SBT Flashcards

1
Q

What is the archetypal NSAID? (1)

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are three characteristics of NSAIDs? (3)

A

Analgesic
Anti-pyretic
Anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are NSAIDs used to treat? (4)

A

Low grade pain (chronic inflamm. e.g. arthritis)
Bone pain (cancer metastases)
Fever (associated with infections)
Inflammation (to decrease symptoms e.g. oedema, redness, itch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of the main therapeutic action of NSAIDS? (1)

A

Inhibition of COX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the COX enzyme do? (2)

A

Converts arachidonic acid to prostaglandins + thromboxanes

Inhibition of COX -2 therefore reduces PG/TX inflammatory agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is COX-1 present? (2)

A

In platelets

Constitutively active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can COX-2 be induced by? (2)

A

IL-1β + TNFα etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do NSAIDs act reversibly or irreversibly on COX? (3)

A

Aspirin acts irreversibly
Others act reversibly
Significant in prophylactic use in CV disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is paracetamol a special case? (6)

A

Not an NSAID
Analgesic with anti-inflamm. effects
Little inhibiton of COX-1/-2 in peripheral tissues
Weakly inhibits COX-3 in CNS
May modulate serotonergic transmission
May inhibit COX-mediated generation of hydroxypeptdies (which stimulate COX activity) from AA metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are examples of other NSAIDs? (5)

A
Etodolac
Meloxicam
Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Indomethacin etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do IL-1 and PGE2 cause fever? (5)

A

Bacterial endotoxins produced during infections stimulate macrophages to release IL-1
IL-1β acts on hypothalamus to cause PGE2 release (via COX-2)
Increased PGE2 depresses temp-sensitive neurones
PGE2 elevates set point temp
Onset of fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do NSAIDs have an antipyretic action? (4)

A

NSAIDs block PGE2 production
Set point is lowered to normal level
Fever dissipates
NSAIDs have no effect on normal body temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why are NSAIDs required for analgesia? (4)

A

PGs sensitise + stimulate nociceptors
Oedema produced by inflamm. also directly activates nociceptive nerve fibres
PGs interact synergistically with other pain producing substances (kinin, 5-HT, histamines)
To produce hyperalgesia (increased sensitivity to pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do NSAIDs have an analgesic action? (5)

A

Block PG production (which breaks cycle -> pain relief
Useful for pain associated with production of inflamm agents (PGs/TXs)
Such as arthritis, toothache, headache)
NSAIDs block PG-mediated vasodilation
COX-1, COX-3, COX-3 inhibition in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do PGE2 + PGI2 have powerful acute inflammatory effects? (3)

A
Arteriolar dilation (increased blood flow)
Increase permeability in post-capillary venules
Both processes increase influx of inflamm. mediators into interstitial space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do NSAIDs have an anti-inflammatory action? ()

A

Inhibition of PGE2/PGI2 reduces redness + swelling
Only provide symptomatic relief
They do not cure underlying cause of inflammation (e.g. in arthritis help but do not cure)
Decreased COX-2-generated PGs (effects develop gradually)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What role does thromboxane A2 have in vascular haemostasis? (2)

A

Platelet aggregation

Vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What effect to NSAIDs have on TXA2 levels? (2)

A

Decrease levels
So increase bleeding time
Could be problematic in childbirth/surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an example of aspirin being used prophylactically? (1)

A

In disease where platelet aggregation is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can PGs contribute to arthritis? (5)

A

PGs with acute inflamm. effects contribute to swelling + pain
Arteriolar dilation
Increased microvascular permeability
Hyperalgesia
Thus NSAIDs diminish effects but do not treat cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do PGs protect gastric mucosa? (2)

A

PGE2/I2 stimulate mucus secretion
+ inhibit gastric acid secretion
+ promote blood flow
Cytoprotective mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the most common adverse reactions to older NSAIDs? (3)

A

Gastric SEs
NSAIDs decrease cytoprotective mechanisms of PGs
Bleeding + ulceration can result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why might COX-2 selective inhibitors be ‘gastric-friendly’? (1)

A

Suggested that COX-1 is expressed in gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What other effects can NSAIDs have in GI tract? (8)

