Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Finals > SAQ Mistakes > Flashcards

SAQ Mistakes Flashcards

(173 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Describe the medications used in TB, their length of course and common side effects

A

Rifampicin - 6 months - red/orange urine/tears

Isoniazid - 6 months - peripheral neuropathy

Pyrazinamide - 2 months - hyperuricaemia/gout

Ethambutol - 2 months - optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drug is co-prescribed with RIPE and why?

A

Pyridoxine - prevents isoniazid induced neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give 4 causes of erythema nodosum

A
  1. TB
  2. Sarcoidosis
  3. Pregnancy
  4. IBD
  5. Idiopathic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe bronchiectasis

A

Permanent dilation of the airways secondary to chronic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the common causative organisms of pneumonia in cystic fibrosis

A
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the causes of bronchiectasis

A
  1. Pneumonia
  2. Idiopathic
  3. Post-obstructive (e.g. foreign body)
  4. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the mechanism by which type II respiratory failure occurs in PE

A

Ventilation-perfusion mismatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the target INR and anticoagulant treatment time following PE

A

Target INR = 2-3

Treat for AT LEAST 6 months (if unprovoked), AT LEAST 3 months if provoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the common metastases sites of lung cancer

A
  1. Brain
  2. Liver
  3. Bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What spirometry pattern is seen in asthma?

A

Obstructive (low FEV1:FVC, low FEV1 with normal FVC)

> 15% improvement in FEV1 after SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What measurement is used to measure COPD severity?

A

FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why do COPD patients have reduced target saturations?

A

Risk of losing hypoxic drive!

Avoids oxygen induced hypercapnoea and subsequent worsening acidosis.
This is because raised O2 slows the respiratory drive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What contraindicates LTOT in COPD?

A

Current smoker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the signs of lung consolidation on examination

A
  1. Dullness to percussion
  2. Reduced chest expansion
  3. Crepitations on auscultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the CURB-65 score

A

C - new confusion
U - urea >7
R - RR>=30
B - BP <90 sys or <=60 dys
65 - age >65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Give 3 common causative organisms of pneumonia

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Haemophilus influenzae
  3. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the complications of pneumonia

A
  1. Sepsis
  2. Effusion
  3. Respiratory failure
  4. Atrial fibrillation
  5. Abscess
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which staging system is used in lung cancer?

A

TNM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe a test for SVC obstruction

A

Pemberton’s test - raise hands above head and assess for cyanosis of face, raised JVP or breathlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the CXR findings in pulmonary fibrosis

A
  1. Honeycomb lung
  2. Reduced lung volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give 3 causes of extrinsic allergic alveolitis

A
  1. Bird fancier’s lung (allergy to bird faeces)
  2. Farmer’s lung (allergy to mold spores in hay)
  3. Malt worker’s lung (allergy to mold in malt)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Give 3 extra-pulmonary causes of pulmonary fibrosis

A
  1. Medications (e.g. methotrexate)
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give 5 respiratory causes of clubbing

A
  1. Lung cancer
  2. Pulmonary fibrosis
  3. Bronchiectasis
  4. Mesothelioma
  5. Chronic empyema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define cor pulmonale

A

Right heart failure secondary to chronic pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Describe the CXR findings in cor pulmonale
1. Dilated pulmonary vessels 2. Dilated R atrium 3. Dilated R ventricle
26
Describe the ECG findings in cor pulmonale
Right axis deviation Inverted T waves in chest leads
27
Give 4 causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
1. Lymphoma 2. TB 3. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis 4. Bronchial carcinoma
28
Give 3 signs of aortic regurgitation
1. Quincke's sign: pulsatile nail capillary beds 2. De Musset's sign: head nodding with pulse 3. Collapsing pulse
29
Describe the blood culture technique in infective endocarditis
3 samples, from 3 different locations, at 3 different times
30
Describe the biopsy findings in sarcoidosis
Non-caseating granulomas
31
Describe the extrapulmonary manifestations of sarcoidosis
1. Erythema nodosum 2. Arthralgia 3. Anterior uveitis 4. Hepatosplenomegaly 5. Lymphadenopathy
32
Give 8 side effects of steroids
1. Osteoporosis 2. Thinning hair 3. Hypertension 4. Cushing's syndrome (abdominal striae, buffalo hump, moon face) 5. Peptic ulceration 6. Immunosuppression 7. AVN of the femoral head 8. Hyperglycaemia
33
Describe the differences between transudative and exudative effusions on aspiration
High protein = exudative High LDH = exudative
34
Describe empyema
Infected pleural effusion Aspirate shows pus and pH<7.2 (acidic) Low glucose and low LDH Treat with a chest drain and antibiotics
35
Describe the causes of exudative pleural effusion
Anything unilateral! 1. Lung cancer 2. TB 3. Pneumonia
36
Describe the causes of transudative pleural effusion
Anything bilateral! 1. Congestive heart failure 2. Hypoalbuminaemia 3. Meig's syndrome
37
Describe the chemical 'plug' used in pleural effusion
Pleurodesis with talc
38
Where does the rib's neurovascular bundle run?
Below the rib - so do aspiration/drain above the rib!
39
Describe the medications for primary prevention of MI
4 A's! 1. Atorvastatin 2. Aspirin 3. ACEi (e.g. ramipril) 4. Atenolol
40
Give the lateral ECG leads
V5, V6, I, aVL Supplied by left circumflex artery
41
Give the anteroseptal ECG leads
Septal: V1, V2 Anterior: V3, V4 Supplied by left anterior descending artery
42
Give the inferior ECG leads
II, III, aVF Supplied by right coronary artery
43
Describe the remnant signs of MI on ECG
T-wave inversion Pathological Q waves
44
Describe the mechanism of action of aspirin
Irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase Prevents further production of thromboxine Subsequent anti-platelet effect
45
Describe the medical management of hypokalaemia
Oral: SandoK IV: KCl (added to normal fluids)
46
Describe the medical management of hyperkalaemia
Salbutamol nebuliser Insulin (+dextrose)
47
Give the normal QRS duration
<0.12s
48
Give the normal PR interval
<0.2s
49
Give the symptoms of left ventricular failure
1. Dyspnoea 2. Orthopnoea 3. Cough 4. Pink frothy sputum
50
Give the signs of heart failure on CXR
1. 'Bat wings' (alveolar/interstitial oedema) 2. Cardiomegaly 3. Pleural effusion 4. Kerley-B lines
51
Describe the mechanism of action of furosemide
Acts on Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle Causes increased sodium, and therefore water, excretion Subsequent K+ retention
52
What are capture beats?
Normal QRS complexes within a VT rhythm
53
Describe the findings of hypertensive retinopathy on fundoscopy
1. Cotton wool spots 2. Flame haemorrhages 3. A-V nipping 4. Papilloedema
54
Describe the mechanism of action of statins
Inhibits HMG-CoA Subsequently prevents cholesterol synthesis
55
Give 4 causes of AF
1. MI 2. PE 3. Hyperthyroidism 4. Alcohol excess
56
Give 2 signs of AF on ECG
1. Absent P waves 2. Irregular QRS complex
57
Give the common causative organisms of infective endocarditis
1. Viridans streptococci 2. Staphylococcus aureus (in IVDU)
58
What are Roth spots?
Boat-shaped retinal haemorrhages with pale centres, seen on fundoscopy
59
Describe the staging of chronic kidney disease
G1 = eGFR >90 G2 = eGFR 60-89 G3a = eGFR 45-59 G3b = eGFR 30-44 G4 = eGFR 15-29 G5 = eGFR <15 (known as “end-stage renal failure”)
