Science V2023 Flashcards

(251 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence when tracing the path of air from the upper respiratory tract?

A. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

B Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

C. Nasal cavity, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, pharynx, larynx

D. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi

A

A. Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

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2
Q

Surface tension of the alveolar fluid is reduced by the secretion of ___by lung cells.

A. Sodium
B. Adrenaline
C. Surfactant
D. Histamine

A

C. Surfactant

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3
Q

Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occur across alveolar membrane by
A. Active transport
B. pinocytosis
C. diffusion
D. osmosis

A

C. diffusion

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4
Q

Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles results in

A. decrease in volume of the thoracic cavity

B. decrease in alveolar pressure

C. increase in alveolar pressure

D. Forced expiration

A

B. decrease in alveolar pressure

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5
Q

Which has highest compliance?

A. Asthma
B. Bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Lung cancer

A

C. Emphysema

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6
Q

Sodium reduces surface tension of the alveolar fluid

True or False?

A

False

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7
Q

Adrenaline is a hormone of the endocrine system

True or False?

A

True

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8
Q

Histamine is secreted by white blood cell

True or False?

A

True

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9
Q

Active transport uses ATP

True or False?

A

True

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10
Q

Uptake by cells of fluids and solutes from the extracellular environment

A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis

A

B. Pinocytosis

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11
Q

Movement of water down its concentration gradient. It is passive movement, but it requires transportation that specifically carry water

A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis

A

D. Osmosis

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12
Q

A decrease in thoracic cavity volume is caused by

A. Forced expiraton
B. Increase in alveolar pressure
C. Decrease in alveolar pressure
D. relaxation of the diaphragm

A

D. relaxation of the diaphragm

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13
Q

Contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles results in

A. Forced expiraton
B. increased volume of the lung cavity & therefore decreased alveolar pressure due to Boyles law.
C. Increase in alveolar pressure
D. None of the above.

A

B. increased volume of the lung cavity & therefore decreased alveolar pressure due to Boyles law.

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14
Q

An increase in alveolar pressure results when the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles ___which decreases the lung volume and by Boyles law, __the alveolar pressure

A. contract and decrease
B. contact and increase
C. relax and increase
D. relax and decrease

A

C. relax and increase

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15
Q

Caused by contraction of the abdominal muscles

A. Active transport
B. Pinocytosis
C. Diffusion
D. Forced expiration

A

D. Forced expiration

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16
Q

Interferes with the ability of the lungs to expand, which is considered low compliance

A. Asthma and Bronchitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung Cancer
D. Asthma, Bronchitis and Lung Cancer

A

D. Asthma, Bronchitis and Lung Cancer

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17
Q

Erythrocyte function
A. Initiate blood clotting
B. Transport Oxygen and some carbon dioxide
C. Initiate conduction system of the heart
D. Defend the body against pathogens

A

B. Transport Oxygen and some carbon

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18
Q

Initiate blood clotting
A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. SA node
D. Leukocytes

A

B. Platelets

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19
Q

Initiate heart conduction system

A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. SA node
D. Leukocytes

A

C. SA node

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20
Q

Defend the body against pathogens
A. Erythrocytes
B. Platelets
C. SA node
D. Leukocytes

A

D. Leukocytes

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21
Q

Carry oxygenated blood
A. Superior Vena Cava
B. Inferior Vena Cava
C. Superior and Inferior Vena Cava
D. Pulmonary veins, and Aorta

A

D. Pulmonary Veins, Aorta

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22
Q

Carry deoxygenated blood
A. Superior Vena Cava only
B. Inferior Vena Cava only
C. Pulmonary arteries, Vena Cava
D. Pulmonary veins and Aorta

A

C. Pulmonary arteries, Vena Cava

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23
Q

Veins are farther away from the heart, so they experience __ pressure
A. Less
B. Greater

A

A. Less

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24
Q

Veins and Veins have the same amount of blood volume.

