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HESI Practice Test > Scientific Basis > Flashcards

Scientific Basis Flashcards

(58 cards)

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1
Q

Under which classification of gingival disease and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found?
A. Plaque-Induced Gingival Diseases Modified by Systemic Factors.
B. Non-plaque Induced Gingival Manifestations by Traumatic Lesions.
C. Plaque Induced Gingival Diseases Modified by Medications.
D. Non-plaque Induced Gingival Diseases of Viral Origin.

A

A. Plaque-Induced Gingival Diseases Modified by Systemic Factors

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2
Q

A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. What is most likely the diagnosis?

A

Ankyloglossia

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3
Q

When is tooth eruption complete?

A

When tooth has made contact with it’s antagonist(s) in opposing jaw

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4
Q

When does the mixed dentition begin?

A

Eruption of the first permanent tooth

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5
Q

What is the number of successional (succedaneous) teeth in the permanent dentition?

A

20

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6
Q

T/F: The junction of a becalm and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary molar is an example o

A

True, False.

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7
Q 
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?
A. Discoloration
B. Decreased Fluoride Content
C. Regeneration
D. Reduced Permeability
A

D. Reduced Permeability

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8
Q

Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar?

A

Distolingual

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9
Q

T/F: The height of contour is the greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically.

A

True

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10
Q

How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight-year-old child?

A

Fourteen primary; Ten permanent

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11
Q

What describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown?

A

Line Angle

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12
Q

What describes the junction of three surfaces of a crown?

A

Point Angle

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13
Q

What G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incisal edge or angle?

A

IV

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14
Q

What ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars?

A

Oblique

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15
Q

What division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint?

A

Mandibular

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16
Q

Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of what cranial nerve?

A

VII

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17
Q

What is the target area for the IA nerve block?

A

Mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible

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18
Q

What salivary gland is unencapsulated?

A

Sublingual

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19
Q

What type of joint is the Temporomandibular?

A

Synovial

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20
Q

What PNS and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion?

A

Autonomic; sympathetic

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21
Q

T/F: Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions in the saliva.

A

True, False.

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22
Q

What bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions?

A

Aciduric

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23
Q

T/F: Anaerobe bacteria multiply in the presence of oxygen?

A

False

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24
Q

T/F: Anaerobe bacteria grow only in the absence of oxygen?

25
What bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis?
Capsule
26
What kind of bacteria grows best in refrigerated conditions?
Psychrophils | You have to be psycho to love the cold
27
Endotoxin is a virulence property of what?
gram-negative bacteria
28
T/F: Viruses must enter host cells before they can multiply
True
29
T/F: Viruses are much larger than bacteria?
False
30
What is treated with nystatin?
Candidiasis (Fungal diseases)
31
What is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine?
Anti-HBs
32
What hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves?
I
33
What bacterial genus contains species that cause rheumatic fever, scarlet fever and pharyngitis?
Streptococcus
34
``` Each of the following us an anti tuberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. NIzoral B. Isoniazid C. Rifampin D. Ethambutol ```
A. Nizoral
35
A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "QID" How frequently should the medication be taken?
Four Times a Day
36
What schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states, "NO REFILLS?"
II
37
What vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide?
Cobalamin (B12)
38
Of the following, what is a good source of vitamin K? | Kale, Milk, Sweet Potatoes or Strawberries?
Kale
39
What medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack?
Albuterol
40
What type of drug is Lipitor?
A statin used to lower cholesterol levels
41
T/F and relation: Consuming foods high in retinols will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium.
Both the statement and reason are true but not related
42
What element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates?
Nitrogen
43
Some of vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of
intestinal bacteria
44
What vitamin is associated with the deficiency BeriBeri?
Thiamin
45
What is primarily responsible for pharmacologic metabolism?
Liver
46
What procedure is the most definitive diagnosis for oral cancer?
Scalpel biopsy
47
A 17-year-old presents for third molar evaluation. The panoramic radiograph reveals the apical third of roots #1 and #2 have fused together. What best describes this anomaly?
Concrescence
48
A patients intraoral examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures approximately 2 mm in diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. What best describes the lesion?
Hemangioma
49
Intraoral lesions may occur with each of the following EXCEPT one, which is the EXCEPTION? Chickenpox, Basal Cell Carcinoma, Infectious mononucleosis, or Kaposi sarcoma
Basal Cell Carcinoma
50
In what region does an early symptom of measles appear?
Buccal Mucosa
51
A pregnant woman reports a freely moveable, deep red tissue mass, which extends from the labial gingiva between maxillary right premolars. The surface of the lesion is ulcerated and bleeds easily. A histologic analysis indicates the lesion is composed of connective tissue, capillaries and inflammatory cells. What best defines the lesion?
Pyogenic Granuloma
52
A patients buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. This finding is a clinical manifestation of what?
Lichen Planus
53
The parents of a 7-year-old are concerned by the development of a soft, blue, vesicle-like swelling on the gingiva where tooth #8 is expected to erupt. No significant radiographic findings exist other than the partial eruption of tooth #8. What is the course of action recommended?
No treatment is required; the cyst will dissipate naturally.
54
What best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris?
Autoimmune response
55
T/F: The most common tumor of the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on the floor of the mouth.
False, True
56
During pregnancy, when do most embryonic cleft malformations occur?
First Trimester
57
Where is chronic atrophic candidiasis most likely found?
Palate
58
What best explains the phenomenon of referred pain?
Convergence of sensory nerve impulses

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