60
Give the causes of CKD
1. Hypertension 2. Glomerulonephritis 3. Pyelonephritis 4. Polycystic kidney disease 5. Obstructive uropathy 6. Renovascular disease
61
Which medication is used in CKD?
ACEi
62
Which blood tests should be monitored in CKD?
1. Bone profile (Ca, PO4, alk phos, PTH) 2. FBC 3. U&Es (for renal function)
63
Describe the findings on examination of patients with CKD
1. Hypertension 2. Pallor 3. Bruising 4. Brown discolouration of nails 5. Peripheral oedema 6. Pleural effusion 7. Signs of treatment (e.g. AV fistula)
64
Describe how dialysis works
Blood and dialysis fluid run adjacent, separated by a semi-permeable membrane. Electrolytes flow down their concentration gradients, with the blood becoming more like the dialysis fluid.
65
Give the complications of peritoneal dialysis
1. Bacterial peritonitis 2. Local infection at site of catheter insertion
66
Describe the time frame discerning acute and chronic organ transplantation rejection
6 months
67
Why do patients on immunosuppressants require annual dermatological appointments?
Higher risk of skin cancers if on immunosuppression (i.e. organ transplant recipient)
68
What type of hyperparathyroidism does CKD cause?
Secondary
69
Describe the action of PTH
1. Increases osteoclast activity - raising Ca 2. Increases Ca and PO4 reabsorption in the kidney 3. Increases hydroxylation of vit. D
70
What is the name given to bone disease in people with renal failure?
Renal osteodystrophy
71
Describe the management of bone disease in people with renal failure
Restrict dietary phosphate Calcium supplementation Vitamin D analogues
72
Describe the effects on calcium and phosphate in tertiary hyperparathyroidism
High calcium High phosphate
73
Describe the cause of tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism causing the parathyroid glands to start acting autonomously
74
Describe the subclassifications of AKI
Pre-renal Intra-renal Post-renal
75
Give 2 causes of prerenal AKI
Hypovolaemia (e.g. sepsis) Renal artery stenosis
76
Give 3 causes of intrarenal AKI
Glomerulonephritis ATN Acute interstitial nephritis
77
Give 2 causes of postrenal AKI
Renal tract calculi Renal tract cancer
78
Give 2 complications of AKI
Pulmonary oedema Hyperkalaemia Haemorrhage
79
Give 3 indications for dialysis in AKI
Severe metabolic acidosis Uraemic encephalopathy Persistent hyperkalaemia
80
Describe how rhabdomyolysis impacts the kidneys
Causes acute tubular necrosis
81
Describe the diagnostic investigations for rhabdomyolysis
Urinary myoglobin Raised creatinine kinase
82
Describe the causes of rhabdomyolysis
1. Long lie 2. Crush injuries 3. Vigorous exercise 4. Burns 5. Seizures 6. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
83
Describe the ECG changes in hyperkalaemia
1. Tall tented T-waves 2. Prolonged PR interval 3. Wide QRS complexes
84
Describe the acute management of hyperkalaemia
1. Calcium gluconate 2. Insulin (+dextrose) 3. Salbutamol nebuliser 4. Calcium resonium
85
Describe the investigations for Goodpasture's syndrome
Anti-GBM antibodies ANCA
86
Describe the management of Goodpasture's syndrome
Steroids!
87
Describe nephrotic syndrome
Proteinuria Hypoalbuminaemia Hypercholesterolaemia Oedema
88
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in an adult?
Membranous glomerulonephritis
89
What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in a child?
Minimal change disease
90
Describe the recommended diet in nephrotic syndrome
Low sodium Normal protein
91
Describe the calculation for serum osmolality
2Na + Urea + Glucose OR 2Na + 2K + Urea + Glucose idk which sorry
92
Describe a fluid status assessment
Lying and standing BP Serial weights Fluid balance chart JVP assessment Assess for peripheral oedema
93
Why must hyponatraemia be corrected gradually?
Risk of central pontine myelinolysis
94
Describe the mechanism of action of ADH
Acts on aquaporin 2 channels in the collecting duct, causing increased reabsorption of water
95
What medication can be used to treat SIADH?
Demeclocycline
96
Give 5 risk factors for urinary tract infection