True or False

A

True

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25
__ prevent backflow of blood
valves
26
__ Signifies contraction of the heart muscle A. Systole B. Diastole
A. Systole
27
__Signifies relaxation of the heart muscle A. Systole B. Diastole
B. Diastole
28
Proliferate in the bone marrow A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets C. SA node D. Leukocytes
A. Erythrocytes
29
Excess fluid is collected via A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets C. Lymph capillaries D. Leukocytes
C. Lymph capillaries
30
The __ system is responsible for proliferation of leukocytes A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Nervous D. Lymphatic
D. Lymphatic
31
Lymph fluid is filtered through A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets C. White blood cells D. Lymph nodes
D. Lymph nodes
32
__impulses are sent from the CNS to a muscle A. Involunary B. Afferent C. Motor D. Efferent E. Sensory
C. Motor
33
__ impulses travel toward the CNS A. Involunary B. Afferent C. Motor D. Efferent E. Sensory and Afferent
E. Sensory and afferent
34
__impulses travel away from the CNS A. Involunary B. Afferent C. Efferent and motor D. Sensory
C. Efferent and motor
35
__ neurons carry stimulus toward the CNS A. Involunary B. Afferent C. Efferent and motor D. Sensory
D. Sensory
36
__neurons carry impules away from CNS toward the musce. A. Involunary B. Afferent C. Motor D. Efferent E. Sensory and Afferent
C. Motor
37
Which of the following make up CNS A. Spinal cord B. Peripheral Nervous System C. Brain and spinal cord D. Autonomic Division
C. Brain and spinal cord
38
The Spinal Cord is part of the CNS True or False?
True
39
The autonomic division is part of the peripheral nervous system True or False?
True
40
Chewing is controlled by A. Involuntary system B. Voluntary system C. Sensory System D. Motor system E. Somatic System
B. Voluntary system
41
Voluntary and somatic are synonymous True or False
True
42
Both chewing and digestion have sensory and motor components. True or False?
True
43
Chewing is volunatary while digestion is involuntary True or False?
True
44
Muscle contraction is stimulated by neurotransmitters at the __ synapse A. Neuromuscular B. Myosin C. Actin D. ATP
A. Neuromuscular
45
Actin and Mysosin change length during contraction. True or False?
False The do not change length when filaments slide past one another.
46
ATP is necessary for contraction and __for release of muscle. A. Is B. Is not
A. Is
47
The spinal cord carries signals to and from the peripheral nervous system, which includes __ and __ divisions A. Autonomic and Peripheral B. Autonomic only C. Peripheral only D. Autonomic and somatic E. None of the above.
D. Autonomic and somatic
48
The __ is the tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder A. Distal tubule B. Collecting duct C. Ureter D. Urethra E. All of the above.
C. Ureter
49
The __carries urine from the urinary bladder to outside of the body A. Distal tubule B. Collecting duct C. Ureter D. Urethra E. All of the above.
D. Urethra
50
Rental cortex surrounds the A. Distal tubule B. Collecting duct C. Ureter D. Urethra E. Rental medulla
E. Rental medulla
51
Antidiuretic hormone increases the amount of water reabsorbed from the collecting ducts. It results in __ concentrated urine. A. Less B. More
B. More
52
In the DNA double helix, the bases face __and form the rungs. A. outward B. Inward
B. Inward
53
The __ form the side of the ladder in the DNA double helix A. Sugars B. Phosphates C. Carbons D. Sugars and Phosphates E. Carbons and Sugars
D. Sugars and Phosphates
54
The double helix is like a twisted ladder with its ___ backbone forming the sides of the ladder and the __bases forming the rungs. A. Sugar and Phosphate B. Sugar phosphate and Carbon C. Sugar-phosphate and nitrogenous D. Nitrogen and Sugar- phosphate
C. Sugar-phosphate and nitrogenous
55
The DNA double helix looks like a ladder twisted around it's central axis, not a long straight ladder True or False?
True
56
Chromosomes contain __ genes A. few B. One C. many D. Two
C. many
57
A __ encodes a functional molecule A. Chromosome B. Sugar phosphate C. Ribosomes D. Gene E. Rough ER
D. Gene
58
What is wrong with this statement? The complementary strand of bases in a gene is used to make a template strand called mRNA, which is read by a Ribosome to make a chain of amino acids that folds into a protein.
The words complementary and template have been switched.
59
DNA>>RNA>>Protein is a symbolic way to describe the process of reading a __ sequence, making an MRNA copy which ribosomes use to make a protein A. Chromosome B. Sugar phosphate C. Ribosomes D. Gene E. Rough ER
D. Gene
60
What is wrong with this statement? The sequence of amino acids in a gene is used to make a mRNA copy which is read by a ribosome to make a chain of bases that told into a protein. A. Chromosome B. Sugar phosphate C. Ribosomes D. Gene E. Rough ER
The words amino acids and bases have been switched
61
The genetic code is related to protein synthesis and __ involved in chromosome replication A. is B. is not
B. is not
62
__is a phase of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into opposite ends of a cell just before the cell divides in two. A. Meiosis B. Osmosis C. Mitosis D. Diffusion
C. Mitosis
63
Unless the molecule is in a substance undergoing a phase change, there is a positive relationship between the amount of energy it gains and the amount of its temperature elevation. True or False?
True
64
Constant volume but not a constant shape A. Solid B. Gas C. Liquid D. All of the above.
B. Gas
65
State of matter has a constant volume but not a constant shape A. Solid B. Gas C. Liquid D. All of the above.
C. Liquid