A
NSAIDs = acidic
Decreased mucus production
Decreased HCO3-
Increased acid production
Increased leukotriene production
Increased blood loss
Interfere with tissue healing (COX-2 inhibition)
Nausea, dyspepsia (indigestion) + GI contraction (COX-1 inhibition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What examples are there of selective COX-2 inhibitors? (4)
Celecoxib Valdecoxib Etoricoxib (most selective COX-2 inhibitor - no effect on TXA2 in platelets but decreases PGI2 in BVs) Rofecoxib (withdrawn due to CV effects)
26
What is diclofenac? (5)
NSAID selective for COX-2 but inhibits COX-1 in gut Ulcers Take with food Less effective analgesic Less inhibition of COX-3 in brain + spinal cord Anti-gout drug
27
What can happen in an NSAID overdose? (2)
Produce paradoxical hyperexia, stupor + coma Increased metabolism + metabolic acid production Reye's syndrome risk
28
What is Reye's syndrome? (2)
Brain (cerebral oedema) + liver damage Can be fatal When aspirin is used in children with influenza/chicken pox Aspirin is therefore contraindicated in children
29
How would you treat aspirin overdose? (2)
By alkalinising the urine to help excrete aspirin | + avert Reye's syndrome
30
How can NSAIDs be used to treat pain during menstruation? (3)
PGs cause pain + smooth muscle spasm Mefenamic acid reduces blood loss NSAIDs may be useful in primary dysmenorrhoea
31
What effects can NSAIDs have on childbirth? (3)
``` Delay contractions (as PGs are important in uterine contractions) Many increase post-partum blood loss as TXA-2 inhibited NSAIDs delay + retard labour ```
32
Why do NSAIDs reduce renal blood flow? (1)
Because vasodilatory PGs regulate renal blood flow | Chronic renal injury may result
33
What affect can concurrent treatment with NSAIDs have on the some anti-hypertensive drugs? (3)
Reduced effectiveness Average BP rise = 2/3mmHg but varies Low dose aspirin doesn't seem to interfere with antihypertensive therapy but regular use should be avoided
34
What effects can inhibition of COX-2 have in kidney? (2)
Lowered sodium excretion + increased intravascular vol.
35
What effects to PGs have on airway smooth muscle? (2)
Both constrictor + dilator effects | NSAIDs have no effect on airway tone
36
Why must NSAIDs be used with caution/avoided in asthma? (2)
20% asthma patients wheeze with aspirin/other NSAIDS | Due to hypersensitivity to drugs
37
What happens to respiratory pharmacology at toxic doses of aspirin? (3)
Initially stimulates resp Action of resp centre uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation -> medulla stimulated Resp alkalosis caused by hyperventilation (CO2 washout from lungs)
38
Patent ductus arteriosus + NSAIDs? (6)
``` Help to close PDA in neonate if patency is inappropriately mantained by PGE2/PGI2 production Ibuprofen, indomethacin Treatment is individualised Fast breathing/shortness of breath Sweating while feeding Tiring very easily Surgical closure ```
39
Why can NSAIDs not be given in 3rd trimester? (1)
To avoid premature closure of ducts (avoid PDA)
40
What are other indications of NSAIDs? (5)
``` Decrease colonic polyps Prevent colon cancer May decrease Alzheimer's risk Post-operative pain Renal colic = upper abdominal/groin pain (usually caused by kidney stones) ```
41
What is ulcerative colitis? (1)
Inflammation of bowel
42
What are the aims of treating ulcerative colitis? (3)
Reduce symptoms Induce remission Maintain remission
43
What are the 1st line treatment options of ulcerative colitis? (4)
Aminosalicylates (sulfasalazine + mesalazine) Decrease inflamm for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis ST treatment of flare ups LT maintenance of remission
44
What is the MOA for sulfasalazine? (3)
Metabolised to 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) + sulfapyridine Reydces synthesis of eicosanoids by blocking activity of cyclooxygenase + lipoxygenase (May be high in UC)
45
What are SEs of sulfasalazine? (4)
Indigestion, feeling/being sick, abdominal pain, diarrhoea Dizziness, headache, difficulty sleeping, tinnitus Coughing, itchy rash May effect taste, cause sore mouth
46
What is gout? (5)
Type of athrtitis Where uric acid crystals accumulate in joints Irritate joint tissues Causing painful inflamm High levels of uric acid in blood = hyperuricemia
47
What do (harmless) low levels of uric acid? (2)
Prevent damage to BV linings | Passed out with urine + faeces
48
What anti-gout drugs are there? (3)
Naproxen Diclofenac Indomethacin
49
What is the MOA of naproxen? (3)
