Science Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following chambers of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle
A

C) left ventricle

The left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium, then pumps blood to the rest of the body.

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2
Q
After air is inhaled through the mouth, nose, and throat, which of the following structures does it travel through?
A) alveoli
B) bronchi
C) bronchioles
D) trachea
A
D) trachea
The trachea (windpipe) is a passageway for air as it moves from the mouth, nose, and throat to the bronchi.
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3
Q
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A) digestive juice production
B) bile production
C) detoxification
D) blood preparation
A

A) digestive juices

Digestive juices are produced by the pancreas.

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4
Q
Which of the following cells are responsible for carrying oxygen? 
A) leukocytes
B) thrombocytes
C) erythrocytes
D) plasma cells
A

C) erythrocytes

Erythrocytes are red blood cells that contain hemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen with the blood cell.

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5
Q
Oxygen is exchanged between blood and tissues at which of the following areas?
A) capillaries
B) veins
C) ventricles
D) arteries
A

A) capillaries

Capillaries are very small blood vessels found where veins and arteries meet. They are the site of material exchange.

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6
Q

When exhaling, the diaphragm—
A) relaxes, reducing the space available for the lungs
B) relaxes, increasing the space available for the lungs
C) contracts, reducing the space available for the lungs
D) contracts, increasing the space available for the lungs

A

A) relaxes, reducing the space available for the lungs
During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes causing the tissue to move up into the chest cavity. This movement reduces the space available for the lungs and forces air out of the lungs.

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7
Q
How many electrons are included in the double bond between the two oxygen atoms in O2?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
A

B) 4

The two oxygen atoms in a covalent double bond share two pairs of electrons, or four total.

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8
Q
Which of the following is the anterior bone of the lower leg?
A) ulna
B) fibula
C) tibia
D) radius
A

C) tibia

The tibia, or shinbone, is the larger of the lower leg bones and is located slightly to the front of the smaller fibula.

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9
Q
Which of the following regions of the brain is the active link between the endocrine and nervous systems?
A) cerebellum
B) pons
C) cerebrum
D) hypothalamus
A

D) hypothalamus

The hypothalamus links the nervous and endocrine systems by regulating hormone production of the pituitary gland.

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10
Q
Which of the following joints is formed by the humerus and the ulna?
A) ball-and-socket joint
B) hinge joint
C) saddle joint
D) gliding joint
A

B) hinge joint

The humerus and ulna connect at the elbow to form a hinge joint.

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11
Q
Which of the following is another name for the patella?
A) breastbone
B) kneecap
C) finger bone
D) funny bone
A

B) kneecap

The patella is a thick, flat, triangular bone that covers and protects the knee joint.

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12
Q
Which of the following is the part of a muscle that remains stationary during movement?
A) insertion
B) agonist
C) origin
D) antagonist
A

C) origin
The origin is the fixed attachment of the muscle to the bone that remains in place while the insertion of the muscle moves during contraction.

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13
Q
Which of the following is the process that produces a liquid from a gas?
A) vaporization
B) condensation
C) sublimation
D) melting
A

B) condensation

Condensation is a phase change that occurs when gas, such as water vapor, is converted to liquid, such as water.

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14
Q
What is the primary function of the quadriceps muscle?
A) extend the knee joint
B) flex the knee joint
C) extend the hip joint
D) flex the hip joint
A

A) extend the knee joint
The quadriceps is a large muscle located at the front of the thigh and is composed of four sections, which all work to extend the knee joint.

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15
Q
Which of the following parts of the brain is responsible for memory and language processing?
A) pons
B) cerebrum
C) cerebellum
D) medulla oblangata
A

B) cerebrum
The cerebral cortex is the most developed part of the human brain and is responsible for memory, language processing, and other higher brain functions.

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16
Q
How many thoracic spinal nerves are there in the human body?
A) eight
B) nine
C) twelve
D) fourteen
A

C) twelve

There are twelve thoracic spinal nerves located in the upper body, centralized in the chest area.

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17
Q
Which of the following is NOT a specialized sense?
A) touch
B) balance
C) sight
D) hearing
A

A) touch
The special senses are found in organs in the head region; touch is a sense that is found in the body region, making it a somatic sense instead of a specialized sense.

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18
Q
In which region of the small intestine are most of the nutrients absorbed?
A) jejunum
B) ileum
C) duodenum
D) colon
A

A) jejunum
The jejunum, the middle section of the small intestine, is the site of most of the food absorption in the body after it is broken down in the duodenum.

