Scribe America ED Exam Flashcards
(148 cards)
1
Q
What are the components of the ED Flow?
A
Check in & triage, history & physical, differential diagnosis, orders & treatments, medical decision-making (MDM), disposition
2
Q
What does PMHx stand for?
A
Past medical history
3
Q
What are the three components of the Triple Threat?
A
- High cholesterol: hyperlipidemia (HLD)
- High blood pressure: hypertension (HTN)
- Diabetes: diabetes mellitus (DM)
4
Q
What is NIDDM?
A
Pills for diabetes
5
Q
What is IDDM?
A
Insulin shots
6
Q
What does MI stand for?
A
Myocardial infarction
7
Q
What is COPD?
A
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which includes emphysema or chronic bronchitis
8
Q
What does PE mean in a medical context?
A
Pulmonary embolism
9
Q
What is GERD?
A
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
10
Q
What does PUD stand for?
A
Peptic ulcer disease
11
Q
What is pyelonephritis?
A
Kidney infection
12
Q
What are renal calculi?
A
Kidney stones
13
Q
What does CKD stand for?
A
Chronic kidney disease
14
Q
What is BPH?
A
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
15
Q
What does GPA refer to in medical terms?
A
Gravida, para, abortus
16
Q
What is a CVA?
A
Cerebrovascular accident
17
Q
What is the difference between ischemic CVA and hemorrhagic CVA?
A
- Ischemic CVA: blockage of brain
- Hemorrhagic CVA: brain bleed
18
Q
What does TIA stand for?
A
Transient ischemic attack
19
Q
What is DVT?
A
Deep vein thrombosis
20
Q
What does PVD stand for?
A
Peripheral vascular disease
21
Q
What is an aortic aneurysm?
A
Bulge in aorta
22
Q
What is CABG?
A
Coronary artery bypass graft
23
Q
What is angioplasty?
A
Balloon procedure for coronary artery disease
24
Q
What is a coronary stent?
A
Stents placed in the heart
25
What does Chole refer to?
Gall bladder prefix
26
What does Nephre refer to?
Kidney prefix
27
What does Hepa refer to?
Liver prefix
28
What is a mastectomy?
Surgical removal of breast
29
What is a partial lobectomy?
Surgical removal of part of a lobe
30
What is an appendectomy?
Surgical removal of the appendix
31
What is a cholecystectomy?
Surgical removal of the gallbladder
32
What is a partial colectomy?
Surgical removal of part of the colon
33
What is a splenectomy?
Surgical removal of the spleen
34
What is a nephrectomy?
Surgical removal of a kidney
35
What is a hysterectomy?
Surgical removal of the uterus
36
What is an oophorectomy?
Surgical removal of an ovary
37
What is a salpingo-oophorectomy?
Surgical removal of both an ovary and fallopian tube
38
What is a prostatectomy?
Surgical removal of the prostate
39
Where would you document that a patient's abdomen was nontender?
Physical exam
40
What are the five vital signs?
* HR
* RR
* BP
* T
* SpO2
41
What are the symptoms of CAD?
Exertional chest pain and shortness of breath; improved with nitroglycerin + rest
42
What are the symptoms of MI?
* Exertional chest pain/pressure
* Shortness of breath
* Nausea/vomiting
* Diaphoresis
43
What are the symptoms of CHF?
* Shortness of breath
* Orthopnea
* Bilateral leg swelling
44
What are the symptoms of AFib?
Palpitations
45
What are the symptoms of PE?
* Pleuritic chest pain
* Shortness of breath
46
What are the symptoms of COPD?
* Chronic shortness of breath
* Wheezing
* Cough
* Chest tightness
47
What are the symptoms of asthma?
* Attacks of shortness of breath
* Cough
* Wheezing
* Chest tightness
48
What are the symptoms of pneumonia?
* Productive cough
* Fever
* Shortness of breath
* Chest pain
49
What are the symptoms of ischemic CVA?
Focal neurological deficits
50
What are the symptoms of hemorrhagic CVA?
Thunderclap headache, focal neurological deficits
51
What are the symptoms of TIA?
Transient focal neurological deficits
52
What are the symptoms of meningitis?
* Headache
* Neck pain/stiffness
* Fever
53
What are the symptoms of cholelithiasis?
Right upper quadrant pain worse with eating fatty food
54
What are the symptoms of appendicitis?
Right lower quadrant pain worse with movement
55
What are the symptoms of aortic aneurysm?
Ripping/tearing chest pain that may radiate to the back
56
What are the symptoms of nephrolithiasis?
One-sided flank pain + hematuria
57
What are the symptoms of UTI?
Dysuria, suprapubic tenderness
58
What are the symptoms of sepsis?
Fever or altered mental status with abnormal vitals
59
What does FND stand for?
Focal neurological deficits
60
What is an aortic dissection?
Tear of aortic lining
61
What is cellulitis?
Skin cell infection
62
What is an abscess?
Skin infection with pus
63
What is angina?
Chest pain due to CAD
64
What is postictal?
State after seizure
65
What does NTG stand for?
Nitroglycerin
66
What is the purpose of ASA?
Antiplatelet to prevent blockage in coronary arteries
67
What does tPA do?
Thrombolytic that breaks up blood clots in the brain during ischemic CVA
68
What is Coumadin?
Blood thinner
69
What are bronchodilators used for?
Treatment for COPD
70
What are the risk factors for CAD?
* PMHx of triple threat
* Recent travel
* Sick contact
71
What are the risk factors for hemorrhagic CVA?
* Anticoagulant use
* Recent head trauma
* Hypertension
72
What are the risk factors for ischemic CVA?
* Triple threat
* Atrial fibrillation
73
What are the risk factors for PE?
* Recent DVT
* Clotting factors
* Immobilization
* Hormone changes
74
What does the Glasgow Coma Scale measure?
Consciousness level from 3-15
75
How is CAD diagnosed?
Cardiac catheterization
76
What is the imaging test for CHF?
Chest X-ray or elevated BNP
77
What is the imaging test for PE?
CTA Chest or VQ scan
78
What is the imaging test for pneumonia?
Chest X-ray
79
What is the imaging test for gallstones?
Abdominal ultrasound of RUQ
80
What is the imaging test for kidney stones?
CT abdomen/pelvis or RBC in urinalysis
81
What is the imaging test for brain bleed?
CT head or lumbar puncture
82
What is the imaging test for ischemic CVA?
Clinically assessed, potential normal CT head
83
What are the two types of MI?
* STEMI
* NSTEMI
84
What does STEMI indicate?
Large elevation in ST/T on EKG
85
What does NSTEMI indicate?
Small, no change in EKG
86
What is the function of bile?
Emulsifies fats in food
87
What is cholelithiasis?
Gallstones
88
What is cholecystitis?
Acute gallbladder inflammation/infection
89
What are the complaints for SBO?
* Abdominal pain/bloating
* Vomiting
* Abdominal distention
* No bowel movements
90
What are four causes of altered mental status?
* Hypoglycemia
* Infection
* Intoxication
* Neurological issues
91
What does AMS stand for?
Altered mental status
92
What is the difference between AMS and FND?
* AMS: whole brain
* FND: localized to one section of the brain
93
What are three things to document for trauma patients?
* Level of consciousness
* Head injury
* Neck pain
94
If someone has a PMHx of A-Fib or CHF, do they also have CAD?
No
95
What is the normal range for blood pressure?
120/80
96
What is the normal pulse rate?
60-100 bpm
97
What is the normal respiratory rate?
12-18
98
What is the normal body temperature?
98.6
99
What is the normal oxygen saturation?
Over 96%
100
What does leukocytosis indicate?
High white blood cell count, suggesting infection
101
What does low hemoglobin indicate?
Anemia
102
What does low hematocrit indicate?
Anemia
103
What does low platelets indicate?
Thrombocytopenia
104
What does high sodium indicate?
Hypernatremia
105
What does low sodium indicate?
Hyponatremia
106
What does high potassium indicate?
Hyperkalemia
107
What does high BUN and creatinine indicate?
Renal insufficiency or failure
108
What does high glucose indicate?
Hyperglycemia
109
What does low bicarbonate indicate?
Hyperventilation
110
What does low total protein indicate?
Hemorrhage, liver disease, or kidney disease
111
What does low albumin indicate?
Liver or kidney problem
112
What does high AST/ALT indicate?
Liver damage
113
What is included in a cardiac order set?
* Troponin
* EKG
* CXR
* CBC
* BMP
114
What does a positive D-Dimer indicate?
Order more tests to rule out PE
115
What does a high BNP indicate?
CHF
116
What does a high lactate indicate?
Sepsis or cell death
117
What does a positive blood culture indicate?
Sepsis
118
What does many WBC in urinalysis indicate?
UTI
119
What does many RBC in urinalysis indicate?
Possible UTI or kidney stones
120
What does many bacteria in urinalysis indicate?
UTI
121
What are the indications for chest X-ray?
* Pneumonia
* Pneumothorax
* Widened mediastinum
* Pleural effusion
* CHF
122
What does CT A/P or RBC in UA help diagnose?
Kidney stones
123
What does CT head help diagnose?
Brain bleed
124
What are the possible causes of RBC in urine?
Possible UTI or kidney stones
## Footnote
RBC stands for red blood cells, which may indicate various medical conditions.
125
What is a common cause of bacteria in urine?
UTI
## Footnote
UTI stands for urinary tract infection.
126
What do many epithelial cells in a specimen indicate?
Contaminated specimen
## Footnote
Epithelial cells can suggest that the sample is not pure.
127
What conditions can a chest X-ray diagnose?
Pneumonia, pneumothorax, widened mediastinum, pleural effusion, CHF
## Footnote
CHF stands for congestive heart failure.
128
What can an Acute Abdominal Series/Kidneys Ureters Bladder (AAS/KUB) reveal?
Free air, SBO, constipation, large kidney stones
## Footnote
SBO stands for small bowel obstruction.
129
What are typical findings on all other x-rays?
Fracture, dislocation, joint effusion
130
What does a CT Head without IV contrast assess?
Large hemorrhagic or ischemic CVA
## Footnote
CVA stands for cerebrovascular accident, commonly known as a stroke.
131
What can a CT C-spine/T-spine/L-spine detect?
Cervical/thoracic/lumbar spine fracture or subluxation
## Footnote
Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation.
132
What conditions can a CT Chest diagnose?
PNA, PTX, pleural effusion, rib fracture
## Footnote
PNA stands for pneumonia and PTX stands for pneumothorax.
133
What can a CT Abd/Pel detect?
Kidney stones, pyelonephritis
## Footnote
Pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection.
134
What is assessed in a CTA Chest?
Pulmonary embolism, aortic dissection
## Footnote
CTA stands for CT angiogram.
135
What can a CTA Abd/Pel reveal?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
136
What does a CTA Head examine?
Hemorrhagic CVA, ischemic CVA
137
What conditions are assessed in a CTA Neck?
Carotid dissection, carotid occlusion
138
What can a CT Abd/Pel with PO contrast diagnose?
Appendicitis, SBO, diverticulitis, ischemic gut
139
What does an Ultrasound Doppler of Lower Extremities assess?
DVT
## Footnote
DVT stands for deep vein thrombosis.
140
What can an Abdominal Ultrasound of RUQ indicate?
Gallbladder issues
141
What does an Ultrasound Obstetrics/Transvaginal examine?
IUP, ectopic pregnancy, ovarian cyst
## Footnote
IUP stands for intrauterine pregnancy.
142
What conditions can an Ultrasound of the Scrotum detect?
Testicular torsion or mass
143
What are the two instrumental tests for a heart attack?
EKG and troponin
144
What are the two instrumental tests for CHF?
Elevated BNP and CXR
## Footnote
BNP stands for B-type natriuretic peptide and CXR stands for chest X-ray.
145
What does a drop in Beta HCG Quant indicate?
Miscarriage
146
What does NSR stand for?
Normal sinus rhythm
147
What are the four CCT qualifying diagnoses?
MI, PE, Severe GI bleed, CVA
## Footnote
MI stands for myocardial infarction and PE stands for pulmonary embolism.
148
What does AMA stand for?
Against medical advice