Inhibits COX-1/-2 levels which lowers PG levels Exhibits analgesic, anti-pyretic + anti-inflammatory activity Inhibits platelet agg (inhibits platelet TXA2)
50
What are the SEs of naproxen? (2)
Dizziness, nausea, indigestion, blurred vision, diarrhoea, abnormal liver function test, water retention, ringing in ears, hives Relatively risk neutral for CV events
51
Why does aspirin cause bleeding + ulceration of GI tract if taken on empty stomach? (3)
NSAIDS decrease gastroprotective mechanisms of gut e.g. mucus secretion stim, gastric acid secretion inhibition + promotion of blood flow
52
Name 3 important chemical mediators of inflammation that are collectively referred to as eicosanoids (3)
Prostaglandins Leukotrienes Thromboxanes
53
How does aspirin mediate its antipyretic effects? (5)
During infections, bacterial endotoxins stimulate macrophages to produce IL-1 IL-1β acts on hypothalamus + PGE2 is released via COX-2 (which is now irreversibly acetylated by aspirin) Decrease in PGE2 cause set point to lower (from its heightened state during fever) Fever dissipates
54
List 4 uses of NSAIDs (4)
Anti-inflammatory drug (reduce inflammation associated with RA) Decrease risk of ischaemic heart diseases/thrombus Antipyretic drug (reduce fevers) Analgesic (e.g. headache/toothache)
55
What are corticosteroids subdivided into and where are they both synthesised/released from? (3)
Glucocorticoids e.g. cortisol Mineralocorticoids e.g. aldosterone From adrenal cortex
56
What are the main functions of glucocorticoids? (2)
Carb + protein metabolism | Potent anti-inflammatory/immunosuppressant
57
What is the main function of mineralocorticoids? (1)
Controls H2O + electrolyte levels in the kidney
58
How is cortisol release controlled? (3)
Stress causes the release of corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) by the PVN of the hypothalamus CRH stimulates ant. pit. to secrete ACTH Adrenocorticotropin hormone increase glucocorticoid secretion
59
What are the functions of cortisol? (6)
``` Promotes normal metabolism Favours immediate use of glucose Maintains blood sugar levels + BP Provides resistance to stress Acts as anti-inflamm. agent Role in regulation of fluid balance in body ```
60
How is the release of aldosterone controlled? (7)
Via RAAS system (+ ACTH) Juxtaglomerular apparatus senses low BP/blood flow In response, glomerulus releases renin hormone into blood stream Renin converts inactive angiotensinogen to angiotensin I in liver ACE converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II in lungs Angiotensin II: - constricts BVs to increase BP - stimulates adrenal glands to release aldosterone (stimulates resorption of Na+ and thus water, increasing blood vol.)
61
What are the metabolic actions of glucocorticoids? (3)
Breakdown of proteins + fats (muscle wasting etc.) Decreased glucose usage + increased gluconeogenesis Tendency to hyperglycaemia + increased glycogen storage
62
What role do glucocorticoids have in hormonal regulation? (1)
-ve feedback on both hypothalamus + ant. pit.
63
What effect do glucocorticoids have on cardiovascular system? (2)
Decrease in microvascular permeability + vasodilation (hallmarks of inflamm)
64
What effect do glucocorticoids have on the CNS? (2)
Mood changes | Linked with changes in memory/stress
65
What are the anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids? (3)
Decreased microvascular fluid exudation (reduces influx of cells to inflamm area) Decreased inflamm mediators + cytokines (decreased expression of COX-2, reduced eicosanoids + decreased levels of cytokines/complement)
66
Where are glucocorticoid receptors found? (1)
Intra-cellularly in almost all tissues UnboundR is usually sequestered in cytoplasm of target cell bound to heat-shock protein (HSP) complex which stabilise tehm
67
How do glucocorticoids interact with their receptors? (4)
Enter cells through passive diffusion + form complex with receptor protein Complex undergoes irreversible activation + enters cell nucleus where it binds to DNA Leads to biological effects of glucocorticoids e.g. increased hepatic gluconeogenesis, increased lipolysis etc. HSPs are uncoupled + then recycled
68
How do glucocorticoids switch gene expression on + off? (4)
Interaction of steroid/receptor with promoter region - occupancy of GREs (glucocorticoid response elements) turn off/on certain genes Steroid/receptor complexes prevent gene activation by other TFs involved in switching on COX-2/cytokines (e.g.NFkappaB) Induction of inhibitor kappaBalpha which leads to: - increased expression of anti-inflamm proteins (increased lipocortin which decreases AA + eicosanoids) - decreased expression of pro-inflamm proteins (cytokines)