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19
Q
Which of the following macromolecules is broken down by trypsin?
A) protein
B) lipid
C) nucleic acids
D) carbohydrates
A

A) protein

Trypsin is a digestive enzyme that breaks down protein into peptides and amino acids.

20
Q
Which of the following supplies blood to the lower body?
A) superior vena cava
B) inferior vena cava
C) iliac artery
D) aortic arch
A

C) iliac artery

The iliac artery receives blood from the aorta to supply blood to the lower body.

21
Q
Which type of cell is responsible for the degradation of bone tissue?
A) osteoclasts
B) osteoblasts
C) osteocytes
D) lining cells
A

A) osteoclasts

Osteoclasts break down and absorb bone tissue.

22
Q
The elements in Group 1 have \_\_\_ valence electrons and are \_\_\_ reactive than the elements in Group 2.
A) zero; more
B) zero; less
C) one; less
D) one; more
A

D) one; more
Group 1 elements contain one valence electron. They are more reactive than Group 2 elements because they have a full valence shell when they lose their one valence electron, meaning they lose that electron very easily.

23
Q
One function of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes is to ingest invading bacteria and other harmful debris to keep our bodies healthy. Which of the following most likely carries out this process? 
A) pinocytosis
B) facilitated transport
C) phagocytosis
D) exocytosis
A

C) phagocytosis
During phagocytosis, a cell actively engulfs other cells or food particles. For example, white blood cells use this process to engulf and kill invading bacteria.

24
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a negative feedback loop?
A) release of oxytocin during childbirth
B) vasoconstriction during an incident of lower blood pressure
C) stimulus of sweat glands in thermoregulation
D) insulin production and storage of glucose during digestion

A

A) release of oxytocin during childbirth
The release of oxytocin during childbirth is a positive feedback loop because it moves further from homeostasis rather than toward it.

25
Q
Muscle tissues will often require quick bursts of energy. As a result, which of the following organelles would be most likely to be found in higher than normal amounts in muscle cells?
A) ribosomes
B) lysosomes
C) vacuoles
D) mitochondria
A

D) mitochondria
The mitochondria found in cells are what power the cell and provide it with the energy it needs to carry out its life functions. Muscle cells need a lot of ATP in order to provide the energy needed for movement and exercise.

26
Q

Consider a prokaryotic organism that typically lives in a 10 percent saline concentration environment. Which of the following environments would cause the organism to lose mass at the greatest rate due to osmosis?
A) a solution of pure water
B) a solution of 3 percent saline concentration
C) a solution of 10 percent saline concentration
D) a solution of 20 percent saline concentration

A

D) a solution of 20 percent saline concentration
Water will leave the cell through osmosis when the concentration of solute outside the cell is greater than that inside the cell (i.e. hypotonic). Water will leave the cell when it’s placed in a 20 percent solute solution, decreasing the mass of the cell.

27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system in humans?
A) to exchange gas
B) to produce sound and speech
C) to distribute oxygen to the rest of the body
D) to remove particles from the air

A

C) to distribute oxygen to the rest of the body

The cardiovascular system distributes oxygen to the rest of the body.

28
Q
Which of the following elements is the most electronegative? 
A) chlorine
B) iron
C) magnesium
D) silicon
A

A) chlorine
Electronegativity increases from left to right and bottom to top along the periodic table. Chlorine is higher and more to the right on the table than the other answer choices, so it is the most electronegative.

29
Q
Which of the following choices would contain the code for making a protein?
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) DNA polymerase
A

A) mRNA
mRNA is a sequence of nucleotides in which each triplet codes for a particular amino acid. The sequence of triplets in the mRNA would translate into the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein.

30
Q

Which of the following statements best defines a scientific model?
A) a real-world example of a theory
B) a simplification or metaphor for an observed phenomenon
C) a proposed explanation for an observed phenomenon
D) a statement about a fundamental aspect of the universe

A

B) a simplification or metaphor for an observed phenomenon
Scientific models are simplifications or metaphors for observations that allow the observations to be more easily understood.

31
Q

A chemistry student is conducting an experiment in which she tests the relationship between reactant concentration and heat produced by a reaction. In her experiment, she alters the reactant concentration and measures heat produced. Which of the following is the independent variable in this experiment?
A) reactant concentration
B) reaction rate
C) amount of heat produced by the reaction
D) product concentration

A

A) reactant concentration

The independent variable is deliberately changed in the course of the experiment.

