Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

3 > Schizophrenia > Flashcards

Schizophrenia Flashcards

(62 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

organic disorder

A

eplielpsy
cerebral lesions
nervous system illness: infection, GC
endocrine disorders
metabolic disorders/physiological disturbances altering nervous system
IATROGENIC
PSYCHOSIS RELATED TO ALCOHOL/PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE MISUSE
parkinson disease
dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

affective

A

mania
psychotic depression
post-partum depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

schizophrenia

A

psychosis sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the primary pathophysiology of schizophrenia

A

dysfunction in DA, 5HT & glutamatergic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what can precipitate schizophrenia?

A

drug, substance use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what can prolong course of disorder?

A

non adherence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DSM-5 criteria

A

2 or more of the following for at least 1 month:
1. delusions
2. hallucinations
3. disorganized speech
4. grossly disorganized/catatonic behaviour
5. negative symptoms
social/occupational dysfunction
duration: continuous, at least 6 months
schizoaffective/mood disorder excluded
exclude other medical conditions and substance use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

non-pharm?

A

individual CBT
neurostimulation: electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), reptitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS)
psycosocial rehabilitation programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pharm treatment goal for acute stabilization?

A

minimize threat to self & others
minimize acute symptoms
(improve role functioning, identify appropriate psychosocial interventions, collab w fam & caregivers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

pharm treatment goal for stabilization

A

minimize/prevent relapse
promote medical adherence
optimize dose & manage adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

pharm treatment goal for maintenance

A

improve function & QoL
(maintain baseline functioing, optimise dose vs adverse effects, monitor for prodromal Sx of relapse, monitor & manage adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

antipsychotics?

A

generally tranquilize without impairing consciousness & without causing paradoxical excitement
in short term, they are useful to calm disturbed patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

common indication for antipsychotics

A

schizophrenia
adjunct for MDD (esp SGA)
short term adjunctive management of severe anxiety/psychomotor agitation, violent behaviour
mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what happens if you block dopamine receptors in mesolimbic tract?

A

improve +ve symptoms
overactivity in this region responsible for +ve symptoms in schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what happens if you block dopamine receptors in mesocortical tract

A

cause/worsen -ve symptoms
hypofunction in this region results in -ve symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what happens if you block dopamine receptors in nigrostriatal pathway

A

EPSE
tract modulates body movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what happens if you block dopamine receptors in tuberoinfundibular tract

A

hyperprolactinemia
in anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

affinity to D2 receptors? (antagonism)

A

improve +ve symptoms
causes EPSE, hyperprolactinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

5HT1A receptor agonism?

A

anxiolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

5HT2A receptor antagonism?

A

improve -ve symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

5HT2c receptor antagonism?

A

weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

H1 receptor antagonism?

A

sedation, weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a1 adrenoreceptor antagonism

A

orthostatic hypotension, sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

M1 receptor antagonism

A

dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
IKr antagonism
QTc prolongation
26
when do you consider clozapine?
treatment resistant - those that had fail 2 or more adequate trial of different antipsychotics (at least 1 should be SGA)
27
long acting IM injection?
risperidone microspheres haloperidol decanoate aripiparazole LAI paliperidone prolonged, release suspension
28
precautions for antipsychotic use includes?
CVD: QTc prolongation, ECG monitoring parkinson disease: cause EPSE epilepsy, conditions predisposing to seizures depression myasthenia gravias acute angle glaucoma severe respiratory disease prostatic hypertrophy blood dyscrasia - esp clozapine hx of jaundice elderly with dementia
29
what to do during aucte agitation?
pt cooperative --> PO lorazepam 1-2mg pr uncooperative --> IM lorazepem 1-2mg/IM olanzapine/IM aripiparazole/IM haloperidol/ IM promethazine
30
if patient is catatonic?
bezondiazepine: PO/IM lorazepem
31
what are the antipsychotic that require divided doses?
chlorpromazine clozapine quetapine sulpride amisulpride siprasidone
32
FGA?
chlorpromazine sulpride trifluoperazine perphenazine haloperiodl
33
SGA?
amisulpride brexpiparazole cariprazine lurasidone paliperidone risperidone aripiparazole clozapine quetapine olanzapine
34
which should be administer with/after food to increase bioavailability?
lurasidone, ziprasidone
35
EPSE SE?
dystonia, pseudo-parkinsonism, akathisa, tardive dyskinesia
36
dystonia how manage
IM anticholinergivs
37
what is dystonia
muscle spasms
38
risk factor for dystonia?
high potenscy antipsychotic, neuroepileptic-naive, young male
39
management for pseudo-parkinsonism
decrease antipsychotic dose/switch to lower risk anticholinergic PRN
40
what is akathisia?
EPSE, restleness, onset hr-weeks
41
risk factor for akathisia?
high potency anti-psychotic risp > olanz > quet/cloz
42
management for akathisia
decrease antipsychotic dose/switch to SGA clonazepam low dose PRN proponalol 20mg tds anticholinergic unhelpful
43
what is tardive dyskinesia?
ororfial movements (eg lip chewing, tongue protrusion) irreversible onset months to year
44
risk factor for tardive dyskinesia
FGS > SGA worsen with anticholinergic drug
45
management for tardive dyskinesia
discont any anticholinergic decrease antipsychotic dose/switch to SGA Valbenazine (vestibular monoamine transporter 2 reversible inhibitor) 40-80mg/day clonazepem PRN
46
which antipsychotic has higher risk for hyperprolactinaemia?
FGAs, Pali >/= Risp >other SGAs
47
management for hyperprolactenemia
decrease FGA dose Dopamine agonist (e.g. amantadine, bromocriptine) Switch to Aripiprazole
48
which anti psychotic has higher risk for metabolic side effects
high : olan cloz mod: CPZ, quiet, risp low: aripiparazole, lura, zip, halo
49
management for metabolic SE
Lifestyle modification: diet, exercise Treat diabetes (e.g. with metformin), hyperlipidemia Switch to lower risk agents
50
what is Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS):
Muscle rigidity, fever, autonomic dysfunction (increase PR, labile BP, diaphoresis), altered consciousness, increase CK
51
management for NMS
IV Dantrolene 50mg TDS Oral dopamine agonist (e.g. amantadine, bromocriptine), supportive measures. Switch to SGA
52
how to manage agranulocytosis?
discon antipsychotic if severe mostly with clozapine
53
what are the monitoring parameter?
BMI, FBG, Lipid panel, BP, EPSE WBC & ANC (for clozapine)
54
what to be caution in pregnancy?
olanzapine & clozapine watch out for gestational diabetes
55
what drugs for breastfeeding?
olanzapine & quetapine suitable any pt on clozapine should cont drug & not breastfeed
56
what drugs for renal impairment?
Oral Aripiprazole preferred; Avoid sulpiride and Amisulpride
57
what drugs for hepatic impairment?
Sulpiride, Amisulpride preferred.
58
what to caution in elderly?
Avoid drugs with high propensity for alpha-1 adrenergic blockade (orthostatic hypotension) or anticholinergic side effects (constipation, urinary retention, delirium); start low go slow; simplify regime ; avoid adverse interactions; avoid long T ½ drugs Precaution: FGAs and SGAs reported to increase mortality and CVAs in dementia patients
59
when does agitation decrease?
in 1st week
60
when does paranoia & hallucinations decrease?
2-4 weeks
61
when does delusion & -ve symptoms improve?
6-12 weeks
62
when does cognitive symptoms improve?
3-6 months

3 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions