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ATPL > SARON (Air Law) > Flashcards

SARON (Air Law) Flashcards

1
Q

Experience requirements for ATPL:

A
  • 1,500hrs total (900 in aeroplanes)
  • 250hrs PIC; including:
    • 100hrs x-country
    • 200hrs x-country co-pilot in two-crew aircraft (or 100hrs PIC x-country)
    • 25hrs night x-country PIC or co-pilot
  • 100hrs night PIC or co-pilot (30hrs must be in aeroplane)
  • 75hrs instrument time (up to 25hrs in sim, ground time does not count)
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2
Q

Privileges of an ATPL:

A
  • All privileges of a CPL and PPL
  • Can act as PIC or SIC of a two-crew aircraft
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3
Q

General requirements to hold an ATPL:

A
  • 21 or older
  • CAT 1 medical
  • Obtain 7-% on SAMRA, SARON, INRAT
  • Valid group 1 instrument rating
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4
Q

How often must you get a medical renewed based on age?

A
  • up to and including 60, every 12 months
  • Over 60, every 6 months
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5
Q

How often must you compete an electrocardiogram based on age?

A
  • Upon initial medical
  • Every 2 years between age 30 and 40
  • Every 12 months over age 40
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6
Q

How often must you complete an audiogram?

A
  • Initial medical
  • First medical after age 55
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7
Q

For pilots operating single-pilot commercial carrying passengers, how often must you compete a medical?

A

Every 6 months

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8
Q

What does your ATPL revert to if your CAT 1 medical expired?

A

PPL privileges

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9
Q

When must you have completed your group 1 to submit for your ATPL?

A

Group 1 within 12 months of application

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10
Q

When an ATPL pilot in commercial has his IFR lapsed (not current), can act as:

A
  • PIC in single-crew operations carrying less than 10 passengers in day VFR
  • Co-pilot of an aircraft certified for two-crew operations carrying cargo only during day OR night VFR

PIC, VFR, less than 10 passengers, and
SIC of cargo, day OR night VFR

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11
Q

Recency requirements of an ATPL:

A

Holder of a flight crew permit, license or rating must have acted as PIC or SIC in an aircraft:

  • Within the last 5 years or;
  • Have competed a flight review within the preceding 12 months

Also, in order to exercise privileges of a flight crew permit or license a pilot must complete a recurrent training program within the previous 24 months. And if passengers are to be carried, 5 takeoffs and landings within 6 months; same goes for night operations.

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12
Q

A holder of a CPL or ATPL may instruct other licensed pilots as long as they meet the following requirements:

A

Seaplane = 50hrs total on seaplanes in its class
Multi-engine = 50hrs total and not less than 10hrs on type to be trained on

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13
Q

Can the holder of a CPL instruct instrument procedures?

A

Yes, and so can ATPL holders.

  • 500hrs PIC
  • 100hrs on applicable group (group 1, etc.)
  • Where teaching a group 1, need not less than 10hrs on type use to train
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14
Q

A large aeroplane is categorized as:

A

A/C more that 5700kg or 12,566lbs MCTOW
(different certification process)

5700; remember 757

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15
Q

A transport category aircraft is classed as:

A

Pursuant to Chapter 525

Generally means large multi-engine aircraft with more than 19 seats operated under 705 operations.

Based on FAA part 25! See below:
- Propeller driven aircraft with more than 19 seats OR a MTOW greater than 19,000lbs
- Jets with more than 10 seats or a MTOW greater than 12,500lbs

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16
Q

Aircraft accident definition:

A
  • Killed or serious injury
  • Coming into contact with parts of the aircraft including parts that have become detached
  • Rotor down or prop wash incidents
  • Aircraft sustains structural damage that affects its structural strength, except for:
    • Engine failure or damage when its damage is limited to inside the cowling
    • Damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennae, tires, brakes or small dents
  • Aircraft is missing or inaccessible
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17
Q

During a comm failure after ATC has cleared you below the minimum vectoring altitude, what should you next course of action be?

A

Climb back to and above the published minimum altitude unless in VMC

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18
Q

How shall the pitot-static system be certified before entering class B airspace?

A

Every 24 months a test of the system must be carried out, and tolerance is +/- 50ft. If it is more than this, system should be inspected.

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19
Q

IFR High level controlled airspace standby squawk:

A

2000

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20
Q

IFR Low level controlled airspace standby squawk:

A

1000

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21
Q

VFR standby squawk:

A

1200 from ground up to 12,499’. At 12,500 and above, 1400.

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22
Q

Squawking 7500 to 7700 indicates:

A

Hijack and situation is desperate

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23
Q

What is mandatory transponder airspace?

A
  • Mandatory class E airspace between 10,000’ and 12’500
  • All A,B,C airspace and requires mode C
  • DAH distinguishes D and E airspace
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24
Q

RVSM altitude:

A

FL290 to FL410

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24
Q

Requirement to enter RVSM:

A

Certification from State of Registry

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25
Q

Prior to entering RVSM requirements:

A
  • 75ft tolerance on ground between 2 altimeters!
  • 2 primary altimeters within 200ft
  • 1 secondary surveillance radar altitude (if only 1, must be able to switch between the 2 altimeter sources)
  • Autopilot to function an altitude hold
  • one altitude alerting system

If a required system fails, before entering RVSM, advise ATC and get a new clearance

75ft ground tolerance between 2
200ft air tolerance between 2
1 secondary surveillance, if only 1 altimeter need to go between 2
Altitude hold
Altitude alerting

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26
Q

While in RVSM airspace:

A
  • No deviations larger than 300ft (during level-out events, do not exceed 150ft deviations to avoid TCAS)
  • Cross-check altitude upon level and record
  • If traffic is nearby, minimize to 1,000ft/min when 1,000ft from desired FL. This avoid TCAS
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27
Q

Pilots must notify ATC in RVSM if:

A
  • No longer RVSM-compliant
  • Loss of redundancy
  • Encounters turbulence affecting ability to maintain altitude
  • 300ft deviations
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28
Q

Are non-RVSM compliant aircraft allowed to enter RVSM airspace?