66
Both temperature and the amount of pressure the substance is subjected to are necessary variables for determining substance state by way of a phase diagram True or False?
True
67
Transition of a solid to liquid A. Melting B. Sublimation C. Condensation D. Freezing E. Critical point
A. Melting
68
__ happens when pressure and temperature on the phase diagram border between solid and gas. This is below the triple point. A. Melting B. Sublimation C. Condensation D. Freezing E. Critical point
B. Sublimation
69
Transition of gas to liquid A. Melting B. Sublimation C. Condensation D. Freezing E. Critical point
C. Condensation
70
Transition of a liquid to a solid A. Melting B. Sublimation C. Condensation D. Freezing E. Critical point
D. Freezing
71
The __ is the temperature and pressure at which liquid and gas (but not solid) phases of a pure substance coexist. A. Melting B. Sublimation C. Condensation D. Freezing E. Critical point
E. Critical point
72
Which of the following is a part of the adaptive immune system? A. Antimicrobials B. Mucus C. Commensal micro-organisms D. B-cells
D. B-cells
73
Unlike the adaptive immune system's production of antibodies to specific pathogens, ___ are a generalized defense of the innate immune system A. Antimicrobials B. Mucus C. Commensal micro-organisms D. B-cells
A. Antimicrobials
74
An external barrier to pathogens and is part of the innate immune system A. Antimicrobials B. Mucus C. Commensal micro-organisms D. B-cells
B. Mucus
75
Microscopic organisms that live in or on the human body without causing it harm. The are part of the innate immune system. A. Antimicrobials B. Mucus C. Commensal micro-organisms D. B-cells
C. Commensal micro-organisms
76
Produce antibodies in response to specific pathogens and are part of the adaptive immune system A. Antimicrobials B. Mucus C. Commensal micro-organisms D. B-cells
D. B-cells
77
Which of the following is a white blood cell that has the primary job of ingesting foreign material? A. B-cell B. Helper T-cell C. Macrophage D. Basophil
C. Macrophage
78
Lymphoctyes that mature in bone marrow and make anti-bodies in response to antigens A. B-cell B. Helper T-cell C. Macrophage D. Basophil
A. B-cell
79
Lymphocytes that secrete interleukins, a protein that triggers the action of other cells, including the attack of foreign cells by the cytotoxic T-cell A. B-cell B. Helper T-cell C. Macrophage D. Basophil
B. Helper T-cell
80
Large white blood cell that ingests foreign material A. B-cell B. Helper T-cell C. Macrophage D. Basophil
C. Macrophage
81
Releases histamine that is involved in the flammatory response. A. B-cell B. Helper T-cell C. Macrophage D. Basophil
D. Basophil
82
Which of the following stimulates the production of antibodies? A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Vaccine D. Cytokines
C. Vaccine
83
Synonym for antibody A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Vaccine D. Cytokines
A. Immunoglobulin
84
Protein secreted by leukocytes when they are infected with viruses A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Vaccine D. Cytokines
B. Interferon
85
Cell signaling molecules released primarily by helper T-cells and macrophages. Certain cytokines activate cytotoxic T-cells A. Immunoglobulin B. Interferon C. Vaccine D. Cytokines
D. Cytokines
86
Which of the following types of defense can be gained through the placenta, breast milk, or by receiving a serum containing antibodies? A. Cell-mediated immunity B. Innate immunity C. Passive immunity D. Nonspecific response immunity
C. Passive immunity
87
Type of adaptive immunity in which T-cells attack parasitic worms, cancer cells, transplanted tissues or cells that contain pathogens A. Cell-mediated immunity B. Innate immunity C. Passive immunity D. Nonspecific response immunity
A. Cell-mediated immunity
88
Collection of nonspecific barriers and cellular responses that serve as an inborn 1st and 2nd line of defense against pathogens A. Cell-mediated immunity B. Innate immunity C. Passive immunity D. Nonspecific response immunity
B. Innate immunity
89
Temporarily can be gained naturally A. Cell-mediated immunity B. Innate immunity C. Passive immunity D. Nonspecific response immunity
C. Passive immunity
90
Regardless of how particular antibodies became present in a body, is a response to a specific antigen rather than being a nonspecific response
D. Nonspecific response immunity
91
Which of the following processes occurs during tubular reabsorption? A. Urine from filtrate moves back into the bloodstream B. Renin from urine moves back into the bloodstream C. Useful material moves from filtrate back into the bloodstream D. Filtrate from the bloodstream moves back into urine
C. Useful material moves from filtrate back into the bloodstream
92
Urine is the liquid waste excreted by the __. it is not reabsorbed into the bloodstream. A. Kidney B. Liver C. Filtrate D. Baroreceptors E. Renin
A. Kidney
93
An enzyme released by the kidneys when reduced blood pressure is detected by __ in the aorta and carotid arteries. A. Kidney B. Liver C. Filtrate D. Baroreceptors E. Renin
D. Baroreceptors
94
Composed of materials, including water, that leave the blood through the walls of the glomerular capillaries to enter the Bowman's capsule. A. Kidney B. Liver C. Filtrate D. Baroreceptors E. Renin
C. Filtrate
95
Which of the following correctly describes the function of a structure in the circulatory system? A. The aorta contains oxygen-poor blood B. The pulmonary vein takes blood away from the heart C. The pulmonary artery takes blood away from the lungs D. The pulmonary artery contains oxygen-poor blood.
D. The pulmonary artery contains oxygen-poor blood.
96
Contains oxygen-rich blood A. Pulmonary veins B. Pulmonary arteries C. Aorta
C. Aorta
97
Takes blood to the heart. Contains oxygen-rich blood A. Pulmonary vein B. Pulmonary artery C. Aorta
A. Pulmonary vein
98
Takes blood away from the heart. Contains oxygen-poor blood A. Pulmonary vein B. Pulmonary artery C. Aorta
B. Pulmonary arteries
99
Carries blood away from the heart to lungs. Contains oxygen-poor blood. A. Pulmonary vein B. Pulmonary artery C. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
100
Which of the following structures of the heart contains oxygen-rich blood? A. Superior vena cava B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Pulmonary veins
D. Pulmonary veins
101
Delivers oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium A. Superior vena cava B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Pulmonary veins
A. Superior vena cava
102
Contains oxygen-poor blood from the right atrium A. Superior vena cava B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Pulmonary veins
B. Right ventricle
103
Contains oxygen-poor blood delivered by the superior vena cava A. Superior vena cava B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Pulmonary veins
C. Right atrium
104
Brings oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium A. Superior vena cava B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Pulmonary veins
D. Pulmonary veins
105
Which of the following components of the blood carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body? A. Plasma B. Lymphocytes C. Leukocytes D. Hemoglobin
D. Hemoglobin
106
Clear, pale yellow component of blood that carries blood cells and platelets throughout the body. A. Plasma B. Lymphocytes C. Leukocytes D. Hemoglobin
A. Plasma
107
White blood cell found in lymph A. Plasma B. Lymphocytes C. Leukocytes D. Hemoglobin
B. Lymphocytes
108
White blood cells that protect the body against disease A. Plasma B. Lymphocytes C. Leukocytes D. Hemoglobin
C. Leukocytes
109
Protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body A. Plasma B. Lymphocytes C. Leukocytes D. Hemoglobin
D. Hemoglobin
110
Which of the following liquids emulsifies lipids during digestion? A. Chyme B. Saliva C. Bile D. Amylase
C. Bile
111
Partially digested liquid in the stomach that results from the combination of digestive juices and boluses of food A. Chyme B. Saliva C. Bile D. Amylase
A. Chyme
112
Enzymes contained within are unable to emulsify lipids A. Chyme B. Saliva C. Bile D. Amylase
B. Saliva
113
Product of the liver that is stored by the gallbladder and is able to emulsify lipids during digestion. A. Chyme B. Saliva C. Bile D. Amylase
C. Bile
114
Both salivary __ and pancreatic __ are enzymes that break down starch. A. Chyme B. Saliva C. Bile D. Amylase
D. Amylase
115
Which of the following terms refers to the involuntary waves of contractions in the digestive system that move food through the gastrointestinal tract? A. Retroperistalsis B. Gastric reflux C. Segmentation D. Peristalsis
D. Peristalsis
116
Causes vomiting and does not move food through the gastrointestinal tract. A. Retroperistalsis B. Gastric reflux C. Segmentation D. Peristalsis
A. Retroperistalsis
117
Is reverse peristalsis A. Retroperistalsis B. Gastric reflux C. Segmentation D. Peristalsis
A. Retroperistalsis
118
Does not move food through the gastrointestinal tract. One cause is the failure of the sphincter between the esophogaus and stomach to maintain sufficient constriction. A. Retroperistalsis B. Gastric reflux C. Segmentation D. Peristalsis
B. Gastric reflux
119
Contractions constrict the intestine into segments to allow the chyme to fully mix. They do not move food through the gastrointestinal tract. A. Retroperistalsis B. Gastric reflux C. Segmentation D. Peristalsis
C. Segmentation
120
Involuntary contraction of the smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract. It squeezes food along within the digestive tract. A. Retroperistalsis B. Gastric reflux C. Segmentation D. Peristalsis
D. Peristalsis
121
Which of the following terms refers to the part of the nervous system that causes skeletal muscle contractions? A. Involuntary division B. Somatic division C. Autonomic division D. Visceral division
B. Somatic division
122
Controls involuntary actions in the body A. Involuntary division B. Somatic division C. Autonomic division D. Visceral division
C. Autonomic division
123
Synonymous with the autonomic division A. Involuntary division B. Somatic division C. Autonomic division D. Visceral division
D. Visceral division
124
Renal arteries are defined as which of the following? A. Branches of the inferior vena cava that supply the kidneys B. Branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys C. Blood vessels that carry blood from the kidneys to the inferior vena cava D. Blood vessels that carry blood from the kidneys to the abdominal aorta.
B. Branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys
125
Two branches of the abdominal aorta that supply the kidneys A. Renal arteries B. Renal veins
A. Renal arteries
126
Blood vessels that carries blood from a kidney to the inferior vena cava A. Renal arteries B. Renal veins
B. Renal veins
127
Which of the following results from a deficit in the production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone? A. There is an overproduction of thryroid-stimulating hormone B. The thyroid gland becomes overactive C. An overproduction of growth hormone will cause excessive growth D. The thyroid gland does not produce a sufficient amount of its primary hormone.
D. The thyroid gland does not produce a sufficient amount of its primary hormone.
128
A deficit in the production of Thyrotropin-releasing hormone causes a deficit in the production of A. Thyroid hormone B. Hyperthyroidism C. Gigantism
A. Thyroid hormone
129
Caused by an overproduction of thyroid hormone. A deficit in the production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone causes a deficit in the production of thyroid hormone. A. Thyroid hormone B. Hyperthyroidism C. Gigantism
B. Hyperthyroidism
130
Excessive growth resulting from overproduction of growth hormone. A. Thyroid hormone B. Hyperthyroidism C. Gigantism
C. Gigantism
131
Thyrotroin-releasing hormone triggers the __ of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland A. Reduction B. Production
B. Production
132
Which of the following hormones is released and stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth? A. Follicle-stimulating B. Glucagon C. Oxytocin D. Thyroid
C. Oxytocin
133
Hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary that stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes. A. Follicle-stimulating B. Glucagon C. Oxytocin D. Thyroid
A. Follicle-stimulating
134
Hormone secreted by the pancreas that stimulates its target cells in the liver to convert hepatic glycogen stores into glucose and release that glucose into the blood. A. Follicle-stimulating B. Glucagon C. Oxytocin D. Thyroid
B. Glucagon
135
Hormone made by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. A. Follicle-stimulating B. Glucagon C. Oxytocin D. Thyroid
C. Oxytocin
136
Secretes hormones that regulates growth, development and metabolic rate A. Follicle-stimulating B. Glucagon C. Oxytocin D. Thyroid
D. Thyroid
137
Which of the following is a mechanism that stimulates glandular secretions to continue, temporarily pushing levels further out of homeostasis, until a particular biological effect is reached? A. Thermoregulation B. Negative feedback C. Puberty D. Positive feedback
D. Positive feedback
138
Process that animals maintain consistent internal temperature A. Thermoregulation B. Negative feedback C. Puberty D. Positive feedback
A. Thermoregulation
139
Mechanism that monitors for specific homeostatic levels and signals glands to stimulate or inhibit secretions in order to maintain homestasis or initiate compensatons. A. Thermoregulation B. Negative feedback C. Puberty D. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
140
Physiological period in which changes in hormone levels cause a general "growth spurt" and development of secondary sex characteristics. A. Thermoregulation B. Negative feedback C. Puberty D. Positive feedback
C. Puberty
141
Ie: Expulsion of the fetus during childbirth A. Thermoregulation B. Negative feedback C. Puberty D. Positive feedback
D. Positive feedback
142
Inhibited function of the sweat glands could result in which of the following? A. Loss of the ability to regulate body temperature B. Absorption of metabolic waste through the skin C. Increase production of protective oils D. Decreased integumental vasodilation
A. Loss of the ability to regulate body temperature
143
Major mechanism of thermoregulation. It is one way that the skin helps to lower body temperature into homeostatic ranges. A. Sweating B. Renal system C. Sebum D. Vasodilation only
A. Sweating
144
The skin, __ and diffusion at the alveoli are three ways that metabolic waste can leave blood that has been carried in veins near the skin. A. Sweating B. Renal system C. Sebum D. Vasodilation only
B. Renal system
145
Not produced by the sweat glands. Rather produced by sebaceous glands. A. Sweating B. Renal system C. Sebum D. Vasodilation only
C. Sebum
146
Causes increased blood flow that allows for greater heat loss from the body. It typically works in tandem with sweating. However, it is not dependent upon sweating. A. Sweating B. Renal system C. Sebum D. Vasodilation
D. Vasodilation
147
Which of the following provides a practical means of warming the body via integumental thermoregulation? A. Cutaneous vasodilation B. Sweating C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles
C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction
148
Increases in the diameter of blood vessels in the dermis that increases blod flow through the skin, which allows the warm blood from the core of the body to release heat through the skin. It has the effect of lowering body temperature. A. Cutaneous vasodilation B. Sweating C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles E. Evaporation
A. Cutaneous vasodilation
149
__of sweat produced during perspiration has the effect of lowering body temperature A. Cutaneous vasodilation B. Sweating C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles E. Evaporation
E. Evaporation
150
Decrease in the diameter of blood vessels in the dermis that reduces blood flow through the skin. It minimizes heat loss from blood through the skin. A. Cutaneous vasodilation B. Sweating C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles E. Evaporation
A. Cutaneous vasodilation
151
Generates heat and causes hair to "stand on end", trapping heat in the airspace near the skin. However, the practical effect ___on heat generation is minimal for humans compared to other mammals. A. Cutaneous vasodilation B. Sweating C. Cutaneous vasoconstriction D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles E. Evaporation
D. Tensing of the arrector pili muscles
152
Which of the following is a result of inhibited osteoblast function at the epiphyseal plate? A. Mineralization will not occur in this location B. A pathological overabundance of collagen will be produced in this location C. Hydroxyapatite will be deposited in this location D. The periosteum will develop at a pathological rate.
A. Mineralization will not occur in this location
153
Bone cells that produce secretions blocking the inhibition of mineralization that takes place elsewhere in the body. A. Osteoblasts B. Hydroxyapatite C. Periosteum
A. Osteoblasts
154
Produce a highly organized collagen matrix to which extracellular hydroxyapatite binds. A. Osteoblasts B. Hydroxyapatite C. Periosteum
A. Osteoblasts
155
Calcium phosphate salt that mineralizes bones A. Osteoblasts B. Hydroxyapatite C. Periosteum
B. Hydroxyapatite
156
Thin layer that surrounds bone and is the surface for attachment of tendons and ligaments. A. Osteoblasts B. Hydroxyapatite C. Periosteum
C. Periosteum
157
If mineral resportion is prevented, and calcium is not removed from bone, which of the following occurs? A. The resulting pathology is called hypocalcemia. B. The pathology of tetany can be prevented. C. The resulting pathology is called achondroplastic dwarfism. D. The resulting pathology is called hydroxyapatite.
A. The resulting pathology is called hypocalcemia.
158
Deficit in plasma calcium. Caused when calcium is not liberated from bone to be allowed to enter the blood. A. Hypocalcemia B. Tetany C. Achondroplastic dwarfism D. Hydroxyapatite.
A. Hypocalcemia
159
Involuntary and continuous contraction of skeletal muscle. It can be caused by hypocalcemia of plasma. A. Hypocalcemia B. Tetany C. Achondroplastic dwarfism D. Hydroxyapatite.
B. Tetany
160
Resulting in short stature of individuals when the epiphyseal plate stops growing at a premature age. A. Hypocalcemia B. Tetany C. Achondroplastic dwarfism D. Hydroxyapatite.
C. Achondroplastic dwarfism
161
which of the following terms refers to a self contained part of an organism that performs a specific function? A. Tissue B. Organ C. Organelle D. Organ system
B. Organ
162
Group of cells with similar structure that function together as a unit, but at a lower level than organs. A. Tissue B. Organ C. Organelle D. Organ system
A. Tissue
163
Specialized part of a cell that has a specific function A. Tissue B. Organ C. Organelle D. Organ system
C. Organelle
164
Functional groups of organs that work together within the body. A. Tissue B. Organ C. Organelle D. Organ system
D. Organ system
165
Which of the following terms refers to the small passages of the respiratory system that terminate in air sacs? A. Bronchioles B. Pleura C. Alveoli D. Bronchi
A. Bronchioles
166
Membranes around the lungs that also line the inside of the chest cavity. A. Bronchioles B. Pleura C. Alveoli D. Bronchi
B. Pleura
167
Tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place. A. Bronchioles B. Pleura C. Alveoli D. Bronchi
C. Alveoli
168
Two main passageways directly attached to the lungs. They connect the trachea and bronchioles. A. Bronchioles B. Pleura C. Alveoli D. Bronchi
D. Bronchi
169
Which of the following scenarios would result in a human zygote containing 47 chromosomes instead of the typical 46 chromosomes? A. The chromosomes do not separate properly during mitosis. B. The chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis. C. A second sperm fertilizes the ovum D. They zygote replicates the DNA of the one additional chromosome after fertilization.
B. The chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis.
170
Occurs during gamete production A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Ovum D. DNA
A. Meiosis
171
Divides the number of chromosomes compared to body cells. If chromosomes do not separate properly, atypical numbers of chromosomes can result in gametes. A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Ovum D. DNA
A. Meiosis
172
Once an __ is fertilized, it cannot be fertilized by a second sperm. If it was, there would be more than one additional chromosome added to the zygote. A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Ovum D. DNA
C. Ovum
173
when replication occurs, the __ of the whole karyotype is duplicated. A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Ovum D. DNA
D. DNA
174
Which of the following structures transports female gametes? A. Urethra B. Vas deferens C. Fallopian Tube D. Cervix
C. Fallopian Tube
175
Carries urine in females and is not associated with a reproduction function. A. Urethra B. Vas deferens C. Fallopian Tube D. Cervix
A. Urethra
176
Male structure that carries sperm from the testes A. Urethra B. Vas deferens C. Fallopian Tube D. Cervix
B. Vas deferens
177
Passageway that forms the lower part of the uterus A. Urethra B. Vas deferens C. Fallopian Tube D. Cervix
D. Cervix
178
Which of the following processes occurs within the cell nucleus? A. Translation of mRNA into a protein B. Charging of tRNA with amino acid C. Production of rRNA for cell division D. Transcription producing mRNA
D. Transcription producing mRNA
179
Translation of mRNA into a protein occurs on A. Ribosomes B. Cytoplasm C. Nucleolus D. cell nucleus
A. Ribosomes
180
Charging of tRNA with amino acid occurs in the A. Ribosomes B. Cytoplasm C. Nucleolus D. cell nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
181
Production of rRNA for cell division occurs in the A. Ribosomes B. Cytoplasm C. Nucleolus D. cell nucleus
C. Nucleolus
182
Transcription producing mRNA occurs within __. Transcription directly uses DNA as a template, which is located in the nucleus. A. Ribosomes B. Cytoplasm C. Nucleolus D. cell nucleus
D. cell nucleus
183
Which of the following describes the function of acetylcholine in a neuromuscular junction? A. Binds to receptor proteins on the sarcolemma, which results in the opening of sodium channels. B. Slows the action potential along the sarcolemma C. Opens calcium channels in the axon terminal, which results in the release of sodium into the neuromuscular junction D. Results in repolarization of the sarcolemma
A. Binds to receptor proteins on the sarcolemma, which results in the opening of sodium channels.
184
Triggers depolarization of the sarcolemma, which initiates action potential. A. Acetylcholine B. Action potential C. Voltage-gated D. Repolarization
A. Acetylcholine
185
Acetylcholine initiates __, rather than slowing it down. A. Acetylcholine B. Action potential C. Voltage-gated D. Repolarization
B. Action potential
186
The calcium channels are ___, not triggered by acetylcholine. The release of acetylcholine is triggered by calcium ions entering the axon terminal, not the other way around. A. Acetylcholine B. Action potential C. Voltage-gated D. Repolarization
C. Voltage-gated
187
Which of the following is the function of myelin in the nervous system? A. To secrete neurotransmitters B. To insulate axons C. To produce melanin D. To provide nutrition to cell bodies
B. To insulate axons
188
Secreted by neurons A. Myelin B. Neurotransmitters C. Axons D. Melanin E. Astrocytes
B. Neurotransmitters
189
Protective sheath around some axons A. Myelin B. Neurotransmitters C. Axons D. Melanin E. Astrocytes
A. Myelin
190
__in the brain is produced in the cell body of the neuron A. Myelin B. Neurotransmitters C. Axons D. Melanin E. Astrocytes
D. Melanin
191
Nutrition is provided to cell bodies by A. Myelin B. Neurotransmitters C. Axons D. Melanin E. Astrocytes
E. Astrocytes
192
Which of the following is considered the fundamental contraction unit of striated muscle? A. Sarcomere B. Sarcolemma C. Intercalated disk D. I band
A. Sarcomere
193
Contains actin and myosin, which slide past one another resulting in contractions A. Sarcomere B. Sarcolemma C. Intercalated disk D. I band
A. Sarcomere
194
Muscle cell membrain which does not produce contractions. A. Sarcomere B. Sarcolemma C. Intercalated disk D. I band
B. Sarcolemma
195
Connection which joins one cardiac muscle cell to another, but it does not produce contractions. A. Sarcomere B. Sarcolemma C. Intercalated disk D. I band
C. Intercalated disk
196
An area of a sarcomere that becomes narrower during contractions, but it does not produce contractions. A. Sarcomere B. Sarcolemma C. Intercalated disk D. I band
D. I band
197
Which of the following hormones inhibits osteoblasts and stimulates osteoclasts to increase blood calcium levels? A. Insulin B. Parathyroid hormone C. Oxytocin D. Luteinizing hormone
B. Parathyroid hormone
198
Increases blood glucose levels, but has no effect on blood calcium levels. A. Insulin B. Parathyroid hormone C. Oxytocin D. Luteinizing hormone
A. Insulin
199
Causes an increase in blood calcium levels by promoting release of calcium from the bone into the bloodstream A. Insulin B. Parathyroid hormone C. Oxytocin D. Luteinizing hormone
B. Parathyroid hormone
200
Stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection, but has no effect on blood calcium levels. A. Insulin B. Parathyroid hormone C. Oxytocin D. Luteinizing hormone
C. Oxytocin
201
Affects the levels of estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone in the bloodstream, but has no effect on blood calcium levels. A. Insulin B. Parathyroid hormone C. Oxytocin D. Luteinizing hormone
D. Luteinizing hormone
202
According to the sliding filament theory, which ion binds with troponin on the actin myofilaments, causing myosin-binding sites to be exposed? A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium E. Sodium and potassium
A. Calcium
203
Change the polarity of the sarcolemma, but they do not directly bind with troponin. A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium E. Sodium and potassium
E. Sodium and potassium
204
Stimulates calcium reuptake, which prevents a constant state of muscle contraction. A. Calcium B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Magnesium E. Sodium and potassium
D. Magnesium
205
Which of the following cell types can differentiate to become several other types of cells? A. Stem cells B. Gametocytes C. Mast cells D. Leukocytes
A. Stem cells
206
Specialized cells in the reproduction system that divide to form the gametes. A. Stem cells B. Gametocytes C. Mast cells D. Leukocytes
B. Gametocytes
207
Specialized cells in the immune system A. Stem cells B. Gametocytes C. Mast cells D. Leukocytes
C. Mast cells
208
Specialized cells in the immune system A. Stem cells B. Gametocytes C. Mast cells D. Leukocytes
D. Leukocytes
209
Viral DNA that has been inserted into the host DNA would be found in which of the following? A. Mitochondria B. Vacuoles C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes
C. Nucleus
210
Contain mitochondria DNA but is not the target of viral DNA. A. Mitochondria B. Vacuoles C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes
A. Mitochondria
211
Do not contain the host DNA A. Mitochondria B. Vacuoles C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes
B. Vacuoles
212
Contains the host DNA A. Mitochondria B. Vacuoles C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes
C. Nucleus
213
Creates proteins, but these proteins are not the target of viral DNA A. Mitochondria B. Vacuoles C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes
D. Ribosomes
214
Which of the following is a unique feature of mitosis? A. Generation of variation B. Production of identical daughter cells C. Formation of synaponemal complex D. Reduction in number of chromosomes.
B. Production of identical daughter cells
215
Genetic variation is the result of A. Mitosis B. Meiosis
B. Meiosis
216
Production of identical daughter cells A. Mitosis B. Meiosis
A. Mitosis
217
Only present during ___ A. Mitosis B. Meiosis
B. Meiosis
218
The number of chromosomes in each daughter cell remains the same as in the parent cell A. Mitosis B. Meiosis
A. Mitosis
219
Which of the following macromolecule groups contain enzymes? A. Amino acids B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Carbohydrate
