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State Boards: Cosmetology > Scientific Concepts 1 > Flashcards

Scientific Concepts 1 Flashcards

1
Q

OSHA and state regulatory agencies require that SDSs be ____.
A:kept available in the salon for all products used in the salon
B:provided to all employees in bound form
C:updated at least every six months
D:discussed with clients prior to services being rendered

A

A: kept available in the salon for all products used in the salon

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2
Q

Which action is best defined as removing all visible dirt and debris from tools, implements, and equipment by washing with soap and water?
A:decontaminating
B:disinfecting
C:scrubbing
D:cleaning

A

D: cleaning 1

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3
Q

Nonpathogenic bacteria are ___.
A: harmful
B:harmless
C:disease-producing
D: toxic

A

B: harmless

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4
Q

Round-shaped bacteria are called ___.
A: bacilli
B: cocci
C: spirilla
D: retrobacteria

A

B: cocci

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5
Q

Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria are called ___.
A: bacilli
B: cocci
C: spirilla
D: retrobacteria

A

C: spirilla

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6
Q

Inflammation is charaterized by which of the following?
A: swelling
B: decreased blood flow
C: chilling of tissue
D: numbness

A

A: swelling

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7
Q

A sign of a bacterial infection is the presence of ___.
A: lesions
B: tissue
C: pus
D: blood

A

C: pus

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8
Q

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) initially appears as a ___.
A: skin infection
B: respiratory infection
C: gastrointestinal infection
D: systemic infection

A

A: skin infection

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9
Q

A disease that is transmitted from one person to another is called ___.
A: charateristic
B: communicable
C: communal
D: microbial

A

B: communicable

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10
Q

A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a ___.
A: bacteria
B: parasite
C: virus
D: contaminant

A

C: virus

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11
Q

Poisonous substances produced by some microorganisms are called ___.
A: contaminants
B: toxins
C: bacilli
D: pathogens

A

B: toxins

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12
Q

A reaction due to extreme sensitivity to certain foods, chemicals, or other normally harmless substances is a(n) ___.
A: allergy
B: infection
C: disease
D: parasite

A

A: allergy

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13
Q

Single-use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be ___.
A: discarded
B: washed
C: stored
D: immersed

A

A: discarded

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14
Q

___ gloves are considered the best choice for use in nail services because they are made of more durable material and help eliminate the possibility of latex allergy.
A: latex
B: vinyl
C: nitrile
D: cotton

A

C: nitrile

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15
Q

Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called ___.
A: personal protective equipment
B: standard precautions
C: universal precautions
D: infection control equipment

A

A: personal protective equipment

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16
Q

When hand washing, it is important to rub hands together fro a minimum of how long?
A: 20 secs
B: 30 secs
C: one min
D: two mins

A

A: 20 seconds

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17
Q

Which scenario is an example of an exposure incident?
A: a client slips and falls, spraining her ankle
B: a client is found to have head lice
C: a cosmetologist provides a service for which she is not licensed
D: a cosmetologist cuts herself while providing a service to a client

A

D: a cosmetologist cuts herself while providing a service to a client

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18
Q

You hungrily take a bite of steaming hot pizza and the bubbling cheese burns the inside of your mouth. What type of tissue have you damaged?
A: endocrine
B: epithelial
C: nerve
D: lymphatic

A

B: epithelial

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19
Q

Structures composed of specialized tissues that perform specific functions in plants and animals are called ___.
A: cells
B: hormones
C: organs
D: neurons

A

C: organs

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20
Q

The physical foundation of the body consisting of bones connected by joints is the ___.
A: nervous system
B: skeletal system
C: muscular system
D: endocrine system

A

B: skeletal system

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21
Q

How many bones are in the adult human body?
A: 186
B: 196
C: 206
D: 216

A

C: 206

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22
Q

The facial skeleton has how many bones?
A: six
B: eight
C: twelve
D: fourteen

A

D: fourteen

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23
Q

The elastic, bony cage that acts as a protective framework for the heart and lungs is the ___.
A: sternum
B: thorax
C: scapula
D: clavicle

A

B: thorax

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24
Q

The ankle joint is composed of how many bones?
A: three
B: four
C: six
D: nine

A

A: three

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25
Q

The middle part of the muscle is called the ___.
A: nucleus
B: belly
C: insertion
D: orgin

A

B: belly

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26
Q

Which muscle can easily be damaged during maekup application?
A: corrugator
B: orbicularis oculi
C: platysma
D: levator palpebrae superioris

A

D: levator palpebrae superioris

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27
Q

Muscles that draw the fingers together the fingers are called ___.
A: abductors
B: pronators
C: adductors
D: extensors

A

C: adductors

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28
Q

The nervous system as a whole is divided into how many main subdivisions?
A: two
B: three
C: four
D: six

A

B: three

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29
Q

The simplest form of nervous activity that includes a sensory and motor nerve is called a(n) ___.
A: reflex
B: instinct
C: activation
D: inflammation

A

A: reflex

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30
Q

The word integument was ___.
A: blood vessels
B: hormone
C: natural covering
D: gland

A

C: natural covering

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31
Q

Ductless glands that release secretion of hormones directly into the bloodstream are ___.
A: endocrine glands
B: digestive glands
C: exocrine glands
D: sweat glands

A

A: endocrine glands

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32
Q

How might a cosmetologist notice changes in a client’s thyroid function?
A: swollen lymph nodes in the neck
B: changes in the growth rate, quality, or texture of hair or nails
C: signs of infection including abscesses
D: improved muscle tone throughout the body

A

B: changes in the growth rate, quality, or texture of hair or nails

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33
Q

What is a fibrous protein that is the principal component of hair and nails?
A: keratin
B: elastin
C: dermal papillae
D: collagen

A

A: keratin

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34
Q

The skin layer in which the shedding of skin cells first begins is the stratum ___.
A: lucidum
B: corneum
C: spinosum
D: granulosum

A

C: spinosum

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35
Q

The underlying or inner layer of the skin, which is also called the derma corium , cutis, or true skin, is the ___.
A: papillary
B: derma
C: dermis
D: epidermis

A

D: dermis

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36
Q

The deeper layer of the dermis that supplies the skin with oxygen and nutrients is the ___.
A: papillary layer
B: subcutaneous layer
C: reticular layer
D: basal layer

A

C: reticular layer

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37
Q

Fatty tissue found below the dermis is called ___.
A: tactile
B: papillae
C: subcutaneous tissue
D: papillary layer

A

C: subcutaneous tissue

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38
Q

Vitamin __ promotes the production of collagen.
A: A
B: C
C: B
D: D

A

B: C

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39
Q

Which vitamin enables the body to properly absorb and use calcium?
A: A
B: C
C: D
D: E

A

C: D

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40
Q

A freckle is an example of a mark on the skin known as a __.
A: pustule
B: lesion
C: cyst
D: bulla

A

B: lesion

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41
Q

A large blister containing a watery fluid is a ___.
A: sac
B: freckle
C: bulla
D: papule

A

C: bulla

42
Q

A flat spot or discoloration on the skin is a ___.
A: pustule
B: bulla
C: lesion
D: macule

A

D: macule

43
Q

A __ forms from a papule when dead white bleed cells accumulate in it.
A: papilla
B: pustule
C: wheal
D: vesicle

A

B: pustule

44
Q

A(n) ___ is an itchy, swollen lesion that can be caused by a number of factors and usually resolves by itself.
A: ulcer
B: sebaceous cyst
C: wheal
D: tubercle

A

C: wheal

45
Q

Dead cells that form over a wound or blemish while it is healing comprise a ___.
A: crust
B: macule
C: tubercle
D: vesicle

A

A: crust

46
Q

___ refers to a skin sore or abrasion producedd by scratching or scrapping.
A: excorciation
B: stain
C: psoriasis
D: keratoma

A

A: excorciation

47
Q

Cracks in the skin that penetrate the dermis layer, such as chapped hands or lips, are ___.
A: tissues
B: fissures
C: tumors
D: tubercles

A

B: fissures

48
Q

Which of the following is a secondary lesion?
A: bulla
B: cyst
C: keloid
D: nodule

A

C: keloid

49
Q

A ___ is a large protruding pocket-like lesion filled with sebum.
A: pustule
B: sebaccous cyst
C: verruca
D: keratoma

A

B: sebaccous cyst

50
Q

Distended or dilated surace blood vessels are called ___.
A: fissures
B: excoriation
C: telangiectasias
D: macula

A

C: telangiectasias

51
Q

Excessive sweating, caused by heat or general body weakness is ___.
A: anhidrosis
B: bromhidrosis
C: prickly heat
D: hyperhidrosis

A

D: hyperhidrosis

52
Q

A ___ is a small brown or flesh-colored outgrowth of the skin.
A: stain
B: sebaceous cyst
C: skin tag
D: keratoma

A

C: skin tag

53
Q

Hypertrophy of the papillae and epidermis is a ___.
A: verruca
B: keratoma
C: mole
D: stain

A

A: verruca

54
Q

The two types of contact dermatitis are ___.
A: alleric and irritant
B: genetic and infectious
C: viral and bacterial
D: primary and secondary

A

A: allergic and irritant

55
Q

Which of the following may appear to be one solid piece, but is actually constructed of about 100 layers of nail cells?
A: lunula
B: nail bed
C: nail folds
D: nail plate

A

D: nail plate

56
Q

The nail bed contains many nerves and is attached to the nail plate with a thin layer of tissue called the ___.
A: bed eponychium
B: bed lunula
C: nail mantle
D: bed epithelium

A

D: bed epithelium

57
Q

Karen is very nervous at her first job interview. Her hands are sweating so much that she thinks her fingernails are sweating. In reality, from which part of the nail unit is the sweat most likely arising?
A: lunula
B: nail bed
C: nail folds
D: nail plate

A

C: nail folds

58
Q

The area of the nail where the nail plate cells are formed is the ___.
A: extension
B: matrix
C: lunula
D: free edge

A

B: matrix

59
Q

The dead, colorless tissue attached to the natural nail plate is the ___.
A: ligament
B: eponychium
C: cuticle
D: lunula

A

C: cuticle

60
Q

The nail bed and matrix bed are attached to the underlying bone by ___.
A: ligaments
B: nail folds
C: nail grooves
D: eponychium cells

A

A: ligaments

61
Q

A longer nail matrix produces a ___ nail plate.
A: longer
B: shorter
C: thicker
D: thinner

A

C: thicker

62
Q

Nail growth rates increase dramatically during ___.
A: winter
B: old age
C: the last trimester of pregnancy
D: after pregnancy and the delivery of a baby

A

C: the last trimester of pregnancy

63
Q

Visible depressions running across the width of the natural nail plate that are the result of a major illness or injury are known as ___.
A: eggshell nails
B: narrow lines
C: beau’s lines
D: hangnails

A

C: beau’s lines

64
Q

When the eponychium or other living tissue surrounding the nail plate becomes split or torn, a ___ occurs.
A: purogenic granuloma
B: trumpet nail
C: splinter hemorrhage
D: hangnail

A

D: hangnail

65
Q

Redness, pain, and swelling are best described as signs of a(n) ___.
A: cosmetic defect
B: deformity
C: infection
D: abrasion

A

C: infection

66
Q

A dark band within the nail plate extending from the base to the free edge due to increased pigmentation is know as ___.
A: melanin nails
B: onycholysis
C: onychophagy
D: melanonychia

A

D: melanonychia

67
Q

Excessive use of __ can cause onychorrhexis.
A: hot oil treatments
B: nail strenghtners
C: cuticle removers
D: nail polish

A

C: cuticle removers

68
Q

Ridges running vertically down the natural nail plate are caused by ___.
A: overgrowth and polish
B: medication and cold temperatures
C: uneven growth and age
D: bitten nails

A

C: uneven growth and age

69
Q

__ are always be positioned lengthwise in the direction of growth.
A: splinter hemorrhages
B: hangnails
C: koilonychia
D: leukonychia

A

A: splinter hemorrhages

70
Q

Moriah has a nail deformity. The general term for her condition is ___.
A: onyx
B: onychia
C: onychosis
D: onychophosis

A

C: onychosis

71
Q

Inflammation of the nail matrix followed by shredding of the natural nail plate is known as ___.
A: onychia
B: onyx
C: fungi
D: flagella

A

A: onychia

72
Q

Severe inflammation of the nail in which a lump of red tissue grows up from the nail bed to the nail plate is called ___.
A: pyogenic granuloma
B: trumpet nail
C: splinter hemorrhages
D: onychophagy

A

A: pyogenic granuloma

73
Q

A friend shows you paperwork from a doctor stating that he has tinea pedis. What is his condition?
A: scaling skin
B: whitish patches on the nail
C: athlete’s foot
D: ingrown nails

A

C: athlete’s foot

74
Q

The hair, skin, nails, and glands are part of the ___ system.
A: epidermal
B: integumentary
C: endocrine
D: lymphatic

A

B: integumentary

75
Q

A small, cone-shaped area located at the base of the hair follicle that fits into the hair bulb is the ___.
A: hair follicle
B: hair strand
C: dermal papilla
D: dermal cuticle

A

C: dermal papilla

76
Q

What is the oily substance secreted by the skin’s oil glands that lubricates the hair and skin?
A: keratin
B: sebum
C: mucous
D: helix

A

B: sebum

77
Q

What is the outermost layer of hair?
A: hair follicle
B: hair medulla
C: hair cuticle
D: hair cortex

A

C: hair cuticle

78
Q

A lengthwise section of hair shows that cuticle scales overlap and each individual cuticle scale is attached to the ___.
A: medulla
B: melanin
C: cortex
D: root

A

C: cortex

79
Q

What substances are compromised of long, coiled, complex polypeptides made amino acids?
A: proteins
B: carbohydrates
C: keratins
D: melanins

A

A: proteins

80
Q

A weak, physical, cross-link side bond between adjacent polypeptide chains that is broken by changes in pH is a __ bond.
A: hydrogen
B: carbon
C: salt
D: sulfur

A

C: salt

81
Q

Permanent waving and hair relaxers change the shape of hair by chemically altering the hair’s ___.
A: hydrogen bonds
B: ionic bonds
C: disulfide bonds
D: amino acids

A

C: disulfide bonds

82
Q

The pigment that provides brown or black color to hair is ___.
A: ionic
B: eumelanin
C: pheomelanin
D: telogen

A

B: eumelanin

83
Q

What pigment in hair provides natural colors ranging from red to ginger to yellow and blonde tones?
A: eumelanin
B: neuromelanin
C: pheomelanin
D: keratin

A

C: pheomelanin

84
Q

What type of hair is short, fine, unpigmented, and downy?
A: vellus hair
B: terminal hair
C: androgenic hair
D: feathered hair

A

A: vellus hair

85
Q

Temporary hair loss experienced at the end of preganancy is called ___.
A: congenital alopecia
B: postpartum alopecia
C: involutional alopecia
D: androgenic alopeia

A

B: postpartum alopecia

86
Q

What is a condition that is charaterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft?
A: fragilitas crinium
B: trichorrhexis nodosa
C: alopecia areata
D: hypertrichosis

A

B: trichorrhexis nodosa

87
Q

What is a severe type of dandruff charaterized by accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp scales mixed with sebum?
A: pityriasis capitis
B: tinea favosa
C: pityriasis papules
D: pityriasis steatoides

A

D: pityiriasis steatoides

88
Q

What severe form of dandruff is accompanied by redness and iflammation?
A: pityriasis capitis simplex
B: pityriasis steatoides
C: seborrheic dermatitis
D: folliculitis

A

C: seborrheic dermatitis

89
Q

The ability of hair to stretch and return to its orginal length without breaking is referred to as hair ___.
A: density
B: elasticity
C: porosity
D: resistance

A

B: elasticity

90
Q

Dry hair and scalp should be treated with products that contain moisturizers and ___.
A: sulfur
B: dessicants
C: alcohol
D: emollients

A

D: emollients

91
Q

What is the study of substances that lack the element carbon, but may contain the element hydrogen?
A: inorganic chemistry
B: physical chemistry
C: stereochemistry
D: biochemistry

A

A: inorganic chemistry

92
Q

The chemical combination of two or more atoms of different elements produces a(n) ___.
A: compound
B: solution
C: neutral
D: acid

A

A: compound

93
Q

What type of chemical reaction results in the oxidizing agent being reduced and the reducing agent being oxidized?
A: decomposition
B: simple displacement
C: neutralization
D: redox

A

D: redox

94
Q

The rapid oxidation of a sbstance, accompanied by the production of heat and light, is known as ___.
A: implosion
B: combustion
C: entropy
D: synthesis

A

B: combustion

95
Q

Air contains many substances, including nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor, and is an example of a ___.
A: physical mixture
B: chemical change
C: pure substance
D: chemical compound

A

A: physical mixture

96
Q

Mutually soluble liquids that can be mixed together to form clear solutions are ___.
A: fusible
B: miscible
C: solvents
D: compatible

A

B: miscible

97
Q

An unstable physical mixture of two or more immiscible substances is a(n) ___.
A: synthesis
B: emulsion
C: suspension
D: solution

A

B: emulsion

98
Q

Substances that allow oil and water to mix, or emulsify, are ___.
A: suspensions
B: mixtures
C: particles
D: surfactants

A

D: surfactants

99
Q

“Having an affinity ot attraction to fat and oils (oil-loving)” is defined as ___.
A: lipophilic
B: oligophilic
C: lyophilic
D: oxyphilic

A

A: lipophilic

100
Q

An atom or molecule that carries an electrical charge is a(n) ___.
A: electrolyte
B: ion
C: current
D: conductor

A

B: ion

State Boards: Cosmetology (4 decks)

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