspid and pulmonic valve incompetence and right sided heart failure
b. It can present with hemoptysis once pulmonary hypertension sets in
c. Patients characteristically present with malar rash
d. Typical auscultatory findings include low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur
Patients present with malar FLUSH not malar rash.
The following treatment strategies are beneficial to patients with mitral stenosis EXCEPT?
a. Increasing the heart rate
b. Giving prophylaxis against infective endocarditis
c. Restriction of sodium intake
d. Prophylaxis against Streptococcus infection
You must control heart rate since ventricular filling is dependent on heart rate. (Consider atrial fibrillation vs sinus rhythm)
Which of the following is NOT a major manifestation of rheumatic fever according to the modified Jones criteria?
c. Syndenham’s chorea
d. Erythema marginatum
Answer: B. Major Manifestations:
• Carditis – most common among hospitalized patients
• Polyarthritis – most common manifestation overall (migratory)
• Chorea (Syndeham)
• Erythema marginatum (least common)
• Subcutaneous nodule
Which of the following is TRUE regarding rheumatic fever (RF) prophylaxis?
a. It is not given to patients who already had previous episodes of RF.
b. Best results are achieved when benzathine penicillin is given intramuscularly every year.
c. Among patients who had resolved episodes of carditis, prophylaxis is given for a minimum 5 years.
d. Among patients diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease, prophylaxis is given for life
A. It is given to patients who already had previous episodes of RF
B. Benzathine PCN 1.2 M U q 21 for 28 days- best choice because benzathine penicillin is long acting, cost effective and due to good compliance; administered via the intramuscular route
C Minimum 10 years
D. If already RHD, prophylaxis is given for life
Which of the following aortic insufficiency/regurgitation findings is INCORRECTLY paired?
a. Quincke’s sign: capillary pulsations in the fingers upon transillumination
b. De Musset’s sign: Head bobbing for every systole
c. Corrigan’s pulse: rapid upstroke and rapid downstroke of the carotid pulse
d. Duroziez’ sign: water hammer pulse
Duroziez’ sign: to-and-fro murmur with femoral artery compression. Corrigan’s pulse: rapid upstroke and rapid downstroke of the carotid pulse i.e. water hammer pulse
What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
b. Myxomatous degeneration
Mitral stenosis are generally rheumatic in origin. In the Philippines, it is about 90-95%. Valve leaflets are diffusely thickened by fibrous tissue and/or calcific deposits:
• Commisural fusion (hallmark of rheumatic)
• Chordae tendiane fuse & shorten
• Valvular cusps become rigid
What pathologic finding best differentiates calcific aortic stenosis from rheumatic aortic stenosis?
a. Presence of cuspal thickening
b. Absence of commisural fusion
c. Normal mitral valve
d. Presence of pulmunary hypertension
Rheumatic lesions always have commissural fusion
Which of the following if TRUE of myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve?
a. Mostly affects young men.
b. Anatomically characterized by intercordal ballooning or hooding of mitral leaflets.
c. Annular dilation is rare.
d. Characterized by commissural fusion
Myxomatous degeneration is the same as mitral valve prolapse. It has a predilection for young women.
What is the most common type of VSD?
a. Membranous VSD
b. Infundibular VSD
c. Swiss-cheese septum type VSD
d. Sinus venosus type
Sinus venosus is a type of ASD nor VSD.
You noted your patient’s jugular venous pressure (JVP) to be 7cm H2O. What is his central venous pressure (CVP)?
a. 11cm H2O
b. 12cm H2O
c. 13cm H2O
d. 14cm H2O
CVP = JVP + 5cm
Which of the following correctly describes the technique in posterior tibial pulse palpation?
a. The medial malleolus is located and the pulse palpated 2-3cm below and behind it.
b. The lateral malleolus is located and the pulse palpated 2-3cm below and behind it.
c. The ankle joint located and the pulse palpated anterior and midway between the malleoli.
d. The ankle joint located and the pulse palpated posterior and midway between the malleoli.