A

Yes, provided special procedures and must append “negative RVSM” on:
1. Initial calls
2. FLCH requests
3. FLCH readbacks
4. Readbacks on climb/descent

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29
Q

Non-RVSM aircraft are able to climb above FL410 or below FL290 while transiting RVSM airspace. Under what requirement:

A

A continuous climb must be maintained throughout RVSM airspace

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30
Q

Low-level airspace:

A

All airspace below FL180

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31
Q

High-level airspace:

A

All airspace at and above FL180

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32
Q

Where does CMNPS exist?

A

From FL330 to FL410 within lateral dimensions of NCA, ACA and northern parts of SCA are designated as Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace

LATERAL ERROR UP TO 6.3NM

CONTROLLED

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33
Q

Vertical dimensions of low-level airways:

A

2,200ft AGL up to but not including 18,000ft MSL

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34
Q

VHF/UHF airway dimensions:

A

4NM each side
50.8NM distance
4.5 degree splay

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35
Q

VHF/UHF & LF/MF airway dimensions:

A

4.34NM each side
49.66NM distance
5 degree splay

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36
Q

LF/MF airway dimensions:

A

4.34NM each side
49.66NM distance
5 degree splay

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37
Q

What are T-routes & their dimensions?

A

Low-level fixed RNAV routes.

  • 4NM either side for traffic protection
  • 2NM either side secondary
  • T-routes are 10NM either side “associated” airspace
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38
Q

What are L-routes and their dimensions?

A

Low-level uncontrolled RNAV points designated by a green dotted line on Lo charts.

MOCA for these routes extend only 6NM each side.

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39
Q

What is an MRB?

A

Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB) are sown on L-routes to depict a reference bearing. Should only be used as a reference as the aircraft will fly the course.

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40
Q

Base of SCA?

A

18,000ft and above

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41
Q

Base of NCA?

A

23,000ft and above

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42
Q

Base of ACA?

A

27,000ft and above

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43
Q

What are Q-routes?

A

high-level RNAV routes depicted as black-dotted lines on Hi-charts.

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44
Q

When flying a Q-route, what is required?

A
  1. RNAV systems
  2. GNSS performance capabilities or distance-measuring equipment/inertial reference unit

NOTE: due to navigational facility coverage, some routes will be annotated with “GNSS required”. These routes can also be re-designated as RNP 2 routes

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45
Q

Control area extension:

A
  • Controlled airspace extending from 2,200ft AGL up to 17,999ft ASL or as specified
  • No lower than 700ft AGL
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46
Q

Control zone:

A

Airspace SFC to 3,000ft AAE

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47
Q

Control zones with a terminal control area are normally __NM in radius.

A

7NM; i.e. Ottawa; although Sudbury is also 7NM!

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48
Q

Average dimension of a military control area:

A

10NM radius from SFC to 6,000ft AAE

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49
Q

Terminal control area:

A
  1. Only assists IFR control service; subject to operating/equipment requirements
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50
Q

Terminal control areas are similar to control area extensions except:

A
  1. TCAs may extend into high-level airspace
  2. Controlled by a terminal frequency (if closed, its ACC will provide coverage, like YQT)
  3. Outer limit up to 45NM, based at 9,500ft AGL
  4. Medial limit up to 35NM, based at 2,200ft AGL
  5. Inner circle up to 12NM based at 1,200ft AGL

control area will start at 7NM radius to SFC
up to FL230

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51
Q

Transition areas:

A

Provide additional controlled airspace to service IFR traffic; bases not lower than 700ft AGL. Normally up to 15NM from airport

trazzzz7zzition700ft, 15NM

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52
Q

Class A footnotes:

A
  1. Controlled high-level airspace IFR only
  2. Mode C transponder
  3. SCA: 700ft AGL OR 18,000ft ASL up to and including FL600 (if not assigned)
  4. NCA: 23,000ft ASL up to and including FL600
  5. ACA: 27,000ft up to and including FL600
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53
Q

Class B airspace:

A
  1. IFR and VFR permitted BUT subject to clearance
  2. Aircraft must be equipped with:
    - two-way radio
    - Navigation radio capable of navigation intended route
    - Mode C transponder
  3. Maintain continuous watch and make position reports at designated points
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54
Q

Class C airspace:

A
  1. IFR and VFR permitted BUT subject to clearance
  2. Two-way radio, mode C transponder
  3. IFR aircraft will be given traffic advisories
  4. VFR aircraft will be given traffic advisories if two aircraft are conflicting each other

NOTE aircraft with no transponder or radio equipment may enter via prior permission with the controlling agency

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55
Q

Class D airspace:

A
  1. VFR aircraft must establish communication
  2. ATC separation only provided to IFR aircraft
  3. All aircraft will be given traffic information
  4. Equipment and workload permitting, conflict resolution will be provided between IFR and VFR aircraft, and VFR to VFR upon request
  5. Normally associated with a control tower with terminal radar capabilities (they see you coming)
  6. Becomes class E when not operating
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56
Q

Class E airspace:

A
  1. VFR does not require a clearance to enter
  2. ATC separation provided to IFR aircraft only
  3. May include low-level airways, RNAV routes, control area extensions, transition areas or control zones (think of areas like DERLO, middle of southern Ontario is class E)
  4. Includes all airspace above FL600 and all airspace not designated as A,B,C,D, or F
  5. Mode C transponder required in designated transponder airspaceC
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57
Q

Class F airspace:

A
  1. Classed as CYA, CYR, CYD (advisory, restriction, danger)
  2. VFR aircraft “encouraged” to avoid CYA airspace unless participating
  3. IFR aircraft will not be given clearance through a class F unless:
    - flight crew tells ATC prior permission as ben granted
    - aircraft id on a “altitude reservation approval”
    - Aircraft cleared visual or contact approach
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58
Q

Class G airspace:

A
  1. All other airspace not designated as A,B,C,D,E, or F
  2. ATC has no responsibility
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59
Q

What is an altitude reservation?