69
What are glucocorticoids used for therapeutically? (3)
Adrenal insufficiency/failure (e.g. Addisons) = drug-induced or congenital - combo treatment of GCs + MCs Inflammation (e.g. asthma, rhinitis, skin disorder, sports injuries, cerebral oedema in patients with brain tumours) Immunosuppression (inhibit graft vs host reaction in tissue transplantation)
70
Examples of therapeutic glucocorticoids (5)
``` Hydrocortisone Prednisolone Dexamethasone Betamethasone Beclomethasone ```
71
Comparing effects of NSAIDs + glucocorticoids on eicosanoid biosynthesis (3)
Glucorticoids reduce expression of COX-2 + NSAIDs decrease activity of COX-2 Glucocorticoids also prevent PLA2 expression meaning membrane lipids cannot be hydrolysed to arachidonate
72
What is the endogenous mineralocorticoid? (1)
Aldosterone
73
How does aldosterone increase Na+ retention? (5)
In distal tubules of kidney Stimulates Na/H exchanger via aldosterone receptors Enters cells + upregulates Na+ permeable ENaCs in cell membrane Enters cells + stimulates upregulation of basolateral Na/K ATPase pump Water retention, loss of K+ and H+ as result
74
What are therapeutic uses of mineralocorticoids? ()
Adrenal insufficiency e.g. Addison's disease Electrolye disorder e.g. cerebral salt-wasting Orthostatic hypotension (postural hypotension) -> failure of baroreceptor reflex
75
Example of a mineralocorticoid (1)
Fludocortisone
76
What are the SEs of corticosteroids?
Cushing's-like syndrome Euphoria (but also depressive/psychotic symptoms) Buffalo hump Poor wound healing Opportunistic infection Osteoporosis Gastric ulceration (generation of gastro-protective PGs inhibited) Behavioural/reproductive problems Prolonged HPA suppression after cessation of therapy
77
Summarise corticosteroid drug use (2)
Useful drugs with wide-ranging action | + thus expected penalty of wide-ranging SEs
78
What are antibiotics? (1)
Antimicrobials that target bacteria
79
How are antibiotics used? (5)
``` 20-50% questionable use 30% of hosp drug budget In ICU, 50% patients are on antibiotics 50mill prescriptions per year 80% of human use is in community (50% resp infections, 15% UTIs) ```
80
Where are antibiotics derived from? (5)
Natural products of fungi + bacteria - natural antagonism gives them selective advantage - kill/inhibit growth of other organisms Most derived from natural products by fermentation the modified chemically to enhance pharm properties + antimicrobial effect Some are totally synthetic (e.g. newer sulphonamides)
81
Examples of pre-science anti-infectives (4)
``` Used poultices (moulds, moss etc) to treat sepsis from wound infections - active ingredients of intro of microbial antagonism Hysopp plant (often colonised by Penicillium notatum) = herbal remedy Cinchona bark (contains quinine) as malaria treatment Mercury used to treat syphilis, often toxic to patient ```
82
What is meant by selective toxicity of antibiotics? (4)
Due to diffs in structure + metabolic pathways b/w host + pathogen Harm microorganisms, not host Target specific to microbe if poss Difficult to find targets with anti-virals as viruses live inside host cells + anti-protosoals (eukaryotic)
83
What is meant by therapeutic margin of antibiotics? (5)
Want to give MIC (min. inhibition conc.) - defines active dose Want to achieve MIC long enough for microorganism to respond + die Active dose vs toxic effect If toxic dose is low + active dose is high = narrow therapeutic margin - e.g. aminoglycosides, vancomycine (ototoxic/nephrotoxic) All drugs have some adverse effects
84
Why is it important to understand the MOA of an antibiotic + the organism you are targeting? (2)
To decide its clinical utility | Can't understand antibiotic unless you understand target organism + why/why not it's susceptible to antibiotic
85
Why is maintenance of normal flora important? (2)
Creates environments where pathogens don't tend to grow as they are being suppressed by commensal organisms
86
What effect can microorganisms have on normal flora? ()
Damages normal flora | Can get overgrowth of organisms that are normally maintained at low levels
87
What is antibiotic associated colitis/pseudomembranous colitis? (4)