C. Proteins
220
Monomers of proteins and not a general macromolecule category A. Amino acids B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Carbohydrate
A. Amino acids
221
Enzymes are a kind of A. Amino acids B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Carbohydrate
C. Proteins
222
Include fats, oils, waxes and sterols. A. Amino acids B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Carbohydrate
B. Lipids
223
How does genetic information result in linking a particular sequence of amino acids to make a protein? A. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and transfer RNA molecules serve as "bridges" between that mRNA and amino acids. B. DNA serves as a template for the production of transfer RNA, and messenger RNA molecules serve as "bridges" between transfer RNA and amino acids C. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and transfer RNA molecules serve as "bridges" between that mRNA and DNA D. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and amino acid molecule serve as "bridges" between that mRNA and transfer RNA.
A. DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA, and transfer RNA molecules serve as "bridges" between that mRNA and amino acids.
224
__is transcribed from a template of DNA A. mRNA B. Ribosomes C. Amino acids D. tRNA
A. mRNA
225
One end of transfer RNA attaches to the __produced and the other end of that ___is attached to a predictable amino acid. In this way, __"bridges" mRNA and each amino acid A. mRNA B. Ribosomes C. Amino acids D. tRNA
D. tRNA
226
In Mendelian inheritance, which of the following is a condition of an F1 monohybrid cross? A. All of the offspring express the dominant trait B. A cross is made between parents that are heterozygous at two specific genes C. A cross is made between parents that are heterozygous at one specific gene. D. All of the offspring express the recessive trait
C. A cross is made between parents that are heterozygous at one specific gene.
227
A trait is __ if it is displayed when there is only one of those alleles present in the genotype. A. recessive B. dominant C. Dihybrid cross D. heterozygous
B. dominant
228
A ___ is a cross between parents heterozygous at two specific genes. A. recessive B. dominant C. Dihybrid cross D. heterozygous
C. Dihybrid cross
229
A __ trait is one that is masked if dominant alleles are also present. A. recessive B. dominant C. Dihybrid cross D. heterozygous
A. recessive
230
Atomic mass has a decimal because it is the average __of all the isotopes for a particular element. The atomic number of an element is the number of __ in its nucleus. A. Number of electrons; protons B. mass; protons C. Mass; neutrons D. Protons; neutrons
B. mass; protons
231
The __ is an integer value indicating the number of protons in one atom of an element. A. neutrons B. Protons C. Electrons D. Atomic Number E. Atomic mass
D. Atomic Number
232
The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. This molecule is made up of 24 __ and 3 __. A. Atoms; elements B. ions; elements C. electrons; atoms D. atoms; electrons
A. Atoms; elements
233
smallest quantity of an element that is able to maintain the characteristics of said element. A. Atom B. neutron C. Proton D. Atomic mass E. Atomic number
A. Atom
234
Charged atom A. Atom B. neutron C. Proton D. Atomic mass E. Atomic number F. Ion
F. Ion
235
Subatomic particle that orbits the nucleus of an atom A. Atom B. neutron C. Proton D. Atomic mass E. Electron
E. Electron
236
On the periodic table, the number of which of the following particles in each element increases as you move down in periods and toward the right of the periodic table? A. Protons B. Isotopes C. Cations D. Anions
A. Protons
237
Versions of the same elements with different numbers of neutrons A. Protons B. Isotopes C. Cations D. Anions
B. Isotopes
238
Positively charged atom A. Protons B. Isotopes C. Cations D. Anions
C. Cations
239
Negatively charged atom A. Protons B. Isotopes C. Cations D. Anions
D. Anions
240
The direct transition from a solid to a gas may occur through which of the following? A. Condensation B. Deposition C. Sublimation D. Melting
C. Sublimation
241
In a redox reaction, the species in the reaction that loses the electron is __ and the species that gains the electron is __ A. Reduced; dissociated B. Oxidized; reduced C. Oxidized; denatured D. Reduced; oxidized
B. Oxidized; reduced
242
When the components of a salt are placed in a solvent that causes their constituent ions to separate, the salt has __ A. Reduced B. Dissociated C. Oxidized D. Denatured
B. Dissociated
243
When an enzyme's structure has been altered to the point at which it loses its ability to function, that enzyme is said to be A. Reduced B. Dissociated C. Oxidized D. Denatured
D. Denatured
244
The __ species loses an electron. A. Reduced B. Dissociated C. Oxidized D. Denatured
C. Oxidized
245
The __ gains the electron A. Reduced B. Dissociated C. Oxidized D. Denatured
A. Reduced
246
Formula to measure volume of rectangular box?
Volume= height x length x width
247
Which of the following describes a conclusion? A. A linked trend in data B. A set of empirical data C. A prejudiced determination in favor of an idea D. An end judgment based on data.
D. An end judgment based on data.
248
A __ is a linked trend in data A. Conclusion B. Prejudice C. Empirical D. Correlation
D. Correlation
249
If something is __, it is based on observation. A. Conclusion B. Prejudice C. Empirical D. Correlation
C. Empirical
250
A bias is a __in favor of an idea A. Conclusion B. Prejudice C. Empirical D. Correlation
B. Prejudice
251
A __ is an end judgment based on data. A. Conclusion B. Prejudice C. Empirical D. Correlation
A. Conclusion