A
  1. Reservation for civil or military use of defined dimensions; can be stationary or move with an aircraft
  2. Published by NOTAM
  3. Will not be cleared through unless specifically authorized
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60
Q

Altimeter setting region:

A
  1. Airspace below 18,000ft ASL
  2. Prior to takeoff/approach an altimeter must be obtained
  3. Must be set to nearest airport along route of flight or to a station nearest if route of flight is more than 150NM
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61
Q

Standard pressure region:

A
  1. At or above 18,000ft ASL and low-level airspace outside altimeter setting region
  2. Everything is IMMEDIATELY PRIOR as to when you set an altimeter:
    - Before Takeoff
    - Before leveling off
    - Before approach (including VFR approach)
    - Before descending out of hold (holds are done at standard altimeter)
    - Before entering altimeter setting region (the south gets priority)
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62
Q

Mountain region MEA & MOCA altitudes:

A

1 & 5 = 2000ft
2,3,4 - 1,500ft
everywhere else = 1,000ft

ALL WITHIN 5NM OF ROUTE

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63
Q

Areas where aircraft should operate above published minimum altitude:

A

Minimum sector altitudes & transitions = 1,000ft
AMA & non-mountainous = 1,000ft
AMA mountainous = 1,500ft

for operations on airways or air routes, add 1,000ft to minimum IFR altitudes when there are large pressure/temperature variations

All IFR aircraft should should fly at least 1,000ft above highest obstacle within 5NM

combination of mountain waves and non-standard temeratures can cause the altimeter to over read by up to 3,000ft!

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64
Q

Operations when altimeter settings are above 31.00:

A
  1. All VFR,CVFR,IFR are to set 31.000 to enroute operations below 18,000ft ASL until exited high pressure area
  2. VFR aircraft to set actual altimeter upon final approach
  3. IFR aircraft to set actual altimeter at FAF
  4. All aircraft able to select higher than 31.00 shall use 31.00 enroute, and then actual until final approach/landing
  5. All aircraft unable to set higher than 31.00 will maintain 31.00 with the following restriction:
    - Departure alternate & alternate minimas to be adjusted 100ft higher & 1/4NM higher for every 00.10 over 31.00

CAT II & III ILS not affected by above restrictions

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65
Q

How long are altimeters considered valid for?

A

90 minutes!

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66
Q

When is a circling minima published?

A

When rate of descent exceeds design parameters when applying altitude corrections.

This draws attention to the pilot that you cannot use straight-in minima when using an alternate altimeter source

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67
Q

ADIZ:

A
  1. Must file IFR or DVFR
  2. Must revise on ATC when:
    - +/- 5min deviation from a;
    • reporting point
    • point of penetration
    • point of destination in ADIZ
      • A 20NM tolerance for;
    • ETA to entering ADIZ
    • From the centerline of the intended route
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68
Q

Forest fire airspace restriction:

A

No closer than 3,000ft AGL within 5NM

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69
Q

Super heavy wake turbulence class:

A

More than 560,000kgs

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70
Q

Heavy wake turbulence class:

A

560,000kgs to 136,000kgs

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71
Q

Medium wake turbulence class:

A

136,000kgs to 7,000kgs

Based on MA CERTIFIED TAKEOFF “MASS”

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72
Q

Light wake turbulence class:

A

7,000kgs or less

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73
Q

Radar separation super heavy following super heavy:

A

4NM

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74
Q

Radar separation heavy following super heavy:

A

6NM

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75
Q

Radar separation medium following super heavy:

A

7NM

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76
Q

Radar separation light following super heavy:

A

8NM

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77
Q

Radar separation heavy following heavy:

A

4NM

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78
Q

Radar separation medium following heavy:

A

5NM

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79
Q

Radar separation light following heavy:

A

6NM

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80
Q

Radar separation light following medium:

A

4NM

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81
Q

Rule of thumb for radar separation regarding weight classes:

A

Any time the following aircraft is bigger than the lead, radar separation is not provided or listed. i.e. a medium following a light = no radar separation

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82
Q

When is a two-minute separation given to an aircraft taking off?

A

Behind any heavy/super heavy regardless of weight class(super heavy down to light) on the same runway, or a parallel runway less than 2,500ft away

ATC will NOT provide any timed separation for a light following a medium in the above scenarios, but in the very least they will advise

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83
Q

When is a three-minute separation given to an aircraft taking off?

A

Behind heavy aircraft (or a light following a medium) if the aircraft concerned takes off from an intersection or a point further down the runway from the preceding (ahead) aircraftOR the controller believes the following aircraft will require more runway length for takeoff than the preceding (ahead) aircraft.

Also provided when a light or medium is following a super heavy.

ATC will also append separation intervals to keep trailing aircraft from crossing a heavies flight path!

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84
Q

Non-radar light following super heavy:

A

3 minutes

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85
Q

Non-radar medium following super heavy:

A

3 minutes

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86
Q

Non-radar heavy following super heavy:

A

2 minutes

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87
Q

Non-radar super heavy following super heavy:

A

2 minutes

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88
Q

Non-radar light following heavy:

A

2 minutes

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89
Q

Non-radar medium following heavy:

A

2 minutes

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90
Q

Non-radar heavy following heavy:

A

2 minutes

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91
Q

Non-radar super heavy following heavy:

A

2 minutes

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92
Q

Non-radar light following medium:

A

No time standard, although an advisory will be given!

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93
Q

Are pilots allowed to waive a wake turbulence protection?

A

Yes, unless one of these situations occur:

  1. A light or medium behind a heavy at an intersection significantly further down the runway (in same direction)
  2. A light or medium behind a heavy that made a low approach or went missed in the same OR opposite direction on the same runway
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94
Q

Is wake turbulence given to VFR aircraft?

A

Yes, but VFR has less restrictions because they can accept full responsibility of wake turbulence. ATC only really concerns itself with IFR

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95
Q

Airspeed limit below 10,000ft ASL:

A

250kts unless authorized

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96
Q

Airspeed limit below 3,000ft AGL:

A

AND within 10NM of controlled airport, 200kts unless authorized

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97
Q

What are exceptions to airspeed limit orders?

A
  1. Special flight operations certificate - special aviation event
  2. Minimum safe speed exceeds these parameters
    • ATC shall be advised of this!
      Can exceed the 200kts below 3,000 AGL within 10NM by up to a maximum of 250kts
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98
Q

All holding speed limitations:

A
  1. At or below 6,000ft ASL: 200kts 1min legs
  2. Above 6,000ft ASL up to and including 14,000ft ASL: 230kts 1 min legs
  3. Above 14,000ft ASL: 265kts 1½ min legs

BASED ON INBOUND LEG timing
must be entered t or below maximum speeds

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99
Q

When holding at 11,000ft ASL, what is your speed limit?

A

230kts maximum

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100
Q

What does an MHA assure?

A

Minimum Holding Altitude

  1. Navigational signal coverage
  2. Communication
  3. Obstacle clearance
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101
Q

What is the maximum speed for airspace protection for holds in turbulent air?

A

280kts or 0.80 Mach, whichever is lower

ATC to be notified if speed restrictions based on altitude cannot be met

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102
Q

What does military aerodromes protected airspace allow for regarding speed?

A

310kts unless otherwise depicted

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103
Q

Where may you possibly exceed holding speed limitations up to 310kts?

A

Military aerodromes

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104
Q

What is the maximum holding speed of helicopters?

A

90kts unless otherwise specified

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105
Q

When is a shuttle procedure usually published on an approach plate?

A

Where a descent of more than 2,000ft is required during initial or intermediate approach segments

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106
Q

Before commencing a shuttle procedure, what must be observed before hand?

A
  1. Speed limit for climb/descent on approach chart and/or:
  2. Speed limit the general airspeed limit order as per altitude
  3. If no published speeds:
    • For climbs, max holding is 310kts
    • For descents, refer to general airspeed limit order
  4. The inbound/outbound timed legs as per altitude
  5. DME holding restrictions, if any
107
Q

When is it advisable to file an IFR flight plan?

A

At least 30mins before wheels up

108
Q

What is the rule of IFR itineraries?

A

Allowed only 1 entry or exit from controlled airspace

109
Q

What is a responsible person regarding an IFR/VFR itinerary?

A

A dispatch service or a person who “agrees”

110
Q

When filing a flight plan from Canada to a country NOT the US, what must you file?

A

An ICAO flight plan

111
Q

Changes to an IFR flight plan:

A
  1. Cruising altitude
  2. Route of flight
  3. Destination
  4. When in controlled airspace
  5. TAS changes by 5% or 0.01 Mach

notify ATS when ETA at reporting point exceeds 3 minutes

112
Q

When must a flight plan be closed?

A

As soon as practical, but no later than the SAR timeor where no SAR time, 1hr after latest reported ETA

113
Q

When must a flight itinerary be closed?

A

As soon as practical, but no later than the SAR time or where no SAR time, 24hrs after last reported ETA

114
Q

What is a NOTAMN?

A

New NOTAM

115
Q

What is a NOTAMR?

A

Replacing NOTAM

116
Q

What is a NOTAMC?

A

Canceling NOTAM

117
Q

What is a NOTAMJ?

A

RSC report NOTAM

118
Q

What is the validity of a NOTAMJ?

A

An RSC NOTAM report is valid up to a maximum of 24hrs. Allures to wet, snow, slush, ice on runway

119
Q

When are NOTAMs published?

A

NOTAM notifications must be made at least 6hrs in advance but no longer than 48hrs in advance

120
Q

Resumption of flight duties following alcohol or drugs:

A
  • 12hrs after alcohol intake
  • Under the influence
  • While using any drug that impairs the person’s faculties to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or of persons on board the aircraft is endangered in any way
121
Q

Resumption of flight duties following scuba diving:

A

24 hours

122
Q

Resumption of flight duties following local or dental anesthetics:

A

24 hours

123
Q

Resumption of flight duties following blood donation:

A

48 hours

124
Q

Resumption of flight duties following general anesthetic:

A

Do not fly until consulting with doctor

125
Q

Definition of operator of aircraft:

A
  • Person in possession; owner, lessee, hirer, otherwise
  • Operator ensures ADs complied with
  • Operator responsible for any over-flight charges
126
Q

Definition of operator of airport:

A

Holder of the airport license or person in charge; employee, agent, or representative

127
Q

Definition of owner of aircraft:

A
  • Has his/her name of registered aircraft
  • Person in possession of chattel mortgage
  • Person with a bona fide lease
128
Q

What is a maneuvering area?

A

Taxi, takeoff, landing areas, run up bays, etc.

Does NOT include apron areas

129
Q

What is a movement area?

A

Any part of the aerodrome used for surface movement of aircraft including both maneuvering area AND apron.

Essentially, if an airplane can be towed onto it, its a movement area

130
Q

What 3 main factors affect RVR:

A
  • Transmissivity of the atmosphere provided by a visibility sensor
  • Brightness of lights
  • Time of day
131
Q

When are life preservers needed?

A
  • When taking off or landing on water or;
  • Operating over water beyond a point where an aircraft could reach shore in the event of an engine failure
  • When going beyond 50NM from shore (i.e. multi-engine aircraft)
132
Q

When are life rafts needed? (SE,ME,Transport)

A
  • Single-engined or multi-engined aircraft unable to maintain flight after any engine failure at more than 100NM away from shore OR a distance that can be overed in 30 minutes at cruise speed (in itinerary), whichever less, from a suitable landing site
  • Multi-engined aircraft able to maintain flight after any engine fails at more than 200NM from shore at a distance that can be covered in 60 minutes or less, whichever less, from a suitable landing site
  • Transport category aircraft at normal cruise speed up to 400NM from shore or a distance that can be covered in 120 minutes or less, whichever less, from a suitable landing site
133
Q

PPC validity:

A

Proficiency check:

  • Expires first day of 13th month following PPC
  • If PPC renewed within last 90 days of its validity period, the original due date is extended by 12 months
  • Can be extended by up to 60 days where safety is not affected
  • After 24 months, a whole new initial training shall be completed
133
Q

In 705 operations, no person shall operate above FL___ unless there is portable oxygen to each FA to supply them for ___.

A

FL250, 15 minutes for 705

134
Q

Under IFR, when a point at a reporting point exceeds __ of planned time, ATC must be notified

A

3 minutes

135
Q

IF an ATF freq. is not published, what should you use:

A

123.2

136
Q

RVOP is:

A

REDUCED.

Below 2600 RVR 1/2 down to and including 1200 RVR 1/4

137
Q

LVOP is:

A

LOW.

Below 1200 RVR 1/4

138
Q

Aerodrome operating visibility is based on:

A
  • AD visibility
  • Any RVR
  • Pilot visibility

THE LOWEST OF THE THREE

139
Q

No aircraft shall land unless:

A
  • Aircraft passed the FAF/on final approach and wx drops
  • RVR fluctuating above and below minimum on rwy in use
  • Visibility is fluctuating at or above minimum, RVR is at or above minimum
  • Pilot identifies local phenomenon
140
Q

Start/pushback request RVR minima (RVOP):

A

RVR 1000

For runway in use

141
Q

Start/pushback request RVR minima (LVOP):

A

RVR 600

For runway in use

142
Q

Takeoff minima RVOP:

A

RVR 600

For runway in use

143
Q

Takeoff minima LVOP:

A

RVR 600

For runway in use

144
Q

703 takeoff minima:

A

Where 9 or less passengers:

Takeoff prohibited when at or above takeoff minima but below landing minima unless:
- Takeoff alternate filed within 60mins at normal cruise
- Company AOC authorized

Takeoff possible if weather is above landing minima at another runway at the same aerodrome

145
Q

704/705 takeoff minima:

A

Takeoff prohibited

Takeoff possible if weather is above landing minima at another runway at the same aerodrome

146
Q

Can you fly a two-crew A/C with an expired instrument rating?

A

Yes, if valid on type/group and in day VFR only

147
Q

ATPL privileges revert to ____ privileges when CAT 1 expires.

A

PPL

148
Q

How much of co-pilot time can be credited towards the issuance of a higher class pilot license?

A
  • 100% of co-pilot time
  • When aircraft is to be operated with a co-pilot
149
Q

If PPC lapses, can you partake in a commercial operation?

A

No!

150
Q

When must an IPC (instrument proficiency check) be completed before conducting an IFR flight?

A
  • Completed within the preceding 24 months in aircraft with GNSS capabilities of the same group;
  • or a flight simulator level A,B,C or D, or Flight Training Device (FTD) certified for IFR proficiency checks
  • If 604 (Private ops), can be done by competency check (PCC),line-oriented evaluation (LOE) or proficiency check (PPC) instead of IPC
151
Q

Aviation occurance means:

A
  1. Any accident or incident with regards to operation of aircraft
  2. Any grounds to believe, if left unattended, will induce an accident
152
Q

Who may report an aviation occurrence to transport?

A
  • Owner
  • Operator
  • PIC
  • Any crewmember
  • Any ATS with direct knowledge
153
Q

Dangerous goods means:

A

TDG act: risk to health, safety, property or environment

154
Q

A “mandatory reportable incident” means:

A

ANY of the following involving an aircraft MCTOW greater than 2,250kg (5,000lbs) operated under any VII operation with an AOC

  • Engine fails or is turned off for precautionary measure
  • Powertrain transmission gearbox malfunction
  • Smoke is detected or fire occurs onboard
  • Difficulties in controlling the aircraft; system malfunction, weather, wake, uncontrolled vibrations outside flight envelope
  • Aircraft fails to remain in intended takeoff or landing area or all or part landing gear retracted, dragging a wingtip or engine pod or any other part
  • A crewmember whose duties are related to safety operation is unable to perform their duties as a result of physical incapacitation which poses a threat
  1. engine fail/turned off on purpose
  2. powertrain/gearbox malfunction
  3. Smoke/fire detected
  4. flight control problems
  5. overshoot/undershoot on takeoff/landing, scraping any part of A/C on ground
  6. Crewmember incapacitation posing a threat to safety
155
Q

From mode C transponder, what altitude does ATC see?

A

YOUR PRESSURE ALTITUDE (ON OUR PC-12s)

156
Q

What is an encoding altimeter?

A

Onboard an aircraft used to send signal to ATC on ground showing pressure altitude

157
Q

IF you miss an altimeter through FL180 and reset at FL200 from 30.12 to 29.92 (200ft), would ATC see?

A

NO change, transponder has a separate encoding altimeter. TOTALLY up to pilots to reset altitude to 29.92 when above FL180

158
Q

If a comm failure occurs when operating VFR in VMC, a pilot should:

A
  • Maintain VFR
  • Clear class C if possible
  • Land as soon as practicable
159
Q

When IFR and an comm fialure occurs in IMC, ATC will:

A

Protect the airspace for 30 minutes
just like if you forget to call in YHF, they will protect that airspace as well

160
Q

RVSM is the application of:

A

1,000ft vertical separation instead of normal 2,000ft separation

161
Q

In RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in opposite directions will be separated by___ft

A

1,000ft

162
Q

In RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in same direction will be separated by___ft

A

2,000ft

163
Q

In non-RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in opposite directions will be separated by___ft

A

4,000ft

164
Q

In non-RVSM airspace, two aircraft going in same direction will be separated by___ft

A

2,000ft

165
Q

What letter denotes RVSM-approved aircraft on a flight on an ICAO flight plan?

A

W

166
Q

You have two altimeters, one showing 20ft AAE and other showing 30ft AAE. can you cruise at FL310?

A

Yes, within 75ft of each other.

If it showed a known field elevation, you could say the 50ft tolerance too

167
Q

Aircraft without oxygen can operate to a maximum altitude of:

A

13,000ft

168
Q

RVSM flight:

Field elevation: 120ft
Altimeter 1: 160ft
Altimeter 2: 190ft

Can you go RVSM?

A

NO! field elevation is 120ft, altimeter 2 showing over 75ft tolerance from ground, AND altimeters must be 50ft of known elevation with altimeter

169
Q

Altimeters must be within __ft of field elevation at a known altimeter setting airport.

A

50ft

170
Q

Minimum altitude to fly over uncontrolled aerodrome:

A

2000ft

171
Q

Minimum altitude to fly over uncontrolled aerodrome for landing:

A

1500ft

172
Q

What is the only type of low-level airspace that can be found in high-level airspace?

A

TCA, can be up to FL230

173
Q

In standard pressure region, when planning FL180 what altimeter setting should you have?

A

29.92 is acceptable

174
Q

When flying through mountainous area, non-standard temps and mountain waves can cause the altimeter to over-read by ___ft

A

3000ft

175
Q

How do you find pressure altitude using an altimeter?

A

Set 29.92

176
Q

When is an alternate airport required for flight planning in Canada?

A

Whenever filing IFR!

177
Q

A mandatory IFR route ______

A

Starts and ends with a waypoint

178
Q

Alerting service:
Where ATC communication is difficult on ground when IFR, pilots may depart VFR and get IFR clearance in air. In Canada, if IFR clearance is not received on ground, SAR activates at:

A

Your ETD on flight plan, and if under an AD where FAA is in control, FAA procedures apply (ex. departing Windsor, Detroit approach has your clearance)

In such cases, alerting service is not activated until aircraft calls ATC for clearance. Therefore if the aircraft departs before obtaining IFR clearance, alerting service does not begin until contact is established with ATS

179
Q

You depart at an uncontrolled on a VFR or IFR flight plan and you do not depart for 60 mins if your proposed departure time:

A

SAR activated!

180
Q

Who determines if personal electronic devices cause interference? When can you use a PED?

A

The operator of the aircraft

When directed by PIC

181
Q

Cold soaking can cause ______ when light rain or wet snow falls on wing?

(What type of ice)

A

Clear ice - water droplets freeze and you may be unable to actually tell if its ice or just the wing unless a tactile feel is completed

Most dangerous type of ice

182
Q

What is the maximum distance a transport category A/C can operate from shore without ANY life saving equipment on board?

A

50NM

183
Q

RVR gives you lowest expected visibility where?

A

In the touchdown zone

184
Q

Where is runway level of service found?

A

CFS!

185
Q

How is ground power organized when a runway is placed on CATII/III operations?

A

Standby power becomes primary power, so that in the event of the standby failure, the commercial (grid) power will take over without interruption; versus the other way around will result in an interruption

186
Q

Repair intervals of MEL list:

A

CAT A - As specified
CAT B - 3 days
CAT C - 10 days
CAT D - 120 days

187
Q

Aircraft light requirements for flying at night with passengers:

A
  • Illumination for flight instruments
  • Position lights
  • Anti-collision lights
  • Landing lights
    • ONE landing light for 703 & 704 ops
    • TWO landing lights for 705 ops
188
Q

Air Transport aircraft flying between ___ft and ___ft for more than ___, supply of oxygen must be available to ALL crew and __% of passengers, but not less than 1 passenger for _____ at altitude.

A

10,000ft and 13,000ft for more than 30mins must have 10% oxygen available for passengers (Not less than 1 pax) for duration at such altitude.

Remember, first 30mins at altitude is free

EACH CREW MEMBER SHALL HAVE OXYGEN MASK

189
Q

Air Transport aircraft flying over ____ft shall have oxygen supply and masks available for all persons for ____ or ____, whichever is longer at such altitude.

A

13,000ft for entire duration OR 1hr, whichever more.

EACH PERSON SHALL HAVE OXYGEN MASK

190
Q

Quick donning oxygen masks must be:

A

Put on with one hand in 5 seconds or less

191
Q

Oxygen equipment/supply in Air Transport:

A
  • Crew must have O2 briefing
  • Flight crew members must have 2hrs O2 available
  • If no quick donning available, one pilot at controls must have mask at all times at or above FL250
  • If quick donning available and above FL410, one pilot at controls must use O2 mask continuously
192
Q

Useful consciousness per altitude:

A

10,000ft - 1hr
20,000ft - 5-12mins
30,000ft - 45-75 seconds
40,000ft - 15-30 seconds
50,000ft - 15-20 seconds

based on RAPID decompression; dust and debris flies around cabin

193
Q

First Aid O2 for 703 & 704:

A

O2 must be available on pressurized A/C over FL250 to provide at least 1 pax for 1hr OR entire duration over cab. alt. above 8,000ft; after emergency descent following cabin depressurization - whichever longer

703/704 is above FL250

705 is 2% of pax/not less than 1 pax

194
Q

First Aid O2 for 705:

A

O2 must be available on pressurized A/C for 2% of pax, at least 1 pax, for 1hr OR entire duration over cab. alt. above 8,000ft; after emergency descent following cabin depressurization - whichever longer

703/704 is above FL250

705 is 2% of pax/not less than 1 pax

195
Q

FDR is required on:

A
  • Any large, turbine multi-engine under 705 ops
  • Any turbine, multi-engine under 704 ops with seating of 10 or more pax manufactured after Oct. 11, 1991
196
Q

When shall an FDR be on:

A

Takeoff roll to landing roll

197
Q

Can a 704/705 operate without an FDR?

A

Yes, in accordance with an approved MEL, up to 90 days - as long as CVR is operational (tech records show date of failure)

198
Q

CVR is required on:

A
  • Any large, turbine multi-engine under 705 ops
  • Any turbine multi-engine in commercial ops with seating 6 or more and where two pilots are required with type ratings (blanketed essentially)

FDR is only required on 10 or more pax on 704 ops. Reember the difference between the two

This is why PC12 does not have CVR; not a 2-crew A/C

199
Q

When does the CVR need to be on:

A

From start and end of electrical power on

200
Q

Can a 704/705 operate without an CVR?

A

Yes, in accordance with an approved MEL, up to 90 days - as long as FDR is operational (tech records show date of failure)

201
Q

Where are altitude alerting systems required?

A

In turbojet aircraft

202
Q

Can a turbojet aircraft operate without an altitude alerting system?

A

Yes, if:
1. In accordance with an MEL
2. If no MEL, in accordance with:
- PIC takes aircraft to repair facility
- For flight test/PCC/PPC/training
- When it becomes inoperative in flight, where you are flying it to an airport where it can be repaired

203
Q

Aircraft may operate without an ELT where:

A
  • Operated by a flight test unit within 25NM
  • Test flight
  • Ferry flight to get an ELT installed
204
Q

Newer 406 ELTs provide:

A
  • Accuracy within 5km
  • Do not ring continuously
  • Do not need to be near an ATC facility
205
Q

Where is a standby attitude indicator required:

A

Any large turbojet in commercial air service (After July 1, 1997 it is required in any transport category A/C)

206
Q

Standby attitude requirements:

A
  • Powered by separate independent source
  • Operate minimum for 30mins following failure
  • Operate independently from primary attitude systems
  • Must be in view from either pilot
207
Q

Where are GPWS systems required:

A

704 & 705 ops with 15,000kg MCTOW or more and more than 10 pax

Only TAWS required for 703 with 6 or more pax

208
Q

When is TAWS required:

A

In any turbine-powered aircraft with room for 6 or more pax

209
Q

What does GPWS use to provide warnings?

A

RAD ALT

IF RAD ALT IS U/S, SO WILL GPWS!

210
Q

Standard for transport of passengers in a single-engine airplane in IFR or night VFR:

A
  • Only factory-built aircraft
  • Turbine engine must have a proven “Mean Time Between Failure” (MTBF) of 0.01/1000 or less over 100,000 hours in service
  • Pilots are trained properly
211
Q

What equipment is required in a single-engine aircraft carrying passengers in IFR/night VFR:

A
  • Chip detector
  • manual throttle (MOR lever)
  • ONE landing light
212
Q

705 aircraft is:

A
  • Multi-engine aircraft with MCTOW of 8,618kg (19,000lbs) or more, with 20 or more seats for passengers
  • Any aircraft authorized by minister

FA required on flights with more than 19 passengers

213
Q

704 aircraft:

A

Multi-engine: MCTOW 19,000lbs or less, 10-19 passengers inclusive

Turbojet: MZFW 50,000lbs or less, 19 and under passengers inclusive

214
Q

703 aircraft:

A

Single engine: All weights, no seat restrictions (do whatever you want)

Multi-engine (non-turbojet): MCTOW 19,000lbs or less, 9 or less seats

215
Q

What is the max flight duty time can be extended by in any 24hr period:

A

14hrs

216
Q

Flight crew member on reserve:

A

Report for flight duty on notice of 1hr or more

217
Q

Flight crew member on standby:

A

Report for flight duty on notice of 1hr or less

218
Q

Flight crew member max WORK hours:

A

2,200hrs in 365 days
192hrs in 28 days
60 or 70hrs in any 7 days

219
Q

Can a duty day be reduced by the PIC?

A

A PIC MAY REDUCE THE DUTY PERIOD BASED ON THE SAFETY OF FLIGHT, AND AFTER CONSULTING WITH ALL CREW MEMBERS REGARDING FATIGUE

220
Q

What is maximum reserve for a FCM:

A

14 consecutive hours, with 10 hours rest in between periods

Maximum reserve is between 14 and 18 based on start time

221
Q

What is “flight watch”?

A

Maintaining current info on progress of a flight and monitoring all factors and conditions that might affect the OFP

222
Q

704 VFR fuel requirements

A

VFR day: +30mins
VFR night: +45mins

223
Q

705 VFR fuel requirements:

A

VFR day: +45mins
VFR night: +45mins

224
Q

704 IFR fuel requirements:

A
  1. fly to destination
  2. fly an approach and missed approach
  3. fly and land at alternate
  4. fly for 45mins in propeller or;
    fly for 30mins in turbojet
  5. fuel for foreseeable delays
225
Q

704 ops airborne storm detection requirements:

A

While carrying passengers in IMC and weather reports and forecasts thunderstorms:
- Thunderstorm detection equipment or weather radar
- Storm scope or weather radar

226
Q

705 ops airborne storm detection requirements:

A

While carrying passengers in IMC and weather reports and forecasts thunderstorms:
- Weather radar (required for airline ops)

227
Q

How often must you complete TDG training at a 705?

A

Every 24 months

228
Q

How often must you be trained in CRM at a 705?

A

Every 24 months

229
Q

How often must you complete high altitude training at a 705?

A

Every 3 years above 13,000

230
Q

When is a COM required explicitly?

A

When performing an assignment

231
Q

ETOPS requirements (extended twin):

A
  • Adequate aerodrome within 60 minutes at one-engine-inop. cruise speed unless flight conducted wholly in CDA
232
Q

What frequency is sued for air to air comms in North Atlantic (NAT) or Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace:

A

123.45 easy to remember

233
Q

Where are fire extinguishers required?

A

Hand-held extinguisher in flight deck, passenger compartment and cargo compartment
- At least 1 in the flight deck, each galley and each class E cargo compartment
60 or fewer passengers, two extinguishers required

234
Q

You receive a clearance to climb. You commence this clearance with:

A

BEST RATE OF CLIMB

235
Q

3 components of threat & error management:

A
  • threats
  • errors
  • undesired (aircraft) states

T.E.U.

236
Q

What weather reporting event amends the relevant GFA and significant prognostic weather charts?

A

SIGMETs

237
Q

How long can SIGMET be valid?

A

ONLY 4 hours, can be issued up to 4hrs before validity time of report.

238
Q

When may a SIGMET be issued 4hrs before its validity time?

A

For volcanic ash (WV) or a tropical storm (WC). Valid for 6hrs and may be issued up to 12hrs before validity time

239
Q

FEW oktas covered:

A

> 0 to 2

240
Q

SCT octas covered:

A

3 to 4

241
Q

BKN oktas covered:

A

5 to 8

242
Q

OVC oktas covered:

A

8

243
Q

What does “CLR” mean on a METAR?

A

No cloud below 10,000ft!

NOT TO BE CONFUSED WITH SKC; NO CLOUD PRESENT

244
Q

Recency requirements or T/O and landings are:

A

3 takeoffs and landings ON TYPE within preceding 90 days

245
Q

What is a general rule of thumb regarding how many degrees are there per timezone?

A

15 degrees of LONGITUDE per time zone

246
Q

705 dispatch limitations LDA for a turbo-jet aircraft at destination/alternate:

A

Weight of aircraft will allow for a full-stop landing in:

60% of runway LDA for destination

60% of runway LDA for alternate

247
Q

705 dispatch limitations LDA for propeller-driven aircraft at destination/alternate:

A

Weight of aircraft will allow for a full-stop landing in:

70% of runway LDA for destination

70% of runway LDA for alternate

(propellers are more lenient, meaning you can use more runway to land, vs a turbojet has a lot at stake)

248
Q

705 dispatch limitations LDA for turbojet aircraft at destination in WET weather:

A

LDA is at least 115% of the distance required
can be shorter, no shorter than the 60% in 705.60, IF the aircraft flight manual includes specific information about landing distances on wet runways

249
Q

Number of first aid kits onboard regarding passengers (705):

A

0 to 50, 1 kit
51 to 150, 2 kits
151 to 250, 3 kits
251 or more, 4 kits

if there are more than 100 passengers, emergency medical kit must also be carried

250
Q

If a NOTAM is published as “PERM”, doe sit need a replacing NOTAM?

A

Yes, must be either NOTAMR (replacing) or NOTAMC (cancelling)

251
Q

Net takeoff flight path:

A
  1. Clear obstacles by 35ft
  2. By 200ft within boundaries horizontally
  3. By 300ft outside boundaries horizontally
  4. Wind component! (50% HW, 150% TW)

Calculations based on:
- no bank below 50ft
- 15 degrees max bank at or below 400ft
- no more than 25 degrees thereafter
more than 15 degrees allowed if AOC states

252
Q

Enroute limitations regarding 1 engine inoperative (a net flight path):

A
  1. Positive slope at 1,000ft above all terrain AND obstructions within 5NM
  2. When in cruise, clears all by at least 2,000ft within 5NM
  • fuel jettison taken into account
  • wind and temperature
253
Q

Smokers are more susceptible to hypoxia because:

A

Carbon monoxide prevents O2 from getting into blood

254
Q

TODA is _____ plus ____

A

TORA + clear way

255
Q

What is RNPC airspace?

A

Required Navigation Performance Capability

CONTROLLED AIRSPACE to accommodate RNAV operations within southern control area and northern control area NOT ARCTIC CONTORL AREA

RNAV certification is based on:
1. Crew training
2. NAV performance +/- 4NM
3. One long range and one short range NAV

256
Q

With what endorsements may an ATPL pilot fly any aircraft:

A
  1. Instrument rating
  2. Endorsement on type of aircrafts
257
Q

Mode awareness keyword:

A

ARMED

258
Q

Low aircraft energy includes:

A

Landing or go-around INCLUDING CONTACT GROUND

259
Q

SVFR is a pilot relived of traffic avoidance:

A

NO! pilot still needs to avoid traffic

260
Q

If a PROB indicates better weather, can you use that minima?

A

Yes!

261
Q

Flights operating on predominately north or south tracks shall report over each ____ of _______.

A

EACH 5 DEGREES OF LATITUDE (LEFT TO RIGHT)

262
Q

NAT MNPS altitude:

A

FL285 to FL420

263
Q

What does NAT airspace mainly require?

A

2 operational LRNSs; long range navigation systems

MUST REMAIN WITHIN 4NM OF THE TRACK 95% OF THE TIME

264
Q

What is the lateral spacing of NAT tracks?

A

30NM or 60NM

265
Q

RVSM tolerance regarding altimeters:

A

On ground:
- +/- 20ft sea level ICAO atmosphere or if not at sea level;
- +/- 50ft of known elevation, and
- +/- 75ft between 2 altimeters
In air:
- +/- 200ft between 2 altimeters

ATPL (6 decks)

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