Antibiotics (e.g. clindamycin, broad-spectrum lactams, fluoroquinolones) can disturb normal gut flora Leads to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile (also candida/which expresses virulence determinants Highly inflamed gut, large mucus production, can't absorb water, diarrhoea, pseudomembranes Serious hospital cross-infection risks (carriage rate up to 70%)
88
In what % of population is C.difficile part of normal flora? (1)
3%
89
How does immunosuppression affect choice of antibiotic? (2)
In healthy immune response, antibiotics act in combo with out own defence mechanisms to achieve bacterial clearance + cure If immunocompromised it is difficult to treat same infection so need to use diff drugs/admin route/combos
90
How are antibiotics classified? (3)
Type of activity Structure Target site for activity
91
What do bacteriCIDAL drugs do? (3)
Kill bacteria Used when host defence mechanisms are impaired or in life threatening illnesses (e.g. meningitis) Required in endocarditis, kidney infection Can be -static for one + -cidal for another, dose also makes a difference
92
What do bacterioSTATIC drugs do? (3)
``` Inhibit bacteria (prevent from growing + immune system clears bacteria e.g. tetracylins) Used when host defence system mechanisms are intact Used in many infectious diseases ```
93
How are drugs classified by spectrum of activity? (2)
``` Broad spectrum antibiotics - effective against many types e.g. cefotaxime Narrow spectrum antibiotics - effective against v few types e.g. penicillin G ```
94
1st-3rd generation cephalosporins + refinement of antibiotic activity? ()
E.coli, Strep.pneumoniae, Staph.aureus 1st gen = v effective at killing gram+ (S.a + S.p) but not effective at killing E.coli 2nd gen = better distribution of bactericidal activity 3rd gen = v effective at killing E.coli + S.p but not S.a
95
In which drugs is the beta-lactam ring present + why is it important? (3)
Cephalosporins + penicillins Confers antimicrobial properties to antibiotics containing this structure (Rest of structure confers the pharm properties of the antibiotic)
96
What are common bacterial targets of antibiotics? (4)
Cell wall synthesis Protein synthesis (50s + 30s) Folic acid metabolism Cell membrane
97
Which antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis? (3)
Penicillins, cephalosporins Vancomycin (but usually reserved for treating MRSA) Human cells do not have cell wall, so specific to bacteria
98
Which antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis? (4)
``` 50s inhibitors (erythromycin) 30s inhibitors (tetracyline, gentamicin) ```
99
How can synthesis of DNA be targeted by antibiotics? (2)
Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase (which unwinds + then rewinds bacterial DNA during replication) Selective target as human equivalent enzyme is different
100
What is rifampcin used for? (3)
To treat TB Reduce carriage rates in pop. after exposure to e.g. meningitis outbreak Blocks RNA polymerase enzyme + therefore ability of bacteria to produce mRNA
101
How do polymyxins work? (2)
Target bacteria cell membrane | Very toxic as very little diff b/w human + bacterial membranes
102
How can folic acid synthesis be targeted by antibiotics? (3)
E.g. trimethoprim, sulfonamides (often used in combo) Inhibit bacterial enzymes used in folic acid metabolism (enzymes absent/in low levels in humans) Bacteriastatic
103
Gram +ve bacteria (4)
Inner membrane Large peptidoglycan structure synthesised by enzymes that are released across membrane + sit on membrane surface Beta lactams inhibit synthesis of cell wall Cell wall very porous so antibiotics can v quickly + easily get to site where they can inhibit enzymes
104
Gram -ve bacteria (3)
Have smaller peptidoglycan layer but have outer membrane in addition Outer membrane is impermeable (except through porins = selective transporters) Porins define specificity of what can enter bacterium
105
Are gram +ve or gram -ve bacteria easier to treat? (2)
Gram -ve - don't respond to a lot of antibiotics | Antibiotic has to pass through porin, through peptidoglycan + into peri-plasmic space before it can have its effect
106
Why might an antibiotic inhibit cell wall synthesis well in one organism but not in another? (1)
Because the peptidoglycan enzymes are different in different organisms
107
How is peptidoglycan synthesised? (4)
Precursor dimers in bacterial cytoplasm Incorpotate terminal D-alanines Lipid transporters flip precursors across membrane into peri-plasmic space onto outer membrane of gram +ve Polymerised into longer side chain by cross linking
108
How do different antibiotics inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis? ()
Cycloserine = inhibits reactions involved in incorporation of alanine into cell wall precursor Bacitracin targets lipid carrier Vancomycin binds + recognises terminal D-ala-D-ala region, preventing chain polymerisation by cross-linking
109
How does cycloserine work to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis? (1)
Inhibits reactions involved in incorporation of alanine into cell wall precursor
110
How does bacitracin work to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis? (1)
Targets lipid carrier
111
How does vancomycin work to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis? (3)
Binds + recognises terminal D-ala-D-ala region, preventing chain polymerisation by cross-linking Also blocks enzymes that polymerise the peptidoglycan V potent inhibitor
112
How does penicillin/cephalosporins work to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis? (3)
``` Inhibit PBPs (penicillin-binding proteins) = competitive inhibitors PBPs = transpeptidases + carboxypeptidases cross link structures by cleaving of final D-ala Pen/ceph stop recognition + cleaving of final D-ala so no cross linking ```
113
What is an example of an antibiotic's structure mimicking natural substrates for bacterial enzymes? (1)
Similarity of molecular backbone in D-ala-D-ala + penicillin
114
What action do beta-lactams have on PBP in gram -ve bacteria? (5)
Penicillin with beta lactam has to enter through porin + bind to PBP to inhibit it Then precursors build up This induces autolysis Peptidoglycan structure is disrupted + bacteria die Pen + ceph are bacteriacidal
115
Why can't we treat some organisms with penicillin/cephalosporins? (2)
Some organisms do not have peptidoglycan so have to choose a different target For example - DNA synthesis (e.g. erythromycin)
116
How else might we treat bacterial infections? (4)
Surgery e.g. drainage of absces to remove necrotic tissue/pus Have to re-establish vascularity so we can get MIC to site which requires their action Immunologically (rare) E.g. in tetanus the bacteria releases tetanus toxin which can be neutralised with an anti-toxin
117
How might we use antibiotics as prophylaxis? (3)
Decrease carriage rates + prevent infection (e.g. of TB/meningitis) Peri-operative cover prior to gut surgery People with increased susceptibility to infection (e.g. CF are given LT antibiotics)
118
What routes of admin are there for antibiotics? (3)
Community infections often treated orally Serious infections - often unable to take oral (vomiting, unconscious, poor gut absorption due to trauma) so IV (rapid delivery, high blood conc) Topical (conjuctivitis, superficial skin infections, burns) - antiseptic creams, heavy metal ointments
119
When do we give antibiotics in combo? (4)
Before an organism is identified in life-threatening infections (e.g. septicaemia, endocarditis) In polymicrobial infections Sometimes have synergistic effect (e.g. penicillin + gentamicin) To give less toxic dose of an individual drug e.g. penicillin + gentamicin (narrow therapeutic window) To reduce antibiotic resistance (e.g. TB 4-drug treatment)
120
What is empirical therapy (antibiotics)? (3)
'Best guess' Antimicrobials are commonly started before lab results are available E.g. acute bacterial meningitis, paramedic IM penicillin for suspected meningitis, STIs (chlamydia + gonorrhoea)
121
Which antibiotic + why? (10)
``` Spectrum of activity (cidal/static) Toxicity Excretion Patient age (renal capacity) Route of admin (oral, IM, IV, topical) Clinical condition Type of bacteria Sensitivity of bacteria (consider synergy, resistance mechanisms) Cost Distribution in body ```
122
Distribution of antibiotic in body relative to distribution of bacteria ()
Some not absorbed from gut (vancamycin can be used to treat gut infections but usually reserved for MRSA_ Many do not cross BBB Some do not penetrate abseces Few accumulate inside cells e.g. TB
123
What treatment would you choose for stage 1 therapy? (3)
0-2 days Unstable, don't know where/what pathogen is Treat empirically with cidal + broad spectrum antibiotic e.g. 3rd gen cephalosporin
124
What treatment would you choose for stage 2 therapy? (4)
2-7 days Stabilised + better idea of what organism is Can rationalise therapy away from empirical treatment towards more narrow spectrum antibiotic (monotherapy) IV if you have to (risk of hospital acquired infections), oral if you can
125
What treatment would you choose for stage 3 therapy? (3)