32
Q
Which of the following is NOT a homogenous mixture?
A) air
B) sandy water 
C) brass
D) salt dissolved in water
A

B) sandy water

Sandy water is not a homogenous mixture. Sand and water can be easily separated, making it a heterogeneous mixture.

33
Q
Alleles for brown eyes (B) are dominant over alleles for blue eyes (b). If two parents are both heterozygous for this gene, what is the percent chance that their offspring will have brown eyes?
A) 100
B) 75
C) 66
D) 50
A

B) 75%

The Punnett square shows that there is a 75 % chance the child will have the dominant B gene and thus have brown eyes.

34
Q

How many neutrons are in an atom of the element 38Sr?
88
A) 38
B) 88
C) 50
D) 126

A

C) 50

Subtracting the atomic number from the mass number gives the number of protons: A-Z=> 88-38=50.

35
Q
Which of the following is NOT present in an animal cell?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondria
C) cytoplasm
D) cell wall
A

D) cell wall

The cell wall is the structure that gives plant cells their rigidity.

36
Q
Which of the following is a decomposition reaction?
A) 2Na+Cl2 -> 2NaCl
B) Zn+2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2
C) CH4+2O2 -> CO2 + 2H2O
D) H2CO3 -> H2O + CO2
A

D) H2CO3 -> H20 + CO2

This is a decomposition reaction where one reactant breaks apart into two products.

37
Q
Which ion has the greatest number of electrons? 
A) Ca2+
B) Cl-
C) Ca+
D) P3-
A

C) Ca+

Ca+ has 19 electrons. All the other ions have 18 electrons.

38
Q
Which of the following materials is the primary structural protein of the epidermis, nails, and skin? 
A) eponychium
B) collagen
C) keratin
D) cartilage
A

C) keratin

Keratin, produced by keratinocytes, makes up the majority of the epidermis structure, hair, and nails.

39
Q
Damage to the parathyroid would most likely affect which of the following?
A) stress levels
B) bone density
C) secondary sex characteristics
D) circadian rhythms
A

B) bone density

The parathyroid controls calcium and phosphate levels, which are maintained by producing and reabsorbing bone tissue.

40
Q

Which of the following does NOT correctly match the part of the cell and its primary function?
A) mitochondria: production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation
B) nucleus: DNA replication and transcription
C) smooth ER: translation of mRNA into proteins
D) Golgi apparatus: packaging and transportation of proteins within and in/out of the cells

A

C) smooth ER: translation of mRNA into proteins
Ribosomes are the organelles primarily responsible for translating mRNA into proteins; the primary function of the smooth ER is the synthesis of lipids.

41
Q
Which of the following is the final vessel through which semen must pass before being expelled from the body?
A) ejaculatory duct
B) penile urethra
C) membraneous urethra
D) vas deferens
A

B) penile urethra
Both urine and semen travel through the penile urethra, the longest portion of the male urethra, to be expelled through the urethral opening.

42
Q
Which of the following groups of bones are part of the axial skeleton?
A) pectoral girdle
B) rib cage
C) arms and hands
D) pelvic girdle
A

B) rib cage

The rib cage, which consists of the ribs and the sternum, is part of the axial skeleton.

43
Q
Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell?
A) helper T-cell
B) plasma cell
C) antibody
D) phagocyte
A

C) antibody

Antibodies are proteins produced by plasma cells, a type of lymphocyte, which is a type of white blood cell.

44
Q
Which of the following initiates breakdown of carbohydrates?
A) salivary amylase
B) stomach acid
C) bile salts
D) peristalsis
A

A) salivary amylase

Salivary amylase in the mouth begins the breakdown of carbohydrates.

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the pituitary gland?
A) receive and interpret internal and external stimuli from sensory nerves
B) release trophic hormones to trigger other glands to produce hormones
C) store hormones from the hypothalamus and release as needed
D) produce hormones and send to target cells via the bloodstream

A

A) receive and interpret internal and external stimuli from sensory nerves
The pituitary gland does not play a role in processing sensory information.

46
Q
Which of the following units is most appropriate for measuring the mass of an ant? 
A) meters
B) grams
C) liters
D) kilograms
A

B) grams

The gram is the appropriate unit to measure the mass of light objects, such as ants.