SAQ paper 2 notes/corrections Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

features of an iron deficiency anaemia

A

hypochromic red cells
microcytic red cells
poikilocytosis
thrombocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what symptoms would you enquire about in a patient with suggested iron deficiency anaemia

A

menorrhagia (heavy periods!)
haematuria
haematemesis
PR bleeding
nose bleeds
gum bleeding
PREGNANCY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

features of iron deficiency anaemia on physical examination

A

pallor
pale conjunctiva
angular stomatitis
koilonychia (spoon shaped nails)
brittle nails
tachycardia
postural hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which serum protein carries iron around the body

A

transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which blood test is used to diagnose iron deficiency anaemia

A

serum ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

would serum ferritin be high or low in an iron deficient anaemic?

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what symptoms does graves disease present with

A

D+
heat intolerance
agitation/anxiety
fatigue
exopthalmos
double vision
reduced vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what other causes than graves disease is there for hyperthyroidism

A

toxic nodular goitre
excessive iodine consumption
iodine goitre
pregnancy
multi nodular goitre
thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a TSH receptor antibodies test used for

A

confirm diagnosis of graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the three modalities of treatment for graves disease

A

anti thyroid drugs
radioactive iodine
thyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

risk factors other than age and sex for osteoporosis

A

family history of OP
previous history of fractures
BMI<18.5
inactivity
smoking
alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what medications are given as a primary for osteoporosis

A

vitamin D and calcium
ADCAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are relevant questions in a history of epilepsy

A

previous head injury, underlying brain disease, fever, history of fits, taken any drugs or alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the brain scan used after someone has an epileptic seizure

A

EEG
electroencephalography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what features in a history of diarrhoea point to IBD

A

presence of blood or mucus in the stool, abdo pain, family history of bowel problems, presence of bloating, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

give histological features of ulcerative colitis

A

increase in plasma cells in the lamina propria, crypt distortion/branching/abcess/ulceration

17
Q

what features of a history would suggest asthma

A

diurnal variation, exertional shortness of breath, exertional wheeze

18
Q

what other investigations of asthma should be used, other than spirometry with reversibility

A

chest Xray, sputum, peak flow
neoplasm, infection, resp function test

19
Q

what feature of spirometry confirms obstructive airways disease

A

FEV1/FVC less than 0.7/70%

20
Q

in spirometry with reversibility what suggests asthma rather than COPD

A

Increase in FEV1 of > 400ml or 20% after 10 puffs of salbutamol

21
Q

what are the pathophysiological elements of asthma

A

airways inflammation
airways hypersensitivity
bronchospasm
bronchoconstriction

22
Q

what receptor does salbutamol work on

A

beta 2 adrenergic receptors

23
Q

three routes by which a carcinoma may metastasise

A

haematogenous (blood)
lymphatic
trans coelomic
iatrogenic spread

24
Q

which cancers can metastasis to bone

A

breast, thyroid, kidney, prostate, lung

25
list diagnostic criteria for nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria >3g/l hypoalbuminaemia <25g/l oedema
26
list complications of nephrotic syndrome
hyperlipidaemia- abnormal catabolism thrombosis- due to renal loss of antithrombin III infections- renal loss of Ig renal impairment- due to hypovolaemia anaemia- due to renal loss of ferritin hypothyroid- renal loss of thyroid binding globulin
27
what is the most likely histological classification of a patient with no underlying conditions and a failure to respond to treatment in nephrotic syndrome?
focal segment glomerulosclerosis
28
if a urine culture of a suspected UTI has mixed growth what is the next step
ignore the result, send a second CSU, investigate other causes
29
when is it appropriate to send urine samples for culture
pregnancy- if symptomatic or during first antenatal visit for asymptomatic bacteriuria men with symptoms of UTI severe symptoms failed ABX tx
30
give clinical features which support the diagnosis of SEVERE aortic stenosis
slow rising carotid pulse reduced volume carotid pulse ejection systolic murmur heaving apex beat systolic thrill
31
which three initial tests would be used in a patient SOB with a suspected aortic stenosis
transthoracic echocardiogram echocardiography full blood count chest Xray
32
what is the best treatment option for severe aortic stenosis
surgical aortic valve replacement
33
what is an alternative approach to a surgical aortic valve replacement?
transcatheter aortic valve implantation well established, more effective and safer than balloon aortic valvuloplasty
34
possible symptoms of severe anaphylactic shock
diffuse erythema coughing, wheezing faintness, hypotension abdominal pain, v+ D+
35
what is the mechanism of action of adrenaline
alpha and beta adrenergic receptor agonists
36
in anaphylaxis which other drugs are given to reduce the severity of the reaction
IV chlorphenamine IV hydrocortisone