7-10 days Stable Oral therapy is common
126
Reasons for failure of antibiotic therapy - drug (4)
Inappropriate drug/route of admin Poor tissue penetration Inadequate MIC Increased excretion
127
Reasons for failure of antibiotic therapy - host (5)
``` Immunocompromised host Undrained pus Poor circulation/damaged tissue Unusual site for pathogen Retained infected body e.g. catheter ```
128
Reasons for failure of antibiotic therapy - bacteria (4)
Natural or acquired resistance Dormant (non-growing bacteria) Dual infections Biofilms e.g. endocarditis
129
Reasons for failure of antibiotic therapy - lab (1)
Errors of equivocal tests
130
What is inflammation the body's defence mechanism to? (2)
Invasion - pathogens + allergens | Injury - heat, UV, chemicals
131
What are the cardinal signs of inflammation? (5)
Calor - increased blood flow Rubor - increased blood flow Dolor - sensitisation/activation of sensory nerves Tumour - increased post-capillary venule permeability Function lasea - pain/injury
132
Which immune system produces inflammation? (1)
Both innate + adaptive immune systems
133
What can occur as a result of chronic + acute inflammation? (2)
Chronic - severe tissue damage e.g. athersclerosis | Acute - e.g. anaphylaxia, sepsis
134
Brief description of inflammation (5)
Beginning of injury of process to injury resolution can last hours/up to 5 days usually Recognition of agent causing injury leads to mediator release which usually lasts for whole length of inflamm. reaction Some inflammatory mediators will compromise permeability of endothelial cells which fall apart + exudate (leak out of components in capillary bed) Chemoattractants cause cell accumulation e.g. macrophages, neutrophils Redness + fever = systemic effects Repair/healing
135
What are local hormones? (5)
Chemical mediators that orchestrate complex response + many signs of inflammation Produced in response to wide range of stimuli Synthesised/released only when required Local release for local action Inactivated locally to minimise systemic effects
136
Where is histamine synthesised, stored + released from? (4)
Mast cells (express receptors for IgE, C3a + C5a on cell surface) Basophils Neurones in brain Histaminergic cells in gut
137
Describe the secretory granules histamine is found in (2)
Pre-made, composed of heparin + acidic proteins | Allow histamine to be maintained in ionic form
138
In what circumstances might histamine be released? (5)
``` Allergic reactions (IgE-mediated) Production of complement agents C3a + C3b Insect stings Trauma Through a rise in intracellular calcium ```
139
Stimulation of which receptors, inhibits histamine release (1)
β-adrenoceptors
140
How is histamine synthesised? (2)
From histidine amino acid | By histidine decarboxylase
141
How is histamine metabolised? (2)
By imidazole-N-methyltransferase (INMT) + diamine oxidase
142
What type of receptors are H1-H4? (2)
GPCR which produce physiological effects by activating secondary messenger systems
143
Describe the H1 receptor (6)
Gq Activates PLC which hydrolyses PIP2 to DAG + IP3 Systemic vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, CNS
144
Describe the H2 receptor (5)
Gs Activates AC, generation of cAMP, stimulation of PKA Parietal cells to increase gastric secretion, heart
145
Describe H3 + H4 (3)
Gi, decrease in cAMP H3 - neuronal presynaptic terminals H4 - basophils, bone marrow, gut
146
What occurs as a result of stimulation of H1 + H2? (1)
Many actions of histamine-mediated inflammation
147
What are the cardiovascular effects of stimulation of histamine receptors? (4)
Dilates arterioles, decreased TPR (H1) Increased permeability of post-cap venules, decrease in BV (H1) Increase in HR (H2) - in vivo reflex to retain normal BP Generally involved in lowering BP (lowering vasc. resistance)
148
What are the non-vascular smooth muscle effects of stimulation of histamine receptors? (4)
Contraction (H1) e.g. bronchoconstriction
149
What are the algesia effects of stimulation of the histamine receptors? (3)
Pain, itching, sneezing caused by stimulation sensory nerves (H1)
150
What are the GI effects of stimulation of the histamine receptors? (3)
Increased secretion (H2)
151
Why are associated exocrine secretions increased upon stimulation of H1 + H2 receptors? (1)
Due to the increased blood flow
152
What are the most important clinical roles of histamine + which receptors mediate these effects? (2)
``` Acute inflammation (H1 effects) Stimulating gastric acid secretion (H2 effects) ```