Which of the following associated symptoms decreases the likelihood as acute myocardial infarction in a patient with chest pain?
a. pain radiating to the left arm.
b. associated with diaphoresis
c. described as sharp
d. associated with nausea or vomiting
All other choices are classic symptoms. Pain is described as heavy, crushing... not sharp.
patient comes to you complaining of burning substernal chest pain lasting for 10-60minutes worsened by postprandial recumbency. What is the most plausible clinical diagnosis?
a. acute myocardial infarction
b. biliary colic
c. esophageal reflux
d. Tietze’s syndrome
acute myocardial infarction- retrosternal/precordial location
bilary colic- quality of pain: colicky, crampy or spastic
Tietze’s syndrome- associated with MSK disease, sharp localized pain
The following neurohormonal events result from systolic hear failure EXCEPT
a. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation
b. decreased levels of arginine vasopressin
c. sympathetic activation
d. increased levels of catecholamines
a. activation of sympathetic nervous system
b. activation of renin-angiotensin system
c. neurohormonal alteralations of renal functions
d. neurohormonal alterations in the peripheral vasculature
*catecholamines secreted by medulla to increase heart rate
*vasopressin- induces vasoconstriction: should be increased in this case!
Which of the following findings is LESS commonly associated with diastolic heart failure?
b. Preserved ejection fraction on 2-D echocardiography
c. Third heart sound
d. Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy
Systolic HF: large dilated heart, normal or decreased BP, broad age group, decreased ejection fraction, s3 gallop, mainly systolicimpairment, prognosis poor
Diastolic HF: small LV cavity, concentric LV hypertrophy, systemic HPN, hypertrophic cardiomyopathic disease, elderly women, normal or increased ejection fraction, S4 gallop, systolic and diastolic impairment, prognosis not so poor
Which of the following belongs to the minor Framingham criteria for heart failure?
a. Exertional dyspnea
b. Neck vein distention
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Framingham Criteria for HF:
Major: PND/orthopnea, neck vein distention, rales,cardiomegaly, s3 gallop, acute pulmonary edema, increased venous pressure, hepatojugular reflex
Minor: extremity edema, night cough, exertional dyspnea, hepatomegaly, pleural effusion, vital capcity 120bpm)
A 60-year old male iwth cornoary artery disease comes in the ER due to shortness of breath. you ____ _____ rales on all lung fiels and distended neck veins during Physical examination. The patient’s BP is 110/70. What group of drugs will best address pulmonary congestion of the patient?
b. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
c. cardiac glycosides
d. loop diuretics
In pulmonary congestion give loop diuretics ie Furosemide
Which among the following etiologic agents most commonly cause early (
For prosthetic valve endocarditis: Early (12 months): Streptococcus.
The most common presenting sign of infective endocarditis.
b. new murmur
c. weight loss
You are treating a patient with tricuspid valve endocarditis. He has been afebrile after receiving a week’s course of intravenous antibiotics. He suddenly developed pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased sensorium. Physical examination revealed clear breath sounds. What is your diagnosis?
a. acute stroke
b. pulmonic septic embolization
c. pulmonary embolism
d. tricuspid leaflet rupture
True of proper blood pressure measurement.
a. The patient should not have eaten, smoked, taken caffeine, or engaged in vigorous exercise within the last 3 minutes.
b. The stethoscope is placed above the radial artery.
c. Blood pressure should be taken in all extremities during the first encounter.
d. The sphygmomanometer is inflated 40 to 50 mm Hg above the estimated systolic pressure.
True about the Korotkoff sounds.
a. Phase I: indicative of diastolic blood pressure
b. Phase II: sound first heard during the release of the pressure cuff
c. Phase IV: sound starts to muffle
d. Phase V: soft muffled sound
The following statements describe the carotid artery pulsations.
a. Carotid artery pulsation is more palpable than jugular pulsation.
b. Carotid artery has two pulsations per systole.
c. Carotid artery is best seen halfway up the neck.
d. Carotid artery does not cease upon compression of the root of the neck.
A giant “a” wave of the jugular venous pulse is seen in which of the following conditions?
a. atrial fibrillation
b. tricuspid stenosis
c. tricuspid regurgitation
d. restrictive cardiomyopathy
Tricuspid stenosis will cause greater atrial contraction
During precordial examinations, pulsations are best analyzed using the:
d. dorsum of the hand
A 54 year old female patient with aortic stenosis is admitted to ER for syncope. Based on natural history of the disease, how long will the patient survive if the valvular disease is not corrected?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
Remember ASH A- 5 years; S- syncope - 3 years; H-1 year