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CE1 September exam > Seabee combat handbook Vol 1 > Flashcards

Seabee combat handbook Vol 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What year was the CEC established?

A

1867

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2
Q

Seabees began deploying yearly to antarctica in what year?

A

1955

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3
Q

it was during what summer of what year the Seabee first went to work for the state department?

A

1964

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4
Q

what president in 1981 was named and honorary Seabee?

A

President reagan

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5
Q

approximately how many Seabees deployed to Iraq to provide humanitarian assistance to the Iraqi people during operation Iraqi freedom II?

A

1100

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6
Q

on what date did the first full Seabee battalion arrive in vietnam to build in airstrip for the marines in Chu Lai?

A

May 7th 1965

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7
Q

What is the us navy’s global force manager for the NCF except for PHIBCBs?

A

1NCD

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8
Q

when fully outfitted NMCBs are self-sufficient units for how many days and require replenishment of consumables items only?

A

90

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9
Q

how many NCRs are organized under 1NCD as operational commands?

A

7

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10
Q

Where is the first NCR headquartered?

A

NBVC Port hueneme

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11
Q

how many personnel is the Seabee rifle squad composed of?

A

14

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12
Q

what year was the code of the U.S. fighting force prescribed?

A

1955

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13
Q

what is the area on the ground upon which the cone of fire falls?

A

Beaten Zone

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14
Q

What are areas within the maximum range of a weapon which cannot be covered by fire or observation?

A

Dead spaces

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15
Q

what type of machine gun fire with respect to the ground strikes the ground from above at a considerable angle?

A

plunging

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16
Q

The most common means of communication is ________.

A

speaking

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17
Q

For a company engaged in a static defense, the primary means of
communications is by

A

wire/ telephone

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18
Q

Under normal circumstances, what unit establishes and maintains lateral
communications between two adjacent units?

A

unit on the left

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19
Q

In a Naval Construction Force (NCF) convoy, the primary means of
communications is usually by ________.

A

radio

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20
Q

Of the communications used by the Seabees, what method is least secure from
enemy monitoring?

A

radio

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21
Q

What radio has an optional internal GPS unit than can be used with time tracking
and positioning reporting?

A

AN/PRC-152

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22
Q

What radio is ideal for homeland security operations?

A

RF-310M-HH

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23
Q

What radio is secured with Suite B compatible cryptography and key
management techniques?

A

RF-310M-HH

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24
Q

What radio is secured with Suite B compatible cryptography and key
management techniques?

A

RF-310M-HH

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25
Q

How many hours of operation will the BB-390BU batteries provide?

A

12 to 24

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26
Q

What radio is 30 percent smaller and 35 percent lighter than currently fielded
multiband manpack radios?

A

AN/PRC-117G

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27
Q

What radio can have its networking capabilities enhanced by using the RF-7800B
series of BGAN terminals?

A

AN/PRC-117G

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28
Q

The AN/PRC-117G radio has which of the following characteristics?

A

Integrated GPS with SAASM

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29
Q

What receiver collects and processes GPS satellite link one (L1) and link two
(L2) signals to provide position, velocity, and timing information?

A

) AN/PSN-13

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30
Q

What primarily handheld unit can be installed in a host platform using an external
power source and an external antenna?

A

AN/PSN-13

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31
Q

What handheld unit uses an internal compass to compute track and ground
speed?

A

AN/PSN-13

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32
Q

What provides the capability of remotely controlling a radio set up to a distance of
2 miles?

A

AN/GRA-39

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33
Q

The TA-312/PT telephone has a receiving or transmitting range of about how
many miles?

A

14 to 22

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34
Q

On the SB-22/PT telephone switchboard, what switch enables you to use its
lamp as a silent alarm?

A

Night alarm and light

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35
Q

On the SB-22/PT telephone switchboard, what control provides the means for
interconnecting the lines or trunks through the jacks?

A

Cord plugs

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36
Q

A word or combination of words that identifies a specific radio station is known as
its ________.

A

call sign

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37
Q

To expedite traffic, you use a word or phrase that has been assigned a specific
meaning for telephone and radio transmission purposes. This is what type of

A

Proword

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38
Q

To identify a radio message that is lowest in order of importance, you should use
what precedence proword?

A

Routine

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39
Q

What is the most secure and dependable means of communications as used by
a rifle company?

A

Messenger

40
Q

What technique is utilized when writing a message to be sent by messenger?

A

Make it as brief as possible

41
Q

A combat messenger should be able to recognize units and their CPs, use cover
and concealment to the messenger’s advantage and possess what other skill?

A

Use maps and a compass

42
Q

During daylight hours, special signals warn of approaching danger. These signals
should be supplemented in what way at night?

A

With an oral description that includes the direction of danger

43
Q

The signal to execute a movement in unison should be followed by what other
signal?

A

READY

44
Q

To indicate the direction that a column is to move, the signaler, using hand-and arm
signals, takes what action?

A

Points with arm

45
Q

A warning order is issued using what format as a checklist?

A

SMEAC

46
Q

What is the ammunition capacity of an M240B is a linked belt fed machine gun?

A

100

47
Q

What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M240B in rounds per minute?

A

650-1050

48
Q

On an M240B machine gun, after the round is pushed into the chamber, what
step occurs next?

A

Locking

49
Q

A runaway machine gun can be stopped by which of the following methods?

A

Twisting or breaking the ammunition belt

50
Q

What number of rounds fired within a 2-minute period can cause a cookoff in an
M240B machine gun?

A

200

51
Q

What is the approximate weight (empty) of the M240 machine gun in pounds?

A

27

52
Q

What is the maximum range, in feet, of the M240 machine gun?

A

12,221

53
Q

What caliber is the M240 machine gun?

A

7.62

54
Q

What is the best description of a M2 .50 caliber heavy machine gun?

A

A recoil-operated, air-cooled, belt-fed machine gun capable of
semiautomatic and automatic fire

55
Q

What is the (a) respective maximum effective range (b) muzzle velocity in (feet
per second) (M2 ball), and (c) cyclic rate (rounds per minute) of fire of an M2 .50
caliber heavy machine gun?

A
  1. (a) 1829 m, (b) 3050, (c) 450-600
56
Q

What is the approximate weight (empty), in pounds, of the M2 .50 caliber
machine gun?

A

84

57
Q

What is the maximum range, in feet, of the M2 .50 caliber machine gun?

A

22,200

58
Q

After screwing the barrel in all the way on a M2 .50 caliber heavy machine gun,
you should back it off how many notches?

A

2

59
Q

What action is taken in order to fire a M2 .50 caliber heavy machine gun in semiautomatic
mode?

A
  1. depress the bolt latch release and depress the trigger
60
Q

Assume that a belt of ammunition has been inserted into a M2 .50 caliber heavy
machine gun, the first round is engaged by the belt holding pawl, and the bolt
latch release is locked. What action is necessary to load the gun fully?

A
  1. Pull the retracting slide handle all the way to the rear and release
61
Q

On an M2 .50 caliber heavy machine gun, headspace is the distance measured
between what two parts?

A

Base of a chambered cartridge and face of the bolt

62
Q

To limit the possibility of malfunctions with the AT4, you should NOT use the
weapon outside of what temperature range in degrees Fahrenheit?

A

-40 to 140

63
Q

What shooting position is most suitable for engaging moving targets with the
AT4?

A

Both standing and kneeling

64
Q

(True or False) The AT4 can be fired from either the right or left shoulder.

A
  1. False
65
Q

When sighting an AT4, the gunner must first take what step?

A

Estimate the distance to the target

66
Q

In combat, after the AT4 is fired, it should be destroyed to prevent enemy use.
The methods of destruction are burning, demolition, and what other actions?

A

Gunfire and crushing

67
Q

What action should you take first if the AT4 fails to fire?

A

Release the forward safety

68
Q

You are preparing to fire the AT4. Which of the following steps is out of
sequence?

A

cock the launcher

69
Q

What is the (a) length, in inches, (b) overall weight, in pounds, and (c) the
maximum range, in meters, of the AT4?

A

40, (b) 14.8, (c) 2100

70
Q

What is the total weight, in pounds, of an AT4 cartridge?

A

4

71
Q

What tip color(s) identify a tracer round?

A

orange or red

72
Q

How many yards is the maximum effective range of the M9 service pistol?

A

50

73
Q

When installing the slide group on an M9 service pistol, you must have the safety
lock in what position?

A

safe

74
Q

What cartridge is used in the M9 service pistol?

A

9x19mm

75
Q

What assembly of the Mossberg 500 shotgun houses the cartridge ejector and
serves as the support for all major groups and assemblies?

A

Receiver

76
Q 
What is the maximum effective range, in feet, of the Mossberg 500 shotgun using
#00 Buck ammunition?
A

150

77
Q

What is the size, in millimeters, of an M203 grenade launcher round?

A

40

78
Q

The leaf sight on an M203 grenade launcher allows the shooter to select (a) what
range, and in (b) what increments, in meters?

A

50 to 250

79
Q

In what portion of an M203 grenade launcher are the components located that
serve to fire or prevent accidental firing?

A

Receiver assembly

80
Q

When using an M203 grenade launcher, you should NOT engage targets within
what radius, in meters, of unprotected, friendly troops?

A

80 m

81
Q

What is a grenade launcher stoppage?

A

Any interruption in the cycle of operation caused by the weapon

82
Q

What standard “A” type(s) of ammunition is/are used with the grenade launcher?

A

TP, HE, HE airburst, smokeless, flashless, and HEDP

83
Q

In rifle marksmanship, what term describes centering the front sight post in the
rear sight aperture?

A

Sight alignment

84
Q

How many basic rifle shooting positions are there?

A

4

85
Q

Which of the following breathing actions should be taken at the moment of pulling
the trigger?

A

Hold your breath

86
Q

Which rifle firing position is often assumed after firing from the standing position?

A

kneeling

87
Q

Which factor presents the greatest problem to shooting?

A

wind

88
Q

For normal ground targets, how many rounds are in each burst of fire from a
medium machine gun?

A

6 to 12

89
Q

What is the term for a projectile’s curved path through the air?

A

Trajectory

90
Q

What factor enables a machine gun on a tripod to deliver accurate overhead fire?

A

Small, uniform dispersion of the cone of fire

91
Q

What is the first element of an initial fire command?

A

Alert

92
Q

What term is used to describe the area on the ground upon which the cone of fire
falls?

A

Beaten zone

93
Q

What classification of machine gun fire is approximately parallel to the ground
where the center of the cone of fire does not rise above one meter?

A

Grazing

94
Q

What classification of machine gun fire is distributed in width by successive
changes in the horizontal direction of the gun?

A

Traversing

95
Q

What classification of machine gun fire is delivered with the long axis of the
beaten zone coinciding with the long axis of the target?

A

Enfilade

96
Q

What is the term for areas within the maximum range of a weapon that cannot be
covered by fire or observation?

A

dead space

CE1 September exam (17 decks)

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