1. Female 2. Pregnancy 3. Diabetes 4. Structural abnormality 5. Immunosuppression 6. Frequent unprotected sexual intercourse
97
Give 4 preventative methods for UTIs
1. Drink cranberry juice 2. Urinate after sexual intercourse 3. Keep well hydrated 4. Wipe from front to back
98
Describe the signs of anaphylaxis in the airway, breathing and circulation
A: stridor, tongue swelling B: wheeze, tachypnoea C: hypotension, tachycardia
99
Describe the management of anaphylaxis
Adrenaline (0.5mL 1:1000 IM) Chlorphenamine Hydrocortisone
100
Give the contraindications to renal biopsy
Single functioning kidney Anticoagulation CKD with small kidneys
101
Give the risks of renal biopsy
Infection Haematuria (potentially requiring transfusion) Pain Death
102
Describe the biopsy changes seen in IgA nephropathy
IgA complex deposits Mesangial proliferation C3 deposits
103
Give 4 causes of purpuric rash
ITP TTP Septicaemia (commonly meningococcal) Amyloidosis Steroids DIC
104
Give the two blood tests for rheumatoid arthritis
Anti-CCP RF
105
Give 3 signs of RA on examination
Ulnar deviation of the fingers 'Z-thumb' Swan-neck deformity Boutonniere deformity
106
Give 3 signs of RA on XR
Loss of joint space Soft tissue swelling Bony erosions
107
Give 5 extra-articular signs of RA
Scleritis Episcleritis Lymphadenopathy Pulmonary fibrosis Vasculitis Anaemia
108
Describe a severe complication of RA
Fety's syndrome: 1. RA 2. Neutropenia 3. Splenomegaly Causing repeated infection
109
Give 6 causes of polyarthritis
OA SLE RA Reiter's syndrome Psoriatic arthritis Reactive arthritis
110
Give the mechanism of action of NSAIDs
Inhibit cyclo-oxygenase Preventing prostaglandin release Resulting in reduced inflammation
111
Give 7 triggers for gout
Infection Trauma High purine foods Surgery Dehydration Starvation Alcohol
112
Give 3 signs of gout on XR
Normal joint space Soft-tissue swelling Peri-articular erosions
113
What is seen on light microscopy in gout
Negatively bifringent needle-shaped crystals
114
Define chondrocalcinosis
Calcification within a joint
115
Give 3 common sites for pseudogout
Knee Hip Wrist
116
Give 5 risk factors or pseudogout
Hyperparathyroidism Haemochromatosis Wilson's disease OA Increasing age
117
Describe the findings on light microscopy of joint aspirate in pseudogout
Positively bifringent rhomboid shaped crystals
118
Give 3 skin signs in SLE
Discoid rash Malar rash Photosensitive rash
119
Give 4 signs of anti-phospholipid syndrome
Recurrent miscarriage Coagulation defect Livedo reticularis Thrombocytopenia
120
Give the management of anti-phospholipid syndrome
Aspirin Clopidogrel Warfarin Heparin
121
Describe heliotroped
Purple discolouration of eyelids Seen in dermatomyositis
122
Describe Gottron's papules
Rough red papules over knuckles Seen in dermatomyositis
123
Which autoantibodies are seen in dermatomyositis
Anti-Jo-1 Rheumatoid factor ANA
124
Describe the pathophysiology of Raynaud's phenomenon
Disruption to blood flow of distal phalanges as a result of vasospasm elicited by cold weather or emotion. Causes pallor and pain
125
Describe the causes of Raynaud's phenomenon
Scleroderma SLE RA Ehler's Danlos syndrome Beta blockers
126
Describe the presentation of limited cutaneous scleroderma
Calcinosis Oesophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia
127
Give 4 seronegative spondyloarthropathies
Reiter's syndrome Reactive arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis Psoriatic arthritis
128
Describe the classical radiographic signs seen in ankylosing spondylitis
BAMBOO SPINE: 1. Calcification of intervertebral ligaments 2. Fusion of spinal facet joints 3. Formation of bridging syndesmophytes
129
Describe the management of ankylosing spondylitis
1. NSAIDs 2. Anti-TNFa (e.g. infliximab) 3. Intra-articular injections
130
Give 3 types of psoriasis
Guttate psoriasis Chronic plaque psoriasis Flexural psoriasis
131
Describe 2 extra-articular associations with ankylosing spondylitis
Aortic regurgitation Pulmonary fibrosis
132
What is the name given to psoriatic arthritis leading to periarticular osteolysis and bone shortening
Arthritis mutilans
133
Give 4 causative organisms of reactive arthritis
Chlamydia trachomatis Campylobacter Salmonella Shigella
134
Give the 3 signs of Reiter's syndrome
Conjunctivitis Urethritis Arthritis
135
Give and example of an ANCA+ vasculitis
Churg-Strauss syndrome
136
Give an example of an ANCE- vasculitis
HSP
137
Give 2 examples of large vessel vasculitis
GCA Takayasu arteritis
138
Give 2 examples of medium vessel vasculitis
Kawasaki disease Polyarteritis nodosa
139
Give 4 systemic conditions which have a vasculitis component
RA SLE IBD Scleroderma
140
Give 5 causes of mononeuritis multiplex
HIV/AIDS RA Sarcoidosis Polyarteritis nodosa Leprosy
141
Why do patients with acromegaly act clumsily?
Bitemporal hemianopia! Can't see many obstacles
142
Which blood test can diagnose acromegaly?
Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)
143
Which endocrine disorder is usually seen alongside acromegaly and why?
GH is an anti-insulin Leads to a state of insulin resistance Causing T2DM
144
What is the most common cause of death in acromegaly?
Cardiovascular disease
145
Give 8 signs of hypothyroidism
Dry/thinning hair Dry skin Bradycardia Hyporeflexia Goitre Ataxia Peaches and cream complexion
146
Give 3 causes of hypothyroidism
Iodine deficiency Hashimoto's thyroiditis Thyroid cancer
147
Give 1 sign of hypothyroidism seen on FBC
Macrocytic anaemia
148
What is the embryological origin of the thyroid, prior to it's descent?
Foramen caecum
149
Give 2 drugs used to "block" thyroid function in hyperthyroidism
Carbimazole Propylthiouracil
150
Describe the presentation of diabetes insipidus
Excessive thirst Weight loss Increased urine production
151
In diabetes insipidus, is plasma/urine osmolality high/low?
Plasma: high Urine: low
152
What drug is used to treat cranial diabetes insipidus?
Desmopressin
153
What can result from repeated episodes of hypoglycaemia?
Reduced hypoglycaemic awareness
154
What can cause hypoglycaemia in non-diabetic patients?
Liver failure, alcohol binge, pituitary insufficiency, Addison's disease
155
What dose of glucose is given in OGTT?
75g in 300ml water Patient fasts overnight before test
156
What times are blood glucose measures in OGTT?
Before test 120 mins after drinking liquid
157
What criteria is needed to diagnose diabetes on OGTT?
>7 on fasting >11.1 after 120 mins
158
What bedside investigation is conducted to diagnose DKA?
Urine dip - presence of ketones
159
What blood tests are conducted to diagnose DKA?
FBC U&E (for K+) ABG
160
Describe the pathophysiology of DKA
Insulin deficiency causing glucose production by liver Causes lipolysis and subsequent breakdown of fatty acids into ketones
161
Describe the pathophysiology of Addison's disease
Autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands Causing primary hypoaldosteronism
162
What test is used to diagnose Addison's disease?
Short synacthen test U&E
163
What medication is used to treat Addison's disease?
Mineralocorticoid - hydrocortisone
164
Give 5 symptoms of prolactinoma
Galactorrhoea (milky nipple discharge) Visual field defect (bitemporal hemianopia) Headache Subfertility Decreased libido
165
What medication is used to treat prolactinoma?
Cabergoline/bromocriptine (Dopamine agonists)
166
What medication can be used to treat acromegaly?
Octreotide (somatostatin analogue)
167
Give 7 symptoms of hypercalcaemia
Depression Weakness Polydipsia Polyuria Constipation Bone pain Abdominal pain
168
Give 2 risks of parathyroidectomy
Hypoparathyroidism Laryngeal nerve palsy
169
Give the function of vit. D in relation to calcium
Facilitates the absorption of calcium in the gut
170
Which sense is lost first in diabetic peripheral neuropathy?
Vibration sense
171
What signs may be seen in the feet of diabetic patients?
Charcot's joint High arched foot Clawing of toes Diminished reflexes
172
What types of neuropathy may occur in diabetic patients?
Autonomic neuropathy Diabetic amyotrophy Mononeuritis multiplex
173
What may cause profuse vomiting in poorly controlled diabetic patients?
Autonomic gastroparesis

Finals (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions