Sec - U - A Flashcards

(539 cards)

1
Q

Question 1:

An organization is reviewing its encryption strategy to maximize security for its sensitive data. In addition to choosing strong encryption algorithms, what factor should they consider to enhance the security of their encryption?

Key length

Asymmetric

Key exchange

Symmetric

A

Correct answer

Key length

Asymmetric

Key exchange

Your answer is incorrect

Symmetric

Overall explanation

In addition to selecting strong encryption algorithms, the organization should consider key length to enhance the security of their encryption. Longer keys provide a higher level of security as they are more resistant to brute-force attacks; the more bits in the key, the more possible key combinations there are, making it exponentially harder for an attacker to crack the encryption. This consideration is crucial regardless of whether symmetric or asymmetric encryption is used, as both types of encryption benefit from longer key lengths in terms of increased security against cryptographic attacks.

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2
Q

Question 2:

During an investigation of suspicious network activity, which of the following data sources would MOST likely help identify unauthorized data exfiltration?

Automated reports

Packet captures

Vulnerability scans

Dashboards

A

Automated reports

Correct answer

Packet captures

Vulnerability scans

Your answer is incorrect

Dashboards

Overall explanation

Packet captures are invaluable in investigations of suspicious activity as they provide a detailed record of network traffic, allowing analysts to see the contents of data being transmitted. This level of detail is crucial for identifying unauthorized data exfiltration. Automated reports, vulnerability scans, and dashboards provide high-level information and might highlight potential issues but lack the granularity to conclusively identify data exfiltration.

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3
Q

Question 3:

To enhance email security, a company implements DKIM. What aspect of email security does DKIM primarily address?

Preventing email spoofing

Encryption of email content

Scanning email attachments for malware

Authentication of email senders

A

Correct answer

Preventing email spoofing

Encryption of email content

Scanning email attachments for malware

Your answer is incorrect

Authentication of email senders

Overall explanation

DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) primarily addresses the prevention of email spoofing by allowing the receiving email server to check that an email claimed to have come from a specific domain was indeed authorized by the owner of that domain. This is achieved through the use of a digital signature linked to the domain’s DNS records. While DKIM can indirectly help authenticate email senders, its main purpose is to prevent spoofing by verifying that the message’s content has not been altered in transit, thereby contributing to the overall authenticity and integrity of the email.

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4
Q

Question 4:

To minimize security risks, an organization decides to restrict the use of non-essential software on its networks by implementing a policy that only allows approved applications to operate. What security mechanism does this describe?

Documentation

Downtime

Service restart

Allow lists/deny lists

A

Documentation

Downtime

Service restart

Your answer is correct

Allow lists/deny lists

Overall explanation

Restricting the use of non-essential software by allowing only approved applications to operate describes the implementation of allow lists/deny lists. This security mechanism is effective in minimizing risks by ensuring that only known, trusted software can run on the organization’s networks, significantly reducing the attack surface. Allow lists/deny lists are more directly related to controlling access to resources and enhancing security than managing operational downtime, the process of service restarts, or the administrative task of updating documentation. This approach emphasizes proactive control over which applications can be executed, thereby protecting the network from unauthorized or potentially malicious software

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5
Q

Question 5:

An organization wants to ensure that only the intended recipients can read the content of their emails, even if intercepted. What feature of PKI is utilized to achieve this?

Key escrow

Private key

Public key

Key exchange

A

Key escrow

Private key

Correct answer

Public key

Your answer is incorrect

Key exchange

Overall explanation

The public key feature of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is utilized to ensure that only the intended recipients can read the content of emails. Senders encrypt emails with the recipient’s public key, and only the recipient’s corresponding private key can decrypt them. This method ensures confidentiality, as intercepted emails remain encrypted and unreadable without the private key. While private keys are crucial for decryption, the use of the recipient’s public key for encryption is what allows for secure, targeted communication. Key escrow and key exchange are important aspects of key management and secure communication but do not directly pertain to the encryption of emails for privacy.

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6
Q

Question 6:

After a cyber incident, an organization conducts a meeting to discuss what happened, how it was handled, and how future incidents can be prevented. What is this process called?

Containment strategy review

Digital forensics report

Root cause analysis

Lessons learned meeting

A

Containment strategy review

Digital forensics report

Root cause analysis

Your answer is correct

Lessons learned meeting

Overall explanation

The lessons learned meeting is a critical part of the incident response process where stakeholders review the incident, its handling, and outcomes to identify improvements for future responses. This reflective process helps the organization enhance its security posture and response capabilities. Root cause analysis is a part of this meeting but focuses specifically on identifying the underlying cause of the incident. A digital forensics report would provide detailed technical findings, and a containment strategy review would focus on the containment phase specifically.

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7
Q

Question 7:

To ensure that its online services remain available even in the event of a disaster, a company maintains multiple data centers in geographically diverse locations. This strategy primarily enhances which aspect of the CIA triad?

Availability

Integrity

Authentication

Confidentiality

A

Correct answer

Availability

Integrity

Authentication

Your answer is incorrect

Confidentiality

Overall explanation

Maintaining redundant data centers in geographically diverse locations primarily enhances the availability aspect of the CIA triad. Availability ensures that information and resources are accessible to authorized users whenever needed. By having multiple data centers, the company can guarantee that even if one location is affected by a disaster, the other locations can continue to provide uninterrupted service, thereby ensuring that data and services remain available to users. This focus on uninterrupted access distinguishes availability from confidentiality, which is about preventing unauthorized access, integrity, which ensures data accuracy, and authentication, which verifies user identities.

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8
Q

Question 8:

In the context of security scanning, why is it important to perform both vulnerability scanning and penetration testing on an organization’s infrastructure?

Vulnerability scanning identifies weaknesses, while penetration testing evaluates the impact of exploiting those weaknesses.

Vulnerability scanning is sufficient for compliance purposes.

Penetration testing replaces the need for vulnerability scanning.

Penetration testing is less resource-intensive than vulnerability scanning.

A

Correct answer

Vulnerability scanning identifies weaknesses, while penetration testing evaluates the impact of exploiting those weaknesses.

Vulnerability scanning is sufficient for compliance purposes.

Penetration testing replaces the need for vulnerability scanning.

Your answer is incorrect

Penetration testing is less resource-intensive than vulnerability scanning.

Overall explanation

Vulnerability scanning and penetration testing are complementary activities; vulnerability scanning identifies potential security weaknesses, while penetration testing actively attempts to exploit these vulnerabilities to evaluate the impact and severity of potential breaches. This combination provides a more comprehensive assessment of security posture than either activity alone.

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9
Q

Question 9:

A company assigns a team to oversee the deployment of a new software platform, including planning, execution, and follow-up. This assignment is an example of establishing what?

Ownership

Stakeholders

Standard operating procedure

Approval process

A

Correct answer

Ownership

Stakeholders

Standard operating procedure

Your answer is incorrect

Approval process

Overall explanation

Assigning a team to oversee the deployment of a new software platform exemplifies establishing ownership within the change management process. Ownership involves delegating responsibility for specific tasks or projects, ensuring there is a clear point of accountability for planning, execution, and follow-up. This ensures that the change is managed effectively and aligns with the organization’s security policies and business objectives. Ownership is more specific than defining an approval process or identifying stakeholders because it directly assigns responsibility for the successful implementation of the change.

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10
Q

Question 10:

A company requires users to authenticate using a fingerprint and a PIN before accessing the corporate VPN. Which type of multifactor authentication is being used?

Something you are and something you know

Something you know and something you have

Somewhere you are and something you know

Something you have and something you are

A

Correct answer

Something you are and something you know

Something you know and something you have

Somewhere you are and something you know

Your answer is incorrect

Something you have and something you are

Overall explanation

The combination of a fingerprint (something you are) and a PIN (something you know) represents a use of two different authentication factors, enhancing security by requiring proof of identity from two distinct categories.

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11
Q

Question 11:

During a cyber-attack, what approach ensures system resilience by allowing continuous operation despite some component failures?

Regular patching

Manual monitoring

Redundant systems

Single point of failure

A

Regular patching

Manual monitoring

Correct answer

Redundant systems

Your answer is incorrect

Single point of failure

Overall explanation

Redundant systems ensure continuous operation by having backup components ready to take over in case of a failure, unlike single points of failure which can lead to complete system shutdowns. Regular patching and manual monitoring are important for security but do not directly contribute to operational continuity in the face of component failures.

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12
Q

Question 12:

During a third-party risk assessment, what is the primary purpose of conducting supply chain analysis?

To identify potential risks introduced by sub-vendors

To evaluate the financial stability of the vendor

To verify the vendor’s compliance with international trade laws

To assess the physical security of the vendor’s premises

A

Correct answer

To identify potential risks introduced by sub-vendors

To evaluate the financial stability of the vendor

To verify the vendor’s compliance with international trade laws

Your answer is incorrect

To assess the physical security of the vendor’s premises

Overall explanation

The primary purpose of conducting supply chain analysis is to identify potential risks introduced by sub-vendors. This is because sub-vendors or downstream suppliers could introduce vulnerabilities into the supply chain that affect the security and reliability of the primary vendor’s products or services. Assessing physical security and compliance with trade laws are important but not the main focus of supply chain analysis, while evaluating financial stability is more related to the overall vendor assessment than specifically to the supply chain.

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13
Q

Question 13:

A security analyst is conducting a risk assessment on a new software deployment. Which of the following methods would best enable the analyst to prioritize risks based on their severity and likelihood?

Perform a quantitative risk analysis to calculate potential financial impacts.

Review the software’s maintenance schedule in the risk register.

Conduct a qualitative risk analysis to assign severity and likelihood ratings.

Schedule recurring meetings with the software development team to discuss risks.

A

Perform a quantitative risk analysis to calculate potential financial impacts.

Review the software’s maintenance schedule in the risk register.

Correct answer

Conduct a qualitative risk analysis to assign severity and likelihood ratings.

Your answer is incorrect

Schedule recurring meetings with the software development team to discuss risks.

Overall explanation

Conducting a qualitative risk analysis to assign severity and likelihood ratings is the most effective method for prioritizing risks based on their potential impact and the probability of occurrence. This approach allows the analyst to categorize risks in a way that highlights which ones require immediate attention. While quantitative analysis provides financial impact data, it may not always be practical for new software deployments without historical data. Reviewing maintenance schedules and holding meetings are important for risk management but do not directly help in prioritizing risks.

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14
Q

Question 14:

A multinational corporation is expanding its services to a country with strict data localization laws. What action should the company take to comply with these laws?

Store data locally within the country’s borders

Implement stronger user authentication methods

Encrypt all data in transit

Increase data transfer speeds

A

Correct answer

Store data locally within the country’s borders

Implement stronger user authentication methods

Encrypt all data in transit

Your answer is incorrect

Increase data transfer speeds

Overall explanation

Storing data locally within the country’s borders is the correct action because it directly addresses data localization laws, which require certain types of data to be stored within the country of origin. Encrypting data in transit, while important for security, does not address the requirement to store data locally. Increasing data transfer speeds and implementing stronger user authentication methods, although beneficial for overall security and performance, do not fulfill the legal requirement imposed by data localization laws.

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15
Q

Question 15:

An organization forms a dedicated security incident response team to handle any security breaches or incidents. Under which category of control does the formation of this team fall?

Physical

Managerial

Technical

Operational

A

Physical

Managerial

Technical

Your answer is correct

Operational

Overall explanation

The formation of a dedicated security incident response team is an operational control. Operational controls are about the procedures and actions taken by the organization to implement its security policies and respond to incidents. Having a dedicated team ensures that there are specific procedures and resources in place to address and manage security incidents effectively. Unlike managerial controls, which involve the creation of policies and strategies, or technical controls, which use technology to secure the organization’s assets, operational controls are the execution of these policies through specific actions and procedures.

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16
Q

Question 16:

In the context of identity and access management, which of the following best ensures that users have access only to the resources they’ve been explicitly granted?

ABAC

RBAC

MAC

DAC

A

ABAC

Correct answer

RBAC

MAC

Your answer is incorrect

DAC

Overall explanation

RBAC is effective in ensuring users have access only to what they need according to their role within the organization, aligning with the principle of least privilege. MAC is more about classification and clearance levels, not necessarily about roles. DAC allows owners to decide on access, which could lead to more permissive access than necessary. ABAC can be highly granular but is complex and not inherently about restricting access to only what’s been explicitly granted.

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17
Q

Question 17:

Which agreement type is best suited for establishing the general terms and conditions between an organization and its vendors, which will govern future transactions and services?

MSA

WO/SOW

MOU

SLA

A

Correct answer

MSA

WO/SOW

MOU

Your answer is incorrect

SLA

Overall explanation

The Master Service Agreement (MSA) is best suited for establishing the general terms and conditions between an organization and its vendors. MSAs define the framework under which future transactions and services will be conducted, making it easier to negotiate future agreements or SOWs. Service-level agreement (SLA) focus on performance metrics and expectations, Memorandum of understanding (MOU) are more about mutual intentions without legal enforceability, and Work order (WO)/statement of work (SOW) detail the specific tasks, timelines, and payments for particular projects.

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18
Q

Question 18:

A government agency requires a method to recover encrypted data in case the original key is lost or the key holder is unavailable. What practice allows for the secure storage and retrieval of cryptographic keys for this purpose?

Key exchange

Key escrow

Private key

Public key

A

Key exchange

Correct answer

Key escrow

Private key

Your answer is incorrect

Public key

Overall explanation

Key escrow is the practice of storing cryptographic keys securely with a trusted third party, allowing for the recovery of encrypted data if the original key is lost or the key holder is unavailable. This ensures that critical information can be accessed when necessary, while maintaining the security and integrity of the encryption scheme. Unlike public or private keys, which are components of encryption mechanisms, or key exchange, which involves the secure sharing of keys, key escrow specifically addresses the secure storage and retrieval of keys for data recovery purposes.

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19
Q

Question 19:

Which policy would most effectively improve organizational password security?

Banning common passwords and enforcing complexity requirements

Implementing multi-factor authentication

Requiring password changes every 30 days

Allowing unlimited password attempts

A

Correct answer

Banning common passwords and enforcing complexity requirements

Implementing multi-factor authentication

Requiring password changes every 30 days

Your answer is incorrect

Allowing unlimited password attempts

Overall explanation

Banning common passwords and enforcing complexity requirements most directly improves password security by ensuring that passwords are not easily guessed or cracked through common attack methods. While frequent password changes and multi-factor authentication enhance security, they address different aspects than the inherent strength of the password itself. Unlimited password attempts would decrease security.

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20
Q

Question 20:

A healthcare organization implements end-to-end encryption for all emails containing patient information to prevent unauthorized access during transmission. This initiative primarily enhances which aspect of the CIA triad?

Non-repudiation

Confidentiality

Integrity

Availability

A

Non-repudiation

Correct answer

Confidentiality

Integrity

Your answer is incorrect

Availability

Overall explanation

End-to-end encryption for emails primarily enhances confidentiality within the CIA triad. Confidentiality is about protecting information from unauthorized access to ensure that it is accessible only to those with proper authorization. By encrypting emails, the healthcare organization ensures that patient information remains confidential during transmission, preventing unauthorized individuals from accessing sensitive data. This measure directly targets the protection of information privacy, distinguishing it from integrity, which ensures data is accurate and unchanged, availability, which ensures information is accessible when needed, and non-repudiation, which prevents denial of involvement in a communication.

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21
Q

Question 21:

To monitor and record activities within its premises, an organization installs surveillance cameras at key locations. Which category of control does this action fall under?

Technical

Managerial

Physical

Operational

A

Technical

Managerial

Correct answer

Physical

Your answer is incorrect

Operational

Overall explanation

The installation of surveillance cameras at key locations within an organization’s premises is a physical control measure. Physical controls aim to protect the organization’s assets, personnel, and facilities from unauthorized access or harm. Surveillance cameras provide a means of monitoring and recording physical activities, which can deter unauthorized access and provide evidence in the event of security incidents. Unlike technical controls, which deal with the protection of information through technology, or managerial controls, which focus on the policies and strategies for security, physical controls address the physical aspects of security.

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22
Q

Question 22:

A company wants to enhance the privacy of its stored customer data, ensuring that sensitive information is obscured from anyone accessing the database directly. Which technique should they employ to obscure specific data elements, such as Social Security numbers?

Secure Enclave

Data masking

Tokenization

Steganography

A

Secure Enclave

Correct answer

Data masking

Tokenization

Your answer is incorrect

Steganography

Overall explanation

Data masking is the technique that should be employed to obscure specific data elements, like Social Security numbers, in a database. It involves replacing sensitive information with realistic but non-sensitive equivalents, ensuring that the data remains usable for operational processes while protecting individual privacy. Unlike tokenization, which substitutes sensitive data with non-sensitive tokens that can be mapped back to the original data in a secure environment, or steganography, which hides data within other data, data masking specifically aims to prevent direct access to sensitive data by modifying it within the database. Secure Enclaves provide a hardware-based secure storage but do not specifically address the obscuring of data within stored datasets.

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23
Q

Question 23:

A technology firm is assessing the impact of non-compliance with software licensing agreements. The most immediate and impactful consequence it should anticipate is

A slight increase in operational costs.

Legal action resulting in fines and potential business disruption

A decrease in employee morale.

Mandatory participation in a compliance training program

A

A slight increase in operational costs.

Correct answer

Legal action resulting in fines and potential business disruption

A decrease in employee morale.

Your answer is incorrect

Mandatory participation in a compliance training program

Overall explanation

The most immediate and impactful consequence of non-compliance with software licensing agreements is legal action, which can lead to significant fines and business disruption. This not only affects the company financially but can also harm its reputation and operational continuity. While an increase in operational costs and a decrease in employee morale may result from non-compliance, they are less immediate and direct consequences. Mandatory compliance training is often a remedial measure rather than an initial consequence of non-compliance.

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24
Q

Question 24:

To protect the entrance of a secure facility from vehicle-based threats, an organization installs reinforced barriers that can stop vehicles in their tracks. Which physical security measure does this describe?

Fencing

Video surveillance

Access control vestibule

Bollards

A

Fencing

Video surveillance

Access control vestibule

Your answer is correct

Bollards

Overall explanation

Bollards are the physical security measure designed to stop or slow down incoming vehicles, making them an ideal choice for protecting entrances to secure facilities from vehicle-based threats. Unlike access control vestibules, which manage people flow and provide a secured entry point for personnel, fencing, which establishes a perimeter barrier, or video surveillance, which monitors and records activities, bollards specifically provide a strong, physical obstruction to vehicles, enhancing the facility’s physical security against such threats.

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Question 25: How does the CVE aid in vulnerability management? By providing a detailed guide for patch management. By automatically fixing security flaws. By assessing the financial impact of vulnerabilities. By offering a unique identifier for publicly known vulnerabilities.
By providing a detailed guide for patch management. By automatically fixing security flaws. By assessing the financial impact of vulnerabilities. Your answer is correct By offering a unique identifier for publicly known vulnerabilities. Overall explanation The Common Vulnerability Enumeration (CVE) system aids in vulnerability management by providing a unique, standardized identifier for each publicly known vulnerability. This facilitates clear communication and coordination among security professionals, vendors, and other stakeholders, ensuring that discussions and documentation about specific vulnerabilities are consistent and accurately referenced. Unlike the other options, CVE does not directly guide patch management, fix security flaws, or assess financial impacts but rather serves as a critical tool for identifying and discussing vulnerabilities.
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Question 26: A laptop manufacturer wants to ensure the security of user data by providing a hardware-based method to store cryptographic keys used for disk encryption securely. Which tool would be most appropriate for this purpose? HSM Secure Enclave TPM Key Management System
HSM Secure Enclave Correct answer TPM Your answer is incorrect Key Management System Overall explanation A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is the most suitable tool for securely storing cryptographic keys used for disk encryption on laptops. TPMs are specialized, secure cryptoprocessors designed to secure hardware through integrated cryptographic keys. Their primary purpose is to protect information on devices by providing hardware-based, security-related functions, including generating, storing, and limiting the use of cryptographic keys. Unlike HSMs, which are typically used in data centers and enterprise environments for managing keys at a larger scale, TPMs are ideal for individual devices. A Key Management System manages digital keys but lacks the hardware-specific security features of TPMs, and Secure Enclaves, while similar, are more commonly associated with mobile devices and specific to manufacturer implementations.
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Question 27: An IT department notices an unusually high number of account lockout reports in a single day, with users unable to access their accounts due to incorrect password attempts. What might this situation suggest? A system glitch Routine password policy enforcement A coordinated brute-force attack Scheduled system maintenance
A system glitch Routine password policy enforcement Correct answer A coordinated brute-force attack Your answer is incorrect Scheduled system maintenance Overall explanation An unusually high number of account lockouts due to failed password attempts likely suggests a coordinated brute-force attack. In such attacks, attackers systematically attempt a large number of passwords to gain unauthorized access. While routine enforcement, glitches, and maintenance might cause access issues, they generally do not result in multiple account lockouts from incorrect password attempts, making the brute-force attack the most plausible explanation.
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Question 28: A team discovers that two different files in their system, which should have had unique contents, generated the same hash output. What type of attack does this suggest might be possible? Birthday Replay Downgrade Collision
Birthday Replay Downgrade Your answer is correct Collision Overall explanation A collision attack in cryptographic systems occurs when two distinct pieces of data produce the same hash result, undermining the principle that hash functions should produce unique outputs for unique inputs. This differs from downgrade, birthday, and replay attacks, as those involve security protocol manipulation, probability theory applications, and unauthorized data retransmission, respectively.
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Question 29: Why is scaling in a secure manner considered a key benefit of automation in cloud environments? It allows for the indiscriminate opening of all network ports It focuses on maximizing complexity in the deployment of new resources It mandates the use of a single, shared user account for simplicity It enables rapid expansion or contraction of resources while maintaining security controls
It allows for the indiscriminate opening of all network ports It focuses on maximizing complexity in the deployment of new resources It mandates the use of a single, shared user account for simplicity Your answer is correct It enables rapid expansion or contraction of resources while maintaining security controls Overall explanation Scaling in a secure manner through automation ensures that as cloud resources are dynamically expanded or contracted, all necessary security controls and policies are automatically applied to new instances. This approach maintains a consistent security posture across the cloud environment, regardless of its size. Indiscriminately opening network ports, using shared accounts, and increasing complexity detract from security principles and do not support the goal of secure scaling.
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Question 30: What is the most important factor to consider when selecting an encryption method for SAML assertions in single sign-on integration? Strength of encryption Cost of implementation Compatibility with existing systems Algorithm speed
Correct answer Strength of encryption Cost of implementation Compatibility with existing systems Your answer is incorrect Algorithm speed Overall explanation The strength of encryption is the most important factor to consider for SAML assertions in a single sign-on (SSO) setup. Strong encryption ensures that the data integrity and confidentiality of the SAML assertions are maintained, preventing unauthorized access and data breaches. This is essential in protecting sensitive information during the transmission between the identity provider and the service provider.
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Question 31: During a risk identification phase, a company discovers a potential threat that could exploit a vulnerability in their web application, leading to unauthorized data access. Which of the following actions best aligns with addressing this identified risk? Implement regular security patches and updates for the web application. Purchase additional insurance to cover potential data breach costs. Increase cybersecurity awareness training for all employees. Redesign the company's website with a focus on user experience.
Correct answer Implement regular security patches and updates for the web application. Purchase additional insurance to cover potential data breach costs. Increase cybersecurity awareness training for all employees. Your answer is incorrect Redesign the company's website with a focus on user experience. Overall explanation Implementing regular security patches and updates for the web application is the most effective action because it directly addresses the vulnerability in the web application that could be exploited. Increasing cybersecurity awareness and purchasing insurance are useful risk management strategies, but they do not directly mitigate the identified threat. Redesigning the website with a focus on user experience does not address the security vulnerability.
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Question 32: An instant messaging application requires real-time encryption of messages to ensure privacy and security. Which type of encryption is best suited for this application, considering the need for speed and efficiency? Symmetric Asymmetric Algorithms Key exchange
Correct answer Symmetric Asymmetric Algorithms Your answer is incorrect Key exchange Overall explanation Symmetric encryption is best suited for real-time communication applications like instant messaging, where speed and efficiency are crucial. It uses the same key for encryption and decryption, offering faster processing compared to asymmetric encryption, which is more computationally intensive. Symmetric encryption ensures that messages are securely encrypted and decrypted on-the-fly, providing the necessary privacy and security for users without significantly impacting performance. Typically, a key exchange mechanism would initially use asymmetric encryption to securely share the symmetric key between the communication parties.
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Question 33: An organization is developing a new software application and plans to include a feature that collects user data for personalization purposes. Which security principle should be prioritized to ensure user data is protected? Encrypting all data in transit and at rest. Ensuring the software is free from vulnerabilities by conducting regular security audits. Implementing strong user authentication mechanisms. Collecting only the data necessary for the application's functionality.
Encrypting all data in transit and at rest. Ensuring the software is free from vulnerabilities by conducting regular security audits. Implementing strong user authentication mechanisms. Your answer is correct Collecting only the data necessary for the application's functionality. Overall explanation Prioritizing the collection of only the data necessary for the application's functionality directly addresses privacy concerns and minimizes the risk associated with data breaches. By limiting the amount of collected data, the organization reduces the potential impact on users in the event of unauthorized access. While implementing strong user authentication mechanisms, ensuring the software is free from vulnerabilities, and encrypting all data are crucial security practices, focusing on minimizing data collection inherently reduces the scope of what needs to be protected, thereby enhancing overall security and privacy.
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Question 34: A software development company is expanding its operations globally. Which of the following is the most critical step to ensure that its products comply with global data protection standards? Conducting regular security audits of their products Standardizing coding practices across all development teams Implementing end-to-end encryption in all applications Integrating privacy by design principles into product development
Conducting regular security audits of their products Standardizing coding practices across all development teams Implementing end-to-end encryption in all applications Your answer is correct Integrating privacy by design principles into product development Overall explanation Integrating privacy by design principles into product development is the most critical step to ensure that the company's products comply with global data protection standards. Privacy by design involves proactively embedding privacy into the design and operation of IT systems, networked infrastructure, and business practices from the outset. This approach ensures that privacy is considered at every stage of product development, helping to meet various global data protection standards and regulations. While standardizing coding practices, implementing end-to-end encryption, and conducting regular security audits are important security measures, they do not provide the comprehensive, foundational approach to privacy that is achieved through privacy by design principles.
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Question 35: During a business continuity planning session, what should be prioritized to ensure the organization's critical operations can continue during a disaster? Employee remote work capabilities Backup data center in a geographically diverse location Mobile office units Insurance policies for physical assets
Employee remote work capabilities Correct answer Backup data center in a geographically diverse location Mobile office units Your answer is incorrect Insurance policies for physical assets Overall explanation A backup data center in a geographically diverse location is crucial for ensuring that critical operations can continue during a disaster that affects the primary site. While insurance, mobile units, and remote work capabilities are important, the physical and accessible infrastructure to continue critical operations, regardless of the primary site's status, is fundamental to business continuity.
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Question 36: A company evaluates the risk of data loss from their customer database and considers several mitigation strategies. Which strategy best reduces the risk based on the concept of "exposure factor"? Increasing the frequency of data backups Conducting regular security awareness training for database administrators. Purchasing insurance to cover potential data loss incidents Implementing stronger data encryption on the database.
Correct answer Increasing the frequency of data backups Conducting regular security awareness training for database administrators. Purchasing insurance to cover potential data loss incidents Your answer is incorrect Implementing stronger data encryption on the database. Overall explanation Increasing the frequency of data backups best reduces the risk of data loss by directly decreasing the exposure factor, which is the percentage of loss a company would face if a specific risk were realized. Implementing stronger encryption and conducting security awareness training are important for overall security but do not directly reduce the amount of data potentially lost in an incident. Insurance may cover financial aspects of data loss but does not prevent the loss itself or reduce the exposure factor.
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Question 37: Following a data breach, an organization activates its backup and recovery plan to restore lost data and resume normal operations. This plan is an example of which type of control? Deterrent Preventive Detective Corrective
Deterrent Preventive Detective Your answer is correct Corrective Overall explanation A backup and recovery plan is a corrective control. Corrective controls are actions taken to repair and restore resources or processes following a security breach or failure. By implementing a backup and recovery plan, an organization can recover lost data and return to normal operations, effectively correcting the impact of the incident. This type of control is reactive, addressing the aftermath of security incidents, unlike preventive or detective controls, which aim to prevent incidents or detect them as they occur.
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Question 38: To manage software and security policy distribution on a network without installing agents on each device, which approach should an organization take? Agent-based management DLP Agentless management Antivirus
Agent-based management DLP Correct answer Agentless management Your answer is incorrect Antivirus Overall explanation Agentless management allows for the distribution of software and security policies across a network without the need to install dedicated agents on each device, making it the ideal choice for organizations seeking to manage devices with minimal footprint. Agent-based management requires installing agents, Antivirus is for malware protection, and DLP is for data loss prevention, not for managing software distribution without agents.
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Question 39: To protect against phishing attacks, an organization decides to implement stricter web filtering. What type of block rule would be most effective? Blocking all email attachments. Blocking all outbound web traffic. Blocking by specific file types. Blocking websites with low reputation scores.
Blocking all email attachments. Blocking all outbound web traffic. Blocking by specific file types. Your answer is correct Blocking websites with low reputation scores. Overall explanation Blocking websites with low reputation scores is an effective way to protect against phishing attacks, as these sites are often newly created or known to host malicious content. This approach targets the threat directly, unlike blocking all email attachments or specific file types, which may not address the root of phishing attacks and could hinder legitimate business operations. Blocking all outbound web traffic would be overly restrictive and impractical.
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Question 40: An organization is revising its AUP. Which of the following best ensures compliance with the AUP by its employees? Monthly AUP training sessions Automatic enforcement through technical controls Posting the AUP on the company intranet Annual AUP acknowledgment form
Monthly AUP training sessions Correct answer Automatic enforcement through technical controls Posting the AUP on the company intranet Your answer is incorrect Annual AUP acknowledgment form Overall explanation Automatic enforcement through technical controls ensures compliance with the AUP by preventing actions that would violate the policy, rather than relying on employees to remember and adhere to the rules. While training sessions, acknowledgment forms, and accessibility of the AUP are important for awareness and understanding, technical controls actively prevent non-compliant behavior, offering a more reliable method of enforcement.
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Question 41: Your organization seeks to bolster its network security to prevent unauthorized access. Which category of control does implementing a firewall fall under? Physical Operational Managerial Technical
Physical Operational Managerial Your answer is correct Technical Overall explanation Implementing firewalls primarily serves as a technical control. This is because firewalls are hardware or software-based systems designed to filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of security rules, directly interacting with data and the technology infrastructure. Unlike managerial controls, which focus on policies and procedures, or operational controls, which involve day-to-day procedures and security practices, technical controls are specifically concerned with technology solutions to enforce security policies. Physical controls, on the other hand, deal with tangible security measures like locks and security guards, which do not apply to network traffic management.
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Question 42: An IT administrator discovers that a server in the network is communicating with known malicious IP addresses. What is the best course of action to prevent data exfiltration? Shutting down the server immediately Blocking the malicious IP addresses on the firewall. Performing a full system backup Monitoring the server for further suspicious activity.
Shutting down the server immediately Correct answer Blocking the malicious IP addresses on the firewall. Performing a full system backup Your answer is incorrect Monitoring the server for further suspicious activity. Overall explanation Blocking the malicious IP addresses on the firewall is the most effective immediate action to prevent data exfiltration. This measure stops the communication with the known malicious sources, mitigating the threat without disrupting server operations or potentially losing data by shutting it down. While monitoring and backup are important, they do not directly prevent ongoing data exfiltration.
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Question 43: To enhance the security of sensitive data, which of the following should be implemented to monitor and prevent unauthorized access? Endpoint logs analysis for unauthorized data access attempts Packet captures on all data leaving the network Metadata analysis of documents accessed Firewall logs review for denied connections
Correct answer Endpoint logs analysis for unauthorized data access attempts Packet captures on all data leaving the network Metadata analysis of documents accessed Your answer is incorrect Firewall logs review for denied connections Overall explanation Analyzing endpoint logs for unauthorized data access attempts is crucial for identifying and preventing unauthorized access to sensitive data. This approach allows for direct monitoring of actions on endpoints where sensitive data is accessed and stored. Packet captures and metadata analysis are useful for understanding data flow and access patterns but are less direct in preventing unauthorized access. Firewall log reviews focus more on network traffic control and may not directly indicate unauthorized access to sensitive files.
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Question 44: During an audit, you discover that employees are using their birthdays and pet names as passwords. Which password best practice is MOST neglected? Reuse Expiration Complexity Length
Reuse Expiration Correct answer Complexity Your answer is incorrect Length Overall explanation Complexity is the most neglected practice here, as using easily guessable personal information like birthdays and pet names does not meet complexity requirements that aim to prevent easy predictions of passwords. Length, expiration, and reuse, while important, are not directly addressed by the issue of using simple, guessable passwords.
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Question 45: A network administrator notices an unusual spike in outbound traffic from several internal devices to unfamiliar external IP addresses. This activity is consistent even during non-business hours. What is the most likely cause? Malicious code DDoS Reflected attack On-path attack Wireless intrusion
Correct answer Malicious code DDoS Reflected attack On-path attack Your answer is incorrect Wireless intrusion Overall explanation The consistent spike in outbound traffic to unfamiliar addresses, especially during non-business hours, suggests that the internal devices may be infected with malicious code, such as a trojan or a worm, which communicates with external command-and-control servers. This scenario is not indicative of a wireless intrusion, which would involve unauthorized access to a wireless network; an on-path attack, where data is intercepted in transit; or a DDoS reflected attack, which targets external entities.
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Question 46: A security administrator implements a system that requires employees to authenticate using their physical location and a security key. What type of multifactor authentication is being used? Something you know and somewhere you are Something you are and something you know Something you have and somewhere you are Something you are and something you have
Something you know and somewhere you are Something you are and something you know Correct answer Something you have and somewhere you are Your answer is incorrect Something you are and something you have Overall explanation This scenario utilizes "something you have" (a security key) and "somewhere you are" (physical location) as factors for authentication, which is ideal for ensuring that access is both physically and digitally secured.
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Question 47: Which activity involves actively searching for threats that have evaded existing security measures within an organization's network? Password policy enforcement Threat hunting Regular software updates Antivirus scanning
Password policy enforcement Correct answer Threat hunting Regular software updates Your answer is incorrect Antivirus scanning Overall explanation Threat hunting is the proactive search for malicious activity within an organization's network that has not been detected by existing security measures. It involves analyzing networks and endpoints for indicators of compromise to identify hidden threats. Antivirus scanning is a reactive measure, regular software updates and password policy enforcement are preventative measures, but they do not involve the active search for undetected threats within the network.
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Question 48: service provider aims to enhance the security of its customer's data, specifically for A cloud applications requiring high levels of encryption and key management. Which technology offers robust key storage and cryptographic operations? Key Management System TPM HSM Secure Enclave
Key Management System TPM Correct answer HSM Your answer is incorrect Secure Enclave Overall explanation A Hardware Security Module (HSM) offers robust key storage and cryptographic operations, making it an ideal choice for cloud service providers needing to secure applications with high encryption demands. HSMs are physical devices designed to secure cryptographic keys and perform cryptographic operations within a tamper-resistant hardware device. They provide a more secure and efficient environment for key management processes than software-based solutions, ensuring that cryptographic keys are generated, stored, and managed in a hardware-backed secure manner. While Trusted Platform Module (TPM) and Secure Enclaves provide secure key storage at the device level, and Key Management Systems organize keys across systems, HSMs specifically address the need for high-security key management and cryptographic operations in cloud and enterprise environments.
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Question 49: Before fully integrating new security controls into their network, an organization conducts a series of tests to evaluate their effectiveness and potential impact on system performance. What aspect of the change management process does this represent? Backout plan Standard operating procedure Impact analysis Test results
Backout plan Standard operating procedure Impact analysis Your answer is correct Test results Overall explanation The process of evaluating new security controls through testing before their full integration into the network is represented by the review of test results. This phase is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of the controls and their potential impact on system performance, ensuring that any changes made will enhance security without adversely affecting operations. Test results provide concrete data that can guide decision-making, distinguishing this step from impact analysis, which predicts potential effects before implementation, or the development of a backout plan, which is a precautionary measure.
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Question 50: To ensure the confidentiality of email communications, an organization decides to implement a system where emails are encrypted before being sent and can only be decrypted by the intended recipient. What type of encryption does this scenario best describe? Key exchange Full-disk Symmetric Asymmetric
Key exchange Full-disk Symmetric Your answer is correct Asymmetric Overall explanation Asymmetric encryption is best suited for this scenario because it uses a pair of keys for encryption and decryption: a public key to encrypt data and a private key to decrypt it. This method ensures that only the intended recipient, who possesses the corresponding private key, can decrypt the email, maintaining confidentiality. Symmetric encryption, involving a single key for both encryption and decryption, wouldn't easily facilitate secure key distribution among multiple parties. Key exchange is a method for securely sharing encryption keys, not an encryption type per se. Full-disk encryption is used to encrypt entire disks, not individual email communications.
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Question 51: A system administrator detects an unauthorized program that is designed to exploit software vulnerabilities to gain elevated access privileges on a network. This program is specifically designed to remain undetected and provide the attacker with persistent access. What type of program is this? Trojan Virus Worm Rootkit
Trojan Virus Worm Your answer is correct Rootkit Overall explanation Rootkits are programs that enable unauthorized access to a computer system, often by exploiting software vulnerabilities, while remaining hidden from users and security software. They are designed to provide attackers with persistent, undetectable access, distinguishing them from Trojans, which disguise malicious intent, viruses that infect other programs to spread, and worms that self-replicate across networks.
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Question 52: A company's security team has noticed an unusual spike in traffic to one of its web servers. Which of the following is the most effective initial step to identify the cause of the spike? Apply a more restrictive firewall rule. Increase the web server's bandwidth. Review the web server's access logs. Reboot the web server.
Apply a more restrictive firewall rule. Increase the web server's bandwidth. Correct answer Review the web server's access logs. Your answer is incorrect Reboot the web server. Overall explanation Reviewing the web server's access logs allows the security team to analyze the nature of the incoming traffic, identify potential security threats or malicious activities, and understand the source of the spike. Increasing bandwidth, applying more restrictive firewall rules, or rebooting the server do not directly address the identification of the cause and may not be effective without understanding the nature of the traffic.
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Question 53: In an effort to enhance its security posture, a large organization decides to implement a solution that will aggregate and analyze security logs from various sources in real-time. Which tool should they implement? Vulnerability scanners SIEM SNMP traps NetFlow
Vulnerability scanners Correct answer SIEM SNMP traps Your answer is incorrect NetFlow Overall explanation Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems are designed to aggregate, analyze, and report on security logs from various sources in real-time. This makes SIEM the best option for a company looking to enhance its security posture by having a comprehensive view of its security events. NetFlow is used for network traffic analysis, Vulnerability scanners for assessing system vulnerabilities, and SNMP traps for alerting on specific network conditions, which do not provide the same level of aggregated security analysis.
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Question 54: An organization discovers unauthorized access to their network. Which immediate step should they take to minimize damage? Sending an all-staff email detailing the breach Running antivirus software across all systems Disconnecting the entire network from the internet Initiating the containment process to isolate affected systems
Sending an all-staff email detailing the breach Running antivirus software across all systems Disconnecting the entire network from the internet Your answer is correct Initiating the containment process to isolate affected systems Overall explanation The containment process is crucial for immediately isolating affected systems to prevent the spread of the breach and minimize damage. This step ensures that the impact is limited while allowing the organization to continue operating. Disconnecting the entire network or running antivirus across all systems might be part of subsequent steps but could disrupt business operations unnecessarily at this stage. Sending an all-staff email is important for communication but does not directly contribute to minimizing damage.
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Question 55: A security analyst observes that encrypted traffic between a client and server is repeatedly forced to use an older, less secure version of the protocol. What kind of cryptographic attack is this? Buffer overflow Collision Birthday Downgrade
Buffer overflow Collision Birthday Your answer is correct Downgrade Overall explanation A downgrade attack forces a system to abandon a high-security encryption standard and use an older, less secure version, making it easier to exploit vulnerabilities in the outdated protocol. This is different from collision, birthday, and buffer overflow attacks, which involve hash functions, probability theory, and memory exploitation, respectively.
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Question 56: An e-commerce platform needs to protect customer payment information within its databases, ensuring that data is secured both at rest and in transit. Which technique would best allow the platform to secure this sensitive data while maintaining the ability to process transactions? Secure Enclave Tokenization Data masking Steganography
Secure Enclave Correct answer Tokenization Data masking Your answer is incorrect Steganography Overall explanation Tokenization is the best technique for securing customer payment information within databases, as it replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, or tokens, which can be safely stored and processed without exposing the original data. This method ensures that payment information is protected both at rest and in transit, allowing for the secure processing of transactions without risking exposure of the actual payment details. Unlike data masking, which obscures data but is typically used for non-production environments, tokenization allows for the operational use of the substituted data. Steganography and Secure Enclaves do not specifically address the protection of data within databases or facilitate transaction processing with protected data.
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Question 57: An IT department plans to update its security software to the latest version to address known vulnerabilities. However, they need to ensure that the update does not interrupt network services. What should they consider to minimize operational impact? Dependencies Service restart Allow lists/deny lists Downtime
Dependencies Service restart Allow lists/deny lists Your answer is correct Downtime Overall explanation When updating security software, it's crucial to consider the potential for downtime to minimize operational impact. Downtime refers to the period when the system is not operational due to the update. Planning for this helps ensure that updates are done during off-peak hours or when it would cause the least disruption to network services. This consideration is more critical than allow lists/deny lists, which manage access, service restarts, which may occur during the update, or dependencies, although dependencies also play a significant role in planning the update process.
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Question 58: What is the primary security advantage of using a CYOD policy over a BYOD policy? CYOD allows employees to use their personal devices without any restrictions. BYOD promotes a more relaxed security posture, enhancing user satisfaction. BYOD ensures that all devices have the latest anti-virus software installed. CYOD offers a pre-approved list of devices that meet the company's security standards.
CYOD allows employees to use their personal devices without any restrictions. BYOD promotes a more relaxed security posture, enhancing user satisfaction. BYOD ensures that all devices have the latest anti-virus software installed. Your answer is correct CYOD offers a pre-approved list of devices that meet the company's security standards. Overall explanation The primary security advantage of a CYOD policy over a BYOD policy is that CYOD provides a pre-approved list of devices that meet the company's security and compliance standards, allowing IT to better manage and secure the devices accessing corporate resources. This reduces the risk of security vulnerabilities compared to BYOD policies, where employees might use any device with varying levels of security. The other options do not accurately represent the security advantages of CYOD; BYOD policies do not inherently ensure devices have the latest anti-virus software, and promoting a relaxed security posture can actually increase security risks.
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Question 59: A company wants to restrict remote access to their network to only employees. Which access list configuration ensures that only designated IP addresses can access the network remotely? Deny any. Permit by MAC address. Permit any. Permit by specific IP addresses.
Deny any. Permit by MAC address. Permit any. Your answer is correct Permit by specific IP addresses. Overall explanation Permitting access by specific IP addresses allows the firewall to only accept connections from known, authorized addresses, effectively limiting remote access to employees. Unlike permitting any or by MAC address, which don't offer the necessary specificity or are impractical for remote access, or outright denying any access, specifying IP addresses provides a balanced approach to security and accessibility.
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Question 60: In the context of identity and access management, what is the main purpose of de-provisioning user accounts? To remove access rights and resources when they are no longer required To ensure users have access to additional resources as needed To increase the security of the network by adding more user accounts To remove access rights and resources when they are no longer required
To remove access rights and resources when they are no longer required To ensure users have access to additional resources as needed To increase the security of the network by adding more user accounts Your answer is correct To remove access rights and resources when they are no longer required Overall explanation De-provisioning user accounts is crucial for removing access rights and resources from users who no longer need them, such as when an employee leaves the company. This process is essential for maintaining tight security controls and ensuring that unauthorized individuals cannot access sensitive information. The other options do not accurately represent the purpose of de-provisioning, as they do not involve removing unnecessary access, which is the primary goal of de-provisioning.
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Question 61: During a security awareness training session, an employee asks about the best way to handle an unknown USB drive they found in the parking lot. What should the training emphasize as the correct response? Hand it over to the IT department for analysis. Destroy the USB drive to prevent anyone from using it. Plug it into a computer to see if there are identifiable documents that could help return it to its owner Ignore it and leave it where it was found
Correct answer Hand it over to the IT department for analysis. Destroy the USB drive to prevent anyone from using it. Plug it into a computer to see if there are identifiable documents that could help return it to its owner Your answer is incorrect Ignore it and leave it where it was found Overall explanation Handing it over to the IT department allows for a controlled analysis and proper handling, minimizing security risks. The training should emphasize that unknown USB drives can pose significant security risks, including the possibility of containing malware or being part of a social engineering attack. Plugging the USB drive into a computer can compromise the system and network. Simply ignoring it might result in another person falling into a potential trap, while destroying the USB eliminates the chance to analyze it for threats or trace it back to an owner safely.
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Question 62: A company is assessing the risk of a server failure that could impact their online sales platform. Which approach would best quantify the potential financial impact of this risk? Organize an ad hoc meeting with the IT department to discuss server reliability. Calculate the ALE based on past incidents. Conduct a qualitative risk analysis to gauge employee perceptions of the impact. Use a risk register to document the server's uptime and maintenance schedule.
Organize an ad hoc meeting with the IT department to discuss server reliability. Correct answer Calculate the ALE based on past incidents. Conduct a qualitative risk analysis to gauge employee perceptions of the impact. Your answer is incorrect Use a risk register to document the server's uptime and maintenance schedule. Overall explanation Calculating the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) is the best approach to quantifying the potential financial impact because it combines the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) of the server failure with the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), providing a financial estimate of the expected loss per year. Qualitative analysis and ad hoc meetings may provide insights but do not offer a quantitative financial impact. A risk register helps with documentation and tracking but does not directly calculate financial impact.
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Question 63: In the context of a decentralized governance structure, what is a primary security benefit? Enhanced adaptability to specific regional requirements Centralized security policy management Reduced operational costs Increased data redundancy
Correct answer Enhanced adaptability to specific regional requirements Centralized security policy management Reduced operational costs Your answer is incorrect Increased data redundancy Overall explanation A decentralized governance structure allows an organization to enhance its adaptability to specific regional requirements. This structure supports local decision-making and enables the organization to quickly respond to regional, legal, and regulatory changes. While reduced operational costs and increased data redundancy might be benefits of other organizational decisions, they are not directly related to the primary advantage of a decentralized governance structure regarding security. Centralized security policy management is, by definition, not a feature of decentralized governance.
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Question 64: Which of the following best exemplifies the use of OSINT in vulnerability management? Analyzing internal audit logs Gathering information from publicly available sources Consulting a commercial vulnerability database Monitoring dark web forums for leaked data
Analyzing internal audit logs Correct answer Gathering information from publicly available sources Consulting a commercial vulnerability database Your answer is incorrect Monitoring dark web forums for leaked data Overall explanation While monitoring dark web forums and consulting commercial databases can be part of a comprehensive vulnerability management strategy, OSINT specifically refers to the collection and analysis of publicly available information to inform security practices. This includes sources like public databases, forums, and social media, which can provide insights into emerging threats and vulnerabilities without the need for proprietary data or insider information.
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Question 65: What is the primary goal of conducting a tabletop exercise as part of an incident response plan? To simulate a cyber incident in a controlled environment to evaluate the response plan To physically test the security of the organization's infrastructure To conduct a technical assessment of the organization's network security To review and update the organization's security policies
Correct answer To simulate a cyber incident in a controlled environment to evaluate the response plan To physically test the security of the organization's infrastructure To conduct a technical assessment of the organization's network security Your answer is incorrect To review and update the organization's security policies Overall explanation A tabletop exercise simulates a cyber incident in a controlled, discussion-based format to evaluate the effectiveness of the organization's incident response plan. It involves key personnel discussing their roles and responses to a hypothetical scenario, which helps identify gaps and areas for improvement without the need for technical assessments or physical testing. This activity focuses on the strategic and operational aspects of response planning rather than technical or physical security testing.
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Question 66: What is the primary consideration when automating the enabling/disabling of services and access based on compliance requirements? Focusing exclusively on disabling services without considering access controls Completely avoiding automation to ensure manual oversight Ensuring that all services are permanently disabled for maximum security Automatically adjusting access and service permissions to meet regulatory standards
Focusing exclusively on disabling services without considering access controls Completely avoiding automation to ensure manual oversight Ensuring that all services are permanently disabled for maximum security Your answer is correct Automatically adjusting access and service permissions to meet regulatory standards Overall explanation Automating the adjustment of access and service permissions ensures that an organization's IT environment continuously meets regulatory compliance standards. This dynamic approach to compliance helps organizations adapt to changes in regulatory requirements and maintain a compliant posture without manual intervention. Permanently disabling all services or avoiding automation neglects the benefits of flexibility and efficiency provided by automation. Focusing solely on disabling services overlooks the importance of comprehensive access control in maintaining security and compliance.
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Question 67: Activists deface a government website to protest against a new policy, replacing the homepage with their message. This type of cyber attack is most aligned with what motivation? Disruption/chaos Ethical Philosophical/political beliefs Revenge
Disruption/chaos Ethical Correct answer Philosophical/political beliefs Your answer is incorrect Revenge Overall explanation Defacing a website to protest a policy is motivated by philosophical or political beliefs, where the activists aim to express their disagreement with the government's actions and promote their viewpoint. This motivation is distinct from revenge, which seeks retribution, disruption or chaos, which aims to cause disorder without a specific ideological message, and ethical motivations, which are driven by moral standards.
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Question 68: A security analyst is reviewing IPS/IDS logs to improve the organization's security posture. Which of the following would be the BEST indicator of a potential intrusion attempt? Alerts on high bandwidth consumption Anomalies in user login patterns Frequent changes in firewall rules Signature-based alerts on known malware traffic
Alerts on high bandwidth consumption Anomalies in user login patterns Frequent changes in firewall rules Your answer is correct Signature-based alerts on known malware traffic Overall explanation Signature-based alerts on known malware traffic are direct indicators of potential intrusion attempts, as these alerts are based on recognized patterns of malicious activity. High bandwidth consumption and anomalies in login patterns may suggest suspicious activity but are not as directly indicative of intrusion attempts as signature-based alerts. Frequent changes in firewall rules could indicate an issue with policy management rather than an external attack.
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Question 69: An IT manager wants to ensure that all Windows-based computers in the organization have a consistent security configuration, including password policies and Windows Defender settings. Which approach should they take? Use of third-party tools to enforce security policies. Use of Group Policy to enforce security settings. Manual configuration of each computer. Rely on users to configure their security settings.
Use of third-party tools to enforce security policies. Correct answer Use of Group Policy to enforce security settings. Manual configuration of each computer. Your answer is incorrect Rely on users to configure their security settings. Overall explanation Using Group Policy to enforce security settings allows the IT manager to centrally manage and apply consistent security configurations across all Windows-based computers in the organization. This method is efficient and reliable, ensuring that all machines adhere to the organization’s security policies without relying on manual configuration, user compliance, or third-party tools, which may not offer the same level of integration or control.
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Question 70: In the process of updating their risk management strategy, a company decides to focus on continuous risk analysis. What is the primary benefit of adopting a continuous risk analysis approach? It allows for the immediate detection and response to new risks. It eliminates the need for a dedicated risk management team It provides real-time updates on the company's financial status. It ensures compliance with all regulatory requirements.
Correct answer It allows for the immediate detection and response to new risks. It eliminates the need for a dedicated risk management team It provides real-time updates on the company's financial status. Your answer is incorrect It ensures compliance with all regulatory requirements. Overall explanation The primary benefit of adopting a continuous risk analysis approach is that it allows for the immediate detection and response to new risks, ensuring that the organization can quickly adapt to changing threat landscapes and vulnerabilities. This proactive stance enhances the organization's resilience against threats. While compliance and financial updates are important, they are not the direct benefits of continuous risk analysis. Eliminating the need for a risk management team is not feasible, as continuous analysis requires skilled personnel to interpret and act on the findings.
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Question 71: A forensic analyst is investigating a compromised system and finds a program that is designed to give an attacker unauthorized root access to the system while hiding its presence. What type of malicious software does this describe? Logic bomb Rootkit Virus Trojan
Logic bomb Correct answer Rootkit Virus Your answer is incorrect Trojan Overall explanation Rootkits are designed to provide unauthorized root or administrative access to a system while concealing their existence from users and security tools. This makes them particularly dangerous as they can enable persistent, undetected access to the system. Unlike Trojans, which might not conceal their presence, logic bombs, which are triggered by specific events, or viruses, which primarily replicate, rootkits specifically aim to maintain hidden access.
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Question 72: When discussing the ongoing supportability of automated systems, what is a critical consideration? Designing systems that require no maintenance or updates Ensuring systems are easily updatable and maintainable Ignoring cost implications to prioritize speed Avoiding documentation to speed up the development process
Designing systems that require no maintenance or updates Correct answer Ensuring systems are easily updatable and maintainable Ignoring cost implications to prioritize speed Your answer is incorrect Avoiding documentation to speed up the development process Overall explanation Ensuring that automated systems are easily updatable and maintainable is crucial for their ongoing supportability. This consideration ensures that systems can adapt to changing requirements, technologies, and threats without excessive downtime or resource investment. Systems that require no maintenance or are developed without consideration of cost, maintainability, or documentation are likely to become obsolete, insecure, or difficult to support, undermining the benefits of automation.
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Question 73: In the context of secure software development, what is the most effective method to identify security flaws early in the SDLC? Code reviews during the development phase Penetration testing during the deployment phase Security audits at project completion End-user feedback after release
Correct answer Code reviews during the development phase Penetration testing during the deployment phase Security audits at project completion Your answer is incorrect End-user feedback after release Overall explanation Code reviews during the development phase are the most effective method to identify security flaws early in the SDLC because they allow developers to identify and address vulnerabilities before the software progresses further in the development process, reducing the cost and complexity of fixes. Penetration testing, security audits, and end-user feedback are valuable but occur later in the lifecycle, potentially allowing flaws to go undetected longer.
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Question 74: An organization's firewall has detected an unusually high volume of ICMP echo requests coming from multiple external IP addresses directed at a single internal resource. What is this an indication of? DDoS Reflected attack On-path attack DDoS Amplified attack Credential replay attack
DDoS Reflected attack On-path attack Correct answer DDoS Amplified attack Your answer is incorrect Credential replay attack Overall explanation An amplified DDoS attack involves the attacker using the amplification effect of certain protocols to generate a large volume of data to send to the target. A high volume of ICMP echo requests, also known as a ping flood, directed at a single resource from multiple locations, suggests an attempt to overwhelm the system with traffic, characteristic of an amplified DDoS attack. This is distinct from a reflected attack, which involves redirecting legitimate requests; an on-path attack, which involves data interception; and a credential replay attack, which involves unauthorized credential use.
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Question 75: How does the EF contribute to vulnerability management? By determining the percentage of loss a vulnerability would cause. By scoring the severity of vulnerabilities By enumerating all known vulnerabilities in a system. By automatically patching detected vulnerabilities.
Correct answer By determining the percentage of loss a vulnerability would cause. By scoring the severity of vulnerabilities By enumerating all known vulnerabilities in a system. Your answer is incorrect By automatically patching detected vulnerabilities. Overall explanation The exposure factor (EF) is crucial in vulnerability management as it helps to quantify the potential loss in percentage terms that a vulnerability exploitation would cause to an asset. This quantification is essential for calculating risk and prioritizing remediation efforts based on potential impact. Enumerating vulnerabilities, automatically patching vulnerabilities, and scoring the severity are all important actions within vulnerability management, but they don't specifically relate to the purpose of the exposure factor.
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Question 76: An organization wants to deter criminal activity around its premises by increasing visibility during nighttime. Which physical security measure is most effective for this purpose? Access badge Lighting Security guard Video surveillance
Access badge Correct answer Lighting Security guard Your answer is incorrect Video surveillance Overall explanation Lighting is the physical security measure that effectively deters criminal activity by increasing visibility during nighttime. Well-lit areas are less attractive to potential intruders because the increased visibility raises the likelihood of detection. Unlike video surveillance, which records and monitors areas but does not necessarily deter through visibility; security guards, who can only patrol limited areas at any given time; or access badges, which control entry but do not affect visibility, lighting directly impacts the environment by making it more secure through illumination.
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Question 77: A security team develops a comprehensive plan for upgrading the organization's firewall software. Before proceeding, they must present their plan to a committee for review and authorization. What part of the change management process is this? Maintenance window Ownership Approval process Stakeholders
Maintenance window Ownership Correct answer Approval process Your answer is incorrect Stakeholders Overall explanation Presenting a comprehensive plan for upgrading firewall software to a committee for review and authorization is an example of the approval process within change management. The approval process is a critical step where plans for changes are evaluated by relevant authorities or committees to ensure they align with the organization's objectives, security policies, and risk management strategies. This process ensures that all significant changes are scrutinized and approved before implementation, differentiating it from determining ownership, scheduling maintenance windows, or identifying stakeholders.
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Question 78: To study APTs and their lateral movements within a network, a security team creates a simulated network environment filled with decoy data and systems. What is this an example of? Honeytoken Honeypot Honeyfile Honeynet
Honeytoken Honeypot Honeyfile Your answer is correct Honeynet Overall explanation A honeynet is a simulated network environment that contains multiple honeypots, designed to mimic a real network. It is used to attract and engage attackers, allowing security teams to study advanced persistent threats (APTs) and their tactics, including lateral movements within a network. Unlike a single honeypot, which mimics one system or server; honeyfiles, which are decoy files; or honeytokens, which are decoy data elements, a honeynet provides a more complex and interactive environment to analyze attacker behaviors in a controlled manner.
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Question 79: To mitigate vulnerabilities, an IT department regularly updates all software applications and operating systems. Which category of control does this action fall under? Physical Operational Technical Managerial
Physical Correct answer Operational Technical Your answer is incorrect Managerial Overall explanation Regularly updating software applications and operating systems is an example of operational control. Operational controls are the procedures and actions that employees undertake to implement the policies and procedures set forth by managerial controls. This includes the maintenance of IT systems, such as applying patches and updates to software to address vulnerabilities. While technical controls might involve the specific tools and technologies for security, and managerial controls focus on the policies guiding these actions, operational controls are about the day-to-day execution of these policies and the use of technology to maintain security.
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Question 80: An IT company plans to assess its network security by analyzing traffic to identify potential vulnerabilities without actively engaging with the target systems. Which type of reconnaissance is being used? Physical penetration testing Active reconnaissance Passive reconnaissance Offensive penetration testing
Physical penetration testing Active reconnaissance Correct answer Passive reconnaissance Your answer is incorrect Offensive penetration testing Overall explanation Passive reconnaissance. Passive reconnaissance involves collecting information about a target without direct interaction, such as analyzing traffic to identify vulnerabilities. This method is less likely to be detected and provides valuable insights into the security posture without alerting the target. Unlike active reconnaissance, which involves interacting with the target system, or specific types of penetration testing, passive reconnaissance focuses on information gathering from a distance.
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Question 81: A global company must ensure that its data processing activities are in line with the legal requirements of different countries. What approach should it take to manage these varying legal obligations efficiently? Limit data collection to essential information only Use a one-size-fits-all privacy policy Outsource data processing to a third party Implement region-specific data governance frameworks
Limit data collection to essential information only Use a one-size-fits-all privacy policy Outsource data processing to a third party Your answer is correct Implement region-specific data governance frameworks Overall explanation Implementing region-specific data governance frameworks is the most efficient approach for managing varying legal obligations across different countries. This allows the company to tailor its data handling and processing practices to meet the unique legal requirements of each region, ensuring compliance while maintaining operational efficiency. Using a one-size-fits-all privacy policy might overlook specific regional laws, outsourcing data processing does not absolve the company of its legal responsibilities, and limiting data collection, although a good privacy practice, does not address the complexity of complying with diverse legal landscapes.
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Question 82: A security team is implementing a new SIEM system. Which of the following activities is most important for ensuring the effectiveness of the SIEM in identifying security incidents? Training staff on basic cybersecurity principles. Regularly updating antivirus definitions. Customizing alert thresholds. Increasing storage capacity for logs.
Training staff on basic cybersecurity principles. Regularly updating antivirus definitions. Correct answer Customizing alert thresholds. Your answer is incorrect Increasing storage capacity for logs. Overall explanation Customizing alert thresholds is crucial for ensuring that the SIEM system can effectively identify anomalies and potential security incidents without overwhelming the security team with false positives. While increasing storage, training staff, and updating antivirus are important security practices, they do not directly contribute to the effectiveness of a SIEM system in identifying security incidents.
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Question 83: For a company looking to implement EDR as part of its security strategy, what is the primary benefit of this technology? Increasing the speed of internet connections Reducing the need for regular software updates Detecting and responding to threats on endpoints in real-time Encrypting data on endpoints to prevent unauthorized access
Increasing the speed of internet connections Reducing the need for regular software updates Correct answer Detecting and responding to threats on endpoints in real-time Your answer is incorrect Encrypting data on endpoints to prevent unauthorized access Overall explanation The primary benefit of Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) technology is its ability to detect and respond to threats on endpoints in real-time. EDR tools continuously monitor and collect data from endpoints, allowing for the rapid identification of threat patterns and anomalies. This capability enables organizations to quickly mitigate threats, reducing the potential impact on their operations. While increasing internet speeds, reducing the need for updates, and encrypting data are beneficial, they are not the primary functions or benefits of EDR, which focuses on proactive threat detection and response on endpoints.
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Question 84: During a vulnerability scan, which of the following activities is MOST critical to ensuring the effectiveness of the scan? Selecting the correct scan type and depth Scheduling the scan during off-peak hours Ensuring the scan results are encrypted Updating the scanning tool to its latest version
Correct answer Selecting the correct scan type and depth Scheduling the scan during off-peak hours Ensuring the scan results are encrypted Your answer is incorrect Updating the scanning tool to its latest version Overall explanation While updating the scanning tool, encrypting scan results, and scheduling scans during off-peak hours are good practices, selecting the correct scan type and depth directly impacts the scan's ability to accurately identify vulnerabilities by ensuring that the scan is appropriately targeted and comprehensive, addressing the specific needs and architecture of the environment being scanned.
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Question 85: To prevent sensitive data from being transmitted outside the corporate network, which tool should a company implement? DLP Vulnerability scanners SNMP traps SIEM
Correct answer DLP Vulnerability scanners SNMP traps Your answer is incorrect SIEM Overall explanation Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tools are specifically designed to detect and prevent unauthorized transmission and use of sensitive data, making them the best option for a company looking to protect sensitive information from being transmitted outside its network. SNMP traps are used for alerting, Vulnerability scanners for identifying security weaknesses, and SIEM for analyzing security events, none of which are primarily focused on preventing data transmission.
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Question 86: During a routine audit, it's found that a server's virtualization software allows a user from one virtual machine to access data from another virtual machine hosted on the same physical server. This breach demonstrates which type of vulnerability? Virtual machine escape Cloud-specific Resource reuse Misconfiguration
Correct answer Virtual machine escape Cloud-specific Resource reuse Your answer is incorrect Misconfiguration Overall explanation This incident is an example of a virtual machine escape vulnerability, where an attacker can break out from their own VM to interfere with the host system or other VMs. This is distinct from resource reuse, which involves improper sanitization of hardware resources between uses, cloud-specific vulnerabilities that are unique to cloud environments, or misconfigurations, which refer to incorrect system settings but not necessarily to inter-VM breaches.
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Question 87: An organization's monitoring systems detect simultaneous logins to a single account from devices located in different parts of the world. What is the most likely explanation for this scenario? Flexible work hours Global team collaboration The use of a VPN Concurrent session usage as an indicator of account compromise
Flexible work hours Global team collaboration The use of a VPN Your answer is correct Concurrent session usage as an indicator of account compromise Overall explanation Detecting simultaneous logins to a single account from geographically dispersed locations is a strong indicator of concurrent session usage, which often points to account compromise. While VPN use, global collaboration, and flexible working hours might explain simultaneous logins under certain circumstances, the geographical disparity without a legitimate reason strongly suggests unauthorized access, making account security measures imperative.
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Question 88: Why is vendor due diligence considered a critical step in the vendor selection process? To negotiate lower prices and better payment terms To ensure that the vendor has a sustainable environmental policy To determine the vendor's capability to meet delivery deadlines To assess the vendor's reputation, stability, and operational capabilities
To negotiate lower prices and better payment terms To ensure that the vendor has a sustainable environmental policy To determine the vendor's capability to meet delivery deadlines Your answer is correct To assess the vendor's reputation, stability, and operational capabilities Overall explanation Vendor due diligence is considered a critical step in the vendor selection process to assess the vendor's reputation, stability, and operational capabilities. This comprehensive evaluation helps in determining whether the vendor can reliably meet the organization's needs over the duration of the contract. Due diligence looks beyond immediate concerns like pricing and delivery deadlines to ensure the vendor's alignment with the organization's long-term strategic, operational, and ethical standards.
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Question 89: A company regularly updates its risk management plan and communicates potential impacts to all stakeholders. What aspect of risk management does this practice best illustrate? Risk tolerance Risk reporting Risk appetite Risk mitigation
Risk tolerance Correct answer Risk reporting Risk appetite Your answer is incorrect Risk mitigation Overall explanation Risk reporting. Regularly updating the risk management plan and communicating potential impacts to stakeholders is an example of effective risk reporting. This practice ensures that all relevant parties are informed about potential risks and the measures in place to manage them, which is a key component of comprehensive risk management. The other options relate more to the decision-making aspects of handling risk rather than the communication and oversight aspects.
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Question 90: In the realm of secure operations, what is the primary advantage of scripting ticket creation for identified security incidents? It increases the workload on the security team by generating excessive tickets It automatically generates tickets, speeding up the incident response process It replaces the need for a security information and event management (SIEM) system It ensures that all incidents are ignored unless manually verified
It increases the workload on the security team by generating excessive tickets Correct answer It automatically generates tickets, speeding up the incident response process It replaces the need for a security information and event management (SIEM) system Your answer is incorrect It ensures that all incidents are ignored unless manually verified Overall explanation Scripting ticket creation for identified security incidents automates the initial step of the incident response process, ensuring that incidents are promptly recorded and queued for investigation. This automation speeds up the response process by facilitating quicker engagement of response teams and reducing the time incidents remain unaddressed. Ignoring incidents, increasing workloads through excessive tickets, and replacing SIEM systems are not direct benefits of this approach. Instead, it complements SIEM functions by ensuring efficient incident tracking and management.
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Question 1: In an attempt to secure physical premises, a company implements a system that requires a unique RFID badge for entry. An attacker creates a duplicate of an authorized RFID badge to gain access. This type of attack is known as: Tailgating Brute force Social engineering RFID cloning
Tailgating Brute force Social engineering Your answer is correct RFID cloning Overall explanation RFID cloning involves duplicating the RFID signal of an authorized badge to gain unauthorized access, directly targeting the physical security measures that rely on RFID technology for access control. Unlike social engineering, which manipulates people, tailgating, which involves following someone into a restricted area, or brute force attacks, RFID cloning specifically involves the replication of RFID signals.
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Question 2: In the context of secure operations, why is continuous integration and testing considered crucial for maintaining application security? It allows for the rapid deployment of new features without security reviews. It enables the early detection and remediation of vulnerabilities in code. It reduces the need for manual testing and quality assurance. It focuses solely on performance optimization.
It allows for the rapid deployment of new features without security reviews. Correct answer It enables the early detection and remediation of vulnerabilities in code. It reduces the need for manual testing and quality assurance. Your answer is incorrect It focuses solely on performance optimization. Overall explanation Continuous integration and testing enable organizations to detect and fix vulnerabilities early in the development cycle, making it a key practice for maintaining application security. This approach facilitates the integration of security checks into the development process, allowing for immediate feedback and remediation of issues before deployment. The rapid deployment of new features without security reviews, while reducing manual testing needs and focusing on performance, does not address the fundamental advantage of early vulnerability detection.
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Question 3: A security system grants access based on attributes such as department, job title, and project involvement. Which access control model does this describe? RBAC DAC ABAC MAC
RBAC DAC Correct answer ABAC Your answer is incorrect MAC Overall explanation Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) uses attributes, such as department, job title, and project involvement, to make access decisions. This allows for more granular and dynamic access control compared to DAC, RBAC, or MAC, which are more rigid in their approach to access determination.
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Question 4: An organization's website is temporarily offline due to an overwhelming amount of traffic from seemingly legitimate requests. This situation is most indicative of a motivation to cause what type of impact? Financial gain Service disruption Ethical Espionage
Financial gain Correct answer Service disruption Ethical Your answer is incorrect Espionage Overall explanation Overloading a website with traffic to force it offline is indicative of a denial-of-service attack, aimed at disrupting services rather than stealing data, gaining financially, or promoting ethical standards. This type of attack seeks to inconvenience the target and its users by making critical services unavailable, differentiating it from espionage, which seeks to covertly gather intelligence, and ethical motivations, which aim to promote moral standards or highlight issues without causing harm to services.
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Question 5: For a new mobile application, a development team is considering an authentication method that does not involve passwords. Which of the following would be a suitable alternative? Password complexity requirements Biometrics Password expiration policies Password managers
Password complexity requirements Correct answer Biometrics Password expiration policies Your answer is incorrect Password managers Overall explanation Biometrics provide a passwordless authentication method by using unique biological traits for identification, such as fingerprints or facial recognition. This method enhances user convenience and security, unlike password managers, complexity requirements, or expiration policies, which all involve password use.
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Question 6: An organization notices an increase in phishing emails aimed at its employees. Which of the following measures is most effective in mitigating this threat? Increasing firewall security settings. Deploying an email filtering solution. Implementing a VPN for remote access. Upgrading network encryption protocols
Increasing firewall security settings. Correct answer Deploying an email filtering solution. Implementing a VPN for remote access. Your answer is incorrect Upgrading network encryption protocols Overall explanation Deploying an email filtering solution is the most effective measure against phishing attacks. It helps identify and block malicious emails before they reach the end user, reducing the risk of successful phishing attempts. While increasing firewall security and upgrading encryption can enhance overall security, they do not directly address the threat of phishing emails like an email filtering solution does.
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Question 7: When conducting a vendor assessment, what is the significance of including a right-to-audit clause in the agreement? It allows for modifications to the scope of work without additional costs. It permits the hiring company to audit the vendor’s processes and compliance. It ensures competitive pricing throughout the contract duration. It guarantees confidentiality of the data shared with the vendor.
It allows for modifications to the scope of work without additional costs. Correct answer It permits the hiring company to audit the vendor’s processes and compliance. It ensures competitive pricing throughout the contract duration. Your answer is incorrect It guarantees confidentiality of the data shared with the vendor. Overall explanation Including a right-to-audit clause in the agreement permits the hiring company to audit the vendor's processes and compliance. This is important for ensuring that the vendor adheres to agreed-upon security standards, regulations, and best practices. It allows the organization to identify and mitigate risks proactively. Competitive pricing, modifications to the scope of work, and data confidentiality, while important, are addressed through other clauses and agreements.
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Question 8: When deploying a new NIDS in an enterprise environment, where is the most effective placement considering typical network architecture? Directly on the endpoint devices. Inline between the internal network and the internet gateway. On a mirrored port from the core switch. Inline between the wireless access point and the endpoint devices.
Directly on the endpoint devices. Inline between the internal network and the internet gateway. Correct answer On a mirrored port from the core switch. Your answer is incorrect Inline between the wireless access point and the endpoint devices. Overall explanation The correct placement is on a mirrored port from the core switch because it allows the NIDS to monitor all network traffic without impacting the traffic flow. Placing it directly on endpoint devices would not provide visibility across the network and could degrade performance on the endpoints. Placing it inline, whether between the internal network and the gateway or between the access point and endpoints, would provide visibility but at the risk of creating a single point of failure and potentially degrading network performance.
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Question 9: A company is developing an internal policy to handle security incidents. Which of the following is the most critical element to include in this policy? Employee performance metrics related to security incidents A list of preferred vendors for security software A detailed history of past incidents within the industry Procedures for reporting and responding to security incidents
Employee performance metrics related to security incidents A list of preferred vendors for security software A detailed history of past incidents within the industry Your answer is correct Procedures for reporting and responding to security incidents Overall explanation The most critical element of a security incident response policy is the procedures for reporting and responding to security incidents. This includes clear guidelines on what constitutes an incident, how to report it, and the steps to be taken in response. While understanding past incidents, choosing security software, and evaluating employee performance can be useful, they do not directly contribute to the immediate handling and mitigation of incidents.
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Question 10: During a security audit of a company's IT infrastructure, the auditor discovers that several critical servers are accessible via default credentials. What should be the immediate corrective action? Disable remote access to the servers. Conduct a penetration test on the network. Change the default credentials to strong, unique passwords. Implement two-factor authentication.
Disable remote access to the servers. Conduct a penetration test on the network. Correct answer Change the default credentials to strong, unique passwords. Your answer is incorrect Implement two-factor authentication. Overall explanation Changing default credentials to strong, unique passwords is crucial to protect against unauthorized access. Default credentials are easily discoverable by attackers, making systems vulnerable to compromise. While implementing two-factor authentication and disabling remote access can enhance security, addressing the immediate risk involves securing the login process by updating the credentials
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Question 11: Which of the following is a critical reason for conducting independent assessments of vendors? To reduce costs associated with vendor services To verify vendors’ claims about their products and services To establish a direct communication channel with the vendor’s management To ensure vendors are using the latest technology
To reduce costs associated with vendor services Correct answer To verify vendors’ claims about their products and services To establish a direct communication channel with the vendor’s management Your answer is incorrect To ensure vendors are using the latest technology Overall explanation Conducting independent assessments of vendors is critical to verify vendors' claims about their products and services. Independent assessments provide an objective review of the vendor's capabilities, security practices, and compliance with relevant standards, thereby ensuring that the organization's expectations are met. While using the latest technology and establishing communication channels are beneficial, they are not the primary reasons for independent assessments.
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Question 12: To ensure that unauthorized changes are not made to a system's configuration, which strategy should be employed? Upgrading network devices Encouraging strong user passwords Installation of antivirus software Configuration enforcement
Upgrading network devices Encouraging strong user passwords Installation of antivirus software Your answer is correct Configuration enforcement Overall explanation Configuration enforcement is crucial for ensuring that systems remain in their secure, authorized states and that unauthorized changes are prevented or rolled back, directly addressing the concern of unauthorized modifications unlike antivirus installation or user password policies.
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Question 13: What is the main purpose of a SLA between an organization and its vendor? To outline the legal framework of the partnership To document the mutual understandings without enforceable obligations To specify the expected performance and uptime metrics To detail the specific tasks and deliverables for a project
To outline the legal framework of the partnership To document the mutual understandings without enforceable obligations Correct answer To specify the expected performance and uptime metrics Your answer is incorrect To detail the specific tasks and deliverables for a project Overall explanation The main purpose of a Service-level Agreement (SLA) between an organization and its vendor is to specify the expected performance and uptime metrics. SLAs define measurable criteria that the vendor must meet, such as availability, response times, and quality of service, which are crucial for holding the vendor accountable and ensuring service quality. While legal frameworks and specific tasks are important, they are covered by other types of agreements.
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Question 14: A company is planning to dispose of old hard drives containing sensitive data. What is the most secure method of data disposal? Formatting the hard drives multiple times. Degaussing the hard drives Selling the hard drives as is to recoup costs. Deleting all files from the hard drives.
Formatting the hard drives multiple times. Correct answer Degaussing the hard drives Selling the hard drives as is to recoup costs. Your answer is incorrect Deleting all files from the hard drives. Overall explanation Degaussing is a process that destroys the magnetic field and data on a hard drive, making it an effective method for securely disposing of hard drives containing sensitive data. Simply deleting files or formatting the drives does not completely remove the data and can often be recovered with the right tools. Selling the hard drives without properly sanitizing them poses a significant security risk.
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Question 15: An enterprise implements a system where the access rights are determined by the policies established by the owner. Which type of access control model is in use? RBAC ABAC DAC MAC
RBAC ABAC Correct answer DAC Your answer is incorrect MAC Overall explanation In Discretionary Access Control (DAC), the access rights are at the discretion of the data or resource owner, allowing them to decide who gets access. This contrasts with MAC, where access is determined by system-enforced policies, RBAC, which is based on roles, and ABAC, which uses attributes for decision-making.
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Question 16: You're a security analyst for a multinational corporation that deals with highly sensitive financial information. Which method would be most effective in protecting this data when it's being transmitted between offices located in different countries? Masking Encryption Hashing Obfuscation
Masking Correct answer Encryption Hashing Your answer is incorrect Obfuscation Overall explanation Encryption is the most suitable method for protecting sensitive financial information during transmission. It ensures that the data remains secure and unreadable to unauthorized parties. Hashing, obfuscation, and masking are not designed for securing data during transit and may not provide the necessary level of protection.
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Question 17: A company needs to ensure that only authorized employees can access its critical infrastructure data. Which method would be most effective in achieving this goal? Segmentation Encryption Obfuscation Permission restrictions
Correct answer Segmentation Encryption Obfuscation Your answer is incorrect Permission restrictions Overall explanation Segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments to control the flow of traffic and restrict access. This method is particularly effective for securing critical infrastructure data by limiting access to authorized personnel only. Encryption, permission restrictions, and obfuscation may complement segmentation but are not as directly related to controlling access to critical infrastructure data.
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Question 18: An organization notices that their domain's website traffic is being incorrectly redirected to a malicious site. Upon investigation, they find altered DNS records. Which type of attack does this scenario best describe? On-path attack DDoS reflected attack DNS poisoning Wireless attack
On-path attack DDoS reflected attack Correct answer DNS poisoning Your answer is incorrect Wireless attack Overall explanation DNS poisoning involves corrupting the DNS cache with false information, leading users to malicious websites instead of the intended destination. This scenario fits DNS poisoning, as the altered DNS records are redirecting users. This isn't a wireless attack, which targets wireless networks; a DDoS reflected attack, which uses public network resources to flood a target with unsolicited traffic; or an on-path attack, which intercepts data between two entities.
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Question 19: A company's security systems detect an attempt to record keystrokes on a public-facing server. What type of malware is specifically designed for this purpose? Virus Spyware Worm Keylogger
Virus Spyware Worm Your answer is correct Keylogger Overall explanation Keyloggers are designed to record and transmit keystrokes, allowing attackers to potentially capture sensitive information such as passwords and credit card numbers. Unlike viruses and worms, which spread and replicate, or general spyware, which may have a broader data collection purpose, keyloggers specifically target user input for theft.
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Question 20: A company's security team has found that the same data packet has been sent to their server multiple times, each with a different timestamp. What type of attack does this scenario best describe? Buffer overflow Replay Injection Privilege escalation
Buffer overflow Correct answer Replay Injection Your answer is incorrect Privilege escalation Overall explanation Replay attacks involve the malicious or fraudulent repeat of a valid data transmission. This is different from buffer overflow, injection, or privilege escalation, as it specifically relates to the unauthorized retransmission of data, not code execution or elevation of access.
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Question 21: An employee notices that their computer is executing unauthorized commands at specific times, such as deleting files every Friday at 3 PM. This scenario is most indicative of what type of malware? Ransomware Rootkit Worm Logic bomb
Ransomware Rootkit Worm Your answer is correct Logic bomb Overall explanation Logic bombs are malicious code that triggers unauthorized actions based on specific conditions, such as time or date. This scenario, where malicious actions occur at a set time, is characteristic of a logic bomb, differing from ransomware that encrypts files for ransom, worms that spread across networks, and rootkits that hide their presence and maintain unauthorized access.
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Question 22: A security analyst is evaluating methods to secure a public-facing web application. Which of the following is the most effective solution? Increasing the server's bandwidth. Regularly changing the website's URL Implementing a WAF. Disabling cookies on the web application.
Increasing the server's bandwidth. Regularly changing the website's URL Correct answer Implementing a WAF. Your answer is incorrect Disabling cookies on the web application. Overall explanation A web application firewall (WAF) is specifically designed to monitor, filter, and block harmful traffic and attacks towards web applications, such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS). Increasing bandwidth, changing the URL frequently, or disabling cookies do not directly protect against web application attacks, making the WAF the most effective choice for securing a public-facing web application.
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Question 23: A security analyst discovers that an application being used in the company is no longer supported by the vendor and has not received updates for over a year. What should the analyst recommend to mitigate potential security risks? Disconnect the application from the internet but allow internal use Continue using the application while monitoring for any unusual activity. Train employees to use the application cautiously Replace the application with a supported and regularly updated alternative.
Disconnect the application from the internet but allow internal use Continue using the application while monitoring for any unusual activity. Train employees to use the application cautiously Your answer is correct Replace the application with a supported and regularly updated alternative. Overall explanation Continuing to use the unsupported application leaves the company vulnerable to unpatched security vulnerabilities. Disconnecting the application from the internet reduces some risk but does not eliminate the threat of internal attacks or malware spread. Training employees provides awareness but does not address the root of the security risk. Replacing the unsupported application with one that is supported and receives regular updates is the best way to ensure security vulnerabilities are addressed.
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Question 24: When updating the risk register, a project manager decides to assign risk owners for each identified risk. What is the primary reason for assigning risk owners? To delegate the task of risk analysis to more team members. To distribute the financial responsibility for risks across the company. To ensure that all employees are aware of the risks. To have specific individuals accountable for monitoring and mitigating risks.
To delegate the task of risk analysis to more team members. To distribute the financial responsibility for risks across the company. To ensure that all employees are aware of the risks. Your answer is correct To have specific individuals accountable for monitoring and mitigating risks. Overall explanation Having specific individuals accountable for monitoring and mitigating risks ensures that each risk is actively managed and that mitigation strategies are effectively implemented. While raising awareness and distributing tasks and financial responsibilities are important, the primary purpose of assigning risk owners is to ensure that there is a clear point of accountability for each identified risk, facilitating better risk management and response.
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Question 25: In an effort to limit access to sensitive network segments, which type of control should be meticulously configured? ACL Bandwidth throttling User awareness training Anti-malware software
Correct answer ACL Bandwidth throttling User awareness training Your answer is incorrect Anti-malware software Overall explanation Configuring access control lists (ACLs) meticulously limits access to sensitive network segments by defining who or what is allowed to access certain resources, providing a direct method to control access more effectively than general security measures like anti-malware software or user training.
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Question 26: When setting up a new networked device, why is it important to disable services and ports that are not in use? To reduce the potential attack surface for cyber attackers To increase the network's bandwidth for critical services To ensure compliance with international data protection regulations To simplify the management of networked devices.
Correct answer To reduce the potential attack surface for cyber attackers To increase the network's bandwidth for critical services To ensure compliance with international data protection regulations Your answer is incorrect To simplify the management of networked devices. Overall explanation Disabling services and ports that are not in use is important to reduce the potential attack surface for cyber attackers. Open ports and running services can be exploited to gain unauthorized access or to launch attacks against the network. By minimizing the number of active services and open ports, you significantly lower the risk of such vulnerabilities.
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Question 27: A company wants to secure its internal server farm from unauthorized access but needs to provide access to technicians for maintenance. What is the best solution? Using a public cloud service for all internal services Allowing SSH access from the internet. Implementing a jump server Setting up a direct VPN for each technician
Using a public cloud service for all internal services Allowing SSH access from the internet. Correct answer Implementing a jump server Your answer is incorrect Setting up a direct VPN for each technician Overall explanation A jump server is the best solution because it provides a controlled access point to the server farm, reducing the attack surface by centralizing access control and monitoring. Direct VPNs could provide secure access but lack centralized control and logging. Allowing direct SSH access from the internet significantly increases the attack surface. Using a public cloud service does not inherently solve the controlled access issue for internal services.
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Question 28: A security policy mandates that access to the secure data center is only allowed for maintenance personnel from 3:00 AM to 5:00 AM. Which access control method is being applied? RBAC DAC Time-of-Day Restrictions MAC
RBAC DAC Correct answer Time-of-Day Restrictions Your answer is incorrect MAC Overall explanation Time-of-Day Restrictions limit access to resources based on the time. This is specifically designed to control when certain users or roles can access specific areas or systems, unlike RBAC, MAC, or DAC, which focus on who can access and under what permissions rather than when.
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Question 29: For a rapidly growing technology firm, what method of managing privileged access ensures scalability and flexibility while maintaining security? Using a common password for all privileged accounts to simplify access Assigning all employees administrator privileges to avoid bottlenecks Hardcoding administrator passwords into scripts Employing just-in-time permissions with automated oversight
Using a common password for all privileged accounts to simplify access Assigning all employees administrator privileges to avoid bottlenecks Hardcoding administrator passwords into scripts Your answer is correct Employing just-in-time permissions with automated oversight Overall explanation Just-in-time permissions with automated oversight allow for the dynamic and flexible granting of access rights based on immediate needs, with the system automatically managing and revoking these permissions to minimize risk. This approach supports scalability by adapting to changing access requirements without compromising security, unlike hardcoding passwords, granting universal admin privileges, or using a common password for all accounts, which all present significant security vulnerabilities.
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Question 30: A company's security team receives reports of employees receiving voice calls claiming to be from technical support, asking for their login credentials. What is the best immediate action to counteract this form of social engineering? Record all incoming calls to identify the attackers. Instruct employees to hang up and call back using an official company number. Ignore the calls, assuming that employees know better than to share their credentials. Advise employees to give out passwords only if the caller can provide a verification code.
Record all incoming calls to identify the attackers. Correct answer Instruct employees to hang up and call back using an official company number. Ignore the calls, assuming that employees know better than to share their credentials. Your answer is incorrect Advise employees to give out passwords only if the caller can provide a verification code. Overall explanation Instructing employees to hang up and then call back using a known official number ensures they are communicating with genuine company representatives, thus mitigating the risk of information being divulged to an attacker. Advising employees to give out passwords under any circumstances is extremely risky. Ignoring the problem does not protect against employees who may be tricked. Recording calls may help identify attackers but does not prevent the immediate risk.
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Question 31: A security researcher is analyzing a piece of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software but contains a hidden functionality that allows unauthorized access to the system. What type of malware is this? Spyware Trojan Virus Worm
Spyware Correct answer Trojan Virus Your answer is incorrect Worm Overall explanation Trojans are malicious programs that appear to be legitimate software but perform hidden, unauthorized actions. This distinguishes them from viruses, which infect other programs, worms that self-replicate across networks, and spyware that covertly collects information, highlighting the deceptive nature of Trojans.
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Question 32: In the context of vendor selection, why is due diligence important? To verify the vendor’s financial health, reputation, and operational capabilities To guarantee the vendor offers the lowest price in the market To confirm the vendor’s geographical location matches the organization's needs To ensure the vendor’s marketing strategies align with the organization's
Correct answer To verify the vendor’s financial health, reputation, and operational capabilities To guarantee the vendor offers the lowest price in the market To confirm the vendor’s geographical location matches the organization's needs Your answer is incorrect To ensure the vendor’s marketing strategies align with the organization's Overall explanation Due diligence is important in vendor selection to verify the vendor's financial health, reputation, and operational capabilities. This comprehensive evaluation helps in assessing whether the vendor can meet the organization's requirements reliably and sustainably. While geographical location and pricing are considerations, they do not encompass the broader and more critical aspects of ensuring a vendor's suitability that due diligence covers.
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Question 33: A technology firm is assessing the risk of a new project that involves the development of a proprietary software solution. Which risk analysis technique would best help the firm estimate the potential financial losses from project delays or failures? Continuous risk analysis throughout the project lifecycle Qualitative risk analysis focusing on team member opinions. One-time risk analysis at the project initiation phase. Quantitative risk analysis using historical data on similar projects.
Continuous risk analysis throughout the project lifecycle Qualitative risk analysis focusing on team member opinions. One-time risk analysis at the project initiation phase. Your answer is correct Quantitative risk analysis using historical data on similar projects. Overall explanation Quantitative risk analysis using historical data on similar projects is the best technique for estimating potential financial losses from project delays or failures. This approach allows the firm to use objective data to calculate metrics like Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) and Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE), providing a clearer financial perspective on potential risks. While qualitative analysis and continuous monitoring are important, they do not offer the specific financial estimates that quantitative analysis does, especially for new projects where financial implications are a major concern.
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Question 34: During a routine inspection, a network administrator notices an unusually high number of failed login attempts on a server from multiple IP addresses. Which of the following is the most likely type of attack? Spraying Privilege escalation Buffer overflow Replay attack
Correct answer Spraying Privilege escalation Buffer overflow Your answer is incorrect Replay attack Overall explanation Password spraying attacks involve attempting a small number of common passwords against a large number of accounts to avoid account lockouts that would typically occur with brute force attacks. Unlike buffer overflow, replay, or privilege escalation attacks, spraying targets weaknesses in password policies and is characterized by multiple login attempts from different IPs.
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Question 35: A company wants to enhance its security posture by minimizing the risk associated with static privileged accounts. Which approach would best achieve this? Using a single shared account for all administrators Requiring complex passwords changed yearly Assigning permanent admin rights to users Implementing password vaulting
Using a single shared account for all administrators Requiring complex passwords changed yearly Assigning permanent admin rights to users Your answer is correct Implementing password vaulting Overall explanation Password vaulting is a security practice where privileged passwords are stored securely and accessed by users when needed, often involving an additional layer of authentication to access the vault. This approach minimizes risks by ensuring that privileged credentials are not overexposed and are only available to authorized users on an as-needed basis, reducing the attack surface for potential credential theft. Assigning permanent admin rights, using a single shared account, and merely requiring complex passwords do not effectively minimize the risks associated with privileged account management as they either overexpose credentials or fail to address the root issue of credential management.
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Question 36: Which of the following best describes an effective strategy to secure a wireless network against eavesdropping? Keep the SSID default to avoid drawing attention Use WEP encryption for compatibility with older devices Enable WPA3 encryption on the wireless network. Limit the signal strength to just within the office premises.
Keep the SSID default to avoid drawing attention Use WEP encryption for compatibility with older devices Correct answer Enable WPA3 encryption on the wireless network. Your answer is incorrect Limit the signal strength to just within the office premises. Overall explanation Enabling WPA3 encryption on the wireless network is the most effective strategy to secure it against eavesdropping. WPA3 is the latest security standard that provides stronger data protection by using advanced encryption. This makes it more difficult for attackers to intercept and decipher network traffic compared to older standards like WEP, which has known vulnerabilities.
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Question 37: You're tasked with protecting a company's trade secrets stored in a database. Which data type best describes this information? Regulated data Financial information Legal information Intellectual property
Regulated data Financial information Legal information Your answer is correct Intellectual property Overall explanation Trade secrets are a type of intellectual property that encompasses confidential information critical to a company's competitive advantage. Classifying this data under intellectual property ensures that appropriate measures are taken to protect it from unauthorized access or disclosure.
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Question 38: A financial institution is evaluating the risk of unauthorized access to its online banking platform. Which method would provide the most accurate assessment of the potential financial impact? Calculating the Probability and Impact of unauthorized access incidents. Estimating the ALE for unauthorized access incidents. Conducting a one-time risk assessment at the launch of the platform. Performing a recurring qualitative risk analysis annually.
Calculating the Probability and Impact of unauthorized access incidents. Correct answer Estimating the ALE for unauthorized access incidents. Conducting a one-time risk assessment at the launch of the platform. Your answer is incorrect Performing a recurring qualitative risk analysis annually. Overall explanation Estimating the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) for unauthorized access incidents provides the most accurate assessment of the potential financial impact by combining the frequency of the event occurring within a year (ARO) with the financial impact of each occurrence (SLE). This method offers a clear financial metric that helps in decision-making and prioritization of mitigation strategies. While conducting risk assessments and analyzing probability and impact are crucial, ALE provides a specific financial perspective crucial for financial institutions.
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Question 39: An organization discovers that one of its SSL certificates has been compromised. To prevent misuse, they need to ensure that browsers and clients are immediately aware that the certificate is no longer valid. Which mechanism should they use? OCSP Blockchain CRLs Secure Enclave
Correct answer OCSP Blockchain CRLs Your answer is incorrect Secure Enclave Overall explanation The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is the most efficient mechanism for an organization to ensure browsers and clients are immediately aware that a compromised certificate is no longer valid. OCSP allows browsers and clients to check the revocation status of certificates in real-time, providing quicker and more efficient verification compared to Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which require downloading a list that may not be immediately updated. While Secure Enclaves and Blockchain provide security in different contexts, OCSP directly addresses the need for timely notification of certificate revocation to maintain secure communications.
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Question 40: A security analyst is concerned about vulnerabilities within the company's custom-developed application. Which practice is MOST effective in early identification of memory injection vulnerabilities? Implementing 2FA. Encrypting data stored by the application Conducting code reviews with a focus on security Deploying a NIDS.
Implementing 2FA. Encrypting data stored by the application Correct answer Conducting code reviews with a focus on security Your answer is incorrect Deploying a NIDS. Overall explanation Memory injection vulnerabilities are often due to coding errors that allow attackers to inject malicious code into an application's memory. Conducting code reviews with a focus on security allows developers to identify and fix these errors early in the development process, reducing the risk of exploitation. While deploying NIDS, implementing 2FA, and encrypting data are valuable security measures, they do not directly address the root cause of memory injection vulnerabilities in the application code
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Question 41: An organization wants to prevent unauthorized access to its private customer database. Which method would be most effective for achieving this goal? Tokenization Masking Permission restrictions Encryption
Tokenization Masking Correct answer Permission restrictions Your answer is incorrect Encryption Overall explanation Permission restrictions allow organizations to control access to specific data based on users' roles and privileges. This method ensures that only authorized individuals can access the private customer database, reducing the risk of unauthorized disclosure or misuse. Tokenization, masking, and encryption focus more on data protection mechanisms but may not directly address access control requirements.
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Question 42: During an incident response, a security analyst finds that unauthorized devices are connecting to the corporate Wi-Fi network without being detected by the intrusion prevention system. What is the most likely type of attack? DDoS Reflected attack On-path attack Wireless attack DNS poisoning
DDoS Reflected attack On-path attack Correct answer Wireless attack Your answer is incorrect DNS poisoning Overall explanation Unauthorized devices connecting to the corporate Wi-Fi network suggest a wireless attack, possibly due to insufficient security measures like weak encryption or the lack of a robust access control system. This situation is not indicative of a DDoS reflected attack, which involves overwhelming a system with external requests; DNS poisoning, which misdirects traffic; or an on-path attack, which involves intercepting communication between two parties.
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Question 43: Why are UPS systems critical for data center operations? They offer immediate power backup during outages They improve data transfer speeds They reduce the overall energy consumption They provide long-term power supply
Correct answer They offer immediate power backup during outages They improve data transfer speeds They reduce the overall energy consumption Your answer is incorrect They provide long-term power supply Overall explanation UPS systems are critical for providing immediate power backup during outages, ensuring that data centers can continue operations without interruption until a more long-term solution, like a generator, can take over or until the main power supply is restored, unlike offering long-term power, reducing energy consumption, or improving data transfer speeds, which are not the primary functions of UPS systems
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Question 44: After identifying a series of risks associated with a new data center, a company plans to prioritize these risks for mitigation. Which factor should be considered most critically in determining the priority for risk mitigation? The total cost of implementing mitigation strategies for each risk. The ease of implementing mitigation strategies for each risk. The likelihood of each risk occurring and its potential impact. The opinions of senior management on the importance of each risk.
The total cost of implementing mitigation strategies for each risk. The ease of implementing mitigation strategies for each risk. Correct answer The likelihood of each risk occurring and its potential impact. Your answer is incorrect The opinions of senior management on the importance of each risk. Overall explanation The likelihood of each risk occurring and its potential impact should be considered most critically in determining the priority for risk mitigation. This approach ensures that the company focuses its resources on mitigating risks that pose the greatest threat to its operations, based on both the probability of occurrence and the severity of the potential impact. While cost, management opinions, and ease of implementation are important considerations, they do not directly relate to the intrinsic threat level of each risk, making them secondary factors in prioritization.
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Question 45: Shortly after a controversial political decision, a government website becomes inaccessible due to a flood of traffic overwhelming its servers. This attack is most likely conducted by which type of threat actor? Hacktivist Nation-state Organized crime Unskilled attacker
Correct answer Hacktivist Nation-state Organized crime Your answer is incorrect Unskilled attacker Overall explanation Hacktivists are activists who use hacking techniques to promote political ends or social causes. The described scenario is indicative of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack, which is a common tool for hacktivists aiming to disrupt services and draw attention to their causes. Unlike nation-states or organized crime groups, which typically pursue espionage or financial gain, hacktivists are motivated by ideological objectives and often target government or corporate entities to make a statement.
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Question 46: An organization wants to ensure that users only have access to resources necessary for their current role. Which principle should be applied? Time-of-Day Restrictions Least Privilege DAC MAC
Time-of-Day Restrictions Correct answer Least Privilege DAC Your answer is incorrect MAC Overall explanation The principle of least privilege restricts users' access rights to only what is strictly required to perform their jobs, minimizing the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive information. This is more about limiting access based on necessity rather than the mechanism of control (such as DAC or MAC) or the conditions under which access is allowed (like time-of-day restrictions).
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Question 47: A developer finds that input fields in their web application are executing commands on the server. What type of application attack is this an example of? Injection Replay Buffer overflow Directory traversal
Correct answer Injection Replay Buffer overflow Your answer is incorrect Directory traversal Overall explanation Injection attacks occur when an attacker sends malicious input to a program, leading the program to execute unintended commands or access unauthorized data. This differs from buffer overflow, replay, and directory traversal as those involve overflow errors, repeating actions, or accessing files, respectively, not executing commands through user input.
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Question 48: What is a primary security concern when using Bluetooth for file transfers between devices? The slow transfer speed compared to Wi-Fi. The file size limit of Bluetooth transfers. Vulnerability to eavesdropping and data interception. The need for devices to be in close proximity.
The slow transfer speed compared to Wi-Fi. The file size limit of Bluetooth transfers. Correct answer Vulnerability to eavesdropping and data interception. Your answer is incorrect The need for devices to be in close proximity. Overall explanation The primary security concern when using Bluetooth for file transfers is vulnerability to eavesdropping and data interception. Bluetooth connections can be less secure than other methods, making them susceptible to being intercepted by unauthorized individuals if not properly secured, posing a significant risk to data privacy and security.
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Question 49: When decommissioning old hardware, what is the most important consideration to prevent data leakage? Upgrading to the latest hardware Maintaining inventory records Increasing the hardware's resale value Ensuring physical destruction of storage devices
Upgrading to the latest hardware Maintaining inventory records Increasing the hardware's resale value Your answer is correct Ensuring physical destruction of storage devices Overall explanation Ensuring the physical destruction of storage devices is the most effective way to prevent data leakage from decommissioned hardware, as it makes data recovery impossible, which is a more direct and secure method than inventory management or focusing on hardware upgrades.
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Question 50: What strategy ensures that system administrators have the necessary access to perform their duties without exposing the organization to unnecessary risk? Unrestricted access to all systems for convenience Single-factor authentication for quick access Just-in-time permissions with role-based access control Always-on VPN connections for remote access
Unrestricted access to all systems for convenience Single-factor authentication for quick access Correct answer Just-in-time permissions with role-based access control Your answer is incorrect Always-on VPN connections for remote access Overall explanation Just-in-time permissions with role-based access control (RBAC) provide a secure and efficient method to grant administrators access based on their roles and current needs, minimizing unnecessary exposure of sensitive systems and information. This approach combines the flexibility needed for efficient operations with the security required to protect resources. Always-on VPNs, unrestricted access, and single-factor authentication do not provide the same level of targeted access control and could introduce significant security vulnerabilities.
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Question 51: What technique can be used to ensure that temporary privileged access to cloud resources does not leave an organization vulnerable to long-term security breaches? Using ephemeral credentials Writing down access codes on paper Implementing the same passwords across multiple accounts Regular manual audit of account permissions
Correct answer Using ephemeral credentials Writing down access codes on paper Implementing the same passwords across multiple accounts Your answer is incorrect Regular manual audit of account permissions Overall explanation Ephemeral credentials are temporary and automatically expire after a short duration or once their purpose has been served. This approach is highly effective in cloud environments, as it ensures that access is only granted for the required period, significantly reducing the window of opportunity for attackers to exploit privileged accounts. Writing down access codes, using the same passwords for multiple accounts, and relying solely on manual audits do not provide the dynamic security posture needed to protect against the evolving threats faced by organizations using cloud resources.
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Question 52: An individual seeks to enhance the privacy of an email message by hiding a message within the email in such a way that it is not detectable to unauthorized viewers. Which technique should they use to conceal the message? Steganography Tokenization Secure Enclave Data masking
Correct answer Steganography Tokenization Secure Enclave Your answer is incorrect Data masking Overall explanation Steganography is the technique that should be used to conceal a message within an email, making it undetectable to unauthorized viewers. It involves hiding data within other data, such as embedding a text message within an image or another file type, in a way that makes the hidden data not apparent to the observer. This method is ideal for enhancing the privacy of email messages by ensuring that only intended recipients know of the existence and how to access the concealed message. Unlike tokenization or data masking, which replace or obscure data for protection, steganography uniquely hides the existence of the data itself. Secure Enclaves provide secure storage and processing environments but do not relate to the method of concealing data within communications.
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Question 53: In implementing a privileged access management (PAM) solution, what practice helps prevent unauthorized access due to compromised credentials? Deploying password vaulting and regular credential rotation Using memorable passwords to avoid the need for password resets Reusing passwords across multiple systems for consistency Keeping a printed list of passwords in a secure office
Correct answer Deploying password vaulting and regular credential rotation Using memorable passwords to avoid the need for password resets Reusing passwords across multiple systems for consistency Your answer is incorrect Keeping a printed list of passwords in a secure office Overall explanation Password vaulting and regular credential rotation are critical components of a comprehensive PAM strategy. Vaulting securely stores credentials, while rotation ensures they are changed regularly, making it harder for attackers to gain persistent access through compromised credentials. Reusing passwords, keeping printed lists, and using memorable (and potentially weak) passwords do not effectively protect against the risks associated with privileged account compromise.
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Question 54: What is the most effective measure to protect against attacks exploiting unsecured wired network connections? Physically secure network ports and infrastructure. Implement MAC address filtering on the network. Use VPNs for all data transmitted over the network. Encrypt data at rest using strong encryption standards.
Correct answer Physically secure network ports and infrastructure. Implement MAC address filtering on the network. Use VPNs for all data transmitted over the network. Your answer is incorrect Encrypt data at rest using strong encryption standards. Overall explanation Physically securing network ports and infrastructure is the most effective measure against attacks exploiting unsecured wired network connections. While VPNs, MAC address filtering, and data encryption are important security measures, they do not address the direct risk of someone physically connecting to the network through unsecured ports. Physical security controls such as locking network rooms and securing network ports are essential to prevent unauthorized physical access.
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Question 55: In an organization, which of the following security awareness training topics would be most effective in preventing phishing attacks? The benefits of open-source software. How to identify and respond to phishing emails. The importance of strong passwords The history of computer science
The benefits of open-source software. Correct answer How to identify and respond to phishing emails. The importance of strong passwords Your answer is incorrect The history of computer science Overall explanation Educating employees on how to identify and respond to phishing emails is the most direct and effective method to prevent phishing attacks. While strong passwords are important, they do not directly address the issue of phishing. Similarly, the history of computer science and the benefits of open-source software are not directly relevant to preventing phishing attacks.
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Question 56: A company discovers that its proprietary data has been leaked due to an unauthorized device accessing their network. This device was a decommissioned router that was not properly sanitized before disposal. Which type of vulnerability does this scenario best illustrate? Misconfiguration Supply chain End-of-life hardware Firmware exploitation
Misconfiguration Supply chain Correct answer End-of-life hardware Your answer is incorrect Firmware exploitation Overall explanation The scenario describes an end-of-life hardware vulnerability, where devices that are no longer supported or updated by the manufacturer become security risks. This is because they may contain sensitive data or configurations that, if not properly sanitized or disposed of, can be exploited. Unlike firmware exploitation, which involves attacking the device's software, misconfiguration, which is an incorrect setup, or supply chain vulnerabilities, which are related to third-party suppliers, this issue arises specifically due to the mishandling of outdated hardware.
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Question 57: An IT department is implementing measures to secure mobile devices. Which of the following is the most effective security control? Allowing only voice calls on mobile devices Mandating the use of screen locks. Prohibiting the use of mobile devices Requiring the installation of third-party app stores
Allowing only voice calls on mobile devices Correct answer Mandating the use of screen locks. Prohibiting the use of mobile devices Your answer is incorrect Requiring the installation of third-party app stores Overall explanation Mandating the use of screen locks is an effective and practical security control for mobile devices. It helps prevent unauthorized access in case the device is lost or stolen. Prohibiting the use of mobile devices is impractical and counterproductive, restricting devices to only voice calls limits their functionality, and allowing the installation of apps from third-party stores can increase the risk of malware, making screen locks the most balanced and effective option.
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Question 58: During a security audit, you discover that several critical servers are accessible from the internet due to open service ports. What should be your immediate next step? Leave the ports open but monitor them for suspicious activity. Implement a firewall to control access to the ports. Close all open ports on the servers. Only close ports known to be exploited by malware.
Leave the ports open but monitor them for suspicious activity. Correct answer Implement a firewall to control access to the ports. Close all open ports on the servers. Your answer is incorrect Only close ports known to be exploited by malware. Overall explanation Implementing a firewall to control access to the ports is the immediate next step. A firewall allows you to manage which ports are accessible and to whom, providing a balance between necessary services and security. Simply closing all open ports might disrupt legitimate business operations, while monitoring without action or only closing known vulnerable ports doesn't sufficiently reduce the risk.
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Question 59: An IT department is configuring security settings for a new network infrastructure. Which of the following would best segment and isolate sensitive data? Placing all printers on the same network subnet Setting all computers to the same time zone. Implementing VLANs with proper access controls Using a single shared account for network administration.
Placing all printers on the same network subnet Setting all computers to the same time zone. Correct answer Implementing VLANs with proper access controls Your answer is incorrect Using a single shared account for network administration. Overall explanation Implementing VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) with proper access controls allows an organization to segment and isolate sensitive data effectively. This approach provides a way to enforce security policies by controlling access between different segments of the network. Setting computers to the same time zone, using a shared account, or grouping printers together do not provide the segmentation or security needed to protect sensitive data.
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Question 60: In which scenario would a fail-closed system be preferred over a fail-open system? In a public library's free Wi-Fi network. In a fire alarm system for a large commercial building. In an e-commerce platform's payment gateway. In a digital advertising display network
In a public library's free Wi-Fi network. In a fire alarm system for a large commercial building. Correct answer In an e-commerce platform's payment gateway. Your answer is incorrect In a digital advertising display network Overall explanation In a payment gateway, a fail-closed system is preferable to prevent unauthorized access or transactions in the event of a system failure. A fail-open system in this context could allow fraudulent transactions. In contrast, fail-open might be suitable for non-critical services like a public library's Wi-Fi, where service availability is more important than strict security.
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Question 61: A multinational corporation discovers a sophisticated cyber-attack targeting its proprietary data. The attack involved advanced persistent threats and zero-day vulnerabilities. Who is most likely behind this attack? Unskilled attacker Hacktivist Nation-state Insider threat
Unskilled attacker Hacktivist Correct answer Nation-state Your answer is incorrect Insider threat Overall explanation The complexity and sophistication of the attack suggest it was carried out by an actor with significant resources and capabilities. Nation-states are known for engaging in cyber espionage to gain economic, military, or political advantages and often have the means to leverage advanced persistent threats and exploit zero-day vulnerabilities. Unlike unskilled attackers, hacktivists, or insider threats, nation-states have the funding and technical expertise to conduct such high-level operations.
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Question 62: An organization's security policy includes restrictions on USB device usage. What is the primary reason for implementing such a policy? To reduce electricity consumption. To encourage the use of cloud storage solutions To prevent data loss through physical removal To increase the speed of the internal network.
To reduce electricity consumption. To encourage the use of cloud storage solutions Correct answer To prevent data loss through physical removal Your answer is incorrect To increase the speed of the internal network. Overall explanation The primary reason for restricting USB device usage is to prevent data loss or theft through physical removal of data from the network. USB devices can easily be used to copy and transport large amounts of sensitive data, making them a significant security risk. While encouraging cloud storage and reducing electricity consumption might be beneficial, they are not the primary reasons for USB restrictions.
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Question 63: When transitioning to a cloud-based infrastructure, what practice should be adopted to manage CSP access securely? Granting CSPs unlimited access to ensure service availability Implementing ephemeral credentials for CSP access Using static, long-term access keys shared via email Documenting access credentials in shared online documents
Granting CSPs unlimited access to ensure service availability Correct answer Implementing ephemeral credentials for CSP access Using static, long-term access keys shared via email Your answer is incorrect Documenting access credentials in shared online documents Overall explanation Implementing ephemeral credentials for cloud service provider access ensures that CSPs have temporary, time-limited access necessary for specific tasks, significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential security breaches. This approach allows for secure, controlled access management that can adapt to the dynamic needs of cloud infrastructure. Static keys, unlimited access, and documenting credentials in shared spaces do not offer the same level of security and could lead to compromised access controls.
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Question 64: A company’s security team notices multiple unsuccessful login attempts from different geographic locations in a short time frame. What type of attack are they likely experiencing? Credential replay attack On-path attack DDoS Amplified attack Wireless attack
Correct answer Credential replay attack On-path attack DDoS Amplified attack Your answer is incorrect Wireless attack Overall explanation A credential replay attack involves an attacker capturing and reusing credentials to gain unauthorized access. The pattern of multiple unsuccessful logins from various locations suggests that stolen credentials are being tested. This is not characteristic of an on-path attack, which involves intercepting data; a DDoS attack, which aims to overwhelm systems with traffic; or a wireless attack, which targets wireless network vulnerabilities.
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Question 65: A company's database containing user passwords has been exposed to a risk of brute-force attacks. Which technique should they implement to enhance the security of the stored passwords? Key stretching Certificates Digital signatures Blockchain
Correct answer Key stretching Certificates Digital signatures Your answer is incorrect Blockchain Overall explanation Key stretching is the technique that should be implemented to enhance the security of stored passwords, especially in the face of brute-force attack risks. This method involves applying a hashing function multiple times or using a cryptographic algorithm to make the hashing process computationally more demanding. By doing so, it significantly increases the time and effort required to crack each password, even if the attacker has access to the hashed passwords. Unlike digital signatures or certificates, which are used for verifying integrity and establishing secure connections, or blockchain, which is used for decentralized record-keeping, key stretching specifically targets the enhancement of password security.
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Question 66: In a high-security environment, what port security method should be implemented to ensure that only authorized devices can connect to the network? Disabling unused ports. MAC address filtering 802.1X authentication Simple port forwarding.
Disabling unused ports. MAC address filtering Correct answer 802.1X authentication Your answer is incorrect Simple port forwarding. Overall explanation 802.1X authentication is the correct choice because it provides robust network access control by requiring devices to authenticate before they can access network resources. MAC address filtering is less secure as MAC addresses can be spoofed. Simple port forwarding does not provide authentication, only directing traffic from one address to another. Disabling unused ports helps reduce vulnerabilities but does not control access on active ports.
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Question 67: You're a database administrator for a healthcare organization, responsible for securing patient records. Which data classification best describes this type of information? Sensitive Public Confidential Restricted
Correct answer Sensitive Public Confidential Your answer is incorrect Restricted Overall explanation Patient records contain private and sensitive information, making the classification "Sensitive" the most appropriate. This classification indicates that access to this data should be strictly controlled to prevent unauthorized disclosure or misuse.
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Question 68: A company notices unusual data transmissions from their IoT devices. Upon investigation, it is discovered that the devices were still operating with their default factory settings, including passwords, which allowed an attacker to easily gain control. This situation highlights what kind of vulnerability? Misconfiguration exploitation Hardware failure End-of-life hardware Firmware exploitation
Correct answer Misconfiguration exploitation Hardware failure End-of-life hardware Your answer is incorrect Firmware exploitation Overall explanation The situation exemplifies a misconfiguration vulnerability, where devices are left with default settings, making them easy targets for attackers. This is different from hardware failure, which pertains to physical malfunctions, firmware exploitation, which targets the software programmed on the device, or end-of-life hardware, which deals with outdated and unsupported devices. Misconfiguration, particularly failing to change default settings, is a common security oversight.
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Question 69: While assessing a company's network, you notice several devices are using the default credentials provided by the manufacturer. What should be your first action to mitigate this security risk? Change the default credentials to strong, unique passwords. Leave the credentials as they are; they're not a significant risk. Disable the accounts that use default credentials. Monitor the network traffic more closely for signs of unauthorized access.
Correct answer Change the default credentials to strong, unique passwords. Leave the credentials as they are; they're not a significant risk. Disable the accounts that use default credentials. Your answer is incorrect Monitor the network traffic more closely for signs of unauthorized access. Overall explanation Changing the default credentials to strong, unique passwords is essential because using default credentials is a common vulnerability that attackers exploit to gain unauthorized access. By changing these credentials, you significantly reduce the attack surface and the likelihood of unauthorized access.
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Question 70: During a continuous risk assessment process, an organization identifies an increased threat of phishing attacks. Which of the following KRIs would be most relevant to monitor for early detection of this threat? Changes in employee satisfaction scores from internal surveys Number of failed login attempts on the company's systems. Frequency of security patches applied to email servers. Increase in received emails flagged as phishing by the email filter.
Changes in employee satisfaction scores from internal surveys Number of failed login attempts on the company's systems. Frequency of security patches applied to email servers. Your answer is correct Increase in received emails flagged as phishing by the email filter. Overall explanation Monitoring the increase in received emails flagged as phishing by the email filter is the most relevant key risk indicator (KRI) for early detection of an increased threat of phishing attacks. This KRI provides direct evidence of the threat's manifestation and allows the organization to gauge the frequency and severity of phishing attempts. Failed login attempts and security patches are important security measures but are less direct indicators of phishing activity. Employee satisfaction scores, while important for organizational health, do not directly indicate phishing threats.
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Question 71: In securing a web application, what is the most effective way to protect against both SQL injection and XSS attacks? Validating and sanitizing all user inputs. Utilizing CSP headers. Restricting file permissions on the web server. Conducting black box security testing regularly
Correct answer Validating and sanitizing all user inputs. Utilizing CSP headers. Restricting file permissions on the web server. Your answer is incorrect Conducting black box security testing regularly Overall explanation Both SQL injection and XSS attacks exploit vulnerabilities that arise from improper handling of user input. By validating (ensuring input meets specific criteria) and sanitizing (removing or encoding dangerous characters) all user inputs, an application can significantly reduce the risk of these attacks. While CSP headers can help mitigate the impact of XSS attacks by restricting resources the browser can load, and while file permissions and security testing are important, they do not address the core issue of malicious user input directly.
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Question 72: legal firm requires a method to authenticate digital documents, ensuring that the content has not been altered and verifying the identity of the document signer. What technology should they implement? Key stretching Hashing Digital signatures Salting
Key stretching Hashing Correct answer Digital signatures Your answer is incorrect Salting Overall explanation Digital signatures are the best technology for authenticating digital documents in a legal firm. They ensure the integrity of the document content by indicating any alterations made after signing and verify the signer's identity through cryptographic means. This technology uses a combination of hashing and asymmetric encryption to create a unique signature tied to both the document and the signer, providing a high level of security and trustworthiness. Unlike salting or key stretching, which are used for password security, digital signatures directly address the requirements of document authentication and integrity.
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Question 73: A company's security team notices an unusual spike in Bluetooth pairing requests on their network. What is the most likely reason behind this? There is a malfunction in the Bluetooth devices An employee is trying to connect a new device to the network. The Bluetooth devices are automatically updating. Attackers are attempting a Bluejacking attack.
There is a malfunction in the Bluetooth devices An employee is trying to connect a new device to the network. The Bluetooth devices are automatically updating. Your answer is correct Attackers are attempting a Bluejacking attack. Overall explanation The most likely reason behind the unusual spike in Bluetooth pairing requests is attackers attempting a Bluejacking attack. Bluejacking involves sending unsolicited messages or connections to Bluetooth-enabled devices. This can be a precursor to more malicious attacks such as Bluesnarfing, where attackers gain unauthorized access to information.
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Question 74: A company implements an encrypted messaging system to protect communications. An attacker intercepts these messages and attempts to decrypt them without altering or redirecting the traffic. This type of activity is best classified as: Eavesdropping Man-in-the-middle attack Spoofing Phishing
Correct answer Eavesdropping Man-in-the-middle attack Spoofing Your answer is incorrect Phishing Overall explanation Eavesdropping involves passively intercepting and listening to private communications, in this case, attempting to decrypt messages without actively altering or redirecting the traffic. Unlike man-in-the-middle attacks, which involve intercepting and potentially altering communications between two parties, phishing, which involves deceitful attempts to obtain sensitive information, or spoofing, where an attacker disguises themselves as another entity, eavesdropping is characterized by its passive nature.
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Question 75: How can an organization ensure that developers have timely access to production environments without compromising security? Granting them permanent full access to production servers Utilizing ephemeral credentials for temporary access Sharing a set of credentials among the development team Requiring manual approval for each access request
Granting them permanent full access to production servers Correct answer Utilizing ephemeral credentials for temporary access Sharing a set of credentials among the development team Your answer is incorrect Requiring manual approval for each access request Overall explanation Ephemeral credentials offer a secure way to provide developers with temporary access to production environments as needed, automatically expiring after a set period or task completion. This method minimizes security risks by limiting the duration of access and reducing the potential for credentials misuse or theft. Permanent access, shared credentials, and solely relying on manual approvals can lead to security gaps, such as unauthorized access or inefficient access management processes.
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Question 76: An IT professional notices that an attacker has gained unauthorized access to a system and is executing commands with the same rights as the user who is logged in. Which type of attack has likely occurred? Replay Privilege escalation Directory traversal Injection
Replay Correct answer Privilege escalation Directory traversal Your answer is incorrect Injection Overall explanation Privilege escalation occurs when an attacker gains unauthorized access to a system's functions or data beyond their initial permissions. Unlike replay, injection, or directory traversal attacks, privilege escalation directly increases an attacker's access level within the compromised system.
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Question 77: To comply with industry best practices for privileged access management, what method should an organization use to handle emergency access to critical systems? Sharing passwords among the IT team Utilizing just-in-time permissions Documenting passwords in a secure spreadsheet Granting permanent emergency accounts
Sharing passwords among the IT team Correct answer Utilizing just-in-time permissions Documenting passwords in a secure spreadsheet Your answer is incorrect Granting permanent emergency accounts Overall explanation Just-in-time permissions provide a method to grant access rights to users on an as-needed basis, with the permissions being automatically revoked after a predefined time. This method aligns with best practices by ensuring that users have the necessary access to perform specific tasks without granting permanent or long-term access, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access or abuse of privileges. Granting permanent emergency accounts, sharing passwords, and documenting passwords in a spreadsheet all introduce significant security risks, such as unauthorized access and difficulty in managing and securing credentials effectively.
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Question 78: For a company aiming to monitor its network traffic in real-time to detect and respond to threats, which of the following is most crucial? Implementation of strict password policies Monitoring Deployment of a guest Wi-Fi network Regular data backups
Implementation of strict password policies Correct answer Monitoring Deployment of a guest Wi-Fi network Your answer is incorrect Regular data backups Overall explanation Real-time monitoring is essential for detecting and responding to threats as they occur, providing visibility into network traffic and potential security breaches. This is more directly related to threat detection and response than options like deploying a guest Wi-Fi network or implementing password policies.
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Question 79: Why is it important for organizations to manage and monitor their supply chain cybersecurity risks? To prevent unauthorized access to the organization’s network through third-party vendors. To maintain competitive market pricing To comply with supply chain management standards To ensure timely delivery of products and services.
Correct answer To prevent unauthorized access to the organization’s network through third-party vendors. To maintain competitive market pricing To comply with supply chain management standards Your answer is incorrect To ensure timely delivery of products and services. Overall explanation It's important for organizations to manage and monitor their supply chain cybersecurity risks to prevent unauthorized access to the organization’s network through third-party vendors. Attackers often target less secure elements in the supply chain as entry points into the networks of larger organizations, making supply chain security a critical component of an overall cybersecurity strategy.
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Question 80: An organization's IT department notices unauthorized software installations that bypass standard procurement and IT processes. This activity is most indicative of which threat? Shadow IT Hacktivist Unskilled attacker Organized crime
Correct answer Shadow IT Hacktivist Unskilled attacker Your answer is incorrect Organized crime Overall explanation Shadow IT refers to IT systems or software used within an organization without explicit organizational approval. This scenario indicates employees or departments are bypassing official channels to meet their immediate needs, posing security risks without malicious intent. Shadow IT represents an internal threat stemming from the organization's personnel seeking convenience or efficiency, contrasting with the external malicious intent of organized crime, hacktivists, or unskilled attackers.
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Question 81: To maintain system integrity and protect against known vulnerabilities, what practice should be regularly performed? Phishing simulations Social media monitoring Public Wi-Fi restrictions Patching
Phishing simulations Social media monitoring Public Wi-Fi restrictions Your answer is correct Patching Overall explanation Regular patching is critical for maintaining system integrity and protecting against known vulnerabilities by applying updates that fix security holes, offering a direct solution to the problem of vulnerabilities unlike more indirect approaches like social media monitoring or phishing simulations.
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Question 82: After a disaster, a company realizes that its data recovery process does not meet the previously established RPO. What should the company prioritize to align its recovery capabilities with its RPO? Increase risk tolerance Enhance data backup frequency Transfer data recovery responsibilities Accept the current RPO as is
Increase risk tolerance Correct answer Enhance data backup frequency Transfer data recovery responsibilities Your answer is incorrect Accept the current RPO as is Overall explanation To align the recovery capabilities with the established Recovery Point Objective (RPO), the company should prioritize enhancing the frequency of its data backups. This adjustment ensures that data can be restored to a point as close as possible to the time of a disruption, minimizing data loss and meeting the RPO criteria. Increasing risk tolerance, transferring responsibilities, or accepting the current RPO would not directly address the discrepancy between the recovery capabilities and the RPO.
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Question 83: What device attribute is best suited for a network monitoring solution aimed at identifying and analyzing large-scale data breaches? Tap/monitor mode on the device Passive device placement Inline device placement. Active device placement.
Tap/monitor mode on the device Correct answer Passive device placement Inline device placement. Your answer is incorrect Active device placement. Overall explanation Passive device placement is the correct choice for monitoring for data breaches as it allows the device to analyze and log traffic without interfering with network operations. Active device placement could block legitimate traffic if configured incorrectly. Inline placement could cause network delays, and while tap/monitor mode is similar to passive, passive placement generally refers to the device's non-interfering role in network monitoring.
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Question 84: In securing a web application, what is the most effective way to protect against both SQL injection and XSS attacks? Validating and sanitizing all user inputs. Utilizing Content Security Policy (CSP) headers. Conducting black box security testing regularly Restricting file permissions on the web server.
Correct answer Validating and sanitizing all user inputs. Utilizing Content Security Policy (CSP) headers. Conducting black box security testing regularly Your answer is incorrect Restricting file permissions on the web server. Overall explanation Both SQL injection and XSS attacks exploit vulnerabilities that arise from improper handling of user input. By validating (ensuring input meets specific criteria) and sanitizing (removing or encoding dangerous characters) all user inputs, an application can significantly reduce the risk of these attacks. While CSP headers can help mitigate the impact of XSS attacks by restricting resources the browser can load, and while file permissions and security testing are important, they do not address the core issue of malicious user input directly.
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Question 85: A company’s security team identifies that an attacker has gained unauthorized access to their network via a Bluetooth-enabled device. What is the most effective mitigation strategy to prevent future incidents? Increasing the encryption level on Bluetooth devices. Implementing a network intrusion detection system (NIDS). Conducting regular network security assessments. Disabling Bluetooth on all non-essential devices
Increasing the encryption level on Bluetooth devices. Implementing a network intrusion detection system (NIDS). Conducting regular network security assessments. Your answer is correct Disabling Bluetooth on all non-essential devices Overall explanation Disabling Bluetooth on all non-essential devices effectively reduces the attack surface, limiting opportunities for attackers to exploit Bluetooth vulnerabilities. While increasing encryption and conducting assessments can improve security, directly eliminating the unnecessary use of Bluetooth addresses the immediate vulnerability by minimizing potential entry points for attackers.
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Question 86: During a routine security check, a company discovers that an external contractor has unrestricted access to the company’s network via VPN. What is the most appropriate security measure to address this issue? Conducting background checks on all external contractors Implementing network segmentation Revoking VPN access for all external contractors. Enforcing multi-factor authentication for VPN access
Conducting background checks on all external contractors Correct answer Implementing network segmentation Revoking VPN access for all external contractors. Your answer is incorrect Enforcing multi-factor authentication for VPN access Overall explanation Implementing network segmentation is the most effective way to limit the access of external contractors to only those parts of the network necessary for their work. This minimizes the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive information and systems. While enforcing multi-factor authentication adds a layer of security, segmentation directly addresses the problem by controlling access more granitely.
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Question 87: An employee finds a USB drive in the parking lot and plugs it into their workstation to identify the owner. What is the most serious risk this action poses to the organization? The USB drive may not be compatible with the company's hardware. The employee may waste time trying to find the owner. The USB drive could introduce malware into the company’s network. The employee might damage the USB drive
The USB drive may not be compatible with the company's hardware. The employee may waste time trying to find the owner. Correct answer The USB drive could introduce malware into the company’s network. Your answer is incorrect The employee might damage the USB drive Overall explanation While compatibility and time waste are minor concerns, and damaging the USB is more of a personal inconvenience, the introduction of malware represents a significant threat to the organization's security. Plugging in a found USB drive without knowing its contents can easily result in malware infection, compromising the entire network
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Question 88: During a routine network analysis, you observe a significant increase in traffic volume, especially UDP packets, directed at one of your servers from multiple sources. This activity is most pronounced at off-peak hours. What is most likely occurring? Wireless intrusion DDoS Amplified attack DDoS Amplified attack On-path attack
Wireless intrusion DDoS Amplified attack Correct answer DDoS Amplified attack Your answer is incorrect On-path attack Overall explanation An amplified DDoS attack involves an attacker sending a small number of forged requests to reflectors on the Internet. These reflectors then send large responses to the victim's IP address. The significant increase in UDP traffic from multiple sources, especially during off-peak hours, is characteristic of this type of attack. It is not a wireless intrusion, which would typically involve unauthorized access to wireless networks; an on-path attack, which involves intercepting communication between two parties; or a credential replay attack, which involves reusing valid data transmission credentials
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Question 89: In a scenario where legacy systems cannot be immediately replaced or updated, which method best isolates these systems to reduce risk? Increasing network throughput Isolation Enforcing two-factor authentication Applying frequent password changes
Increasing network throughput Correct answer Isolation Enforcing two-factor authentication Your answer is incorrect Applying frequent password changes Overall explanation Isolating legacy systems that cannot be updated or replaced is an effective strategy to reduce risk by limiting their interaction with other network resources and potential attack vectors, more so than measures like password changes or two-factor authentication, which do not address the inherent vulnerabilities of these systems.
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Question 1: For a company with strict compliance requirements, which of the following vulnerability scan results should be prioritized for remediation to prevent potential data breaches? Medium severity vulnerabilities on public-facing web servers Informational findings on internal network infrastructure Low severity vulnerabilities on non-essential systems High severity vulnerabilities on systems storing sensitive data
Medium severity vulnerabilities on public-facing web servers Informational findings on internal network infrastructure Low severity vulnerabilities on non-essential systems Your answer is correct High severity vulnerabilities on systems storing sensitive data Overall explanation High severity vulnerabilities on systems storing sensitive data should be prioritized for remediation to prevent potential data breaches. These vulnerabilities pose a direct risk to the security and confidentiality of sensitive information. While all vulnerabilities are of concern, those affecting systems with sensitive data have the most immediate and potentially severe impact on an organization's security posture. Low severity and informational findings, while still important, do not present as immediate a threat as high severity vulnerabilities on critical systems.
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Question 2: Which of the following is a key feature of WPA3 that enhances wireless network security? Static code analysis Input validation Individualized data encryption Sandboxing
Static code analysis Input validation Correct answer Individualized data encryption Your answer is incorrect Sandboxing Overall explanation Individualized data encryption is a key feature of WPA3, providing enhanced security by ensuring that each user's data is encrypted individually, even on public networks. This prevents attackers from eavesdropping on wireless communications. Input validation, static code analysis, and sandboxing are not features of WPA3 as they relate to different aspects of security not specific to wireless networking.
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Question 3: A company uses client-based security software on its workstations but does not use agentless security solutions for its virtual environments. What is the main risk of not implementing agentless security solutions in virtualized environments? Complexity in managing different security solutions for physical and virtual systems. Potential for security breaches in the virtual environment due to lack of visibility. Increased resource usage on the host machine. Inability to track the physical location of virtual machines.
Complexity in managing different security solutions for physical and virtual systems. Correct answer Potential for security breaches in the virtual environment due to lack of visibility. Increased resource usage on the host machine. Your answer is incorrect Inability to track the physical location of virtual machines. Overall explanation The main concern with not implementing agentless security solutions in virtualized environments is the reduced visibility and control over security within these environments, leading to potential breaches. While increased resource usage and management complexity are valid concerns, they do not directly impact the security of virtual environments as significantly as the lack of appropriate security controls.
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Question 4: A company’s security system detects an anomaly in the network traffic, indicating a potential intrusion. Which of the following steps should be prioritized to effectively respond to the incident? Isolating affected systems to contain the breach. Disconnecting the internet connection to the entire network. Informing all employees about the breach via email Updating all system passwords immediately
Correct answer Isolating affected systems to contain the breach. Disconnecting the internet connection to the entire network. Informing all employees about the breach via email Your answer is incorrect Updating all system passwords immediately Overall explanation Isolating affected systems is a critical first step in responding to a potential intrusion, as it helps contain the breach and prevents further spread across the network. This action allows the security team to analyze and mitigate the threat without disrupting the entire network. While updating passwords and informing employees are important, containment is the immediate priority to limit damage.
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Question 5: Following significant updates to the network infrastructure, including the addition of new devices and the removal of outdated ones, the IT department updates the network diagrams. What does this action emphasize the importance of? Dependencies Version control Restricted activities Documentation
Dependencies Version control Restricted activities Your answer is correct Documentation Overall explanation Updating network diagrams following significant changes to the infrastructure emphasizes the importance of documentation. Accurate and up-to-date documentation, like network diagrams, is vital for understanding the current state of the network, aiding in troubleshooting, planning future changes, and maintaining security. This action underscores the role of documentation in ensuring that everyone involved has a clear and current understanding of the network's layout and components, which is more directly related to maintaining operational efficiency and security than dependencies, restricted activities, or version control.
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Question 6: What is the primary purpose of conducting penetration testing on a vendor's systems before finalizing a third-party agreement? To identify vulnerabilities in the vendor's IT systems and applications To evaluate the vendor's customer service responsiveness To assess the physical security of the vendor’s premises To measure the vendor's operational efficiency
Correct answer To identify vulnerabilities in the vendor's IT systems and applications To evaluate the vendor's customer service responsiveness To assess the physical security of the vendor’s premises Your answer is incorrect To measure the vendor's operational efficiency Overall explanation The primary purpose of conducting penetration testing on a vendor's systems is to identify vulnerabilities in the vendor's IT systems and applications. This proactive security measure helps in assessing how well the vendor can protect both its own and the client's data against potential cyber attacks. It's crucial for ensuring that the vendor adheres to high-security standards and practices, unlike assessing customer service responsiveness, physical security, or operational efficiency, which, while important, are not the main objectives of penetration testing.
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Question 7: Which protocol is specifically designed to authenticate and authorize clients by web servers, allowing third-party access without exposing user credentials? LDAP OAuth Federation SAML
LDAP Correct answer OAuth Federation Your answer is incorrect SAML Overall explanation OAuth is an open standard for access delegation, used in internet protocols to authorize clients by web servers. It allows third-party services to exchange web resources without revealing user credentials, enhancing security by providing tokens instead. SAML is focused on exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, particularly in single sign-on scenarios, not on delegating access. LDAP is for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services, and Federation involves identity sharing across different systems or domains, neither of which directly handles the specific case of third-party access without exposing user credentials like OAuth does.
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Question 8: For an organization implementing identity proofing, what is a key consideration to ensure the process is secure and effective? Ensuring all users have the same level of access to simplify management Using social media profiles as the sole verification method . Assigning temporary passwords that never expire Verifying the identity of users through multiple pieces of evidence
Ensuring all users have the same level of access to simplify management Using social media profiles as the sole verification method . Assigning temporary passwords that never expire Your answer is correct Verifying the identity of users through multiple pieces of evidence Overall explanation Identity proofing involves verifying the identity of users to ensure that they are who they claim to be, and using multiple pieces of evidence or factors is crucial for a secure and effective process. This multi-factor approach increases security by making it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to impersonate legitimate users. The other options can potentially compromise security, such as using social media profiles as the sole verification method or assigning temporary passwords that never expire, which does not align with best security practices.
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Question 9: What is the primary advantage of offsite backups compared to onsite backups in disaster recovery planning? Higher data transfer speeds Lower costs Immediate accessibility Protection from local disasters
Higher data transfer speeds Lower costs Immediate accessibility Your answer is correct Protection from local disasters Overall explanation Offsite backups offer protection from local disasters affecting the primary site, unlike onsite backups which are vulnerable to the same physical threats, making them a key component of comprehensive disaster recovery planning, despite potentially higher costs and lower data transfer speeds compared to local backups.
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Question 10: An organization is planning to use cloud services to store sensitive customer data. Which of the following should be a primary consideration to ensure compliance with industry regulations? Ensuring data portability Choosing a cloud service provider with a strong security reputation Maximizing data storage capacity Focusing on reducing storage costs
Ensuring data portability Correct answer Choosing a cloud service provider with a strong security reputation Maximizing data storage capacity Your answer is incorrect Focusing on reducing storage costs Overall explanation Choosing a cloud service provider with a strong security reputation should be a primary consideration to ensure compliance with industry regulations when storing sensitive customer data. This ensures that the provider adheres to best practices in security and compliance, offering the necessary controls and safeguards to protect the data and meet regulatory requirements. While maximizing data storage capacity and reducing storage costs are important operational considerations, and ensuring data portability is valuable for flexibility, the security and compliance track record of the provider is paramount for regulatory compliance.
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Question 11: During a BIA, a company identifies a critical process that, if disrupted, could significantly impact operations. What metric should the company focus on to ensure business continuity? MTTR Risk appetite RTO Risk tolerance
MTTR Risk appetite Correct answer RTO Your answer is incorrect Risk tolerance Overall explanation Focusing on the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is essential in this scenario, as it helps the company plan for the maximum time that the critical process can be down before significantly impacting operations. RTO is a direct measure related to business continuity planning. Risk tolerance and appetite are more about the company's overall approach to handling risks, and MTTR, while related to repairs, does not directly influence the planning for business continuity as RTO does.
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Question 12: How does the inclusion of a Non-compete Clause in a BPA benefit an organization? It mandates the use of specific technologies by the vendor It ensures priority service delivery over other clients of the vendor It restricts the vendor's ability to enter into agreements with the organization's competitors It guarantees the lowest price by the vendor for the duration of the agreement
It mandates the use of specific technologies by the vendor It ensures priority service delivery over other clients of the vendor Correct answer It restricts the vendor's ability to enter into agreements with the organization's competitors Your answer is incorrect It guarantees the lowest price by the vendor for the duration of the agreement Overall explanation The inclusion of a Non-compete Clause in a Business Partner Agreement (BPA) benefits an organization by restricting the vendor's ability to enter into agreements with the organization's competitors. This helps in protecting the organization's competitive advantage and sensitive information that might otherwise be at risk if the vendor were to engage with direct competitors. Unlike ensuring pricing benefits, service priority, or technology use, a non-compete clause safeguards the organization's strategic interests.
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Question 13: A small business has a limited budget for cybersecurity measures and must choose where to allocate its resources. What factor should primarily guide the business in deciding which cybersecurity threats to address first? Risk appetite MTBF RPO Risk tolerance
Risk appetite MTBF RPO Your answer is correct Risk tolerance Overall explanation Risk tolerance is key for a small business with a limited budget, as it helps the business determine how much risk it is willing to accept before taking action. This guides the allocation of scarce resources to the most critical areas. Risk appetite is related but focuses more on the level of risk a company is willing to pursue; RPO and MTBF are important for planning but do not directly guide threat prioritization.
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Question 14: A senior manager receives a call from what appears to be the IT department, requesting immediate confirmation of their username and password to address a critical security breach. This scenario best exemplifies which type of social engineering attack? Vishing Impersonation Phishing Pretexting
Correct answer Vishing Impersonation Phishing Your answer is incorrect Pretexting Overall explanation The described scenario is a classic example of vishing, where voice communication (in this case, a phone call) is used to deceive the individual into divulging sensitive information, such as login credentials. The caller pretends to be from a legitimate department within the company to gain the manager's trust. Unlike impersonation, which doesn't necessarily involve direct communication, phishing, which uses emails, or pretexting, which involves a fabricated scenario but not specifically over the phone, vishing directly involves voice-based deception.
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Question 15: When deploying switches in a network, what practice increases security? Disabling unused ports Enabling port mirroring. Setting all ports to trunk mode. Configuring each port for maximum speed
Correct answer Disabling unused ports Enabling port mirroring. Setting all ports to trunk mode. Your answer is incorrect Configuring each port for maximum speed Overall explanation Disabling unused ports helps minimize the attack surface by preventing unauthorized devices from connecting to the network. While enabling port mirroring can be useful for monitoring, it doesn't inherently increase security. Setting all ports to trunk mode and configuring each port for maximum speed are not security practices; they pertain to network performance and configuration.
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Question 16: Why is it important to include evidence of internal audits in a vendor assessment process? To evaluate the vendor's corporate social responsibility initiatives To assess the vendor's geographical reach and market presence To verify the vendor's financial solvency To ensure the vendor's adherence to industry standards and regulatory compliance
To evaluate the vendor's corporate social responsibility initiatives To assess the vendor's geographical reach and market presence To verify the vendor's financial solvency Your answer is correct To ensure the vendor's adherence to industry standards and regulatory compliance Overall explanation Including evidence of internal audits in a vendor assessment process is important to ensure the vendor's adherence to industry standards and regulatory compliance. Internal audits provide insight into the vendor's operational processes, risk management practices, and compliance with laws and regulations. This evidence supports the vendor's claims of reliability and security, offering assurance that they are capable of meeting contractual obligations responsibly.
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Question 17: In vendor monitoring, why is it critical to have a clearly defined Rules of Engagement document? To specify the payment schedule and penalties for late payments To outline the legal consequences of contract termination To set boundaries and guidelines for interaction and information exchange To detail the vendor's advertising and marketing strategies
To specify the payment schedule and penalties for late payments To outline the legal consequences of contract termination Correct answer To set boundaries and guidelines for interaction and information exchange Your answer is incorrect To detail the vendor's advertising and marketing strategies Overall explanation In vendor monitoring, having a clearly defined Rules of Engagement document is critical to set boundaries and guidelines for interaction and information exchange between the organization and its vendors. This ensures that both parties understand the acceptable methods and protocols for communication, security practices, and handling of sensitive information, thereby minimizing risks associated with data breaches, miscommunication, and unauthorized access. Unlike focusing on legal consequences, payment schedules, or marketing strategies, the Rules of Engagement prioritize the operational and security aspects of the vendor relationship.
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Question 18: What security mechanism is most effective for isolating untrusted applications and preventing them from accessing system-wide resources? Code signing WPA3 RADIUS Sandboxing
Code signing WPA3 RADIUS Your answer is correct Sandboxing Overall explanation Sandboxing is the most effective mechanism for isolating untrusted applications because it restricts their access to system resources and data, preventing them from causing harm to the overall system. WPA3 secures wireless networks, code signing verifies the integrity and origin of code, and RADIUS is used for network authentication, none of which directly contribute to isolating applications to mitigate risk.
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Question 19: In the context of application security, what is the primary purpose of input validation? To encrypt user inputs To ensure user inputs are syntactically and semantically correct To sign code digitally To authenticate user identities
To encrypt user inputs Correct answer To ensure user inputs are syntactically and semantically correct To sign code digitally Your answer is incorrect To authenticate user identities Overall explanation Input validation is essential for application security because it ensures that all user input is syntactically and semantically correct, preventing malicious data from causing harm to the system, such as through SQL injection or cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. Encrypting user inputs, authenticating user identities, and signing code digitally are all security measures that serve different purposes unrelated to directly scrutinizing and sanitizing the inputs provided by users.
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Question 20: A graphic designer at a company frequently receives image files from external clients for use in projects. What is the best practice to prevent security risks associated with these image-based files? Scan all received image files with updated antivirus software before opening. Only accept images from clients known personally to the designer. Convert all images to a different format before using them. Open and edit the images only on isolated computers disconnected from the network.
Correct answer Scan all received image files with updated antivirus software before opening. Only accept images from clients known personally to the designer. Convert all images to a different format before using them. Your answer is incorrect Open and edit the images only on isolated computers disconnected from the network. Overall explanation Scanning files with updated antivirus software before opening provides a practical and effective level of security against malware embedded in image files. While isolating computers can provide a high level of security, it may not be practical for everyday work. Converting image formats does not necessarily remove embedded malware. Limiting sources to known clients reduces risk but does not eliminate it, as their systems could be compromised.
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Question 21: Which method ensures secure communication between a client and a server by validating both parties' identities before data transmission? RADIUS SSL/TLS Static code analysis WPA3
RADIUS Correct answer SSL/TLS Static code analysis Your answer is incorrect WPA3 Overall explanation SSL/TLS is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide secure communication over a computer network by encrypting the data transmitted between the client and server and ensuring both parties are who they claim to be before data is exchanged. WPA3 is focused on securing wireless networks and does not involve direct client-server communication validation. RADIUS is an authentication, authorization, and accounting protocol, not a method for securing client-server communications directly. Static code analysis is a method for detecting vulnerabilities in code and does not facilitate secure communications.
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Question 22: An organization notices an increase in employees receiving SMS messages claiming to be from the company's HR department, asking for personal details to update employee records. What should be the organization's immediate response to prevent information leakage? Advise employees to ignore all SMS messages. Train employees to verify the legitimacy of such requests through internal channels before responding. Instruct employees to respond to SMS with the required information if they recognize the sender's number. Encourage employees to block any numbers sending unsolicited SMS messages.
Advise employees to ignore all SMS messages. Correct answer Train employees to verify the legitimacy of such requests through internal channels before responding. Instruct employees to respond to SMS with the required information if they recognize the sender's number. Your answer is incorrect Encourage employees to block any numbers sending unsolicited SMS messages. Overall explanation Training employees to verify requests through known internal channels before responding addresses the threat without disrupting legitimate communication, enhancing overall security awareness. Instructing employees to respond based on sender recognition can be misleading, as phone numbers can be spoofed. Ignoring all SMS messages is impractical and could lead to missing important communications. Blocking numbers may prevent future messages but does not address the root issue or educate employees.
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Question 23: During a security review, it's noted that several servers are running unnecessary services. What is the most effective step to increase the security posture of these servers? egularly change the server administrator's password. Increase the server's memory and CPU resources. Disable unnecessary services and ports on the servers Install additional security software on the servers
egularly change the server administrator's password. Increase the server's memory and CPU resources. Correct answer Disable unnecessary services and ports on the servers Your answer is incorrect Install additional security software on the servers Overall explanation Disabling unnecessary services and ports reduces the attack surface by eliminating potential vectors for attackers to exploit. While installing security software and changing passwords are important, they do not address the direct risk of having unnecessary services running. Increasing hardware resources does not directly enhance security, making b the most effective measure in this scenario.
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Question 24: An employee clicks on a link in an instant message from an unknown sender, which leads to a suspicious website. What is the primary security risk of this action? Wasting company time browsing non-work-related websites. Violating company policy on the use of instant messaging. Potentially exposing the company network to malware or ransomware. Overloading the company’s internet bandwidth.
Wasting company time browsing non-work-related websites. Violating company policy on the use of instant messaging. Correct answer Potentially exposing the company network to malware or ransomware. Your answer is incorrect Overloading the company’s internet bandwidth. Overall explanation While wasting time and violating company policies are concerns, the primary risk is the potential introduction of malware or ransomware into the company network. This can lead to significant security breaches, data loss, and financial damage.
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Question 25: During a security review, it's discovered that a third-party service provider's lax security measures led to unauthorized access to confidential company data. This incident is a direct result of what type of vulnerability? Software provider Service provider Hardware provider Cloud-specific
Software provider Correct answer Service provider Hardware provider Your answer is incorrect Cloud-specific Overall explanation This scenario describes a service provider vulnerability, where the security weaknesses of a third-party service provider lead to a data breach. Unlike hardware provider vulnerabilities, which relate to physical devices, software provider vulnerabilities, which pertain to issues within provided software, or cloud-specific vulnerabilities, which are unique to cloud services, this problem stems from the inadequate security practices of a service provider.
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Question 26: When implementing a new system, which change management procedure ensures minimal impact on current operations? Immediate full-scale implementation User training sessions after implementation Comprehensive system testing before implementation Feedback collection from a pilot group before full-scale implementation
Immediate full-scale implementation User training sessions after implementation Comprehensive system testing before implementation Your answer is correct Feedback collection from a pilot group before full-scale implementation Overall explanation Feedback collection from a pilot group before full-scale implementation ensures that any issues can be identified and addressed in a controlled environment, minimizing the impact on current operations when the system is fully implemented. While testing and user training are important, they do not offer the same real-world insights as a pilot, and immediate full-scale implementation carries significant risk.
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Question 27: An organization decides to document all its security procedures, including response protocols for different types of security incidents. Which category of control does this documentation belong to? Operational Physical Technical Managerial
Operational Physical Technical Your answer is correct Managerial Overall explanation Documenting security procedures, including incident response protocols, falls under managerial controls. Managerial controls involve the policies, procedures, and guidelines that dictate how the organization manages and protects its information assets. This includes the documentation of security procedures to ensure a standardized and informed response to incidents. Unlike technical controls, which focus on technology-based security measures, or operational controls, which are the execution of these measures, managerial controls deal with the overarching management and strategic framework for security within the organization.
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Question 28: A company with a high risk tolerance plans to expand its operations into a new, untested market. What type of risk management strategy is this an example of? Risk avoidance Conservative Neutral Expansionary
Risk avoidance Conservative Neutral Your answer is correct Expansionary Overall explanation Entering a new, untested market with a high risk tolerance exemplifies an expansionary risk management strategy. This strategy is characterized by a willingness to take on higher risks for the potential of higher rewards, which aligns with a company's decision to explore new markets despite the uncertainties involved. Conservative would imply caution and minimal risk-taking, neutral a balanced approach, and risk avoidance the opposite of entering new markets.
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Question 29: Before deploying a new application, an IT team assesses its dependencies on other software and services within their infrastructure. Why is understanding these dependencies critical? Restricted activities Dependencies Downtime Allow lists/deny lists
Restricted activities Correct answer Dependencies Downtime Your answer is incorrect Allow lists/deny lists Overall explanation Understanding dependencies is critical before deploying a new application because dependencies can affect the application's functionality, compatibility, and security. If an application relies on other software or services that are outdated or vulnerable, it could inherit those vulnerabilities or fail to operate correctly. This assessment is crucial to ensure that all components work harmoniously and securely, surpassing the concerns related to managing allow lists/deny lists, which control access, restricting activities, or planning for downtime, though those are also important in their contexts.
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Question 30: In a company with a centralized governance structure, who is typically responsible for making final decisions regarding data security policies and procedures? CISO All employees through a voting system Departmental Managers IT Department Head
Correct answer CISO All employees through a voting system Departmental Managers Your answer is incorrect IT Department Head Overall explanation In a company with a centralized governance structure, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is typically responsible for making final decisions regarding data security policies and procedures. The CISO oversees the company's overall security posture, ensuring that policies align with the organization's strategic objectives and compliance requirements. While IT department heads and departmental managers may contribute to the policy development process, and employees play a role in adhering to and enforcing these policies, the CISO is the central figure who has the authority to make final policy decisions.
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Question 31: A user notices an advertisement for a popular software at a significantly reduced price on a new website. After purchasing the software, they receive a download link that installs malware on their computer. This incident is an example of what kind of attack? Typosquatting Watering hole Pretexting Brand impersonation
Typosquatting Watering hole Pretexting Your answer is correct Brand impersonation Overall explanation This situation illustrates brand impersonation, where attackers create fake advertisements or websites that mimic legitimate products or services to deceive users. In this case, the attackers used the reputation of popular software to lure individuals into purchasing from a malicious website, leading to malware installation. Unlike a watering hole attack, which targets users through compromised websites they normally visit, pretexting, which involves creating a false scenario, or typosquatting, which focuses on domain name misspellings, brand impersonation directly exploits the trust in a well-known brand.
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Question 32: A security administrator is implementing encryption to protect corporate data. Which of the following is the most important factor to ensure data confidentiality? The strength of the encryption algorithm and the key length The complexity of the password used to access the corporate network The brand of the encryption software used. The length of time it takes to encrypt and decrypt the data
Correct answer The strength of the encryption algorithm and the key length The complexity of the password used to access the corporate network The brand of the encryption software used. Your answer is incorrect The length of time it takes to encrypt and decrypt the data Overall explanation The strength of the encryption algorithm and the key length are crucial factors in ensuring the confidentiality of encrypted data. Stronger algorithms and longer keys are harder for attackers to break, providing better protection for data. While password complexity, encryption/decryption speed, and software brand can have impacts on security, they do not directly influence the encryption's ability to protect data confidentiality as much as the algorithm strength and key length.
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Question 33: A company decides to store sensitive customer data with a third-party vendor. Which risk management strategy is the company employing? Accept Mitigate Avoid Transfer
Accept Mitigate Avoid Your answer is correct Transfer Overall explanation The company is employing the transfer strategy by outsourcing the storage of sensitive data to a third-party vendor. This transfers the risk associated with data storage and protection to another entity. Avoidance would mean not storing data at all, mitigation involves reducing the risk's impact, and acceptance means acknowledging the risk without taking action to reduce its impact.
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Question 34: What system design allows for a seamless transition to a backup when a primary system failure occurs, ensuring minimal service interruption? Failover Tabletop exercises Manual switchover Parallel processing
Correct answer Failover Tabletop exercises Manual switchover Your answer is incorrect Parallel processing Overall explanation Failover systems are designed for seamless transition to a backup upon primary system failure, minimizing service interruption, unlike parallel processing which focuses on efficiency rather than redundancy, manual switchover that requires human intervention, and tabletop exercises which are preparatory discussions rather than technical solutions.
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Question 35: What is the significance of having a detailed SOW or WO when working with vendors? To establish the payment schedule for the project’s duration To list all potential vendors for a project To ensure the organization’s marketing material is consistent with the vendor's To precisely outline the project's scope, deliverables, timelines, and payment terms
To establish the payment schedule for the project’s duration To list all potential vendors for a project To ensure the organization’s marketing material is consistent with the vendor's Your answer is correct To precisely outline the project's scope, deliverables, timelines, and payment terms Overall explanation The significance of having a detailed Statement of Work (SOW) or Work Order (WO) when working with vendors is to precisely outline the project's scope, deliverables, timelines, and payment terms. This ensures both parties have a clear understanding of what is expected, reducing the risk of misunderstandings and disputes. It provides a comprehensive framework for the project's execution, including responsibilities, standards, and benchmarks for performance. While payment schedules are part of this documentation, they are just one aspect of the detailed planning and agreements SOWs and WOs provide.
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Question 36: A company is planning to launch a new online service, which is critical for its expansion plans. Which risk management strategy should the company prioritize to ensure the service's availability meets the RTO without causing significant downtime or financial loss? Avoid Mitigate Transfer Accept
Avoid Correct answer Mitigate Transfer Your answer is incorrect Accept Overall explanation Mitigation is the most appropriate strategy because it involves taking steps to reduce the impact of a risk, ensuring that if any issues arise with the new online service, they can be managed effectively to meet the Recovery Time Objective. Acceptance might not adequately address the potential downtime, avoidance would mean not pursuing the service, and transfer (such as through insurance) does not directly ensure service availability or compliance with the RTO.
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Question 37: When analyzing firewall logs to identify potential malicious activity, which of the following would be the MOST indicative of an attack? Consistent traffic flow with known external partners High volumes of allowed inbound traffic during off-peak hours Occasional spikes in outbound traffic to various destinations Repeated failed login attempts from a single external IP address
Consistent traffic flow with known external partners High volumes of allowed inbound traffic during off-peak hours Occasional spikes in outbound traffic to various destinations Your answer is correct Repeated failed login attempts from a single external IP address Overall explanation Repeated failed login attempts from a single external IP address suggest a brute force attack aiming to gain unauthorized access. High volumes of inbound traffic could be concerning but aren't necessarily indicative of an attack without further context. Consistent traffic with known partners is expected in normal business operations. Occasional spikes in outbound traffic could be a concern for data exfiltration but would require more context to be deemed malicious.
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Question 38: In preparing for a cybersecurity incident, which activity involves team discussions of hypothetical scenarios to enhance decision-making capabilities without any live systems? Simulation Parallel processing Tabletop exercises Failover testing
Simulation Parallel processing Correct answer Tabletop exercises Your answer is incorrect Failover testing Overall explanation Tabletop exercises involve team discussions on hypothetical scenarios to improve decision-making and readiness without the use of live systems, making it distinct from simulations that often use software to mimic real-world incidents, failover testing that specifically tests the switching to backup systems, and parallel processing that involves simultaneous data processing to increase efficiency rather than prepare for incidents.
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Question 39: A large retail company experiences a data breach where credit card information is stolen and sold on the dark web. The breach was highly organized and targeted, with the criminals leaving minimal evidence. Which threat actor is most likely responsible? Insider threat Hacktivist Unskilled attacker Organized crime
Insider threat Hacktivist Unskilled attacker Your answer is correct Organized crime Overall explanation Organized crime groups often conduct targeted, well-planned cyber attacks to steal financial information for monetary gain. Their operations are characterized by a high level of organization and sophistication, aiming to minimize detection and maximize profit. Unlike hacktivists, who are typically motivated by ideological goals, or insider threats, who operate within the organization, organized crime units operate externally with significant resources and expertise in cybercrime.
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Question 40: To identify and alert on potential security breaches, an organization deploys an IDS that monitors network traffic for suspicious activities. Which type of control does the IDS exemplify? Preventive Detective Corrective Deterrent
Preventive Correct answer Detective Corrective Your answer is incorrect Deterrent Overall explanation An intrusion detection system (IDS) is an example of a detective control. Detective controls are designed to identify and alert on incidents that have occurred, allowing the organization to respond accordingly. By monitoring network traffic for suspicious activities, an IDS detects potential security breaches, providing timely alerts that enable the organization to take action to mitigate the impact of the incident. This is in contrast to preventive controls, which aim to prevent incidents from occurring in the first place, and corrective controls, which are measures taken to repair the damage after an incident has occurred.
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Question 41: A company conducts an assessment to identify the difference between its current security posture and the industry's best practices. This process aims to highlight areas for improvement. This assessment is known as what? Gap analysis Non-repudiation audit Zero Trust implementation AAA protocol assessment
Correct answer Gap analysis Non-repudiation audit Zero Trust implementation Your answer is incorrect AAA protocol assessment Overall explanation Conducting an assessment to identify differences between the current security posture and industry best practices, aiming to highlight areas for improvement, is known as gap analysis. Gap analysis in security is a strategic tool used to compare what a company is currently doing in terms of security against what it should be doing, based on best practices or regulatory requirements. This process helps in identifying vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and areas needing enhancement to strengthen the security framework. This is distinct from implementing Zero Trust, which is a security model that assumes breaches are inevitable and verifies every request as if it originates from an open network, AAA protocol assessment, which involves reviewing authentication, authorization, and accounting processes, and non-repudiation audits, which focus on ensuring actions or transactions cannot be denied by the parties involved.
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Question 42: A security analyst is assessing the network of a small business and notices an unusually high amount of traffic on port 23. What is the most likely reason for this observation? The firewall is misconfigured. An internal device is downloading updates The network is experiencing a DDoS attack Telnet is being used, which is not secure.
The firewall is misconfigured. An internal device is downloading updates The network is experiencing a DDoS attack Your answer is correct Telnet is being used, which is not secure. Overall explanation The use of Telnet, which operates on port 23, is likely the reason for the high traffic observed. Telnet transmits data in plain text, making it insecure for transmitting sensitive information. This method is less secure compared to encrypted alternatives like SSH, which reduces the risk of data interception and unauthorized access.
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Question 43: How does a NDA protect an organization when engaging with vendors? By ensuring the organization retains ownership of any developed intellectual property By preventing the vendor from engaging with competitors for a specified period By requiring the vendor to adhere to specific operational processes By prohibiting the vendor from disclosing or misusing the organization's confidential information
By ensuring the organization retains ownership of any developed intellectual property By preventing the vendor from engaging with competitors for a specified period By requiring the vendor to adhere to specific operational processes Your answer is correct By prohibiting the vendor from disclosing or misusing the organization's confidential information Overall explanation A Non-disclosure Agreement (NDA) protects an organization by prohibiting the vendor from disclosing or misusing the organization's confidential information. NDAs are crucial for safeguarding sensitive data shared during vendor interactions, ensuring that such information is not leaked or used without authorization. While intellectual property ownership and non-compete clauses are important, they are typically addressed in separate agreements.
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Question 44: What is a critical security consideration when integrating IoT devices into an existing network? Assigning static IP addresses to all IoT devices Isolating IoT devices on a separate network VLAN. Increasing the power output of the wireless access points. Ensuring that all IoT devices are from the same manufacturer.
Assigning static IP addresses to all IoT devices Correct answer Isolating IoT devices on a separate network VLAN. Increasing the power output of the wireless access points. Your answer is incorrect Ensuring that all IoT devices are from the same manufacturer. Overall explanation Isolating IoT devices on a separate network VLAN is a key security measure as it limits the potential impact of a compromised IoT device on the rest of the network. Static IP addresses do not enhance security directly, increasing the power output of wireless access points can lead to security vulnerabilities by extending the network's reach beyond intended areas, and using devices from the same manufacturer does not inherently improve security.
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Question 45: A company has decided to evaluate its security posture to ensure it aligns with specific industry regulations. Which type of audit is most appropriate for this scenario? Attestation External Regulatory Audit Internal Self-Assessment Internal Audit Committee
Attestation Correct answer External Regulatory Audit Internal Self-Assessment Your answer is incorrect Internal Audit Committee Overall explanation External regulatory audits are the most appropriate choice for companies looking to ensure compliance with industry regulations. These audits are conducted by external entities and are specifically designed to assess whether a company's practices align with legal and regulatory requirements. Internal self-assessments, attestations, and internal audit committees, while useful for other purposes, do not provide the same level of authoritative assessment against industry regulations that an external regulatory audit does.
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Question 46: Your company has a data center that contains critical infrastructure and sensitive data. To enhance protection, security guards are stationed at all entrances. Which category of control does this measure fall under? Operational Technical Managerial Physical
Operational Technical Managerial Your answer is correct Physical Overall explanation Stationing security guards at the entrances of a data center is a physical control measure. Physical controls are implemented to prevent unauthorized access to facilities, equipment, and resources, and to protect personnel from harm. They include tangible measures such as locks, fencing, security guards, and surveillance cameras. Unlike technical controls, which involve the use of technology to safeguard data, or managerial controls, which focus on the administrative aspects of security, physical controls are concerned with the physical aspects of security.
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Question 47: A company wants to understand the potential gaps in its physical security measures. Which type of penetration test should it conduct? Reconnaissance Offensive Physical Defensive
Reconnaissance Offensive Correct answer Physical Your answer is incorrect Defensive Overall explanation Physical penetration testing is specifically designed to identify and exploit weaknesses in an organization’s physical barriers (e.g., locks, cameras, access controls) and procedures (e.g., tailgating, social engineering). This type of testing helps ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot physically access sensitive areas or information, unlike offensive, defensive, or reconnaissance penetration testing, which focus more on digital vulnerabilities.
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Question 48: A company wants to implement SSO for its cloud-based services to improve user experience and security. Which of the following technologies would best facilitate this? Oauth Federation Identity proofing LDAP
Oauth Correct answer Federation Identity proofing Your answer is incorrect LDAP Overall explanation Federation supports the sharing of authentication data across different systems, organizations, or domains, allowing for a single sign-on experience for users accessing multiple services. This makes it the best choice for implementing SSO in a scenario involving cloud-based services, as it streamlines access without compromising security. OAuth is primarily an authorization framework, not specifically designed for authentication or SSO. LDAP is a protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services, not directly related to SSO across cloud-based services. Identity proofing is a process used to verify the identity of users but does not directly facilitate SSO.
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Question 49: Why is it important to consider high availability when designing network infrastructure for critical systems? To guarantee that critical systems remain operational during various failure modes High availability is only necessary for non-critical systems. To ensure systems are resistant to physical tampering To make sure that system updates can be applied instantly
Correct answer To guarantee that critical systems remain operational during various failure modes High availability is only necessary for non-critical systems. To ensure systems are resistant to physical tampering Your answer is incorrect To make sure that system updates can be applied instantly Overall explanation It is important to consider high availability when designing network infrastructure for critical systems to ensure that these systems remain operational during a variety of failure modes. High availability strategies involve implementing redundant components, failover mechanisms, and robust monitoring to minimize downtime and maintain continuous service. This is crucial for critical systems, where even brief outages can have significant negative impacts on business operations, safety, and compliance.
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Question 50: When provisioning user accounts for a new employee, which of the following steps is critical to ensure secure access control? Assigning permissions based on the principle of least privilege Setting up multifactor authentication Regularly updating the company's privacy policy Ensuring all user accounts have admin privileges
Correct answer Assigning permissions based on the principle of least privilege Setting up multifactor authentication Regularly updating the company's privacy policy Your answer is incorrect Ensuring all user accounts have admin privileges Overall explanation Assigning permissions based on the principle of least privilege ensures that users have only the access rights necessary to perform their job functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or lateral movement within the network. While setting up multifactor authentication is a critical security measure, it is not directly related to the provisioning process of determining access levels. Updating the company's privacy policy and providing admin privileges to all user accounts are not related to secure access control and can potentially increase security risks.
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Question 51: In the context of network security, why is it advisable to change default device credentials before connecting devices to the network? To avoid potential legal issues with device manufacturers To prevent network congestion caused by too many devices. To reduce the risk of unauthorized access and control. To ensure device compatibility with the network.
To avoid potential legal issues with device manufacturers To prevent network congestion caused by too many devices. Correct answer To reduce the risk of unauthorized access and control. Your answer is incorrect To ensure device compatibility with the network. Overall explanation Changing default device credentials before connecting devices to the network is advisable to reduce the risk of unauthorized access and control. Default credentials are easily found online and can be used by attackers to gain control of devices, making it crucial to replace them with strong, unique passwords.
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Question 52: An organization is assessing its compliance with the HIPAA. Which role is crucial for ensuring that health information is processed, stored, and transmitted in a manner that complies with HIPAA's requirements? HIPAA Compliance Officer IT Support Specialist Data Processor Data Custodian
Correct answer HIPAA Compliance Officer IT Support Specialist Data Processor Your answer is incorrect Data Custodian Overall explanation The HIPAA Compliance Officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that health information is processed, stored, and transmitted in compliance with HIPAA's requirements. This role is specifically focused on understanding HIPAA regulations, implementing policies and procedures to meet those requirements, and ensuring that all parts of the organization comply. While data processors, data custodians, and IT support specialists all have roles in handling and protecting data, the HIPAA Compliance Officer is specifically tasked with oversight and compliance regarding HIPAA regulations.
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Question 53: A company's IT department is deploying a new application requiring user authentication. Which of the following would provide the best balance between security and user convenience? Biometrics only Security questions Passwords only 2FA
Biometrics only Security questions Passwords only Your answer is correct 2FA Overall explanation Two-factor authentication (2FA) enhances security by requiring two different forms of identification from the user, typically something they know (like a password) and something they have (like a smartphone for a one-time code). This method significantly increases account security over using passwords, biometrics, or security questions alone because it combines the ease of use with an additional layer of security, making unauthorized access much more challenging without significantly inconveniencing the user.
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Question 54: After conducting a risk assessment, a company identifies a potential security threat but decides that the cost of addressing the threat outweighs the potential impact. What is this decision an example of? Risk avoidance Risk mitigation Risk transfer Risk acceptance
Risk avoidance Risk mitigation Risk transfer Your answer is correct Risk acceptance Overall explanation This decision is an example of risk acceptance, where the company has acknowledged the presence of a threat but has chosen not to take specific actions to mitigate or transfer it, due to the cost outweighing the potential impact. Avoidance would involve taking steps to ensure the threat cannot affect the company, mitigation would reduce the threat's impact, and transfer would involve shifting the risk to another party.
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Question 55: What is the role of a WO in managing ongoing vendor services? To provide ongoing authorization for routine services and define specific tasks To serve as a formal record of completed work for billing purposes only To act as a binding agreement for a single, one-off project To establish the overall strategic direction of the partnership
Correct answer To provide ongoing authorization for routine services and define specific tasks To serve as a formal record of completed work for billing purposes only To act as a binding agreement for a single, one-off project Your answer is incorrect To establish the overall strategic direction of the partnership Overall explanation The role of a Work Order (WO) in managing ongoing vendor services is to provide ongoing authorization for routine services and define specific tasks, deliverables, timelines, and sometimes the payment for those services. WOs are crucial for managing and documenting the specifics of each task or project within the framework of a broader agreement, ensuring clarity and accountability on deliverables. Unlike serving merely as a billing record or a strategic document, WOs focus on the operational aspects of the vendor-client relationship.
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Question 56: A company is evaluating the potential risks associated with a new project. The company has a policy of undertaking projects that have a balanced approach to risk and reward. Which type of risk appetite does this company exhibit? Conservative Aggressive Neutral Expansionary
Conservative Aggressive Correct answer Neutral Your answer is incorrect Expansionary Overall explanation A company with a neutral risk appetite takes a balanced approach to risk and reward, neither aggressively pursuing high-risk, high-reward projects nor strictly avoiding risk to safeguard stability. Expansionary and aggressive would imply a higher willingness to accept risk for greater rewards, while conservative indicates a preference for lower risk and possibly lower reward opportunities.
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Question 57: An attacker exploits a vulnerability in a smartphone's operating system that allows them to remotely install spyware without the user's knowledge. This attack is an example of what kind of vulnerability? Mobile device Firmware Zero-day Misconfiguration
Mobile device Firmware Correct answer Zero-day Your answer is incorrect Misconfiguration Overall explanation This situation likely involves a zero-day vulnerability within the smartphone's operating system, which was previously unknown and therefore unpatched by the time of the attack. While it affects a mobile device, the term "mobile device" is too broad and does not specify the nature of the vulnerability; misconfiguration implies incorrect settings by the user; and firmware typically refers to lower-level software, not necessarily the entire operating system. Zero-day vulnerabilities represent a unique category where the exploit occurs before the vulnerability is known to the software developers or the public.
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Question 58: Following the termination of an employee, a company immediately revokes all access rights to its systems for the former employee. This action is an example of which aspect of the AAA framework? Authorization Authentication Accounting Compensating
Correct answer Authorization Authentication Accounting Your answer is incorrect Compensating Overall explanation Revoking all access rights to its systems for a former employee immediately following their termination is an example of managing authorization. Authorization involves determining and enforcing what resources a user can access and what actions they can perform within a system or network. When an employee leaves the company, revoking their access rights prevents potential unauthorized access, ensuring that only current, authorized users can access company resources. This process is a critical aspect of maintaining security and is distinct from authentication, which is the process of verifying identity, accounting, which tracks user activities, and compensating controls, which are alternative strategies used to mitigate risk when primary controls are insufficient.
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Question 59: When updating a disaster recovery plan, which of the following is most crucial for minimizing data loss in the event of a disaster? Investment in high-availability solutions Regular off-site backups Annual disaster recovery drills Comprehensive insurance coverage
Investment in high-availability solutions Correct answer Regular off-site backups Annual disaster recovery drills Your answer is incorrect Comprehensive insurance coverage Overall explanation Regular off-site backups are essential for minimizing data loss because they ensure that a recent copy of data is available and can be restored after a disaster. While drills, high-availability solutions, and insurance are important aspects of disaster recovery planning, they do not directly minimize data loss like off-site backups can.
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Question 60: A company is preparing to secure its network against potential attacks. Which of the following would be considered a best practice for hardening its systems? Installing multiple antivirus programs on each machine for added security. Enabling host-based firewalls on all endpoint devices. Using the same password across all devices for uniformity Keeping all unused ports open for potential future use
Installing multiple antivirus programs on each machine for added security. Correct answer Enabling host-based firewalls on all endpoint devices. Using the same password across all devices for uniformity Your answer is incorrect Keeping all unused ports open for potential future use Overall explanation Enabling host-based firewalls on all endpoint devices provides a layer of protection against unauthorized access and network-based attacks, as it can control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an applied rule set. Keeping unused ports open, using the same password across devices, and installing multiple antivirus programs can introduce security vulnerabilities and conflicts, making b the best choice for hardening systems.
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Question 61: To enhance the organization's security posture, management decides to conduct security awareness training for all employees. Under which category of control does this initiative fall? Operational Managerial Technical Physical
Operational Correct answer Managerial Technical Your answer is incorrect Physical Overall explanation Security awareness training for employees is categorized under managerial controls. This initiative involves creating and implementing policies and procedures to increase security awareness among employees, which is a strategic approach. Managerial controls are concerned with the management's commitment to and direction of an organization's security program. Unlike technical controls, which use technology to protect information and systems, and operational controls, which are the implementation of physical and technical controls, managerial controls focus on policy, training, and strategy to guide the organization's overall security efforts.
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Question 62: Before approving a major system upgrade, an organization assesses how the upgrade will affect operational workflows, system availability, and potential risks to data security. What is this assessment called? Stakeholders Test results Impact analysis Standard operating procedure
Stakeholders Test results Correct answer Impact analysis Your answer is incorrect Standard operating procedure Overall explanation This assessment is called impact analysis, which is the process of evaluating how proposed changes, such as a major system upgrade, will affect operational workflows, system availability, and data security. Impact analysis is critical for understanding the potential risks and benefits of a change, allowing decision-makers to weigh the consequences before proceeding. This step is essential for maintaining the balance between advancing technology and ensuring the security and efficiency of operations, differentiating it from merely reviewing test results or involving stakeholders in the decision-making process.
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Question 63: When establishing secure baselines for a new network, what is the most critical first step? Setting up a firewall at the network perimeter Conducting a comprehensive security risk assessment Deploying antivirus software on all devices Implementing two-factor authentication for user access
Setting up a firewall at the network perimeter Correct answer Conducting a comprehensive security risk assessment Deploying antivirus software on all devices Your answer is incorrect Implementing two-factor authentication for user access Overall explanation Conducting a comprehensive security risk assessment is crucial as it helps identify potential vulnerabilities and risks in the network. This information is foundational for creating effective security measures tailored to the specific needs and threats facing the organization. While deploying antivirus software, setting up a firewall, and implementing two-factor authentication are important security measures, they should be guided by the insights gained from a risk assessment.
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Question 64: A system administrator needs to grant a new employee access to several systems and applications. Which of the following methods is MOST secure for provisioning these accesses? Open access with logging to monitor activity Generic accounts that can be used by anyone in the department Shared user accounts with other team members Individual accounts with permissions set according to a predefined role
Open access with logging to monitor activity Generic accounts that can be used by anyone in the department Shared user accounts with other team members Your answer is correct Individual accounts with permissions set according to a predefined role Overall explanation Individual accounts with permissions set according to predefined roles ensure that access is granted based on the principle of least privilege, enhancing security by ensuring users only have access to the resources necessary for their roles. Shared and generic accounts do not offer individual accountability, making it difficult to trace actions back to a specific user. Open access with logging might provide some level of oversight but fails to restrict unauthorized access initially, making it a less secure option.
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Question 65: Considering the security implications for IoT devices, why is it critical to implement device authentication mechanisms? To increase the overall speed of the network. To reduce the costs associated with device maintenance. To ensure that only authorized devices can update their firmware. To allow easy access for user convenience.
To increase the overall speed of the network. To reduce the costs associated with device maintenance. Correct answer To ensure that only authorized devices can update their firmware. Your answer is incorrect To allow easy access for user convenience. Overall explanation Implementing device authentication mechanisms is critical for IoT devices to ensure that only authorized devices can access the network and perform sensitive actions like updating their firmware. Without proper authentication, malicious actors could potentially introduce malware into the network by impersonating legitimate devices, leading to data breaches, service disruptions, or other security incidents. Effective authentication helps in maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of the IoT ecosystem.
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Question 66: For hardening a company's mobile devices, what is the most effective strategy? Installing a third-party app store Enforcing screen lock with biometrics Disabling Bluetooth and NFC. Implementing a MDM solution.
Installing a third-party app store Enforcing screen lock with biometrics Disabling Bluetooth and NFC. Your answer is correct Implementing a MDM solution. Overall explanation Implementing a Mobile Device Management (MDM) solution provides comprehensive control over mobile devices, allowing for the enforcement of security policies, application management, and remote wiping capabilities. While enforcing screen locks with biometrics and disabling Bluetooth and NFC can improve security, these measures are less comprehensive than an MDM solution. Installing a third-party app store could introduce security risks.
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Question 67: To ensure that emails sent from the corporate office cannot be denied by the sender, the company implements digital signatures. This measure is an example of which security concept? Availability Non-repudiation Integrity Confidentiality
Availability Correct answer Non-repudiation Integrity Your answer is incorrect Confidentiality Overall explanation Digital signatures provide non-repudiation by ensuring that once a sender has signed a document or message, they cannot deny having sent it. Non-repudiation is a security concept that prevents an individual or entity from denying the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated. This is particularly important in legal, financial, and sensitive communications, ensuring accountability and authenticity. This concept is distinct from confidentiality, which protects data from unauthorized access, integrity, which ensures data remains unchanged and accurate, and availability, which ensures data is accessible when needed.
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Question 68: An employee deliberately leaks sensitive company information to a competitor. This behavior best illustrates which type of threat? Insider threat Shadow IT Unskilled attacker Hacktivist
Correct answer Insider threat Shadow IT Unskilled attacker Your answer is incorrect Hacktivist Overall explanation Insider threats come from individuals within the organization, such as employees, contractors, or business partners, who misuse their access to harm the organization intentionally or unintentionally. Deliberately leaking sensitive information to a competitor is a clear example of an insider threat, where the individual's actions are motivated by personal gain, revenge, or other reasons. Unlike external threats such as hacktivists or unskilled attackers, insider threats already have access to the organization's resources, making them particularly challenging to detect and mitigate.
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Question 69: A group of users receives emails claiming that their accounts have been compromised and instructs them to click on a provided link to reset their passwords. The email creates a sense of urgency and appears to be from a trusted service. What kind of attack is this? Smishing Brand impersonation Vishing Phishing
Smishing Brand impersonation Vishing Your answer is correct Phishing Overall explanation This scenario is indicative of a phishing attack, where fraudulent emails are sent out to lure individuals into clicking on malicious links under the guise of urgency or legitimacy, often pretending to be from a trusted entity. Unlike smishing, which involves SMS, vishing, which uses phone calls, or brand impersonation, which involves assuming the identity of a reputable brand without necessarily involving email deception, phishing specifically refers to the use of deceptive emails to steal information or credentials.
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Question 70: Which security principle is specifically applied when configuring user systems to provide only the necessary access for job performance? Authentication Least privilege Accounting Zero Trust
Authentication Correct answer Least privilege Accounting Your answer is incorrect Zero Trust Overall explanation The principle of least privilege is a fundamental security concept applied when configuring systems to ensure that users only have the access necessary to perform their jobs. By implementing this principle, organizations minimize potential attack vectors by ensuring that each user has the minimal level of access required to fulfill their duties. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive information and is crucial for effective security management. It is distinct from authentication, which verifies a user’s identity; accounting, which tracks user actions; and Zero Trust, which requires verification for every access request, regardless of the source.
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Question 71: After applying security patches, it's necessary to restart certain services to ensure the patches take effect. What is the immediate technical implication of this requirement? Downtime Documentation Version control Restricted activities
Correct answer Downtime Documentation Version control Your answer is incorrect Restricted activities Overall explanation The immediate technical implication of needing to restart services after applying security patches is downtime. This requirement means that the affected services will be temporarily unavailable, impacting the organization's operations. Planning for this downtime is essential to minimize operational disruptions, making it a critical consideration in the patch management process. This concern is more immediate and impactful than the need for restricted activities, which relates to limiting user actions, documentation, which involves updating related records, or version control, which is about managing changes to documents or software.
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Question 72: A small business finds its network compromised with malware that was not detected by its antivirus software. The malware was delivered through a phishing email opened by an employee. This incident is most indicative of an attack by which type of actor? Nation-state Unskilled attacker Insider threat Organized crime
Nation-state Correct answer Unskilled attacker Insider threat Your answer is incorrect Organized crime Overall explanation Unskilled attackers, often referred to as "script kiddies," rely on widely available tools and techniques to exploit known vulnerabilities or trick users into compromising security, such as through phishing emails. The scenario described does not necessarily indicate a high level of sophistication or resources, suggesting that the attack could have been carried out by an individual with limited skills. This differentiates unskilled attackers from more sophisticated threats like nation-states or organized crime groups, which typically engage in more complex and targeted attacks.
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Question 73: After an update causes unexpected downtime, an organization quickly reverts to the previous version of the software while assessing the cause of the issue. What aspect of change management does this demonstrate? Standard operating procedure Test results Backout plan Maintenance window
Standard operating procedure Test results Correct answer Backout plan Your answer is incorrect Maintenance window Overall explanation Quickly reverting to the previous version of the software after an update causes unexpected downtime demonstrates the execution of a backout plan. A backout plan is a contingency measure within change management designed to reverse changes in case they result in unforeseen problems, such as system outages or performance issues. This approach ensures that the organization can maintain operational continuity and security by swiftly restoring the system to its prior state while the underlying issues are addressed, highlighting its importance over analyzing test results or adhering to standard operating procedures in crisis situations.
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Question 74: During a routine risk assessment, it's discovered that a critical software update could potentially introduce new vulnerabilities. What risk management strategy should be prioritized to address this concern? Mitigation through thorough testing Avoidance by not updating Transfer by outsourcing the update process Acceptance with exception
Correct answer Mitigation through thorough testing Avoidance by not updating Transfer by outsourcing the update process Your answer is incorrect Acceptance with exception Overall explanation Mitigating the risk through thorough testing is the best strategy, as it involves identifying and addressing potential vulnerabilities before they can impact the system. This approach ensures the critical update can be applied while minimizing the introduction of new risks. Acceptance with exception might not address the vulnerabilities, avoidance would leave existing vulnerabilities unpatched, and transferring the update process doesn't eliminate the risk of new vulnerabilities.
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Question 75: For cybersecurity training, which method uses a controlled environment to replicate potential security breaches, allowing IT professionals to practice their response? Tabletop exercises Journaling Simulation Failover
Tabletop exercises Journaling Correct answer Simulation Your answer is incorrect Failover Overall explanation Simulations use a controlled environment to replicate security breaches, enabling IT professionals to practice responses, which is more interactive and realistic than tabletop exercises that are discussion-based, journaling that involves keeping records of changes, and failover which is a redundancy mechanism.
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Question 76: An organization decides to refine its access control policies by implementing allow lists for software applications, permitting only approved applications to run on its network. What is the primary security benefit of this action? Version control Restricting activities Updating policies/procedures Reducing downtime
Version control Correct answer Restricting activities Updating policies/procedures Your answer is incorrect Reducing downtime Overall explanation Implementing allow lists for software applications primarily benefits security by restricting activities on the network to only those that are approved, thereby reducing the risk of malware infections and unauthorized application use. This proactive security measure ensures that only known, trusted applications can operate, significantly enhancing the organization's security posture. This approach is more directly beneficial to improving security than reducing downtime, which is more about operational efficiency, updating policies/procedures, which is an administrative action, or version control, which manages changes in documents or software versions.
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Question 77: Which technique is utilized to increase computing efficiency by dividing tasks among multiple processors? UPS Failover Parallel processing Redundancy
UPS Failover Correct answer Parallel processing Your answer is incorrect Redundancy Overall explanation Parallel processing divides tasks among multiple processors to enhance computing efficiency, differing from failover and redundancy, which are about system reliability and backup, and UPS, which provides emergency power during outages.
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Question 78: A security analyst notices several failed login attempts from foreign IP addresses on a database server. What is the most likely cause of these attempts? A brute force attack attempting to guess passwords. Routine maintenance by the IT department. A misconfiguration in the server’s firewall settings. An insider threat testing network security
Correct answer A brute force attack attempting to guess passwords. Routine maintenance by the IT department. A misconfiguration in the server’s firewall settings. Your answer is incorrect An insider threat testing network security Overall explanation The failed login attempts from foreign IP addresses most likely indicate a brute force attack, where an attacker tries numerous password combinations to gain unauthorized access. This pattern is characteristic of brute force attacks aiming to exploit weak passwords, rather than insider actions, firewall misconfigurations, or maintenance activities.
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Question 79: A company's security audit reveals that several mobile devices used for business purposes have been jailbroken, allowing unauthorized software and potential security threats. This situation represents what kind of vulnerability? Misconfiguration Mobile device - Side loading Mobile device - Jailbreaking Hardware
Misconfiguration Mobile device - Side loading Correct answer Mobile device - Jailbreaking Your answer is incorrect Hardware Overall explanation This scenario highlights a jailbreaking vulnerability, where users remove software restrictions on mobile devices, potentially exposing them to security risks. This is different from side loading, which involves installing apps from unofficial sources without bypassing security restrictions, misconfiguration, which involves incorrect settings, or hardware vulnerabilities, which are physical defects or weaknesses.
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Question 80: A financial institution implements a security model that requires continuous verification of every access request to its network, regardless of the user's location or device. This approach is indicative of which security concept? Gap analysis AAA Zero Trust ) Non-repudiation
Gap analysis AAA Correct answer Zero Trust Your answer is incorrect ) Non-repudiation Overall explanation Implementing a security model that requires continuous verification of every access request, regardless of the user's location or device, is indicative of the Zero Trust security concept. Zero Trust operates on the assumption that threats can come from anywhere and that simply being inside the network does not automatically confer trust. This model emphasizes the need for strict identity verification, minimal access rights, and understanding the security posture of devices and networks to prevent unauthorized access. Unlike gap analysis, which assesses the difference between current and desired security states, AAA, which stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting, or non-repudiation, which ensures actions cannot be denied, Zero Trust is a comprehensive approach to securing IT infrastructure by never assuming trust.
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Question 81: What advantage does a MOA offer over a less formal partnership understanding? It focuses solely on the exchange of services without financial implications It serves as a preliminary discussion document without any commitment It allows for flexible, undefined partnership terms that can evolve over time It provides a legally binding agreement specifying roles, responsibilities, and financial terms
It focuses solely on the exchange of services without financial implications It serves as a preliminary discussion document without any commitment It allows for flexible, undefined partnership terms that can evolve over time Your answer is correct It provides a legally binding agreement specifying roles, responsibilities, and financial terms Overall explanation A Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) offers the advantage of providing a legally binding agreement that specifies roles, responsibilities, and financial terms. Unlike less formal understandings, an MOA clearly outlines the expectations and obligations of each party, thereby reducing ambiguity and potential disputes. This formal agreement fosters a strong and clear foundation for the partnership, making it a more reliable framework for collaboration.
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Question 82: What is a significant security concern when using decentralized networks, such as blockchain, compared to centralized networks? The immutability of transactions can lead to irreversible data breaches. Centralized networks are easier to update with new security measures. They require more energy to operate efficiently. Decentralized networks inherently offer less data privacy.
Correct answer The immutability of transactions can lead to irreversible data breaches. Centralized networks are easier to update with new security measures. They require more energy to operate efficiently. Your answer is incorrect Decentralized networks inherently offer less data privacy. Overall explanation A significant security concern when using decentralized networks, like blockchain, is the immutability of transactions. Once data has been recorded in a decentralized system, it cannot be altered or erased. This feature, while providing transparency and security against tampering, also means that if sensitive data is inadvertently or maliciously entered into the blockchain, it becomes permanently accessible, leading to potential privacy issues and irreversible data breaches.
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Question 83: What is the most effective way to ensure that employees have access only to the resources necessary for their job roles? Require manager approval for all access requests RBAC Grant all employees administrative access and rely on auditing Use DAC for all resources
Require manager approval for all access requests Correct answer RBAC Grant all employees administrative access and rely on auditing Your answer is incorrect Use DAC for all resources Overall explanation Implementing role-based access control (RBAC) is the most effective way to ensure that employees have access only to the resources necessary for their job roles because it allows access to be managed based on predefined roles within the organization, streamlining the process and reducing the risk of inappropriate access. While manager approval and auditing are important, they are more reactive and labor-intensive than the proactive, structured approach offered by RBAC. DAC can lead to inconsistent access control decisions.
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Question 84: A company wants to improve endpoint security. Which option provides the most comprehensive protection? Implementing a strong password policy Installing a HIPS Enforcing two-factor authentication on all devices. Installing antivirus software.
Implementing a strong password policy Correct answer Installing a HIPS Enforcing two-factor authentication on all devices. Your answer is incorrect Installing antivirus software. Overall explanation A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) provides more comprehensive protection than antivirus software alone, as it can detect and prevent a wider range of threats, including those that do not match known virus signatures. While strong passwords and two-factor authentication are important for securing access, they do not provide the same level of threat prevention as a HIPS, which actively monitors and blocks malicious activities and exploits in real-time.
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Question 85: When selecting a vendor, why is it crucial to analyze any potential conflict of interest? To establish a transparent and ethical business relationship To assess the vendor's technological capabilities To ensure competitive pricing To guarantee the vendor has no ties with competing organizations
Correct answer To establish a transparent and ethical business relationship To assess the vendor's technological capabilities To ensure competitive pricing Your answer is incorrect To guarantee the vendor has no ties with competing organizations Overall explanation Analyzing any potential conflict of interest when selecting a vendor is crucial to establish a transparent and ethical business relationship. Conflicts of interest can compromise the vendor's ability to deliver services impartially and might lead to biased decisions that are not in the best interest of the hiring organization. Identifying and addressing these issues upfront ensures that both parties can engage in a trustworthy and fair partnership, unlike considerations purely based on pricing, competing ties, or technological capabilities.
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Question 86: An organization implements a system where employees' access to information is determined by their job role within the company, restricting access to sensitive data to authorized personnel only. This is an example of which authorization model? DAC ABAC RBAC MAC
DAC ABAC Correct answer RBAC Your answer is incorrect MAC Overall explanation Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is an authorization model where access rights are based on the roles of individual users within an organization. This approach simplifies management of user permissions since access can be controlled based on job roles, making it easier to enforce the principle of least privilege. RBAC is different from Mandatory Access Control (MAC), which is based on policy rules and classifications, Discretionary Access Control (DAC), where the data owner decides on access, and Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC), which uses policies that evaluate attributes (user, resource, environment) to make decisions.
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Question 87: How does an organization benefit from the inclusion of Evidence of Internal Audits in a vendor's disclosure during the assessment process? It eliminates the need for external audits It guarantees the vendor's technological superiority It provides assurance of the vendor's commitment to continuous improvement It serves as a marketing tool for the vendor
It eliminates the need for external audits It guarantees the vendor's technological superiority Correct answer It provides assurance of the vendor's commitment to continuous improvement Your answer is incorrect It serves as a marketing tool for the vendor Overall explanation An organization benefits from the inclusion of Evidence of Internal Audits in a vendor's disclosure during the assessment process as it provides assurance of the vendor's commitment to continuous improvement, compliance, and quality control. Internal audits demonstrate the vendor's proactive approach to identifying and rectifying issues within its operations and processes, thereby reducing risks associated with non-compliance, inefficiency, or security vulnerabilities. Unlike serving as a mere marketing tool or indicating technological superiority, internal audit evidence focuses on operational integrity and reliability.
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Question 88: Why are questionnaires an essential tool for vendor monitoring? To ensure the vendor’s personnel are adequately trained and certified To continuously assess the vendor’s alignment with the organization’s strategic goals To provide a platform for vendors to advertise new products to the organization To facilitate the update of contact information for vendor representatives
To ensure the vendor’s personnel are adequately trained and certified Correct answer To continuously assess the vendor’s alignment with the organization’s strategic goals To provide a platform for vendors to advertise new products to the organization Your answer is incorrect To facilitate the update of contact information for vendor representatives Overall explanation Questionnaires are an essential tool for vendor monitoring to continuously assess the vendor's alignment with the organization's strategic goals. They allow for regular evaluations of the vendor's performance, compliance with agreements, and adherence to security and quality standards. This ongoing assessment helps in identifying areas of improvement and ensuring the vendor remains a good fit for the organization's needs. While personnel training and contact updates are important, they do not capture the comprehensive purpose of vendor monitoring through questionnaires.
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Question 89: In the initial phase of an incident response plan, what is the most critical step to contain a security breach effectively? Identification of the breach extent Public relations management Isolation of affected systems Notification of law enforcement
Identification of the breach extent Public relations management Correct answer Isolation of affected systems Your answer is incorrect Notification of law enforcement Overall explanation Isolation of affected systems is the most critical step to contain a security breach effectively because it prevents the spread of the incident to unaffected areas of the network, reducing potential damage and simplifying the remediation process. While identification, law enforcement notification, and public relations are important, they follow containment in terms of immediate priorities.
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Question 90: After a security update, a critical application requires a restart to apply the changes. What is the primary concern for this process? Service restart Version control Application restart Documentation
Service restart Version control Correct answer Application restart Your answer is incorrect Documentation Overall explanation The primary concern for requiring an application restart after a security update is the interruption it causes to the application's availability, potentially leading to operational downtime. Restarting an application to apply security changes is a necessary step to ensure the update is effective, but it can disrupt user access and service continuity. This concern is more directly related to operational impact and security than service restarts in general, the need for documentation updates, or version control practices.
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Question 1: Which of the following best describes a security advantage of using serverless computing? Enhanced control over physical hardware The reduction in the attack surface due to the absence of an OS Lower costs due to reduced development time Increased data sovereignty
Enhanced control over physical hardware Correct answer The reduction in the attack surface due to the absence of an OS Lower costs due to reduced development time Your answer is incorrect Increased data sovereignty Overall explanation Serverless computing reduces the attack surface because there is no persistent operating system for attackers to target. This contrasts with traditional models where the operating system can be a significant vector for attacks. However, while serverless architectures reduce certain types of risks, they still require proper security practices, especially at the application and data levels.
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Question 2: What technique should be applied to protect data in transit between a client and server to prevent eavesdropping? Access control list Segmentation Encryption Patching
Access control list Segmentation Correct answer Encryption Your answer is incorrect Patching Overall explanation Encryption secures data in transit by making it unreadable to unauthorized users, effectively protecting it against eavesdropping. This method is more directly relevant to securing data in transit compared to segmentation, patching, or access control lists, which serve different security purposes.
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Question 3: A company wants to ensure that its internal applications are inaccessible from the public internet but still available to employees who work remotely. What is the best approach to achieve this? Set up a NGFW Deploy a VPN Utilize a SASE solution Implement a WAF
Set up a NGFW Correct answer Deploy a VPN Utilize a SASE solution Your answer is incorrect Implement a WAF Overall explanation Deploying a VPN is the best approach to ensure that internal applications are inaccessible from the public internet but remain available to remote employees. A VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel for employees to access internal resources remotely as if they were directly connected to the internal network. While SASE, NGFW, and WAF provide various levels of security, they do not offer the same level of remote access capabilities as a VPN.
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Question 4: A business is evaluating whether to implement a redundant system design for its critical infrastructure. What is the primary security benefit of this approach? Increased resilience Reduced cost Enhanced ease of deployment Lower power consumption
Correct answer Increased resilience Reduced cost Enhanced ease of deployment Your answer is incorrect Lower power consumption Overall explanation A redundant system design primarily increases resilience by ensuring that backup components take over in case of a system failure, thus maintaining service availability and reducing downtime. While it may lead to higher costs and complexity, the benefit of enhanced resilience is crucial for critical systems' security and operational continuity.
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Question 5: What is the PRIMARY goal of static analysis in application security? To assess the application's dependencies for vulnerabilities To evaluate the application’s performance under stress To identify vulnerabilities in the code before it is compiled To monitor the behavior of the application in real-time
To assess the application's dependencies for vulnerabilities To evaluate the application’s performance under stress Correct answer To identify vulnerabilities in the code before it is compiled Your answer is incorrect To monitor the behavior of the application in real-time Overall explanation Static analysis aims to identify vulnerabilities and coding errors in application source code before it is compiled, making it a proactive measure against potential security issues. While monitoring application behavior and assessing dependencies are important, they are related to dynamic analysis and package monitoring, respectively. Evaluating performance under stress is unrelated to identifying security vulnerabilities.
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Question 6: Your company has implemented a strict security policy requiring all remote access to the network to be authenticated and encrypted. However, they also need a solution that allows for device verification and the ability to enforce policies based on user and device identity. Which of the following would be the most appropriate solution? SSL VPN TLS IPSec NAC
SSL VPN TLS IPSec Your answer is correct NAC Overall explanation Network Access Control (NAC) is the best solution for this scenario because it not only allows for authentication and encryption of remote access but also provides device verification and the ability to enforce policies based on user and device identity. While TLS and IPSec provide encryption and SSL VPN allows for secure remote access, none of these solutions offer the comprehensive access control and policy enforcement capabilities provided by NAC.
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Question 7: A company notices an unusual pattern of out-of-hours access to its systems, including logins and data retrieval activities that do not align with any known work schedules or maintenance windows. What might this indicate? Unauthorized access by an insider or compromised credentials Employees working overtime Automated system updates Faulty access control systems
Correct answer Unauthorized access by an insider or compromised credentials Employees working overtime Automated system updates Your answer is incorrect Faulty access control systems Overall explanation Unusual patterns of out-of-hours access to systems, especially those not aligning with work schedules or known maintenance activities, might indicate unauthorized access, either by an insider abusing their privileges or through the use of compromised credentials. While overtime work, automated updates, and faulty access controls might cause anomalies, the specific nature of these activities—such as data retrieval during odd hours—points more conclusively towards malicious intent or security breaches, underscoring the importance of monitoring and controlling access.
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Question 8: An organization's IT department notices an unusual spike in network traffic late at night when the office is typically empty. What is the most likely explanation for this behavior? An unauthorized access to the network is occurring. A staff member is working late. Automatic updates are being installed on company computers. Scheduled backups are taking place.
Correct answer An unauthorized access to the network is occurring. A staff member is working late. Automatic updates are being installed on company computers. Your answer is incorrect Scheduled backups are taking place. Overall explanation While scheduled backups and automatic updates can cause spikes in network traffic, and a staff member working late might use network resources, an unusual spike in network traffic during off-hours, when these activities are not typically scheduled or expected, suggests the possibility of unauthorized access. This scenario requires immediate investigation to rule out a security breach, making it a more likely explanation than the other options, which are normal operational activities.
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Question 9: A company is reviewing its policy on software updates and patches. Which approach should be taken to ensure the highest level of security? Only apply patches and updates that add new features. Test and then apply critical security patches and updates promptly. Avoid updating software to maintain system stability. Apply all patches and updates immediately without testing.
Only apply patches and updates that add new features. Correct answer Test and then apply critical security patches and updates promptly. Avoid updating software to maintain system stability. Your answer is incorrect Apply all patches and updates immediately without testing. Overall explanation Testing and then promptly applying critical security patches and updates is the best approach, as it ensures that the patches do not disrupt system functionality while also addressing known vulnerabilities. Applying updates without testing can lead to system instability, applying only feature-adding updates misses critical security improvements, and avoiding updates altogether leaves systems vulnerable to exploitation.
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Question 10: Why is regular monitoring and tracking of hardware assets critical for an organization's security posture? It helps in identifying unauthorized or rogue devices on the network. It ensures that assets can be quickly replaced if they fail. It facilitates the allocation of maintenance resources based on asset usage. It guarantees that hardware will have the latest technological advancements.
Correct answer It helps in identifying unauthorized or rogue devices on the network. It ensures that assets can be quickly replaced if they fail. It facilitates the allocation of maintenance resources based on asset usage. Your answer is incorrect It guarantees that hardware will have the latest technological advancements. Overall explanation Regular monitoring and tracking of hardware assets are essential for identifying unauthorized or rogue devices that may have been connected to the network, which poses a significant security risk. Such monitoring allows for the swift detection and remediation of these risks. While quick replacement, technological advancement, and maintenance allocation are beneficial, they do not directly address immediate security threats as effectively as identifying unauthorized devices does.
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Question 11: In a multi-cloud system, what is a potential disadvantage compared to a single-cloud system concerning resilience? Reduced scalability Increased complexity Lower cost Limited vendor lock-in
Reduced scalability Correct answer Increased complexity Lower cost Your answer is incorrect Limited vendor lock-in Overall explanation While multi-cloud systems offer redundancy and resilience by spreading workloads across multiple cloud providers, they also introduce increased complexity in management and integration. This complexity can pose challenges for monitoring, security, and overall system stability. Reduced scalability, lower cost, and limited vendor lock-in are not necessarily disadvantages of multi-cloud systems.
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Question 12: To ensure ongoing compliance with data protection laws, a company decides to implement a system for compliance monitoring. The most effective feature of this system would be: An anonymous tip line for employees to report violations. A yearly manual audit by an external consultant. Automated alerts for any non-compliance issues. Quarterly employee satisfaction surveys.
An anonymous tip line for employees to report violations. A yearly manual audit by an external consultant. Correct answer Automated alerts for any non-compliance issues. Your answer is incorrect Quarterly employee satisfaction surveys. Overall explanation Automated alerts for any non-compliance issues offer real-time monitoring and quick response capabilities, making them the most effective feature for ensuring ongoing compliance. This proactive approach allows the company to identify and address compliance issues as they arise, reducing the risk of fines, sanctions, and reputational damage. While yearly audits, an anonymous tip line, and employee surveys can complement a compliance program, they do not provide the same level of immediacy and continuous oversight as automated monitoring.
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Question 13: In the context of global data privacy compliance, the distinction between data controllers and processors is crucial because: Processors have the final say in how data is used, making controllers less relevant. Processors are responsible for collecting data, whereas controllers are responsible for storing it. Controllers are solely responsible for data breaches, regardless of processors' actions. Controllers dictate the purpose and means of processing personal data, while processors act on controllers' behalf.
Processors have the final say in how data is used, making controllers less relevant. Processors are responsible for collecting data, whereas controllers are responsible for storing it. Controllers are solely responsible for data breaches, regardless of processors' actions. Your answer is correct Controllers dictate the purpose and means of processing personal data, while processors act on controllers' behalf. Overall explanation Controllers determine why and how personal data is processed, while processors handle the data on behalf of controllers. This distinction is crucial for assigning responsibilities and liabilities, especially in the context of data breaches and compliance with privacy regulations.
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Question 14: What is the main security challenge when dealing with ICS/SCADA systems? They often run on outdated software and hardware, making them vulnerable to attacks. They support high levels of encryption naturally. They are less critical to business operations compared to IT systems. They are typically designed with user convenience as the top priority.
Correct answer They often run on outdated software and hardware, making them vulnerable to attacks. They support high levels of encryption naturally. They are less critical to business operations compared to IT systems. Your answer is incorrect They are typically designed with user convenience as the top priority. Overall explanation The main security challenge with Industrial Control Systems (ICS) and Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) systems is that they often run on outdated software and hardware. These systems were initially designed for operational continuity and efficiency, not for cybersecurity, and many are still in operation beyond their intended lifespan. As a result, they may lack the necessary security features to protect against modern threats, making them particularly vulnerable to cyberattacks.
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Question 15: A microservices architecture can improve security through isolation. However, what is a key security challenge in this architecture? Service discovery mechanisms Single point of failure Complex data encryption Increased monolithic design
Correct answer Service discovery mechanisms Single point of failure Complex data encryption Your answer is incorrect Increased monolithic design Overall explanation In a microservices architecture, service discovery mechanisms can present a key security challenge. As services need to communicate with each other, the discovery process can become a potential attack vector if not properly secured. Ensuring that service discovery and communication are secure is critical to prevent unauthorized access and data breaches.
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Question 16: During a routine network analysis, you notice multiple instances of a program that replicates itself and spreads to other computers without user interaction. What type of malware is this most indicative of? Keylogger Spyware Worm Virus
Keylogger Spyware Correct answer Worm Your answer is incorrect Virus Overall explanation Worms are a type of malware that replicate themselves and spread to other computers without user interaction, making them a serious threat to network security. Unlike viruses, which require a host program to spread, or spyware and keyloggers, which are designed to collect user data secretly, worms exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols or software to propagate themselves.
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Question 17: An organization's security team has detected an unauthorized device attempting to gain access to secure areas using cloned RFID tags. What type of attack does this scenario describe? RFID cloning Environmental attack Worm attack Brute force
Correct answer RFID cloning Environmental attack Worm attack Your answer is incorrect Brute force Overall explanation RFID cloning involves copying the RFID signal of an authorized tag to gain unauthorized access to secure areas or systems. This physical attack bypasses security mechanisms that rely on RFID for identification and access control, unlike brute force attacks which attempt to guess passwords or keys.
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Question 18: Why is performing a heat map analysis crucial during the installation of a wireless network? To choose the best wireless network standard (e.g., Wi-Fi 6). To determine the optimal locations for access points for uniform signal coverage. To calculate the total cost of ownership of the wireless network. To identify the most aesthetically pleasing locations for access points.
To choose the best wireless network standard (e.g., Wi-Fi 6). Correct answer To determine the optimal locations for access points for uniform signal coverage. To calculate the total cost of ownership of the wireless network. Your answer is incorrect To identify the most aesthetically pleasing locations for access points. Overall explanation Performing a heat map analysis is essential to determine the optimal locations for wireless access points to ensure uniform and comprehensive signal coverage across the desired area. This helps in avoiding dead zones and ensures reliable connectivity for all users. Aesthetics, while important in certain contexts, do not impact network performance directly. The total cost of ownership and choosing the network standard are important considerations but are addressed separately from physical installation planning.
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Question 19: In a disaster recovery scenario, what is the significance of having a well-defined RPO? Identifies the critical applications that need to be recovered first Determines the maximum tolerable downtime Defines the acceptable amount of data loss in terms of time Specifies the required speed of the recovery process
Identifies the critical applications that need to be recovered first Determines the maximum tolerable downtime Correct answer Defines the acceptable amount of data loss in terms of time Your answer is incorrect Specifies the required speed of the recovery process Overall explanation The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, helping organizations understand how frequently they need to perform backups to minimize potential data loss, unlike the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) which determines downtime duration, or specific recovery speeds and prioritization of applications, which are separate considerations.
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Question 20: When decommissioning a hard drive from a corporate environment, which method ensures no data can be recovered while allowing the drive to be reused? Encryption Overwriting Physical destruction Degaussing
Encryption Correct answer Overwriting Physical destruction Your answer is incorrect Degaussing Overall explanation Overwriting a hard drive with one or more patterns of data effectively renders the original data unrecoverable, making it a suitable method for decommissioning drives that are to be reused. Degaussing and physical destruction prevent the drive from being reused, making them less suitable for situations where reuse is desired. Encryption does not erase the data but rather makes it unreadable without the decryption key; however, if the encryption key is compromised, the data can still be accessed.
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Question 21: A company's security policy mandates changing default passwords on all new equipment. Which of the following best explains the rationale behind this policy? To reduce the risk of unauthorized access due to default credentials being widely known. To comply with local data protection laws. To ensure that device performance is optimized. To increase the complexity of network configurations.
Correct answer To reduce the risk of unauthorized access due to default credentials being widely known. To comply with local data protection laws. To ensure that device performance is optimized. Your answer is incorrect To increase the complexity of network configurations. Overall explanation Changing default passwords is a fundamental security measure to prevent unauthorized access, as default credentials are often well-known and easily exploitable by attackers. This practice directly addresses the risk of intrusion using default credentials, making the network more secure. While compliance with laws and optimization of device performance are important, they do not directly relate to the risk associated with using default passwords.
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Question 22: Which of the following best represents a security concern when using third-party cloud vendors? Improved scalability Decreased operational costs Data privacy and control Vendor lock-in
Improved scalability Decreased operational costs Correct answer Data privacy and control Your answer is incorrect Vendor lock-in Overall explanation When using third-party cloud vendors, a primary security concern is data privacy and control. Entrusting sensitive data to a third party involves risks related to unauthorized access, data leakage, and compliance with privacy regulations. While third-party vendors can offer cost savings and scalability, ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data is crucial.
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Question 23: In the context of application security, what is the primary benefit of dynamic analysis? It eliminates the need for manual code reviews. It focuses exclusively on external threats. It provides a comprehensive view of the application's source code. It can identify vulnerabilities in real-time as the application runs.
It eliminates the need for manual code reviews. It focuses exclusively on external threats. It provides a comprehensive view of the application's source code. Your answer is correct It can identify vulnerabilities in real-time as the application runs. Overall explanation Dynamic analysis tests applications in real-time, simulating real-world operations and interactions, which allows it to identify vulnerabilities that may not be visible in the static analysis of code. This real-time analysis is crucial for detecting issues that only arise during the execution of the application, providing insights into its behavior under various conditions.
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Question 24: A financial institution is evaluating the consequences of non-compliance with global anti-money laundering regulations. The most severe consequence it should be concerned about is: Loss of license to operate in critical markets. A mandatory training program for all employees. Temporary suspension of specific services. The cost of implementing compliance measures.
Correct answer Loss of license to operate in critical markets. A mandatory training program for all employees. Temporary suspension of specific services. Your answer is incorrect The cost of implementing compliance measures. Overall explanation The loss of a license to operate in critical markets is a severe consequence of non-compliance with anti-money laundering regulations, as it directly impacts the institution's ability to conduct business. While the cost of implementing compliance measures and a mandatory training program are significant, they do not compare to the existential threat posed by the loss of a license. Temporary suspension of services can also be damaging, but it is typically a less severe and more reversible consequence than losing the ability to operate entirely.
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Question 25: When ensuring the integrity and authenticity of an application, which technique verifies that the software has not been altered and comes from a legitimate source? Sandboxing WPA3 Code signing Input validation
Sandboxing WPA3 Correct answer Code signing Your answer is incorrect Input validation Overall explanation Code signing is the technique that ensures the integrity and authenticity of an application by verifying that the software has not been altered since it was signed by the developer and confirms the developer's identity. This prevents tampering and impersonation attacks. Input validation, WPA3, and sandboxing do not serve the purpose of verifying the integrity and origin of software applications.
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Question 26: An IT team is considering the security implications of different architectural models for a new online service. Which model should they prioritize for optimal responsiveness? Cloud-based services with edge computing Centralized server-client model Decentralized peer-to-peer network Traditional grid computing
Correct answer Cloud-based services with edge computing Centralized server-client model Decentralized peer-to-peer network Your answer is incorrect Traditional grid computing Overall explanation Cloud-based services integrated with edge computing are optimal for responsiveness, as they process data closer to the end-users, reducing latency. While centralized models can provide control and peer-to-peer networks distribute loads, the combination of cloud and edge computing offers the best balance of speed, scalability, and security.
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Question 27: What is the most effective method to protect sensitive data transmitted over public Wi-Fi networks? Frequent changing of Wi-Fi access points Disabling Wi-Fi when not in use Using strong passwords Connecting through a VPN
Frequent changing of Wi-Fi access points Disabling Wi-Fi when not in use Using strong passwords Your answer is correct Connecting through a VPN Overall explanation Connecting through a VPN is the most effective method to protect sensitive data transmitted over public Wi-Fi networks. A VPN encrypts the data sent and received by the device, creating a secure "tunnel" through which the data travels, thus shielding it from potential interceptors on the network. This ensures that sensitive information remains private and secure, even on unsecured or public Wi-Fi networks. Using strong passwords, frequently changing Wi-Fi access points, and disabling Wi-Fi when not in use are good security practices but do not offer the same level of protection for data in transit as using a VPN.
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Question 28: For remote authentication, which protocol offers a framework for managing authentication, authorization, and accounting in a networked environment? WPA3 RADIUS SSL/TLS Secure cookies
WPA3 Correct answer RADIUS SSL/TLS Your answer is incorrect Secure cookies Overall explanation RADIUS is the correct choice because it provides a comprehensive framework for managing authentication, authorization, and accounting for users in a networked environment, facilitating centralized access management. SSL/TLS secures communications, WPA3 is a wireless security protocol, and secure cookies are used to protect web application data, not for remote network authentication and authorization.
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Question 29: A security administrator is tasked with selecting a method to securely erase data from SSDs in a decommissioned data center. Which of the following methods is most appropriate? Physically destroy the SSDs. Rewrite the drives with random data multiple times. Use a standard magnetic data wiping tool. Perform a quick format on all drives.
Correct answer Physically destroy the SSDs. Rewrite the drives with random data multiple times. Use a standard magnetic data wiping tool. Your answer is incorrect Perform a quick format on all drives. Overall explanation Physically destroying the SSDs is the most effective way to ensure that data cannot be recovered, as solid-state drives may not respond to traditional data wiping methods due to their wear-leveling mechanisms. Magnetic data wiping tools are ineffective on SSDs, quick formatting does not erase data securely, and while rewriting with random data can be effective, it may not cover all areas of an SSD due to the wear-leveling algorithms, making physical destruction the most secure method.
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Question 30: A company is adopting a hybrid work model and requires a solution to securely connect multiple branch offices and remote workers to its central corporate network. Which technology is most appropriate? SD-WAN SASE WAF Layer 7 Firewall
Correct answer SD-WAN SASE WAF Your answer is incorrect Layer 7 Firewall Overall explanation Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) is the most suitable technology for connecting multiple branch offices and remote workers securely to a central network. It enables the use of multiple types of connections, including the internet, to create secure and high-performance networks. While SASE also provides secure connections, it is more about integrating networking and security into a cloud service, which might be more than needed for just connecting offices. Layer 7 Firewalls and WAFs do not specifically address the connectivity and network optimization needs of a hybrid work model.
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Question 31: What is the primary reason for ensuring proper sanitization of storage media before disposal? To comply with environmental regulations To increase the resale value of the media To reduce the physical size of the media To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data
To comply with environmental regulations To increase the resale value of the media To reduce the physical size of the media Your answer is correct To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data Overall explanation The primary reason for ensuring proper sanitization of storage media before disposal is to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data, thereby protecting the organization from data breaches, identity theft, and potential legal consequences. While complying with environmental regulations and potentially increasing the resale value of the media are valid considerations, they are secondary to the security imperative of protecting sensitive information. Reducing the physical size of the media is not a relevant concern in the context of data sanitization.
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Question 32: When integrating third-party vendors into a hybrid cloud environment, what is a crucial security consideration? Ensuring that the vendors use the same cloud service provider as the company. Vetting the security practices and compliance of third-party vendors. Reducing the frequency of data backups to accommodate third-party data. Prioritizing vendors based on the geographical location of their data centers.
Ensuring that the vendors use the same cloud service provider as the company. Correct answer Vetting the security practices and compliance of third-party vendors. Reducing the frequency of data backups to accommodate third-party data. Your answer is incorrect Prioritizing vendors based on the geographical location of their data centers. Overall explanation A crucial security consideration when integrating third-party vendors into a hybrid cloud environment is vetting the security practices and compliance of these vendors. This is essential because third-party vendors can introduce new vulnerabilities into the environment, especially if they have access to the company's data or systems. Ensuring that vendors adhere to stringent security standards and are compliant with relevant regulations helps mitigate the risk of data breaches and other security incidents.
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Question 33: What is the key reason for segmenting a network with routers and switches? To enhance security and manage traffic flow more effectively. To improve the overall speed of the internet connection. To reduce the cost of network infrastructure. To simplify the network structure for easier maintenance.
Correct answer To enhance security and manage traffic flow more effectively. To improve the overall speed of the internet connection. To reduce the cost of network infrastructure. Your answer is incorrect To simplify the network structure for easier maintenance. Overall explanation Segmenting a network with routers and switches enhances security by isolating different parts of the network, limiting the spread of attacks and reducing the attack surface. It also allows for more effective traffic management, preventing congestion and ensuring that sensitive areas of the network can be more closely monitored and controlled. While reducing costs, improving internet speed, and simplifying maintenance might be ancillary benefits or considerations, they are not the primary reasons for network segmentation.
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Question 34: How does sandboxing contribute to the security of web browsers? By preventing cross-site scripting attacks By isolating web page processes from each other and the operating system By authenticating user sessions securely By encrypting all data stored by the browser
By preventing cross-site scripting attacks Correct answer By isolating web page processes from each other and the operating system By authenticating user sessions securely Your answer is incorrect By encrypting all data stored by the browser Overall explanation Sandboxing in web browsers contributes to security by isolating web page processes from each other and the operating system, preventing malicious code on one page from affecting others or accessing sensitive system resources. This isolation helps mitigate various types of attacks, including but not limited to, malware distribution and data breaches. Encrypting data, preventing cross-site scripting specifically, and authenticating user sessions, while important, are not the primary functions of sandboxing in the context of web browsers.
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Question 35: Which approach to high availability involves replicating resources across multiple servers or nodes to provide redundancy? Platform diversity Geographic dispersion Clustering Load balancing
Platform diversity Geographic dispersion Correct answer Clustering Your answer is incorrect Load balancing Overall explanation Clustering involves replicating resources across multiple servers or nodes to ensure high availability and redundancy. While load balancing distributes traffic, clustering provides failover capabilities by replicating resources. Platform diversity refers to using different platforms for redundancy, and geographic dispersion involves spreading resources across different locations.
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Question 36: A penetration tester is able to make a web application display error messages that reveal details about the SQL database structure. What type of application attack does this illustrate? Privilege escalation Directory traversal Injection Buffer overflow
Privilege escalation Directory traversal Correct answer Injection Your answer is incorrect Buffer overflow Overall explanation This situation is indicative of an SQL injection attack, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution. Unlike buffer overflow, privilege escalation, or directory traversal, SQL injection specifically targets the manipulation of database queries.
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Question 37: A bank is undergoing a review by a national financial regulatory body to ensure it meets specific operational and security standards. What type of audit does this scenario describe? Compliance External Regulatory Audit Independent Third-Party Audit External Assessment
Compliance Correct answer External Regulatory Audit Independent Third-Party Audit Your answer is incorrect External Assessment Overall explanation This scenario describes an external regulatory audit, where a national financial regulatory body evaluates the bank to ensure it adheres to required operational and security standards. These audits are mandatory and focus on compliance with laws and regulations, distinct from independent third-party audits, compliance efforts initiated internally, or broader external assessments.
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Question 38: Your organization operates in multiple countries with varying data protection laws. Which method can you implement to ensure compliance with data sovereignty regulations while storing sensitive data? Data masking Tokenization Segmentation Geographic restrictions
Data masking Tokenization Segmentation Your answer is correct Geographic restrictions Overall explanation Geographic restrictions limit access to data based on the geographical location of users or devices, enabling compliance with data sovereignty regulations by ensuring that data remains within specified legal jurisdictions. Tokenization, data masking, and segmentation do not directly address the challenge of ensuring compliance with data sovereignty laws.
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Question 39: When an organization seeks validation of its financial statements and IT controls for stakeholders, which type of audit is most suitable? Internal Audit Committee Internal Self-Assessment Attestation External Examination
Internal Audit Committee Internal Self-Assessment Correct answer Attestation Your answer is incorrect External Examination Overall explanation Attestation audits are ideal when an organization needs a third-party to validate its financial statements and IT controls for stakeholders. This form of audit provides an external and objective examination of the organization's claims regarding its controls and operations, thereby offering stakeholders a higher level of assurance compared to internal reviews or assessments.
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Question 40: An organization notices that its encrypted web traffic is being intercepted and decrypted by an unknown third party before reaching the intended recipient. Which type of attack could be responsible? Collision attack On-Path attack Downgrade attack Replay attack
Collision attack Correct answer On-Path attack Downgrade attack Your answer is incorrect Replay attack Overall explanation An on-path attack, previously known as a Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack, is the likely culprit in this scenario where encrypted web traffic is intercepted and decrypted. In an on-path attack, the attacker has positioned themselves in the data transmission route between the sender and recipient, allowing them to access and potentially alter the data being communicated. This capability makes on-path attacks particularly dangerous for the security of encrypted communications.
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Question 41: An organization's firewall has detected an outgoing connection attempt to a known malicious IP address. Upon investigation, it is found that a user's machine is infected with a malware that attempts to connect back to the attacker's server. What kind of malware behavior is this indicative of? Phishing Ransomware C&C communication Adware
Phishing Ransomware Correct answer C&C communication Your answer is incorrect Adware Overall explanation This behavior indicates the malware is attempting to establish a command and control communication with the attacker's server, which allows the attacker to remotely command the malware, receive stolen data, or further infect the system. Unlike adware, phishing, or ransomware, C&C communication is characteristic of malware that maintains ongoing communication with an attacker-controlled server.
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Question 42: When deploying a new cloud service, which of the following would be considered the best practice for ensuring data security? Use default security settings for faster deployment Apply the principle of least privilege to all cloud users Rely solely on the cloud provider's security measures Focus only on encrypting sensitive data
Use default security settings for faster deployment Correct answer Apply the principle of least privilege to all cloud users Rely solely on the cloud provider's security measures Your answer is incorrect Focus only on encrypting sensitive data Overall explanation Applying the principle of least privilege, where users are granted only the access necessary to perform their tasks, is a best practice for ensuring data security in any environment, including the cloud. This approach minimizes the risk of unauthorized access and potential damage from compromised accounts, contrasting with relying solely on default settings or the cloud provider's security measures.
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Question 43: In the realm of virtualization, what is a key security feature that should be implemented to protect VMs from each other? Shared storage systems for all VMs to enhance performance. Network segmentation and firewalls between VMs on the same host. Disabling all network interfaces to prevent external attacks. Unified threat management systems installed within each guest VM.
Shared storage systems for all VMs to enhance performance. Correct answer Network segmentation and firewalls between VMs on the same host. Disabling all network interfaces to prevent external attacks. Your answer is incorrect Unified threat management systems installed within each guest VM. Overall explanation A key security feature in the realm of virtualization is implementing network segmentation and firewalls between virtual machines (VMs) on the same host. This approach helps to isolate each VM, limiting the spread of malicious software or an attacker's movement within the system. Even though VMs share the same physical hardware, proper segmentation ensures that a compromise in one VM does not necessarily lead to vulnerabilities in others, maintaining a level of security comparable to separate physical systems.
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Question 44: A security analyst is configuring a new network. Which of the following would be the most secure approach for managing remote access? Enable RDP access on all computers. Allow SSH access without a password for convenience. Implement VPN access with strong encryption for remote users. Set up a direct public IP address for each workstation.
Enable RDP access on all computers. Allow SSH access without a password for convenience. Correct answer Implement VPN access with strong encryption for remote users. Your answer is incorrect Set up a direct public IP address for each workstation. Overall explanation Implementing VPN access with strong encryption provides a secure method for remote users to access the network, as it encrypts data in transit, protecting it from interception or eavesdropping. In contrast, enabling RDP on all computers, allowing password-less SSH access, or assigning direct public IPs can introduce significant security vulnerabilities, making VPN access the most secure option.
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Question 45: What is the primary security benefit of classifying data according to its sensitivity level within an organization? It simplifies the process of data backup and recovery. It ensures that all data is treated with the same level of security. It allows for tailored security measures that are appropriate for the data's sensitivity. It makes it easier to share data with external partners.
It simplifies the process of data backup and recovery. It ensures that all data is treated with the same level of security. Correct answer It allows for tailored security measures that are appropriate for the data's sensitivity. Your answer is incorrect It makes it easier to share data with external partners. Overall explanation Classifying data based on its sensitivity enables the organization to implement tailored security measures that are appropriate for the level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability required for each data class. This approach is more efficient and effective than treating all data the same or simplifying backup processes, as it ensures that sensitive data receives higher levels of protection against unauthorized access or breaches.
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Question 46: An employee is tasked with creating a secure password for their corporate email account. Which of the following guidelines should they follow? (Select all that apply.) Use a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters Implement passphrase elements if possible Include numbers and special characters Use a memorable keyboard pattern, like adjacent keys Ensure the password is at least 12 characters long
Correct selection Use a mix of uppercase and lowercase letters Correct selection Implement passphrase elements if possible Your selection is correct Include numbers and special characters Your selection is incorrect Use a memorable keyboard pattern, like adjacent keys Correct selection Ensure the password is at least 12 characters long Overall explanation Mixing uppercase and lowercase letters increases the complexity of the password. Including numbers and special characters expands the range of potential combinations, enhancing security. Setting the password length to at least 12 characters helps safeguard against brute force attacks. Using passphrase elements, such as a combination of unrelated words, makes the password secure and memorable. While using a memorable keyboard pattern may seem helpful, it actually decreases password strength because patterns can be predictable and easier for attackers to guess.
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Question 47: An employee regularly works from coffee shops using public Wi-Fi. Which of the following practices should be emphasized for maintaining operational security in a hybrid/remote work environment? Share files via public Wi-Fi as long as they are not confidential. Only work offline when in public spaces to avoid any security risks. Use public Wi-Fi without restrictions since most are secure. Connect to public Wi-Fi and use a VPN to secure the connection.
Share files via public Wi-Fi as long as they are not confidential. Only work offline when in public spaces to avoid any security risks. Use public Wi-Fi without restrictions since most are secure. Your answer is correct Connect to public Wi-Fi and use a VPN to secure the connection. Overall explanation While working in public spaces, using a VPN is essential for securing the connection over public Wi-Fi, which is inherently insecure and susceptible to eavesdropping and attacks. A VPN encrypts the data traffic, protecting sensitive information and activities from potential interception. Using public Wi-Fi without restrictions exposes the user to significant security risks. Working only offline is impractical and limits productivity, while sharing files over public Wi-Fi, even non-confidential ones, can still pose security risks.
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Question 48: When assigning new software licenses within an organization, why is it important to maintain a detailed inventory of software usage and assignments? To prioritize software updates and patches based on usage. To ensure that software can be quickly deployed to new users. To enhance the performance of software applications. To minimize legal and financial risks associated with software licensing.
To prioritize software updates and patches based on usage. To ensure that software can be quickly deployed to new users. To enhance the performance of software applications. Your answer is correct To minimize legal and financial risks associated with software licensing. Overall explanation Maintaining a detailed inventory of software usage and assignments helps in minimizing legal and financial risks by ensuring compliance with licensing agreements. This prevents unauthorized use or distribution of software, which could lead to legal issues or financial penalties. Quick deployment, performance enhancement, and prioritization of updates, while beneficial, are secondary to the legal and financial implications of software licensing.
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Question 49: An organization is deploying a new service that requires the use of several ports. What is the best approach to ensure security while maintaining functionality? Disable the firewall to ensure uninterrupted service access. Only open the necessary ports required for the service to function. Open all ports to avoid service disruption. Use the default port settings for all services for simplicity.
Disable the firewall to ensure uninterrupted service access. Correct answer Only open the necessary ports required for the service to function. Open all ports to avoid service disruption. Your answer is incorrect Use the default port settings for all services for simplicity. Overall explanation The principle of least privilege applies here; by only opening the ports necessary for the service, the organization minimizes potential attack vectors while maintaining necessary functionality. Opening all ports, disabling the firewall, or sticking with default settings could expose the system to unnecessary risk, making option b the most secure and practical approach.
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Question 50: In an effort to enhance security, a company decides to restrict the execution of unauthorized applications on its systems. Which approach is most effective? Enforcing password complexity rules Deploying application allow lists Increasing network bandwidth Implementing a robust firewall
Enforcing password complexity rules Correct answer Deploying application allow lists Increasing network bandwidth Your answer is incorrect Implementing a robust firewall Overall explanation Deploying application allow lists is more effective than the other options because it explicitly permits only authorized software to run on systems, effectively blocking malware or any unauthorized applications from executing, thus directly enhancing security.
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Question 51: Why is mobile device encryption critical in a MDM strategy? It enhances the device's performance. It allows for easier management of app installations. It enables unrestricted access to corporate networks. It ensures that data remains secure, even if the device is lost or stolen.
It enhances the device's performance. It allows for easier management of app installations. It enables unrestricted access to corporate networks. Your answer is correct It ensures that data remains secure, even if the device is lost or stolen. Overall explanation Mobile device encryption is critical in an MDM strategy because it ensures that data stored on the device is secure and inaccessible to unauthorized users, even if the device is lost or stolen. Encryption converts data into a coded form that can only be accessed with the correct key (e.g., a password or PIN), protecting sensitive information and reducing the risk of data breaches. Enhancing the device's performance, enabling unrestricted access to corporate networks, and easing the management of app installations are not direct benefits of device encryption in terms of security.
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Question 52: An organization's WAF has blocked several requests that were trying to exploit known vulnerabilities. What might this suggest about the organization's security posture? Inadequate security awareness among employees The need for immediate software updates An effective perimeter defense mechanism Overreliance on firewall technology
Inadequate security awareness among employees The need for immediate software updates Correct answer An effective perimeter defense mechanism Your answer is incorrect Overreliance on firewall technology Overall explanation A web application firewall blocking attempts to exploit known vulnerabilities suggests that the organization has an effective perimeter defense mechanism in place. This demonstrates the WAF's ability to identify and mitigate potential threats before they can exploit weaknesses in the system. While it might also indicate the need for software updates to address these vulnerabilities directly, the primary takeaway is the successful interception of attacks, validating the effectiveness of the WAF rather than pointing to inadequacies in security awareness or an overreliance on technology.
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Question 53: An attacker manages to intercept and store encrypted messages between two parties without altering the content or alerting the parties. The attacker plans to decrypt these messages later. What type of attack is being described? Collision Eavesdropping Replay Downgrade
Collision Correct answer Eavesdropping Replay Your answer is incorrect Downgrade Overall explanation This scenario describes eavesdropping (also known as sniffing or snooping), where an attacker intercepts and records messages between two parties without them knowing. This is different from replay, downgrade, or collision attacks, which involve unauthorized retransmission, forced use of lower security standards, and hash function exploitation, respectively.
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Question 54: What is the main advantage of performing static code analysis in application security? Authenticating user identities Encrypting data transmissions Isolating applications in a secure environment Identifying potential security vulnerabilities in code without executing it
Authenticating user identities Encrypting data transmissions Isolating applications in a secure environment Your answer is correct Identifying potential security vulnerabilities in code without executing it Overall explanation The main advantage of static code analysis is that it allows developers to identify potential security vulnerabilities within the codebase without the need to execute the program, facilitating early detection and mitigation of security risks. This method does not directly involve encrypting data transmissions, authenticating user identities, or isolating applications, but rather focuses on improving the security of the code itself.
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Question 55: To minimize exposure to vulnerabilities in a multi-tier application environment, which strategy should be prioritized? Continuous deployment Single large network to simplify management Segmentation Uniform permissions across tiers
Continuous deployment Single large network to simplify management Correct answer Segmentation Your answer is incorrect Uniform permissions across tiers Overall explanation Segmentation divides the network into smaller, manageable parts, limiting the spread of attacks and reducing the attack surface by isolating different parts of the network. This approach is more effective than having a single large network or uniform permissions, which could lead to wider spread of breaches.
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Question 56: A user reports that their computer is running unusually slow and they are seeing unexpected advertisements. Upon investigation, you find software that was installed without the user’s knowledge, which is consuming system resources to display ads. What type of malware is most likely responsible? Ransomware Spyware Bloatware Adware
Ransomware Spyware Your answer is incorrect Bloatware Correct answer Adware Overall explanation Adware, often installed without the user's consent, primarily serves to deliver advertisements, which can significantly degrade system performance and user experience. While spyware secretly collects user information and bloatware refers to unnecessary pre-installed software packages, adware's main purpose is to display ads, making it the most likely culprit in this scenario.
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Question 57: A company is planning to expand its data processing capabilities. Which factor should be considered the most when evaluating the security implications of additional compute resources? Enhanced scalability Patch availability Increased power consumption Cost reduction
Enhanced scalability Correct answer Patch availability Increased power consumption Your answer is incorrect Cost reduction Overall explanation When expanding data processing resources, it's crucial to consider patch availability as a security implication. The ability to apply security patches promptly is vital for maintaining the security of the systems. While increased power consumption and cost are important, they do not directly impact security as much as the ability to patch vulnerabilities.
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Question 58: How do snapshots contribute to effective data management and recovery strategies? Offer quick restoration points with minimal storage Ensure data encryption They replace the need for full backups Increase data transfer speeds
Correct answer Offer quick restoration points with minimal storage Ensure data encryption They replace the need for full backups Your answer is incorrect Increase data transfer speeds Overall explanation Snapshots offer quick restoration points and require minimal additional storage since they capture only changes since the last full backup or snapshot, making them efficient for both management and recovery, without necessarily replacing the need for full backups, ensuring encryption, or affecting data transfer speeds.
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Question 59: What is a false negative in the context of vulnerability confirmation? A vulnerability detected as resolved without any intervention. A vulnerability that is detected but is actually part of the system's normal functionality. A vulnerability that exists but is not detected by the assessment tool. A vulnerability that does not exist but is reported as a finding.
A vulnerability detected as resolved without any intervention. A vulnerability that is detected but is actually part of the system's normal functionality. Correct answer A vulnerability that exists but is not detected by the assessment tool. Your answer is incorrect A vulnerability that does not exist but is reported as a finding. Overall explanation A false negative occurs when a vulnerability assessment tool fails to detect an existing vulnerability. This situation is dangerous because it can lead organizations to believe their systems are secure when, in fact, vulnerabilities remain unaddressed. Conversely, a false positive, where a non-existent vulnerability is reported, may lead to unnecessary work but doesn't directly leave systems exposed. The other options describe scenarios that don't accurately define a false negative.
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Question 60: In application security, what is the purpose of using secure cookies? To prevent unauthorized access to user sessions To sandbox untrusted code To authenticate wireless networks To analyze code for vulnerabilities
Correct answer To prevent unauthorized access to user sessions To sandbox untrusted code To authenticate wireless networks Your answer is incorrect To analyze code for vulnerabilities Overall explanation Secure cookies are used in web applications to prevent unauthorized access to user sessions by ensuring that cookies are transmitted securely over HTTPS, and often include attributes that make them inaccessible to client-side scripting, reducing the risk of cross-site scripting and session hijacking attacks. They are not used for authenticating wireless networks, sandboxing code, or analyzing code for vulnerabilities.
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Question 61: How does journaling file system enhance data recovery processes? By encrypting data files By tracking changes to files for easier restoration By compressing data to save storage space By speeding up data transfer rates
By encrypting data files Correct answer By tracking changes to files for easier restoration By compressing data to save storage space Your answer is incorrect By speeding up data transfer rates Overall explanation A journaling file system tracks changes to files, enabling easier and more efficient restoration of data to a known good state after a crash or power failure, offering a significant advantage for data recovery processes, unlike encryption for security, data compression for storage efficiency, or enhancing data transfer rates.
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Question 62: An organization wants to ensure that its mobile workforce can securely access its internal network from any device, anywhere, without compromising the security posture of the corporate network. Which solution should they implement? VPN SASE NGFW UTM
VPN Correct answer SASE NGFW Your answer is incorrect UTM Overall explanation Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is the best solution for providing secure network access to a mobile workforce from any device, anywhere. It combines comprehensive networking and security services, such as SWG, CASB, FWaaS, and ZTNA, into a single, integrated cloud service, ensuring both secure access and a consistent security posture regardless of location or device. While VPNs offer secure access, they do not provide the same level of integrated security features or the scalability and flexibility that SASE offers. UTM and NGFW are more site-centric and less equipped to handle the diverse access requirements of a mobile workforce.
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Question 63: A microservices architecture can improve security through isolation. However, what is a key security challenge in this architecture? Increased monolithic design Service discovery mechanisms Single point of failure Complex data encryption
Increased monolithic design Correct answer Service discovery mechanisms Single point of failure Your answer is incorrect Complex data encryption Overall explanation In a microservices architecture, service discovery mechanisms can present a key security challenge. As services need to communicate with each other, the discovery process can become a potential attack vector if not properly secured. Ensuring that service discovery and communication are secure is critical to prevent unauthorized access and data breaches.
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Question 64: When deploying a new cloud service, which of the following would be considered the best practice for ensuring data security? Use default security settings for faster deployment Rely solely on the cloud provider's security measures Apply the principle of least privilege to all cloud users Focus only on encrypting sensitive data
Use default security settings for faster deployment Rely solely on the cloud provider's security measures Correct answer Apply the principle of least privilege to all cloud users Your answer is incorrect Focus only on encrypting sensitive data Overall explanation Applying the principle of least privilege, where users are granted only the access necessary to perform their tasks, is a best practice for ensuring data security in any environment, including the cloud. This approach minimizes the risk of unauthorized access and potential damage from compromised accounts, contrasting with relying solely on default settings or the cloud provider's security measures.
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Question 65: A security team is evaluating the risks associated with cloud storage services. Which of the following would be the primary security concern? The cost of the cloud storage service. The color scheme of the cloud service provider's website. The physical location of the cloud servers. Data sovereignty and compliance with data protection regulations.
The cost of the cloud storage service. The color scheme of the cloud service provider's website. The physical location of the cloud servers. Your answer is correct Data sovereignty and compliance with data protection regulations. Overall explanation When using cloud storage services, the primary security concern is data sovereignty and compliance with data protection regulations. This involves understanding where the data is stored, how it is protected, and whether the storage methods comply with applicable laws and regulations. The physical location can be a factor in data sovereignty, but it is the compliance aspect that is critical. The cost of the service and the design of the provider's website are less relevant to security.
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Question 66: In terms of data loss prevention, why is a higher frequency of backups recommended? Simplifies the backup process Minimizes potential data loss Increases data storage requirements Reduces the RTO
Simplifies the backup process Correct answer Minimizes potential data loss Increases data storage requirements Your answer is incorrect Reduces the RTO Overall explanation A higher backup frequency minimizes potential data loss between backups, ensuring more up-to-date recovery points, unlike increasing storage requirements which is a consequence, not a benefit, and while it might slightly complicate the backup process, the trade-off for reduced data loss is considered beneficial.
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Question 67: A security administrator discovers that an attacker has exploited a vulnerability in the web server's software, allowing the attacker to gain unauthorized access to the entire server directory. What type of attack has occurred? Injection Buffer overflow Directory traversal Privilege escalation
Injection Buffer overflow Correct answer Directory traversal Your answer is incorrect Privilege escalation Overall explanation A directory traversal attack allows attackers to access restricted files and directories outside of the web server's root directory. This type of attack differs from buffer overflow, injection, and privilege escalation, which involve memory exploitation, malicious data input, and unauthorized access elevation respectively.
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Question 68: What is the most effective way to ensure the secure transfer of ownership for used computing devices within an organization? Performing a factory reset on the device Giving the device without any instruction Updating the device to the latest software version Leaving all data on the device for the new user's convenience
Correct answer Performing a factory reset on the device Giving the device without any instruction Updating the device to the latest software version Your answer is incorrect Leaving all data on the device for the new user's convenience Overall explanation Performing a factory reset on the device is the most effective way to ensure the secure transfer of ownership for used computing devices within an organization. This process removes all user data, applications, and settings, returning the device to its original state and ensuring that sensitive information is not accidentally transferred to the new user. While updating the device to the latest software version is a good practice for security, it does not remove personal or sensitive data. Leaving all data on the device or providing the device without any instruction poses a significant risk of data leakage or breach.
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Question 69: Which data sanitization method is most environmentally friendly while ensuring data on SSDs is unrecoverable? Shredding Physical destruction Degaussing Cryptographic erasure
Shredding Physical destruction Degaussing Your answer is correct Cryptographic erasure Overall explanation Cryptographic erasure, which involves using encryption to make data inaccessible and then destroying the encryption keys, is an environmentally friendly option as it allows the SSD to be reused. Physical destruction and shredding are effective at making data unrecoverable but are not environmentally friendly as they render the SSD unusable. Degaussing is ineffective on SSDs because they do not store data magnetically.
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Question 70: A responsible disclosure program encourages ethical hackers to report vulnerabilities. Which aspect is most critical for its success? Offering the highest bounties for bug reports Ensuring reported vulnerabilities are promptly addressed Limiting the scope of the program to web applications Publicly disclosing all reported vulnerabilities immediately
Offering the highest bounties for bug reports Correct answer Ensuring reported vulnerabilities are promptly addressed Limiting the scope of the program to web applications Your answer is incorrect Publicly disclosing all reported vulnerabilities immediately Overall explanation While offering bounties is an incentive, the prompt and effective remediation of reported vulnerabilities is crucial for the success of a responsible disclosure program. This ensures trust in the program and motivates ethical hackers to participate, knowing their efforts contribute to improving security. Limiting scope and immediate public disclosure are less critical and could, in certain contexts, undermine the program's effectiveness or security.
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Question 71: In the context of wireless security, what role does AAA play when integrated with RADIUS? Encrypts wireless communication Provides dynamic IP addressing Facilitates network device communication Manages network access policies
Encrypts wireless communication Provides dynamic IP addressing Facilitates network device communication Your answer is correct Manages network access policies Overall explanation When AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) is integrated with RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service), its primary role is to manage network access policies. AAA is a framework for intelligently controlling access to computer resources, enforcing policies, auditing usage, and providing the information necessary to bill for services. These services include authentication, which verifies user credentials; authorization, which grants or denies access based on policies; and accounting, which tracks logins and resource usage. RADIUS, as a protocol, facilitates these AAA services by communicating user information to and from the network access server and the AAA server, effectively managing and enforcing access policies within wireless networks.
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Question 72: An organization's firewall has detected an outgoing connection attempt to a known malicious IP address. Upon investigation, it is found that a user's machine is infected with a malware that attempts to connect back to the attacker's server. What kind of malware behavior is this indicative of? Ransomware Phishing C&C communication Adware
Ransomware Phishing Your answer is correct C&C communication Adware Overall explanation This behavior indicates the malware is attempting to establish a command and control communication with the attacker's server, which allows the attacker to remotely command the malware, receive stolen data, or further infect the system. Unlike adware, phishing, or ransomware, C&C communication is characteristic of malware that maintains ongoing communication with an attacker-controlled server.
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Question 73: What is a crucial security measure for ICS and SCADA systems? Connecting ICS/SCADA systems directly to the internet for real-time data access. Regularly updating the ICS/SCADA software to the latest version. Using the latest IoT technologies to monitor ICS/SCADA systems. Implementing strong physical security around the ICS/SCADA devices.
Connecting ICS/SCADA systems directly to the internet for real-time data access. Regularly updating the ICS/SCADA software to the latest version. Using the latest IoT technologies to monitor ICS/SCADA systems. Your answer is correct Implementing strong physical security around the ICS/SCADA devices. Overall explanation Implementing strong physical security around ICS/SCADA devices is crucial to protect against unauthorized access and tampering, which can have severe consequences for critical infrastructure. While regularly updating software is important for addressing vulnerabilities, it must be done with caution due to the specialized nature of these systems. Using IoT technologies for monitoring can introduce additional security risks, and connecting ICS/SCADA systems directly to the internet without proper safeguards can expose them to cyber threats.
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Question 74: In mobile security, what is the main purpose of sandboxing applications? To isolate applications to prevent malware spread To increase the device's processing speed To allow applications to share data freely To reduce battery consumption
Correct answer To isolate applications to prevent malware spread To increase the device's processing speed To allow applications to share data freely Your answer is incorrect To reduce battery consumption Overall explanation The main purpose of sandboxing applications in mobile security is to isolate applications from each other and the system, limiting their access to device resources and data. This isolation prevents a compromised app from affecting other applications or the underlying operating system, significantly reducing the risk of malware spread. This security measure is crucial in protecting sensitive corporate data on mobile devices. The other options, such as increasing the device's processing speed, allowing applications to share data freely, and reducing battery consumption, do not directly relate to the security benefits of application sandboxing.
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Question 75: What is the primary purpose of data replication in a disaster recovery plan? To simplify data management To increase data redundancy and availability To decrease recovery time To reduce the cost of storage
To simplify data management Correct answer To increase data redundancy and availability To decrease recovery time Your answer is incorrect To reduce the cost of storage Overall explanation Data replication increases data redundancy and availability, ensuring that copies of data are readily available in different locations, which is crucial for disaster recovery by allowing quick access to data if the primary source fails, unlike primarily reducing recovery times, storage costs, or simplifying data management, which are different objectives.
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Question 76: A security administrator notices that the company website is experiencing unusually high traffic, leading to service unavailability. After a recent update, users report slow internet speeds and new, unfamiliar software installations. The IT department also notes an increase in outbound traffic. What might be happening? Malicious code infection DNS poisoning DDoS Reflected attack Wireless intrusion
Correct answer Malicious code infection DNS poisoning Your answer is incorrect DDoS Reflected attack Wireless intrusion Overall explanation The symptoms described—slow internet speeds, unfamiliar software installations, and increased outbound traffic—strongly suggest a malicious code infection, such as malware or a virus, especially following a recent update that could have been compromised. This scenario does not align with a wireless intrusion, which typically affects wireless network security; a DDoS reflected attack, which involves overwhelming a system with external requests; or DNS poisoning, which redirects web traffic to malicious sites.
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Question 77: A company seeks to ensure that only necessary permissions are granted to users and services, minimizing potential abuse. Which principle should be enforced? Encryption everywhere Least privilege Perimeter defense Redundancy
Encryption everywhere Correct answer Least privilege Perimeter defense Your answer is incorrect Redundancy Overall explanation The principle of least privilege ensures that users and services are granted only the permissions they need to perform their duties, reducing the risk of malicious or accidental damage. This approach is more targeted and effective at minimizing potential abuse than broad strategies like perimeter defense or encryption.
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Question 78: A security analyst discovers a potential vulnerability in an application. Which step should be taken next to confirm the vulnerability's existence without causing potential harm to the operational environment? Run an exploit against the live system. Deploy a patch immediately. Use a test environment to replicate the issue. Ignore the vulnerability as a false positive.
Run an exploit against the live system. Deploy a patch immediately. Correct answer Use a test environment to replicate the issue. Your answer is incorrect Ignore the vulnerability as a false positive. Overall explanation Using a test environment to replicate a potential vulnerability is the safest and most effective way to confirm its existence without risking the integrity or availability of the operational environment. Deploying a patch immediately or running an exploit against the live system could cause unintended consequences or downtime. Ignoring the vulnerability assumes it's a false positive without verification, which could leave the system exposed to real threats.
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Question 79: You need to ensure that sensitive documents stored on a server cannot be accessed by unauthorized users even if the server is physically stolen. Which method should you use to achieve this level of protection? Segmentation Hashing Masking Encryption
Segmentation Hashing Masking Your answer is correct Encryption Overall explanation Encryption scrambles data into an unreadable format, ensuring that even if the server is stolen, the data remains protected and inaccessible without the decryption key. Segmentation, hashing, and masking do not provide the same level of protection against unauthorized access to data in the event of physical theft.
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Question 80: A network administrator discovers a software tool on the company's network that allows for the undetectable monitoring and logging of network traffic. This tool is most likely an example of what? Network sniffer Rootkit Keylogger Trojan
Correct answer Network sniffer Rootkit Keylogger Your answer is incorrect Trojan Overall explanation Network sniffers are tools used to capture and analyze network traffic. When used maliciously, they can monitor and log data passing through the network without detection. Unlike keyloggers that record keystrokes, rootkits that provide hidden access to a system, or Trojans that disguise malicious intent, sniffers specifically target network traffic.
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Question 81: Which of the following best describes the purpose of a system/process audit in vulnerability management? To update security tools and software to the latest versions To assess compliance with internal and external security policies To identify unused applications and services for removal To perform an in-depth analysis of network traffic
To update security tools and software to the latest versions Correct answer To assess compliance with internal and external security policies To identify unused applications and services for removal Your answer is incorrect To perform an in-depth analysis of network traffic Overall explanation System/process audits are conducted to assess an organization's compliance with established internal and external security policies, regulations, and standards. They are comprehensive evaluations that cover various aspects of security, including policies, procedures, and technical controls, ensuring that practices align with security requirements and identifying areas for improvement.
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Question 82: A company is migrating from on-premise servers to a cloud-based infrastructure. What is the primary security implication of this transition? Higher initial costs Reduced control over patch management Increased availability Decreased resilience
Higher initial costs Correct answer Reduced control over patch management Increased availability Your answer is incorrect Decreased resilience Overall explanation When moving to cloud-based infrastructure, organizations often face reduced control over patch management since cloud service providers manage the infrastructure. While cloud environments can offer increased availability and resilience, the company relinquishes some control over when and how patches are applied, which can impact security if the service provider does not promptly address vulnerabilities.
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Question 83: An organization wants to ensure the integrity of its files. Which of the following would be the most effective method? Encrypting all files regardless of their sensitivity. Increasing the frequency of employee performance reviews. Regularly changing file names and locations. Implementing file hashing and regular integrity checks.
Encrypting all files regardless of their sensitivity. Increasing the frequency of employee performance reviews. Regularly changing file names and locations. Your answer is correct Implementing file hashing and regular integrity checks. Overall explanation File hashing and regular integrity checks are effective methods for ensuring the integrity of files. By creating a unique hash value for each file and then periodically checking these values, any unauthorized changes to the files can be detected. Changing file names and locations, increasing performance reviews, and blanket encryption do not directly ensure the integrity of the files themselves.
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Question 84: Why is data retention policy important for an organization? To occupy more storage space To increase the workload of IT staff To ensure that entertaining content is kept for employee morale To maintain compliance with legal and regulatory requirements
To occupy more storage space To increase the workload of IT staff To ensure that entertaining content is kept for employee morale Your answer is correct To maintain compliance with legal and regulatory requirements Overall explanation A data retention policy is critical for an organization to maintain compliance with legal and regulatory requirements regarding the storage and protection of data. It helps in defining how long different types of data should be kept and when they should be securely disposed of. This not only ensures that an organization meets legal obligations but also helps in managing storage resources efficiently and protecting sensitive information. Keeping content for entertainment, occupying more storage space, and increasing the workload of IT staff do not align with the primary objectives of a data retention policy.
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Question 85: In penetration testing, what distinguishes a black box test from a white box test? The focus on physical security controls The use of automated tools The requirement for post-test remediation The level of information provided to the testers about the target system
The focus on physical security controls The use of automated tools The requirement for post-test remediation Your answer is correct The level of information provided to the testers about the target system Overall explanation The key difference between black box and white box penetration testing is the amount of information provided to the testers about the target system. In a black box test, testers have little to no prior knowledge of the internal workings of the system, simulating an external attack. In contrast, white box testing provides testers with complete information, including network maps and credentials, allowing for a thorough assessment of internal security controls.
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Question 86: When assessing vulnerabilities, why is it important to consider the CVSS? It automatically patches vulnerabilities. It provides a standardized method for requesting vendor support. It offers a universal severity score for vulnerabilities. It classifies vulnerabilities by type and source.
It automatically patches vulnerabilities. It provides a standardized method for requesting vendor support. Correct answer It offers a universal severity score for vulnerabilities. Your answer is incorrect It classifies vulnerabilities by type and source. Overall explanation The CVSS provides a standardized framework for rating the severity of security vulnerabilities, enabling organizations to prioritize response and remediation efforts based on a universal severity score. This approach helps in assessing the potential impact and urgency of addressing each vulnerability. Automatic patching or classification of vulnerabilities by type and source, while important, are not directly related to the purpose of CVSS scores. Requesting vendor support is also outside the scope of CVSS.
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Question 87: Your organization is implementing data protection measures for PII. Which method should you employ to ensure that sensitive data is replaced with pseudonyms to protect privacy? Data masking Tokenization Encryption Obfuscation
Data masking Correct answer Tokenization Encryption Your answer is incorrect Obfuscation Overall explanation Tokenization replaces sensitive data with unique tokens, preserving data integrity while protecting privacy. This method allows for secure data processing without exposing the original PII, making it suitable for protecting sensitive information like personally identifiable data.
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Question 88: For a company focused on minimizing operational costs while maintaining security, which architectural decision is advisable? High investment in state-of-the-art data centers Extensive use of open-source software Adoption of an all-cloud approach Implementation of thin clients
High investment in state-of-the-art data centers Correct answer Extensive use of open-source software Adoption of an all-cloud approach Your answer is incorrect Implementation of thin clients Overall explanation Extensive use of open-source software can help minimize operational costs while still maintaining security, provided that the software is well-maintained and patched regularly. Open-source software can be less costly than proprietary solutions and offers transparency, allowing for community-reviewed security. However, it requires diligent management to ensure it remains secure over time.
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Question 89: Why is encrypting backup data essential for secure data management? Speeds up the recovery process Reduces storage space Ensures data integrity Protects against unauthorized access
Speeds up the recovery process Reduces storage space Ensures data integrity Your answer is correct Protects against unauthorized access Overall explanation Encrypting backup data protects against unauthorized access, ensuring that even if physical security measures fail, the data remains inaccessible without the proper decryption key, unlike data integrity which is about preventing data corruption, and not directly related to encryption, and encryption does not reduce storage space or significantly affect recovery speeds.
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Question 90: A user receives an email from their bank requesting immediate password reset due to suspicious activity. The email includes a link to reset the password. What should the user do first to ensure the email is not a phishing attempt? Forward the email to the bank's official customer service email. Contact the bank using official communication methods. Click the link to reset the password immediately. Delete the email, assuming all unsolicited requests are phishing attempts.
Forward the email to the bank's official customer service email. Correct answer Contact the bank using official communication methods. Click the link to reset the password immediately. Your answer is incorrect Delete the email, assuming all unsolicited requests are phishing attempts. Overall explanation The first step a user should take when receiving an email that claims to be from their bank and requests a password reset due to suspicious activity is to contact the bank directly using official communication methods, such as a phone number from the bank's official website. This approach ensures the email’s authenticity without risking exposure to phishing by clicking on potentially malicious links. Direct verification with the bank helps prevent potential security breaches associated with phishing attempts.
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Question 1: In the context of enhancing network performance and security, a company is considering the adoption of a new network model. Which option is best for reducing the attack surface while maintaining flexibility? Physical isolation Centralized infrastructure Full virtualization Logical segmentation
Physical isolation Centralized infrastructure Full virtualization Your answer is correct Logical segmentation Overall explanation Logical segmentation is best for reducing the attack surface while maintaining flexibility, as it allows different parts of a network to be separated into zones, reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers within the network, while still allowing for efficient resource allocation and access control, unlike full virtualization or centralized infrastructure, which may not provide the same level of segmentation.
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Question 2: An organization finds that critical files have been encrypted and a ransom demand is made for the decryption key. What type of attack has the organization suffered? Trojan attack Ransomware attack Worm attack Virus attack
Trojan attack Correct answer Ransomware attack Worm attack Your answer is incorrect Virus attack Overall explanation Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the victim's files, making them inaccessible, and demands a ransom for the decryption key. This differentiates it from viruses, worms, and Trojans, which may have different objectives such as replication, data theft, or unauthorized system access.
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Question 3: When assessing the security implications of different architecture models, what is a significant concern associated with the inability to patch legacy systems? Increased operational costs Reduced system performance Vulnerability to exploits Compatibility issues with new software
Increased operational costs Reduced system performance Correct answer Vulnerability to exploits Your answer is incorrect Compatibility issues with new software Overall explanation Legacy systems that cannot be patched present a significant security risk as they remain susceptible to known vulnerabilities that cannot be remediated. This leaves them open to exploitation by attackers, compared to newer systems that can be regularly updated to address security flaws.
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Question 4: Which attribute is critical in differentiating between a highly organized, well-funded group capable of sustained cyber operations and an individual with limited resources? Nation-state Resources/funding Internal/external Level of sophistication/capability
Nation-state Correct answer Resources/funding Internal/external Your answer is incorrect Level of sophistication/capability Overall explanation Resources and funding are key attributes that differentiate between well-organized, capable groups and individuals with limited capabilities. Groups with substantial resources and funding can sustain prolonged cyber operations and develop sophisticated tools, in contrast to individuals or small teams with limited resources, who may not sustain complex operations or develop advanced capabilities.
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Question 5: Your organization is looking to adopt a modern network architecture that combines VPN, SWG, and FWaaS for global networking needs. Which solution aligns with this requirement? NGFW SD-WAN UTM SASE
NGFW SD-WAN UTM Your answer is correct SASE Overall explanation Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is a modern network architecture that combines network security functions such as SWG (Secure Web Gateway), FWaaS (Firewall as a Service), and VPN with WAN capabilities to support the dynamic, secure access needs of organizations. Unlike SD-WAN, which primarily focuses on WAN optimization and does not inherently include security services, SASE provides a comprehensive solution that encompasses both security and network performance. UTM and NGFW provide various security services but do not integrate the wide area networking component that is central to SASE.
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Question 6: To manage changes in security procedures and ensure that only the most current policies are applied, an organization employs a version control system. What aspect of change management does this practice address? Version control Dependencies Downtime Documentation
Correct answer Version control Dependencies Downtime Your answer is incorrect Documentation Overall explanation Employing a version control system to manage changes in security procedures addresses the aspect of version control within change management. Version control is crucial for tracking modifications to documents and ensuring that personnel are referencing the most current policies, procedures, and guidelines. This practice helps prevent confusion and ensures that security measures are up-to-date and effective, highlighting the importance of version control in maintaining the integrity and relevance of security documentation over concerns related to dependencies, operational downtime, or the broader category of documentation management.
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Question 7: An organization leverages cloud computing to store and process its customer data. Recently, the IT department reported unusual patterns of data access that did not align with typical user behavior. What should be a priority security concern in this context? Compliance with data protection laws Data leakage between tenants Access control policies Data sovereignty
Compliance with data protection laws Data leakage between tenants Correct answer Access control policies Your answer is incorrect Data sovereignty Overall explanation While all provided options are relevant security concerns, the priority in this scenario should be reviewing and strengthening access control policies. The unusual patterns of data access reported by the IT department suggest a potential flaw in how access controls are managed, possibly allowing improper or unauthorized access to sensitive customer data. Strengthening these policies can help ensure that only authorized users have access to the data they are permitted to view and manipulate, addressing the immediate concern highlighted by the IT department’s report. This approach not only prevents potential data leakage but also ensures compliance with data protection laws and maintains the integrity of data sovereignty.
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Question 8: Who is most likely to commit cybercrimes such as intellectual property theft or selling trade secrets, motivated by personal grievances or financial incentives? Nation-state Hacktivist Insider threat Organized crime
Nation-state Hacktivist Correct answer Insider threat Your answer is incorrect Organized crime Overall explanation Insider threats come from individuals within an organization who misuse their access to commit crimes such as intellectual property theft, often motivated by personal grievances or financial incentives. This distinguishes them from hacktivists, focused on political or social causes; organized crime, which generally targets external entities for financial gain; and nation-states, which pursue espionage for political, military, or economic advantage.
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Question 9: Which type of threat actor is more likely to use their position within a company to bypass security controls and facilitate a data breach, for reasons ranging from financial gain to personal vendettas? Hacktivist Insider threat Unskilled attacker Shadow IT
Hacktivist Correct answer Insider threat Unskilled attacker Your answer is incorrect Shadow IT Overall explanation Insider threats are individuals within an organization who may use their legitimate access and knowledge of internal systems to facilitate a data breach, motivated by reasons such as financial gain or personal vendettas. This is in contrast to shadow IT, which involves unauthorized use of technology without necessarily malicious intent, hacktivists, who are motivated by ideological reasons, and unskilled attackers, who lack the access and knowledge to bypass security controls from within an organization.
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Question 10: An organization relies on a critical legacy application that is incompatible with new security updates. What is a significant security concern associated with maintaining this application? Service restart Application restart Legacy applications Updating diagrams
Service restart Application restart Correct answer Legacy applications Your answer is incorrect Updating diagrams Overall explanation A significant security concern associated with maintaining legacy applications is their incompatibility with new security updates. Legacy applications often cannot be updated to address current vulnerabilities, leaving them and the network on which they run at increased risk of exploitation. This issue surpasses the concerns related to service or application restarts, which are operational in nature, or updating diagrams, which pertains to documentation practices. The security risks of legacy applications highlight the need for a strategy to either update, replace, or securely isolate these applications.
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Question 11: In an organization, a user receives an email that appears to be from a trusted source, asking for sensitive information. This is an example of what kind of attack? Buffer overflow Downgrade Injection Forgery
Buffer overflow Downgrade Injection Your answer is correct Forgery Overall explanation This scenario describes a forgery attack, more specifically known as phishing, where attackers masquerade as a trusted entity to deceive victims into providing sensitive information. Unlike injection, buffer overflow, or downgrade attacks, forgery in this context focuses on deception and identity misrepresentation.
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Question 12: A financial institution needs to transmit sensitive client data between its branches securely. The data transmission must ensure confidentiality, integrity, and the ability to verify the sender's identity. Which combination of encryption methods and practices best meets these requirements? Asymmetric encryption for data transmission Key exchange algorithms with algorithms prioritization Asymmetric encryption for identity verification and key exchange, with symmetric encryption for data transmission Symmetric encryption with key length prioritization
Asymmetric encryption for data transmission Key exchange algorithms with algorithms prioritization Your answer is correct Asymmetric encryption for identity verification and key exchange, with symmetric encryption for data transmission Symmetric encryption with key length prioritization Overall explanation The combination of asymmetric encryption for identity verification and key exchange, along with symmetric encryption for data transmission, best meets the requirements for secure data transmission that ensures confidentiality, integrity, and sender verification. Asymmetric encryption allows for secure key exchange and can be used to verify the sender's identity through digital signatures, ensuring the integrity and authenticity of the transmitted data. Symmetric encryption is then used for the bulk data transmission due to its efficiency and speed, providing the necessary confidentiality for sensitive client data. This approach leverages the strengths of both encryption types to address all the security requirements effectively.
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Question 13: An organization wants to improve the security of its email communications. Which of the following actions should it take? Disable email encryption to improve performance. Enforce the use of digital signatures and encryption for emails. Use a web-based email service without HTTPS. Avoid using email for sensitive communications.
Disable email encryption to improve performance. Correct answer Enforce the use of digital signatures and encryption for emails. Use a web-based email service without HTTPS. Your answer is incorrect Avoid using email for sensitive communications. Overall explanation Enforcing the use of digital signatures and encryption for emails enhances the security and integrity of email communications by ensuring that messages are from legitimate senders and have not been tampered with, while also protecting the privacy of the message content. Disabling encryption, using unsecured email services, or avoiding email for sensitive communications are less effective strategies for protecting email communications.
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Question 14: An organization's firewall has repeatedly blocked an IP address that has been trying to access the network with high volume requests. What might this indicate? A DDoS attack attempt Regular traffic spikes An internal system update Scheduled maintenance
Correct answer A DDoS attack attempt Regular traffic spikes An internal system update Your answer is incorrect Scheduled maintenance Overall explanation Repeatedly blocking an IP address due to high volume requests is indicative of a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack attempt. In such attacks, attackers try to overwhelm the target's resources, making the service unavailable to legitimate users. This scenario suggests an external threat rather than normal traffic, system updates, or scheduled maintenance activities, which typically do not trigger such security responses.
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Question 15: An organization notices a significant increase in resource consumption on its servers, including CPU, memory, and bandwidth, without any corresponding increase in legitimate user traffic. What is the most likely explanation? An upgrade in server hardware An indicator of a malware infection Enhanced security measures The implementation of a new, resource-intensive application
An upgrade in server hardware Correct answer An indicator of a malware infection Enhanced security measures Your answer is incorrect The implementation of a new, resource-intensive application Overall explanation A significant and unexplained increase in resource consumption without an increase in user traffic is a classic indicator of a malware infection. Malware, such as worms, Trojans, or ransomware, can consume substantial system resources for malicious activities (e.g., spreading across the network, encrypting files for ransom, or facilitating an attacker's control). While new applications, hardware upgrades, and enhanced security measures can also increase resource usage, they typically do so in a planned and manageable manner.
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Question 16: During an audit, it's discovered that a piece of outdated software is still being used within a critical system. What type of vulnerability does this represent? Privilege escalation vulnerability Injection vulnerability Buffer overflow vulnerability Outdated software vulnerability
Privilege escalation vulnerability Injection vulnerability Buffer overflow vulnerability Your answer is correct Outdated software vulnerability Overall explanation Using outdated software can expose a system to vulnerabilities for which patches and updates have already been issued, known as outdated software vulnerabilities. This differs from injection, buffer overflow, and privilege escalation vulnerabilities, which relate to specific types of malicious input, memory management issues, and unauthorized access elevation, respectively.
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Question 17: A security analyst discovers a malicious code that activates only when certain conditions are met, such as a specific date and time. What type of malware is this? Rootkit Logic bomb Keylogger Trojan
Rootkit Correct answer Logic bomb Keylogger Your answer is incorrect Trojan Overall explanation Logic bombs are a form of malware that remain dormant until specific conditions are triggered, such as a date, time, or the launch of a specific program. Unlike rootkits, which hide their presence, or Trojans and keyloggers that have distinct malicious functions, logic bombs are characterized by their conditional activation mechanism.
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Question 18: An organization finds that critical files have been encrypted and a ransom note has been left demanding payment. What does this scenario indicate? A ransomware attack Accidental file encryption by an employee A phishing attack The successful backup and disaster recovery procedures
Correct answer A ransomware attack Accidental file encryption by an employee A phishing attack Your answer is incorrect The successful backup and disaster recovery procedures Overall explanation Encrypted files along with a demand for payment is a clear indication of a ransomware attack. This type of malware encrypts the victim's files, making them inaccessible, and demands a ransom for the decryption key. While phishing attacks can be a delivery method for ransomware and accidental encryption is possible, the presence of a ransom note specifically points to the malicious intent of a ransomware attack.
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Question 19: Following a routine audit, an organization discovers several gaps in their security logs, including periods where no data was recorded. What does this indicate? Log rotation policies are working as intended The logging system crashed Inadequate storage for logs An attacker might be covering their tracks by deleting logs
Log rotation policies are working as intended The logging system crashed Inadequate storage for logs Your answer is correct An attacker might be covering their tracks by deleting logs Overall explanation Discovering gaps in security logs, especially with periods where no data is recorded, can indicate that an attacker might be covering their tracks by deleting logs. This activity is a common tactic used by attackers to erase evidence of their presence and activities within a network. While log rotation, system crashes, and inadequate storage could potentially cause log issues, the presence of gaps specifically suggests a deliberate act to avoid detection.
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Question 20: A company needs to secure its file transfer protocol to ensure that files transferred between its servers and clients are protected from interception and tampering. What combination of encryption types and mechanisms should be employed? Asymmetric encryption for the file transfers Symmetric encryption for the file transfers, with key exchange for sharing the encryption key Key exchange encryption for the file transfers Algorithms encryption for the file transfers
Asymmetric encryption for the file transfers Correct answer Symmetric encryption for the file transfers, with key exchange for sharing the encryption key Your answer is incorrect Key exchange encryption for the file transfers Algorithms encryption for the file transfers Overall explanation Employing symmetric encryption for the file transfers, combined with a key exchange mechanism for securely sharing the encryption key, offers the optimal balance of security and efficiency. Symmetric encryption provides the necessary speed and resource efficiency for encrypting large files, while key exchange mechanisms (often utilizing asymmetric encryption) securely share the symmetric key between the server and clients. This approach ensures that the file transfers are protected against interception and tampering, leveraging the strengths of both symmetric encryption for the bulk of the encryption work and asymmetric encryption for the secure initial key exchange.
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Question 21: Why is it important to prioritize vulnerabilities based on environmental variables? To ensure all vulnerabilities are treated equally. To comply with government regulations only. To focus on vulnerabilities that cannot be patched. To allocate resources effectively based on the specific context and impact.
To ensure all vulnerabilities are treated equally. To comply with government regulations only. To focus on vulnerabilities that cannot be patched. Your answer is correct To allocate resources effectively based on the specific context and impact. Overall explanation Considering environmental variables in the prioritization of vulnerabilities is critical for effective resource allocation and remediation efforts. Environmental variables include the specific conditions and contexts of an organization's network and systems, such as the criticality of assets, the presence of compensating controls, and the potential impact of a vulnerability's exploitation. This approach ensures that resources are focused on addressing vulnerabilities that pose the greatest risk to the organization's operations and objectives, rather than treating all vulnerabilities equally or solely to comply with regulations.
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Question 22: In vulnerability management, what is the significance of understanding an organization's risk tolerance? It guides the decision-making process on which vulnerabilities to address based on the acceptable level of risk. It determines the technical skills of the security team. It specifies the budget for security investments. It defines how quickly vulnerabilities must be patched.
Correct answer It guides the decision-making process on which vulnerabilities to address based on the acceptable level of risk. It determines the technical skills of the security team. It specifies the budget for security investments. Your answer is incorrect It defines how quickly vulnerabilities must be patched. Overall explanation Understanding an organization's risk tolerance is fundamental in vulnerability management because it informs the decision-making process regarding which vulnerabilities to prioritize for remediation. Risk tolerance varies among organizations and dictates the level of risk deemed acceptable. This understanding helps to align security efforts with business objectives, ensuring that resources are allocated to mitigate risks that exceed the organization's tolerance levels. While factors like technical skills, patching speed, and security budgets are important, they are secondary considerations that should be informed by the organization's risk tolerance.
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Question 23: A security team member receives an email that appears to be from a trusted vendor asking for immediate confirmation of account details due to a security breach. What kind of security threat does this scenario describe? Social engineering Logic bomb Spear phishing Ransomware
Social engineering Logic bomb Correct answer Spear phishing Your answer is incorrect Ransomware Overall explanation Spear phishing is a targeted email attack where the attacker, posing as a trusted entity, attempts to trick individuals into divulging sensitive information, such as account details. Unlike broad phishing attempts, spear phishing is highly targeted, making it more deceptive and potentially more damaging than other forms of attacks like ransomware or logic bombs, which are types of malware, or general social engineering tactics that may not rely on specific targeting.
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Question 24: A company discovers that an attacker has been spreading false information about its products on various online platforms, leading to decreased customer trust and sales. Which type of attack does this scenario describe? Vishing Misinformation Business email compromise Pretexting
Vishing Correct answer Misinformation Business email compromise Your answer is incorrect Pretexting Overall explanation The deliberate spread of false information about the company's products to harm its reputation and sales describes an attack using misinformation. This contrasts with pretexting, which involves fabricating scenarios to deceive individuals directly, business email compromise, which targets companies through deceptive email communication, and vishing, which involves voice-based social engineering.
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Question 25: An organization wants to secure sensitive information stored on its laptops in case they are lost or stolen. Which encryption level would be most appropriate to protect all the data on the hard drive? Full-disk File Partition Volume
Correct answer Full-disk File Partition Your answer is incorrect Volume Overall explanation Full-disk encryption is the most appropriate level for securing all data on a laptop's hard drive, as it encrypts the entire disk, including the operating system and all files, making the data inaccessible without the correct decryption key. This level of encryption ensures that if a laptop is lost or stolen, the data remains protected against unauthorized access. Partition, file, and volume encryption can secure parts of a disk or specific files but would not provide comprehensive protection for all data stored on the device.
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Question 26: After installing a new application, a user notices that several unrelated applications are also installed without their consent, taking up a significant amount of system resources. What is the most likely type of unwanted software that has been installed? Bloatware Spyware Adware Rootkit
Correct answer Bloatware Spyware Adware Your answer is incorrect Rootkit Overall explanation Bloatware refers to unwanted software that comes pre-installed with another application or device, often consuming significant system resources and possibly affecting performance. Unlike spyware or adware, which are primarily focused on collecting data or displaying ads, and rootkits, which hide their presence, bloatware is generally not malicious but still unwanted due to its resource consumption.
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Question 27: Your company utilizes IaC to manage its cloud infrastructure. What is the best approach to secure the IaC scripts? Apply manual approval processes for all changes Version control and continuous monitoring Rely on automatic encryption by the cloud provider Store scripts in a public repository for easier access
Apply manual approval processes for all changes Correct answer Version control and continuous monitoring Rely on automatic encryption by the cloud provider Your answer is incorrect Store scripts in a public repository for easier access Overall explanation The best approach to secure Infrastructure as Code (IaC) scripts is to use version control and implement continuous monitoring. Version control helps track changes and maintain the integrity of the code, while continuous monitoring can detect and alert on unauthorized changes or vulnerabilities. This approach ensures that IaC scripts are securely managed and updated, contrasting with less secure methods like public storage or sole reliance on provider encryption.
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Question 28: An organization is deciding between a centralized and decentralized network architecture. Which architecture is likely to offer better scalability but may increase the cost? Hybrid Mesh Decentralized Centralized
Hybrid Mesh Correct answer Decentralized Your answer is incorrect Centralized Overall explanation Decentralized networks provide better scalability as they allow for expansion without a single point of failure and can efficiently manage increased loads by distributing them across multiple nodes. However, this can lead to increased costs due to the need for more infrastructure and complex management compared to centralized networks, where resources and management are concentrated.
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Question 29: Doing vulnerability analysis, what role does confirming false positives and false negatives play? It simplifies compliance with CVE listings. It increases the organization's risk tolerance. It reduces the need for environmental variable consideration. It ensures that security teams focus their efforts on actual threats.
It simplifies compliance with CVE listings. It increases the organization's risk tolerance. It reduces the need for environmental variable consideration. Your answer is correct It ensures that security teams focus their efforts on actual threats. Overall explanation Confirming false positives and false negatives is vital during vulnerability analysis because it ensures that security teams concentrate their efforts on genuine threats rather than wasting resources on non-issues or overlooking real vulnerabilities. This process helps maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the security program by accurately identifying and addressing vulnerabilities that pose a real risk to the organization. While risk tolerance, environmental variables, and compliance with CVE are important considerations in vulnerability management, they are not directly impacted by the process of confirming false positives and false negatives.
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Question 30: A security analyst notices that an executable file on the network behaves differently when executed in a sandbox environment compared to its behavior on a real system. This is indicative of what type of sophisticated malware? Rootkit Trojan Worm Virus
Rootkit Correct answer Trojan Worm Your answer is incorrect Virus Overall explanation Trojans are malicious programs that may behave differently in sandbox environments to evade detection, often performing benign operations in a sandbox while conducting malicious activities on real systems. This differs from viruses and worms, which are primarily focused on replication and spreading, and rootkits, which aim to hide their presence and provide remote control, but do not typically alter their behavior based on the environment.
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Question 31: In resilience planning, which site consideration involves having operational servers with redundant infrastructure but may lack real-time data synchronization? Cold Warm Hot Geographic dispersion
Cold Correct answer Warm Hot Your answer is incorrect Geographic dispersion Overall explanation A warm site has operational servers with redundant infrastructure, such as backup power and network connectivity, but may lack real-time data synchronization compared to hot sites. While warm sites offer faster recovery compared to cold sites, they may still require some data synchronization effort before becoming fully operational. Hot sites have fully synchronized redundant infrastructure, enabling immediate failover in the event of a disaster, while cold sites lack operational servers altogether. Geographic dispersion involves spreading resources across different locations for redundancy.
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Question 32: Your organization requires a security solution that integrates various security and networking functions, such as firewall, antivirus, and intrusion prevention, into a single appliance. Which solution should they implement? WAF NGFW UTM Layer 7 Firewall
WAF NGFW Correct answer UTM Your answer is incorrect Layer 7 Firewall Overall explanation Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliances integrate various security and networking functions into a single device, making them an ideal solution for organizations looking for an all-in-one security appliance. While NGFW also offers multiple security features, UTM is known for its comprehensive integration, including firewall, antivirus, and intrusion prevention, among others. WAF and Layer 7 firewalls are more specialized and do not offer the broad range of integrated services found in UTMs.
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Question 33: Which approach to resilience involves spreading workloads across multiple cloud providers to mitigate risks associated with a single provider? Load balancing Clustering Geographic dispersion Multi-cloud systems
Load balancing Clustering Geographic dispersion Your answer is correct Multi-cloud systems Overall explanation Multi-cloud systems involve using services from multiple cloud providers to spread workloads and mitigate risks associated with relying on a single provider. This approach enhances resilience by reducing the dependency on any single provider and diversifying the risk of service disruptions. Load balancing and clustering are methods for distributing workloads within a single or clustered environment, while geographic dispersion involves spreading resources across different physical locations.
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Question 34: An organization notices an increase in emails sent from external addresses that closely resemble the company's domain, attempting to trick employees into transferring funds or revealing sensitive information. This technique is known as: Pretexting Brand impersonation Business email compromise Typosquatting
Pretexting Brand impersonation Business email compromise Your answer is correct Typosquatting Overall explanation This refers to the practice of typosquatting, where attackers register domain names that are slight misspellings of legitimate ones to deceive individuals. In this context, it is being used to mimic the company’s domain in an attempt to trick employees. This differs from business email compromise, which specifically targets high-level transactions and decisions, brand impersonation, which involves pretending to be the company rather than just using a similar domain, and pretexting, which involves constructing a fabricated scenario or story.
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Question 35: What is the role of vulnerability exceptions in a vulnerability management program? To provide a temporary measure until a patch is applied To ignore vulnerabilities that cannot be patched To document and acknowledge the acceptance of risk for unremediated vulnerabilities To replace the need for implementing compensating controls
To provide a temporary measure until a patch is applied To ignore vulnerabilities that cannot be patched Correct answer To document and acknowledge the acceptance of risk for unremediated vulnerabilities Your answer is incorrect To replace the need for implementing compensating controls Overall explanation The role of vulnerability exceptions in a vulnerability management program is to document and acknowledge the acceptance of risk for vulnerabilities that cannot be remediated within the standard timeframe or for which no immediate remediation is available. This process involves a formal risk assessment and approval by appropriate stakeholders, ensuring that the decision to accept the risk is made consciously. This is not a means to ignore vulnerabilities, nor does it replace the need for compensating controls, which should still be considered to reduce risk exposure. Granting an exception is a temporary measure, emphasizing the need for a plan to address the vulnerability in the future.
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Question 36: During a vulnerability management process, after identifying a critical vulnerability in the system, what should be the immediate next step? Request an exception for the vulnerability Purchase insurance for potential breaches Implement network segmentation Apply the appropriate patch
Request an exception for the vulnerability Purchase insurance for potential breaches Implement network segmentation Your answer is correct Apply the appropriate patch Overall explanation When a critical vulnerability is identified, the immediate step is to mitigate the risk it poses to the organization. Applying the appropriate patch directly addresses the vulnerability, reducing the potential for exploitation. Purchasing insurance, while it may provide financial protection, does not mitigate the vulnerability itself. Implementing network segmentation could help limit the spread of an attack but does not address the underlying vulnerability. Requesting an exception should only be considered if remediation cannot be immediately implemented and is not the preferred immediate response.
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Question 37: During an online purchase, a user is redirected to a payment gateway that closely resembles the original website but has slight differences in design and URL. The user is prompted to enter their credit card details. This situation is an example of: Watering hole Impersonation Phishing Typosquatting
Watering hole Impersonation Correct answer Phishing Your answer is incorrect Typosquatting Overall explanation This is a form of phishing, where the user is directed to a fraudulent website that mimics a legitimate one to steal financial or personal information. Unlike a watering hole attack, which targets specific user groups by compromising commonly visited sites, typosquatting, which involves domain name misspelling without direct redirection, or impersonation, which involves an attacker pretending to be another individual, this scenario specifically involves tricking the user into entering sensitive information on a fake platform that they were redirected to.
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Question 38: In the context of vulnerability management, what is the primary purpose of conducting an audit? To apply for exemptions for certain vulnerabilities To verify compliance with security policies and the effectiveness of implemented controls To implement network segmentation To purchase insurance for uncovered vulnerabilities
To apply for exemptions for certain vulnerabilities Correct answer To verify compliance with security policies and the effectiveness of implemented controls To implement network segmentation Your answer is incorrect To purchase insurance for uncovered vulnerabilities Overall explanation The primary purpose of conducting an audit in the context of vulnerability management is to verify compliance with established security policies and the effectiveness of implemented controls. An audit provides a formal evaluation mechanism to ensure that security measures are appropriately protecting the organization's assets and that remediation efforts for identified vulnerabilities have been effective. Purchasing insurance, implementing network segmentation, and applying for exemptions are all management actions that could be influenced by audit findings but are not the primary purpose of an audit itself.
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Question 39: Who is most likely to use sophisticated techniques and state-sponsored resources to conduct espionage or disrupt foreign governments? Nation-state Organized crime Unskilled attacker Hacktivist
Correct answer Nation-state Organized crime Unskilled attacker Your answer is incorrect Hacktivist Overall explanation Nation-states possess the resources, funding, and level of sophistication required to conduct espionage or cyber operations aimed at disrupting foreign governments. These actors are distinct from unskilled attackers, who lack the capabilities and resources, hacktivists, who are primarily motivated by ideology and typically lack state-level resources, and organized crime groups, which focus on financial gain rather than political objectives.
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Question 40: Which type of threat actor is most likely to carry out an attack for political reasons, with the intention of spreading their ideology or influencing government policy? Insider threat Unskilled attacker Hacktivist Nation-state
Insider threat Unskilled attacker Correct answer Hacktivist Your answer is incorrect Nation-state Overall explanation Hacktivists are motivated by political or social causes, seeking to spread their ideology or influence government policy through digital means. Unlike nation-states, which may also engage in politically motivated cyber activities, hacktivists typically lack state-level resources and operate independently or in loose collectives. Unskilled attackers generally lack the sophistication to carry out targeted, ideologically motivated attacks, while insider threats usually act out of personal motivation or grievances rather than broader political or social objectives.
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Question 41: A security analyst discovers that an application's data processing routines cause the program to crash if the input exceeds certain boundaries, potentially allowing an attacker to execute arbitrary code. What type of application vulnerability is this? Injection Directory traversal Buffer overflow Forgery
Injection Directory traversal Correct answer Buffer overflow Your answer is incorrect Forgery Overall explanation Buffer overflow vulnerabilities occur when a program attempts to store more data in a buffer or memory area than it was intended to hold. This can allow an attacker to cause a program to crash or potentially inject malicious code, unlike injection, forgery, or directory traversal, which relate to unauthorized input, fake entities, and file path manipulation respectively.
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Question 42: What distinguishes a nation-state actor from other types of cyber threat actors in terms of their cyber attack capabilities? Level of sophistication/capability Resources/funding Internal External
Correct answer Level of sophistication/capability Resources/funding Internal Your answer is incorrect External Overall explanation Nation-state actors are distinguished by their high level of sophistication and capability in cyber attacks, often employing advanced techniques and tools that are not available to other actors. This high level of sophistication allows them to conduct complex cyber espionage, sabotage, or influence operations. In contrast, other actors may lack the resources, funding, or technical expertise to execute attacks of similar complexity and scale, making sophistication and capability key distinguishing factors.
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Question 43: During an audit, it's found that a software program is covertly monitoring and transmitting user activities to an external server. This program was installed without user knowledge. What type of malware has been identified? Adware Spyware Worm Ransomware
Adware Correct answer Spyware Worm Your answer is incorrect Ransomware Overall explanation Spyware is designed to secretly monitor user activities and transmit the data to third parties without the user's knowledge or consent. Unlike ransomware that encrypts data for a ransom, adware that displays unwanted ads, or worms that replicate and spread across networks, spyware's primary purpose is the covert collection of information.
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Question 44: After repeatedly failing to access an account with a single password, an attacker switches tactics and begins trying numerous passwords against multiple usernames. What type of password attack does this scenario describe? Brute force Buffer overflow Replay Spraying
Correct answer Brute force Buffer overflow Replay Your answer is incorrect Spraying Overall explanation A brute force attack involves trying many passwords or phrases to guess the correct one, distinguishing it from spraying, which uses common passwords against many accounts. Buffer overflow and replay attacks do not directly relate to password guessing but involve memory manipulation and data retransmission, respectively.
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Question 45: When considering resilience in security architecture, which factor involves estimating future resource requirements to prevent over- or under-provisioning? Site considerations High availability Continuity of operations Capacity planning
Site considerations High availability Continuity of operations Your answer is correct Capacity planning Overall explanation Capacity planning involves estimating future resource requirements, such as computing power, storage, and network bandwidth, to ensure the system can handle expected workloads without over- or under-provisioning. While high availability and continuity of operations are related to resilience, capacity planning specifically addresses the proactive allocation of resources to maintain resilience. Site considerations involve factors like infrastructure readiness and geographical dispersion.
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Question 46: An IT security professional observes an increase in network traffic directed at a specific port known for remote management. Upon investigation, it's discovered that an attacker is attempting to guess the password of the remote management service. What type of attack is this? Phishing attack Brute force attack DDoS attack Man-in-the-middle attack
Phishing attack Correct answer Brute force attack DDoS attack Your answer is incorrect Man-in-the-middle attack Overall explanation Brute force attacks involve attempting to guess the password of a service or account by systematically trying every possible combination until the correct one is found. This type of attack targets weaknesses in password security, distinguishing it from DDoS attacks that aim to overwhelm systems with traffic, man-in-the-middle attacks that intercept communications, and phishing attacks that trick users into revealing sensitive information.
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Question 47: How does analyzing the industry/organizational impact of a vulnerability contribute to its prioritization? It identifies vulnerabilities with the highest CVE scores. It prioritizes vulnerabilities based on the ease of implementation of their patches. It considers the specific consequences of a vulnerability within the context of the organization's operations and industry. It focuses solely on vulnerabilities affecting the most critical systems.
It identifies vulnerabilities with the highest CVE scores. It prioritizes vulnerabilities based on the ease of implementation of their patches. Correct answer It considers the specific consequences of a vulnerability within the context of the organization's operations and industry. Your answer is incorrect It focuses solely on vulnerabilities affecting the most critical systems. Overall explanation Analyzing the industry/organizational impact of a vulnerability is crucial for its prioritization because it allows security teams to understand how a vulnerability specifically affects their unique operations, critical assets, and compliance requirements. This tailored approach ensures that vulnerabilities with the most significant potential impact on the organization's objectives, reputation, and regulatory obligations are prioritized for remediation. While CVE scores, system criticality, and patching ease are important factors in vulnerability management, the unique consequences to the organization's operations and industry provide a more relevant basis for prioritization.
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Question 48: A user reports that they are unable to access specific company resources they normally have access to, and further investigation reveals this is not an isolated incident. What might this indicate? Resource inaccessibility due to maintenance An internal configuration error Normal fluctuation in network performance A security breach causing resource inaccessibility
Resource inaccessibility due to maintenance An internal configuration error Normal fluctuation in network performance Your answer is correct A security breach causing resource inaccessibility Overall explanation Multiple users being unable to access specific resources they normally have access to could indicate a security breach leading to resource inaccessibility. This scenario suggests that an attacker might have altered permissions, deployed ransomware, or otherwise disrupted access to critical systems. While maintenance, fluctuations, and configuration errors can cause access issues, the broad impact and deviation from the norm point towards a malicious cause.
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Question 49: An application developer is reviewing code to mitigate potential vulnerabilities. Which scenario is MOST likely to prevent a buffer overflow attack? Encrypting data before processing it. Implementing input validation and length checks for all user input. Regularly updating application libraries to the latest version. Using only high-level programming languages.
Encrypting data before processing it. Correct answer Implementing input validation and length checks for all user input. Regularly updating application libraries to the latest version. Your answer is incorrect Using only high-level programming languages. Overall explanation Buffer overflow attacks exploit vulnerabilities that occur when an application writes more data to a buffer than it can hold. By implementing input validation and length checks, developers can ensure that only appropriately sized data is processed, preventing attackers from overloading the buffer and executing malicious code. Regular updates, using high-level languages, and encrypting data, while generally good practices, do not directly address the mechanism through which buffer overflow attacks occur.
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Question 50: In terms of risk transference, which of the following strategies would a company employ when adopting an IaaS model? Purchasing cyber insurance Outsourcing security management to a third party Implementing redundant system design Using proprietary software
Correct answer Purchasing cyber insurance Outsourcing security management to a third party Implementing redundant system design Your answer is incorrect Using proprietary software Overall explanation Purchasing cyber insurance is a form of risk transference where a company shifts potential financial losses due to cyber incidents to an insurance company. While outsourcing security management and implementing redundant designs are ways to mitigate risks, they do not transfer the risk. Using proprietary software is more related to security control rather than risk transference.
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Question 51: A company wants to ensure that its remote communications are secure and that it can authenticate and encrypt packets over the internet. Which protocol should they implement? IPSec SSH TLS SSL
Correct answer IPSec SSH TLS Your answer is incorrect SSL Overall explanation IPSec is designed for securing internet communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. It is widely used for creating secure VPNs, making it suitable for securing remote communications. While TLS and SSL are also used for secure communications, they typically secure data transfers on the web and are not specifically designed for securing all internet traffic like IPSec. SSH is primarily used for secure remote login and command execution, not for general packet encryption across networks.
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Question 52: Why is vulnerability classification important in managing security risks? It allows for the prioritization of vulnerabilities based on their exploitability and impact. It guarantees compliance with all industry standards. It eliminates the need for regular security audits. It simplifies the process of vulnerability scanning.
Correct answer It allows for the prioritization of vulnerabilities based on their exploitability and impact. It guarantees compliance with all industry standards. It eliminates the need for regular security audits. Your answer is incorrect It simplifies the process of vulnerability scanning. Overall explanation Vulnerability classification plays a crucial role in managing security risks by allowing organizations to prioritize vulnerabilities based on criteria such as their exploitability, impact, and the ease with which they can be remedied. This prioritization ensures that resources are allocated efficiently to address the most critical vulnerabilities first, enhancing the organization's security posture. While regular audits, compliance with standards, and efficient scanning are important, these activities are complemented by, rather than replaced by, effective vulnerability classification.
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Question 53: An organization revises its security policies and procedures after implementing new security controls to ensure all guidelines reflect the current security posture. What does this revision process highlight? Version control Documentation Application restart Service restart
Version control Correct answer Documentation Application restart Your answer is incorrect Service restart Overall explanation The revision process of security policies and procedures after implementing new security controls highlights the importance of documentation in maintaining an up-to-date security posture. This ensures that all organizational guidelines are aligned with the latest security measures, facilitating compliance and effective security management. This action is crucial for ensuring that the organization's security practices are consistently applied and understood across the board, distinguishing it from the operational concerns of service or application restarts and the management practice of version control.
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Question 54: A multinational company wants to allow its employees to securely access the corporate network from remote locations. Which solution is most suitable? NGFW TLS VPN UTM
NGFW TLS Correct answer VPN Your answer is incorrect UTM Overall explanation A VPN is the most suitable solution for securely accessing a corporate network from remote locations as it creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between the user's device and the corporate network. TLS is used mainly for secure communication over the internet, such as securing websites, but does not provide network access. UTM and NGFW are security devices that provide various security functions but are not specifically designed for remote network access.
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Question 55: In the context of industrial control systems, which of the following is the most critical aspect to ensure the security and reliability of a SCADA system? High availability configuration Implementing IoT devices Containerization of applications Using a real-time operating system
Correct answer High availability configuration Implementing IoT devices Containerization of applications Your answer is incorrect Using a real-time operating system Overall explanation High availability configuration is the most critical aspect to ensure the security and reliability of a SCADA system, as it ensures that the system remains operational even in the event of component failures, unlike IoT devices or containerization, which do not inherently provide the same level of reliability for industrial control systems.
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Question 56: You're implementing security measures to protect sensitive legal documents stored on a company's servers. Which method would be most appropriate for ensuring the confidentiality of this data? Tokenization Masking Encryption Obfuscation
Tokenization Masking Correct answer Encryption Your answer is incorrect Obfuscation Overall explanation Encryption is the most suitable method for ensuring the confidentiality of sensitive legal documents. It transforms the data into an unreadable format, ensuring that only authorized individuals with the decryption key can access the information. Obfuscation, masking, and tokenization may obscure the data but do not provide the same level of security as encryption.
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Question 57: During a digital forensic investigation, a security analyst discovers that an attacker has created a fraudulent website that closely resembles a legitimate one, tricking users into entering sensitive information. Which type of attack does this scenario describe? Directory traversal Forgery Buffer overflow Replay
Directory traversal Correct answer Forgery Buffer overflow Your answer is incorrect Replay Overall explanation Forgery involves creating a fake document, website, or other data to deceive individuals or systems. This is unlike buffer overflow, replay, and directory traversal attacks, which are technical attacks aimed at exploiting system vulnerabilities rather than deceiving users directly.
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Question 58: To enhance the security of sensitive customer information, a bank decides to encrypt specific records within its database. What type of encryption level best describes this approach? Database Record Volume Full-disk
Database Correct answer Record Volume Your answer is incorrect Full-disk Overall explanation Record-level encryption is the most appropriate choice for encrypting specific records within a database, as it allows for the encryption of individual entries or rows. This approach enables targeted protection of sensitive information, such as customer data, without encrypting the entire database. This selective encryption ensures that critical data is secured, while minimizing the performance impact on database operations. Full-disk, volume, and database encryption offer broader levels of protection but do not provide the granularity needed to secure specific records within a database.
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Question 59: When is it appropriate to use segmentation as a response to a vulnerability? Only when directed by insurance providers Instead of applying any patches When a vulnerability cannot be immediately patched and poses significant risk As the first step in any vulnerability response
Only when directed by insurance providers Instead of applying any patches Correct answer When a vulnerability cannot be immediately patched and poses significant risk Your answer is incorrect As the first step in any vulnerability response Overall explanation Network segmentation is an appropriate response to a vulnerability when the vulnerability cannot be immediately patched and poses a significant risk to the organization. By segmenting the network, an organization can isolate critical assets or limit the potential spread of an exploit, effectively reducing the overall risk exposure. This approach is particularly useful in controlling the scope of potential impact while a more permanent solution, such as patching or implementing compensating controls, is being prepared. Segmentation is not meant to replace patching but rather to complement it or serve as an interim measure. The decision to segment should be based on risk assessment, not solely on directives from insurance providers.
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Question 60: How should an organization handle vulnerabilities for which no current patch is available? Segment the network every time a new vulnerability is found Purchase insurance to cover potential losses Apply compensating controls to mitigate the risk Ignore the vulnerability until a patch is released
Segment the network every time a new vulnerability is found Purchase insurance to cover potential losses Correct answer Apply compensating controls to mitigate the risk Your answer is incorrect Ignore the vulnerability until a patch is released Overall explanation When no current patch is available for a vulnerability, the best approach is to apply compensating controls to mitigate the risk associated with the vulnerability. These controls can include additional monitoring, changing configurations to reduce exposure, or implementing stricter access controls. Ignoring the vulnerability leaves the organization exposed to potential exploitation. While purchasing insurance might offer financial protection after a breach, it does not reduce the likelihood of the vulnerability being exploited. Network segmentation is a useful security measure but applying it every time a new vulnerability is found is not practical and does not directly address the specific risk posed by the vulnerability.
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Question 61: A company wants to protect its critical business data from unauthorized access. Which method would be most effective in achieving this goal? Encryption Masking Segmentation Tokenization
Correct answer Encryption Masking Segmentation Your answer is incorrect Tokenization Overall explanation Encryption is the most effective method for protecting critical business data from unauthorized access. It ensures that even if unauthorized parties gain access to the data, they cannot read or interpret it without the decryption key. Masking, tokenization, and segmentation can complement encryption but do not provide the same level of data protection against unauthorized access.
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Question 62: A network analyst observes that several company devices are making unsolicited DNS requests to unknown domains at regular intervals. What is the most likely reason behind these requests? Credential replay attack Wireless intrusion DNS tunneling On-path attack
Credential replay attack Wireless intrusion Correct answer DNS tunneling Your answer is incorrect On-path attack Overall explanation DNS tunneling involves sending and receiving information through DNS queries and responses, often to bypass network security measures or to exfiltrate data. Regular, unsolicited DNS requests to unknown domains suggest this type of activity. It's not indicative of a wireless intrusion, which involves unauthorized network access; a credential replay attack, which involves the unauthorized use of valid credentials; or an on-path attack, which involves intercepting communication.
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Question 63: An organization is reviewing its security logs and notices multiple authentication requests to its web application from different geographic locations within a short timeframe, all using the same user ID. Which type of attack should be suspected? Privilege escalation Spraying Brute force Replay
Privilege escalation Spraying Brute force Your answer is correct Replay Overall explanation This situation is indicative of a replay attack, where a valid data transmission is maliciously or fraudulently repeated or delayed. This is distinct from password spraying, brute force attacks, and privilege escalation, which involve common passwords, exhaustive password attempts, and unauthorized access elevation, respectively.
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Question 64: An organization needs to ensure compliance with data privacy regulations when transferring customer data across borders. Which concept should the organization consider? Geolocation Permission restrictions Data sovereignty Obfuscation
Geolocation Permission restrictions Correct answer Data sovereignty Your answer is incorrect Obfuscation Overall explanation Data sovereignty refers to the legal jurisdiction under which data is subject. In the context of cross-border data transfers, organizations must consider data sovereignty to ensure compliance with relevant privacy regulations. This involves understanding where data is stored and processed and ensuring that it complies with the laws of each jurisdiction involved.
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Question 65: An employee receives a call from someone claiming to be from the technical support department, asking for their password to resolve a supposed security threat. The caller is persuasive and insistent. This type of social engineering attack is known as: Impersonation Vishing Pretexting Smishing
Impersonation Correct answer Vishing Pretexting Your answer is incorrect Smishing Overall explanation This scenario describes vishing, where the attacker uses voice communication, typically over the phone, to trick the victim into giving away sensitive information, such as passwords. Unlike pretexting, which involves creating a believable but false scenario, smishing, which uses SMS texts, or impersonation, which involves pretending to be someone else but not specifically over the phone, vishing directly leverages the immediacy and persuasive power of voice communication.
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Question 66: A company stores confidential financial data on its servers. Which data state does this information represent? Data in use Data in transit Data in motion Data at rest
Data in use Data in transit Data in motion Your answer is correct Data at rest Overall explanation Confidential financial data stored on servers but not actively being processed or transmitted is considered "data at rest." This data state requires specific security measures, such as encryption or access controls, to protect it from unauthorized access or theft.
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Question 67: A mobile payment app needs to secure payment data on devices while ensuring that transaction processing is performed securely and efficiently. Which technology is best suited for storing sensitive information and performing secure transactions on mobile devices? Secure Enclave Key Management System HSM TPM
Correct answer Secure Enclave Key Management System HSM Your answer is incorrect TPM Overall explanation The Secure Enclave is best suited for storing sensitive information and performing secure transactions on mobile devices. It is a dedicated coprocessor designed to provide hardware-based key storage and cryptographic operations, ensuring that sensitive data, such as fingerprints and payment information, is stored securely within a tamper-resistant area of the processor. Unlike TPMs, which are more commonly found in laptops and desktops, or HSMs, which are external devices used for managing encryption keys at an organizational level, Secure Enclaves are specifically designed for mobile devices, offering a high level of security for mobile payment applications by isolating and protecting sensitive data and processes from the rest of the device.
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Question 68: What is the importance of reporting in the context of vulnerability management? To communicate the findings, actions taken, and status of vulnerabilities to relevant stakeholders To document exceptions as the primary method of handling vulnerabilities To provide a detailed list of all patched vulnerabilities to insurance companies To ensure that all vulnerabilities are ignored until reported
Correct answer To communicate the findings, actions taken, and status of vulnerabilities to relevant stakeholders To document exceptions as the primary method of handling vulnerabilities To provide a detailed list of all patched vulnerabilities to insurance companies Your answer is incorrect To ensure that all vulnerabilities are ignored until reported Overall explanation Reporting plays a crucial role in vulnerability management by providing a mechanism to communicate the findings, actions taken, and current status of vulnerabilities across the organization and to relevant stakeholders. Effective reporting ensures transparency, enables informed decision-making, and facilitates accountability by documenting the organization's efforts to identify, remediate, and manage vulnerabilities. It's not just about providing information to insurance companies or documenting exceptions, but rather about maintaining a comprehensive view of the organization's security posture and the effectiveness of its vulnerability management program.
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Question 69: A company needs to choose a deployment model for its new application, prioritizing ease of recovery in the event of a disaster. Which model should they choose? Cloud-based multi-region deployment Colocated hosting facilities Single-region cloud services Traditional on-premise servers
Correct answer Cloud-based multi-region deployment Colocated hosting facilities Single-region cloud services Your answer is incorrect Traditional on-premise servers Overall explanation A cloud-based multi-region deployment enhances disaster recovery capabilities as it distributes resources and data across multiple geographical locations, ensuring that if one region is compromised, the application can continue to operate from another region. This model provides better ease of recovery compared to traditional, single-region, or collocated options where resources are more centralized.
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Question 70: A financial institution needs to securely transmit customer account information between its branches. Which method would be most effective in protecting this data during transmission? Hashing Encryption Masking Segmentation
Hashing Correct answer Encryption Masking Your answer is incorrect Segmentation Overall explanation Encryption is the most effective method for protecting data during transmission between branches of a financial institution. It ensures that the data remains confidential and secure, even if intercepted by unauthorized parties. Hashing, segmentation, and masking are not suitable for protecting data during transmission and may not provide the necessary level of security.
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Question 71: To secure transactions on its website, an online retailer wants to ensure that all data transmitted between its server and customers' browsers is encrypted. What type of encryption is commonly used for this purpose? Asymmetric Transport/communication Symmetric Key exchange
Asymmetric Correct answer Transport/communication Symmetric Your answer is incorrect Key exchange Overall explanation Transport/communication encryption is commonly used to secure data transmitted over the internet, such as web transactions between a server and a customer's browser. This encryption ensures that data is encrypted in transit, protecting it from interception or eavesdropping. While asymmetric and symmetric encryption may be involved in the process, and key exchange mechanisms facilitate secure communication, "transport/communication" encryption encompasses the overall approach to encrypting data as it travels across a network, making it the best fit for securing online transactions.
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Question 72: A security analyst discovers that an attacker is capturing data packets as they travel from the victim's computer to the internet. Which type of attack does this scenario best represent? On-path attack DDoS Amplified attack DNS poisoning Wireless attack
Correct answer On-path attack DDoS Amplified attack DNS poisoning Your answer is incorrect Wireless attack Overall explanation An on-path attack, formerly known as a man-in-the-middle attack, involves the attacker intercepting and possibly altering communications between two parties. Capturing data packets as they travel from a computer to the internet is a classic example of this type of attack. It's not a wireless attack, which targets wireless network vulnerabilities; DNS poisoning, which corrupts DNS data; or a DDoS amplified attack, which involves overwhelming a target with external requests.
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Question 73: When direct patching of a vulnerability is not immediately possible, what is the best interim measure to reduce risk exposure? Purchase additional insurance coverage Implement compensating controls Ignore the vulnerability until a patch is available Apply for an exception
Purchase additional insurance coverage Correct answer Implement compensating controls Ignore the vulnerability until a patch is available Your answer is incorrect Apply for an exception Overall explanation Implementing compensating controls is the best interim measure when direct patching is not possible. These controls provide alternative security measures that help mitigate the risk associated with the vulnerability, such as additional monitoring, restricting access, or applying additional security layers. Purchasing insurance does not mitigate the risk. Applying for an exception is a procedural step that acknowledges the risk but does not reduce it. Ignoring the vulnerability is never an advisable option as it leaves the system exposed to potential exploitation.
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Question 74: When aiming for resilience in security architecture, which factor involves the ability to quickly recover from disruptions and maintain essential functions? Platform diversity Continuity of operations Multi-cloud systems High availability
Platform diversity Correct answer Continuity of operations Multi-cloud systems Your answer is incorrect High availability Overall explanation Continuity of operations focuses on the ability to maintain essential functions during and after a disruption. While high availability ensures systems are accessible with minimal downtime, continuity of operations ensures critical functions can continue even when systems are disrupted. Platform diversity and multi-cloud systems provide redundancy but may not directly address the continuity of operations aspect.
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Question 75: Which attribute best describes a threat actor who operates within an organization, possibly using their legitimate access to carry out malicious activities? Level of sophistication/capability External Internal Resources/funding
Level of sophistication/capability External Correct answer Internal Your answer is incorrect Resources/funding Overall explanation Internal actors are individuals within an organization who may misuse their legitimate access to systems and data to carry out malicious activities. This contrasts with external actors, who are not part of the organization and must breach its defenses to cause harm. While resources/funding and level of sophistication/capability are important attributes of threat actors, they do not specify the actor's position in relation to the target organization.
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Question 76: However, there is no increase in network traffic. What kind of attack is likely being experienced? Amplified DDoS attack Reflected DDoS attack DNS poisoning Credential replay attack
Amplified DDoS attack Correct answer Reflected DDoS attack DNS poisoning Your answer is incorrect Credential replay attack Overall explanation A reflected DDoS attack involves overwhelming a target with a flood of network traffic originating from multiple compromised systems, reflecting the requests off other network services. The high traffic causing service unavailability, without a corresponding increase in network traffic, suggests a reflection mechanism rather than direct flooding. This differs from an amplified DDoS, where large amounts of traffic are sent directly to the victim, DNS poisoning, which redirects users to malicious sites, and credential replay attacks, which involve unauthorized login attempts.
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Question 77: In the context of web security, which method is MOST effective in preventing SQL injection attacks? Conducting regular security audits of the website. Encrypting all data stored in the database. Using CAPTCHA on all input forms. Employing prepared statements and parameterized queries.
Conducting regular security audits of the website. Encrypting all data stored in the database. Using CAPTCHA on all input forms. Your answer is correct Employing prepared statements and parameterized queries. Overall explanation SQL injection attacks manipulate backend databases by injecting malicious SQL code through application inputs. Using prepared statements and parameterized queries is the most effective defense, as they separate SQL logic from data, making it impossible for an attacker to alter the structure of an SQL query by injecting malicious code. Encrypting data, using CAPTCHA, and conducting audits are beneficial security measures but do not specifically address the vulnerability exploited by SQL injection attacks.
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Question 78: During a penetration test, you identify a software tool installed on the target system that allows for the remote control and management of the system without detection. What type of tool have you discovered? Bloatware Rootkit Spyware Logic bomb
Bloatware Correct answer Rootkit Spyware Your answer is incorrect Logic bomb Overall explanation Rootkits are tools that provide continued privileged access to a computer while concealing their presence. Unlike spyware, which collects information, or logic bombs and bloatware, which have different purposes and characteristics, rootkits are specifically designed to hide the existence of certain processes or programs from normal methods of detection and give attackers remote control capabilities.
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Question 79: A cyber forensics team finds that an attacker has created numerous fake accounts to overwhelm the system's authentication process. What type of attack is this? Spraying Injection Account lockout Brute force
Spraying Injection Correct answer Account lockout Your answer is incorrect Brute force Overall explanation This scenario describes an account lockout attack, which is aimed at overwhelming a system's authentication process by creating a large number of fake login attempts, leading to legitimate user accounts being locked out. Unlike brute force, spraying, or injection attacks, an account lockout specifically targets system access protocols and user account security.
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Question 80: After deploying a patch to resolve a known vulnerability, what is the most effective way to ensure the vulnerability has been properly addressed? Apply for an insurance claim Conduct a rescan of the affected systems Implement compensating controls around the patched system Segment the network to isolate the patched system
Apply for an insurance claim Correct answer Conduct a rescan of the affected systems Implement compensating controls around the patched system Your answer is incorrect Segment the network to isolate the patched system Overall explanation Conducting a rescan of the affected systems is the most direct and effective method to validate that the vulnerability has been properly addressed by the patch. Rescanning provides tangible evidence that the vulnerability no longer exists in the scanned environment. Applying for an insurance claim is irrelevant to the validation of remediation. While network segmentation and implementing compensating controls can enhance overall security posture, they do not directly validate that a specific vulnerability has been remediated.
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Question 81: In terms of infrastructure security, what is a major advantage of microservices over monolithic architectures? Less complex networking Centralized security management Higher computational overhead Easier to update and patch
Less complex networking Centralized security management Higher computational overhead Your answer is correct Easier to update and patch Overall explanation Microservices architectures offer an advantage in terms of infrastructure security because they are easier to update and patch compared to monolithic architectures. This modularity allows for targeted updates and quicker responses to vulnerabilities within specific services, without needing to redeploy the entire application, enhancing the overall security posture.
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Question 82: An organization's CFO receives an email from the CEO, who is currently traveling, asking for an urgent wire transfer to a new vendor. The email address looks correct at first glance, but closer inspection reveals a minor alteration. This is an example of what type of attack? Business email compromise Impersonation Typosquatting Pretexting
Correct answer Business email compromise Impersonation Typosquatting Your answer is incorrect Pretexting Overall explanation This scenario describes a business email compromise (BEC) attack, where an attacker impersonates a high-level executive to deceive the organization into making a financial transaction. The minor alteration in the email address is a common tactic used in BEC to trick the recipient into believing the request is legitimate. Unlike pretexting, which involves creating a fake scenario, typosquatting, which involves registering misspelled domain names, or impersonation, which doesn't necessarily involve financial requests, BEC specifically targets financial transactions based on authority misuse.
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Question 83: A software development company is looking to deploy their new application. Which of the following deployment models would provide the best combination of scalability and isolation? Containerized microservices Virtualized environment On-premises deployment Centralized cloud services
Correct answer Containerized microservices Virtualized environment On-premises deployment Your answer is incorrect Centralized cloud services Overall explanation Containerized microservices provide the best combination of scalability and isolation for deploying a new application, as they allow individual components of the application to be deployed independently in lightweight containers, which can be easily scaled and maintained without affecting other services.
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Question 84: In the context of resilience planning, which factor involves the capability to handle fluctuations in demand and ensure resources are available when needed? Site considerations High availability Continuity of operations Capacity planning
Site considerations High availability Continuity of operations Your answer is correct Capacity planning Overall explanation Capacity planning involves forecasting and allocating resources to meet fluctuating demand, ensuring that systems can scale appropriately and maintain performance during peak usage. While high availability focuses on minimizing downtime, capacity planning addresses the proactive allocation of resources to meet demand fluctuations, thereby enhancing resilience. Site considerations involve factors such as infrastructure readiness and geographic dispersion, while continuity of operations focuses on maintaining essential functions during disruptions.
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Question 85: A company plans to enhance its network security by implementing a new architecture model. Which of the following provides the highest level of security through physical separation? Virtualized servers Air-gapped networks Software-defined networking Centralized architecture
Virtualized servers Correct answer Air-gapped networks Software-defined networking Your answer is incorrect Centralized architecture Overall explanation Air-gapped networks provide the highest level of security through physical separation, as they are completely isolated from other networks, including the internet. This isolation protects them from external cyberattacks, making them more secure compared to centralized architectures, virtualized servers, and software-defined networking, which are all connected in some way to external networks or systems.
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Question 86: A company's security system has detected that an employee's account was used to log in from two geographically distant locations within a time frame that makes it impossible for them to have traveled between these locations. What does this indicate? A sign of a dedicated employee An efficient use of company resources A potential phishing attack Impossible travel activity
A sign of a dedicated employee An efficient use of company resources A potential phishing attack Your answer is correct Impossible travel activity Overall explanation Impossible travel activity refers to an account being used in different geographical locations within a timeframe that is too short for normal travel, suggesting that the same credentials are being used by different individuals or that an attacker has compromised the account and is accessing it from a different location. It's a clear sign of malicious activity, possibly indicating account compromise, rather than a phishing attack, efficient resource use, or a sign of dedication from the employee.
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Question 87: A company plans to protect its web applications from SQL injections, XSS, and other threats. Which type of firewall should they implement? WAF UTM Layer 4 Firewall NGFW
Correct answer WAF UTM Layer 4 Firewall Your answer is incorrect NGFW Overall explanation Web Application Firewalls are specifically designed to protect web applications from internet-based threats like SQL injections and XSS by inspecting HTTP traffic. Unlike UTM or NGFW, which provide a broader range of security functions, WAF is specialized for web applications. Layer 4 firewalls, on the other hand, work on the transport layer and do not have the capability to inspect the web application layer traffic to the extent required for protecting against such specific attacks.
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Question 88: An executive receives a text message urging immediate action: a link is provided to update their password due to a purported security breach. The message instills urgency but lacks specific details about the executive or their role. What type of social engineering attack is this? Business email compromise Smishing Vishing Watering hole
Business email compromise Correct answer Smishing Vishing Your answer is incorrect Watering hole Overall explanation This scenario typifies smishing, where attackers use SMS (text messages) to deceive individuals into clicking malicious links or providing personal information, often by creating a sense of urgency. Unlike vishing, which uses voice calls, business email compromise, which involves hacking or impersonating corporate emails, or watering hole attacks, which target specific user groups by compromising websites they are likely to visit, smishing specifically utilizes SMS as the medium of deception.
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Question 89: In resilience planning, which site consideration involves having operational servers, but with limited resources and minimal redundancy? Warm Geographic dispersion Cold Hot
Correct answer Warm Geographic dispersion Cold Your answer is incorrect Hot Overall explanation A warm site has operational servers with limited resources and minimal redundancy, making it less costly than a hot site but still requiring some setup time in the event of a disaster. Hot sites have fully equipped operational servers ready for immediate use, while cold sites lack operational servers altogether. Geographic dispersion refers to spreading resources across different locations for redundancy.
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Question 90: A security analyst notices an unusual spike in traffic to a rarely visited section of their corporate website. Upon investigation, they find that the traffic originates from a specific online community forum. What type of attack might this indicate? Vishing Watering hole Business email compromise Impersonation
Vishing Correct answer Watering hole Business email compromise Your answer is incorrect Impersonation Overall explanation This scenario suggests a watering hole attack, where attackers target a specific group by infecting websites known to be visited by the group members. In this case, the attackers likely compromised the corporate website section frequented by the community forum's members. Unlike vishing, which involves phone-based deception, business email compromise, which deals with fraudulent emails, or impersonation, which involves pretending to be someone else, a watering hole attack specifically targets users through websites they trust.
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Question 1: An organization wants to encrypt sensitive files stored on its internal network to protect them from unauthorized access. Which encryption type is most efficient for encrypting large volumes of data at rest? Key exchange Algorithms Symmetric Asymmetric
Key exchange Algorithms Correct answer Symmetric Your answer is incorrect Asymmetric Overall explanation Symmetric encryption is the most efficient type for encrypting large volumes of data at rest. It uses the same key for both encryption and decryption, which makes the process faster and less resource-intensive compared to asymmetric encryption. This efficiency is particularly important for encrypting large files or datasets, where performance and speed are critical. Symmetric encryption ensures a high level of security while maintaining performance, making it ideal for protecting data stored within an organization's network.
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Question 2: A technology firm is exploring options to enhance their data center's resilience to failures. Which of the following would best ensure high availability of their services? Decentralized architecture SDN-enabled infrastructure Embedded systems Real-time operating system
Correct answer Decentralized architecture SDN-enabled infrastructure Embedded systems Your answer is incorrect Real-time operating system Overall explanation A decentralized architecture best ensures high availability of services as it distributes resources and services across multiple locations, reducing the impact of a single point of failure, unlike embedded systems or real-time operating systems, which may not directly contribute to the high availability of services across a network.
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Question 3: To enhance security, a company installs biometric access systems at the entrance of its secure facilities. Which category of control does this measure fall under? Technical Operational Managerial Physical
Technical Operational Managerial Your answer is correct Physical Overall explanation Installing biometric access systems at the entrance of secure facilities is classified as a physical control. Physical controls are concerned with the physical security measures that prevent unauthorized access to facilities, equipment, and resources. Biometric systems, such as fingerprint or iris scanners, provide a tangible layer of security by ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter certain areas. Unlike technical controls, which involve the use of technology to secure data and systems, or managerial controls, which are about policies and strategies, physical controls specifically address the physical aspect of security.
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Question 4: When configuring a network to restrict access to only authorized devices, which NAC implementation approach is most effective for ensuring devices comply with security policies before accessing network resources? Pre-admission endpoint security scanning MAC address filtering Post-admission network behavior analysis Port-based authentication
Correct answer Pre-admission endpoint security scanning MAC address filtering Post-admission network behavior analysis Your answer is incorrect Port-based authentication Overall explanation Pre-admission endpoint security scanning is most effective because it ensures devices comply with the organization's security policies before they are allowed to access network resources. This method evaluates the security posture of a device, including software updates, system configurations, and the presence of security software, ensuring that only compliant devices can connect. MAC address filtering and port-based authentication do not evaluate the security posture of devices, and post-admission network behavior analysis only monitors devices after they have accessed the network, which could be too late to prevent access by non-compliant devices.
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Question 5: A manufacturing company is deciding which technology to implement for managing its industrial control systems securely. Which of the following options offers the best security for their SCADA systems? Containerization IoT devices Real-time operating system Air-gapped networks
Containerization IoT devices Real-time operating system Your answer is correct Air-gapped networks Overall explanation Air-gapped networks offer the best security for SCADA systems as they provide physical isolation from the internet and other networks, significantly reducing the likelihood of cyber attacks. Unlike IoT devices, real-time operating systems, or containerization, air-gapped networks ensure that SCADA systems are not accessible via external networks, thereby protecting them from remote hacking attempts.
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Question 6: In designing a resilient security architecture, which approach helps ensure high availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers? Multi-cloud systems Platform diversity Load balancing Clustering
Multi-cloud systems Platform diversity Correct answer Load balancing Your answer is incorrect Clustering Overall explanation Load balancing distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers to ensure no single server is overwhelmed, thereby enhancing availability. Clustering, while it provides redundancy, doesn't distribute traffic as efficiently as load balancing does, making it a less optimal choice in this scenario. Platform diversity and multi-cloud systems may contribute to resilience but do not directly address traffic distribution.
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Question 7: A company wants to ensure the authenticity and integrity of emails sent from its domain. Which combination of email security mechanisms should be implemented? DMARC and DKIM SPF, DKIM, and DMARC SPF and DKIM DMARC and TLS
DMARC and DKIM Correct answer SPF, DKIM, and DMARC SPF and DKIM Your answer is incorrect DMARC and TLS Overall explanation Implementing SPF, DKIM, and DMARC together provides a robust solution for ensuring the authenticity and integrity of emails. SPF allows the receiver to check that incoming mail from a domain comes from a host authorized by that domain's administrators. DKIM provides an encryption key and digital signature that verifies that an email message was not tampered with in transit. DMARC ties SPF and DKIM together with a set of policies, providing instructions to the receiving mail server on how to deal with emails that fail the SPF and DKIM checks, thereby improving the security of email communications.
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Question 8: Your company plans to migrate its on-premises data center to a cloud service. As a security professional, you must advise on the security implications. Which of the following models would likely require your company to retain the most control over security? Hybrid cloud IaaS SaaS PaaS
Hybrid cloud Correct answer IaaS SaaS Your answer is incorrect PaaS Overall explanation In an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the cloud provider offers basic infrastructure services such as physical or virtual servers and storage. The customer is responsible for managing aspects including the operating systems, applications, and data. This model requires the company to retain the most control over security compared to PaaS or SaaS, where the provider assumes more responsibility for managing the infrastructure.
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Question 9: In an IaC environment, what is the primary security concern that should be addressed? Cost of infrastructure Misconfiguration of resources Physical server security Speed of deployment
Cost of infrastructure Correct answer Misconfiguration of resources Physical server security Your answer is incorrect Speed of deployment Overall explanation In an Infrastructure as Code (IaC) environment, the primary security concern is the potential for misconfiguration of resources. Since infrastructure is provisioned and managed through code, errors in the code can lead to widespread security vulnerabilities. Ensuring that IaC configurations are reviewed and audited regularly helps prevent misconfigurations and enhances security.
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Question 10: A company is looking for a comprehensive solution to manage threats such as malware, phishing, and APTs across all network traffic. Which solution should they consider? Layer 4 Firewall VPN SASE UTM
Layer 4 Firewall VPN SASE Your answer is correct UTM Overall explanation Unified Threat Management (UTM) is the most comprehensive solution for managing a variety of threats including malware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) across all network traffic. UTM devices combine several security features, such as antivirus, anti-spam, firewall, and intrusion prevention systems, into a single appliance, offering a holistic approach to threat management. While SASE includes various security services, it is more focused on integrating network and security functions rather than solely on threat management.
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Question 11: For an organization looking to decommission a database server, which method ensures that sensitive data is unrecoverable without destroying the hardware? Implementing secure erasure software Reformatting the hard drive Using a strong magnetic field Manual deletion of files
Correct answer Implementing secure erasure software Reformatting the hard drive Using a strong magnetic field Your answer is incorrect Manual deletion of files Overall explanation Implementing secure erasure software ensures that sensitive data is thoroughly overwritten and unrecoverable, allowing the hardware to be reused or disposed of securely. Reformatting the hard drive may not remove all data fragments, making some data potentially recoverable. Using a strong magnetic field (degaussing) is effective but can damage the hard drive, making it unusable, which does not meet the requirement of not destroying the hardware. Manual deletion of files is ineffective as it typically leaves data recoverable through various forensic techniques.
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Question 12: A company's proprietary software code is secretly copied and sold to a competing firm. This scenario is most indicative of: Organized crime Nation-state Shadow IT Insider threat
Organized crime Nation-state Shadow IT Your answer is correct Insider threat Overall explanation The unauthorized copying and selling of proprietary software code to a competitor is a clear example of an insider threat. This action likely involves someone within the company who has access to sensitive information and chooses to exploit it for personal gain or to benefit another entity. Unlike organized crime or nation-states, which might target a company for financial or strategic reasons but from an external position, or shadow IT, which involves unauthorized technology use within an organization, this scenario specifically points to the risks posed by those within the organization.
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Question 13: A company is evaluating protocols for secure remote access. Which protocol provides strong encryption and is widely regarded as the most secure option for establishing a VPN? PPTP IPSec L2TP SSH
PPTP Correct answer IPSec L2TP Your answer is incorrect SSH Overall explanation IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is widely regarded as the most secure option for establishing a VPN, providing robust encryption for securing internet protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. While SSH (Secure Shell) also provides strong encryption, it is typically used for secure command execution and file transfers rather than VPN connections. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) and L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) are older and less secure compared to IPSec, making IPSec the preferred choice for secure remote access.
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Question 14: An organization wants to ensure that only authorized devices can access its network and that they comply with the company's security policies. Which technology will best fulfill this requirement? SSL VPN TLS SD-WAN NAC
SSL VPN TLS SD-WAN Your answer is correct NAC Overall explanation Network Access Control (NAC) is the best technology to ensure that only authorized devices can access the network and that they comply with the company's security policies. NAC systems can enforce policies for all devices attempting to access network resources, ensuring that they meet the organization's security requirements before access is granted. While SSL VPN, TLS, and SD-WAN provide secure connectivity, they do not offer the same level of device access control and policy compliance verification as NAC.
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Question 15: An organization embeds a decoy document within its file system that, when accessed, alerts the security team to potential unauthorized data access or insider threats. What is this an example of? Honeytoken Honeypot Honeyfile Honeynet
Honeytoken Honeypot Correct answer Honeyfile Your answer is incorrect Honeynet Overall explanation A honeyfile is a decoy document or file intentionally placed within a system's file structure to alert security teams to unauthorized access or insider threats. When someone accesses the honeyfile, it triggers an alert, indicating a potential security breach or malicious activity within the organization. Unlike a honeypot, which simulates a vulnerable system or server; a honeynet, which is a network of honeypots; or honeytokens, which are specific data elements or tokens designed to act as decoys within legitimate files or databases, a honeyfile specifically serves as a trap to detect unauthorized file access.
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Question 16: A global company is seeking to improve its network infrastructure to support remote employees securely. What is the best approach to ensure secure and efficient access for these employees? Physical isolation Logical segmentation Centralized architecture Virtualization
Physical isolation Correct answer Logical segmentation Centralized architecture Your answer is incorrect Virtualization Overall explanation Logical segmentation is the best approach to ensure secure and efficient access for remote employees, as it allows the company to create secure, isolated sections of the network that can be accessed remotely without compromising the security of the entire network, unlike virtualization or centralized architecture which may not provide the same level of segmented access control.
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Question 17: To ensure continuity of operations in the event of a disaster, which approach involves distributing resources across different geographical locations? Capacity planning High availability Platform diversity Geographic dispersion
Capacity planning High availability Platform diversity Your answer is correct Geographic dispersion Overall explanation Geographic dispersion involves spreading resources across different geographical locations to minimize the impact of a localized disaster. While high availability and capacity planning are important components of resilience, geographic dispersion specifically addresses the geographical spread of resources. Platform diversity refers to using different types of platforms or technologies for redundancy, not necessarily across different locations.
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Question 18: When conducting a vulnerability scan, why is it important to have updated threat feeds integrated into the scanning tool? To focus the scan on internal threats To ensure compliance with legal requirements To reduce the time required for the scan To increase the accuracy of vulnerability detection
To focus the scan on internal threats To ensure compliance with legal requirements To reduce the time required for the scan Your answer is correct To increase the accuracy of vulnerability detection Overall explanation Integrating updated threat feeds into a vulnerability scanning tool is crucial for increasing the accuracy of vulnerability detection. Threat feeds provide real-time information about the latest vulnerabilities, exploits, and threat vectors, enabling the scanning tool to identify new and emerging threats more effectively. This integration ensures that the organization is aware of and can respond to the most current security threats, rather than solely focusing on known issues or internal threats.
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Question 19: A team of researchers needs to share large datasets securely among themselves while working from different locations. They require a method that allows them to encrypt files before sharing and ensures only the intended recipient can decrypt them. What encryption method is best suited for this purpose? Symmetric Asymmetric Transport/communication Key exchange
Symmetric Correct answer Asymmetric Your answer is incorrect Transport/communication Key exchange Overall explanation Asymmetric encryption is best suited for securely sharing large datasets among researchers in different locations. This method uses two keys: a public key for encrypting data and a private key for decrypting it. Each researcher can share their public key with others to encrypt data intended for them, while only the holder of the corresponding private key can decrypt the data. This ensures that only the intended recipient can access the shared files. Symmetric encryption, while efficient, would pose challenges in securely sharing the encryption key among multiple parties. Key exchange mechanisms facilitate secure key sharing but are not encryption methods themselves. Transport/communication encryption secures data in transit but is not specifically designed for file sharing scenarios.
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Question 20: Which factor is NOT typically considered in capacity planning for ensuring resilience in security architecture? Infrastructure Technology People Compliance
Infrastructure Technology People Your answer is correct Compliance Overall explanation Capacity planning typically considers factors related to people, technology, and infrastructure to ensure resources are appropriately allocated for resilience. Compliance, while important for regulatory adherence, is not directly related to capacity planning for resilience. People, technology, and infrastructure directly impact an organization's ability to handle fluctuations in demand and maintain operations during disruptions.
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Question 21: A company is reviewing their cloud service provider's responsibility matrix before migrating their applications. Which of the following is typically the customer’s responsibility in both IaaS and SaaS models? Network controls Hardware maintenance Application layer security Physical security
Network controls Hardware maintenance Correct answer Application layer security Your answer is incorrect Physical security Overall explanation In both Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) and Software as a Service (SaaS) models, the customer is usually responsible for application layer security. This includes ensuring that applications are developed securely and are free from vulnerabilities. Physical security, network controls, and hardware maintenance are typically the responsibility of the cloud service provider, especially in a SaaS model.
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Question 22: When conducting a site survey for a new wireless installation, what factor is most important to ensure optimal performance and security? The presence of microwave ovens and cordless phones that can cause interference. The color scheme of the environment to match the wireless access points. The aesthetic placement of access points to blend with the environment. The type of wallpaper used, as some materials can block wireless signals.
Correct answer The presence of microwave ovens and cordless phones that can cause interference. The color scheme of the environment to match the wireless access points. The aesthetic placement of access points to blend with the environment. Your answer is incorrect The type of wallpaper used, as some materials can block wireless signals. Overall explanation The presence of microwave ovens and cordless phones is crucial to consider as these devices can cause interference with wireless signals, affecting both performance and security by potentially creating dead zones or unreliable connections. While the aesthetic placement of access points and the environment's color scheme might be considered for other reasons, they do not directly impact the wireless network's performance and security. The material of the wallpaper can affect signal strength but is less critical than avoiding interference sources.
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Question 23: A company implements a new policy requiring employees to report lost or stolen devices within 24 hours. Which aspect of security awareness does this policy primarily address? Reporting and monitoring Phishing campaigns User guidance and training Anomalous behavior recognition
Correct answer Reporting and monitoring Phishing campaigns User guidance and training Your answer is incorrect Anomalous behavior recognition Overall explanation This policy focuses on the reporting and monitoring aspect of security awareness, ensuring that any lost or stolen devices are quickly reported to mitigate potential security breaches. By setting a specific timeframe for reporting, the company can take swift action to protect data and possibly recover the device. While user guidance and training is involved in educating employees about the policy, the primary purpose is to establish a clear reporting procedure for incidents, distinguishing it from the other options, which deal with recognizing security threats and behaviors.
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Question 24: An activist group defaces the website of a major corporation to protest environmental policies. This type of cyber attack is most commonly associated with: Insider threat Hacktivist Unskilled attacker Organized crime
Insider threat Correct answer Hacktivist Unskilled attacker Your answer is incorrect Organized crime Overall explanation Website defacement to protest against a corporation's policies is characteristic of hacktivist activities. Hacktivists use cyber attacks to promote political agendas or social change, often targeting entities that they view as opposing their causes. This type of attack is less about financial gain, which is the main motivator for organized crime, or the personal grievances that might drive an insider threat. Unskilled attackers typically lack the motivation or capability to carry out such ideologically driven attacks, making hacktivists the most likely perpetrators.
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Question 25: A company conducts regular security awareness training for its employees to inform them about potential security threats and the importance of following company security policies. This initiative is an example of which type of control? Directive Preventive Deterrent Compensating
Correct answer Directive Preventive Deterrent Your answer is incorrect Compensating Overall explanation Security awareness training is a directive control. Directive controls aim to guide individuals' actions toward compliance with the organization's policies and procedures through instructions or guidelines. By educating employees about security threats and the necessity of adhering to company policies, the organization directs behavior to reduce the risk of security incidents. This form of control is distinct from preventive or deterrent controls, which either stop incidents before they happen or dissuade attackers, and from detective or compensating controls, which identify incidents after they occur or provide alternative measures to deal with security vulnerabilities.
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Question 26: When decommissioning a data center, which of the following is the MOST critical step to ensure data confidentiality is maintained? Certifying the destruction of all storage media containing sensitive data. Upgrading the storage media for use in future projects. Quickly relocating the data center's resources to a new location. Conducting a thorough audit of the decommissioning process.
Correct answer Certifying the destruction of all storage media containing sensitive data. Upgrading the storage media for use in future projects. Quickly relocating the data center's resources to a new location. Your answer is incorrect Conducting a thorough audit of the decommissioning process. Overall explanation Certifying the destruction of all storage media containing sensitive data ensures that no unauthorized individuals can recover or access the sensitive information, maintaining data confidentiality. While audits, resource relocation, and media upgrades are important aspects of data center management and security, they do not directly ensure that sensitive data cannot be recovered after decommissioning.
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Question 27: Your company plans to migrate its on-premises data center to a cloud service. As a security professional, you must advise on the security implications. Which of the following models would likely require your company to retain the most control over security? SaaS IaaS PaaS Hybrid cloud
SaaS Correct answer IaaS PaaS Your answer is incorrect Hybrid cloud Overall explanation In an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the cloud provider offers basic infrastructure services such as physical or virtual servers and storage. The customer is responsible for managing aspects including the operating systems, applications, and data. This model requires the company to retain the most control over security compared to PaaS or SaaS, where the provider assumes more responsibility for managing the infrastructure.
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Question 28: An organization wants to improve the security of passwords by ensuring that even if two users have the same password, the stored values in the database are unique. What technique should they implement? Key stretching Digital signatures Salting Hashing
Key stretching Digital signatures Correct answer Salting Your answer is incorrect Hashing Overall explanation Salting enhances password security by appending a unique value to each password before it is hashed, ensuring that the resulting hash values are unique even if users have identical passwords. This technique prevents attackers from using precomputed tables (rainbow tables) to reverse engineer the hash back to the password. Unlike digital signatures, which are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, or key stretching, which makes brute force attacks more difficult by increasing the time required to hash passwords, salting directly addresses the issue of making stored passwords unique, significantly improving security against certain types of attacks.
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Question 29: Why is a bug bounty program considered an effective component of a responsible disclosure program? It prioritizes vulnerabilities based on their exploitation in the wild. It legally obligates researchers to report vulnerabilities. It guarantees the anonymity of the reporter. It provides a structured platform for vulnerability reporting and rewards.
It prioritizes vulnerabilities based on their exploitation in the wild. It legally obligates researchers to report vulnerabilities. It guarantees the anonymity of the reporter. Your answer is correct It provides a structured platform for vulnerability reporting and rewards. Overall explanation A bug bounty program is considered effective because it provides a structured and incentivized platform for ethical hackers and researchers to report vulnerabilities. By offering rewards for reporting vulnerabilities, it encourages the security community to actively search for and disclose vulnerabilities in a responsible manner, contributing to the overall security posture of the organization. This structure ensures that vulnerabilities are reported through a formal process, allowing for proper tracking, remediation, and recognition of the reporter's efforts.
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Question 30: Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the use of guard rails in cloud infrastructure automation? Requiring manual approval for every change in the cloud environment Enforcing specific security configurations for all new cloud instances Automatically allowing all outbound traffic to any destination Disabling logging and monitoring to streamline operations
Requiring manual approval for every change in the cloud environment Correct answer Enforcing specific security configurations for all new cloud instances Automatically allowing all outbound traffic to any destination Your answer is incorrect Disabling logging and monitoring to streamline operations Overall explanation Enforcing specific security configurations for all new cloud instances through automation exemplifies the concept of guard rails. This approach ensures that every new instance adheres to organizational security policies by default, promoting a secure baseline configuration across the infrastructure. Allowing all outbound traffic, requiring manual approvals for every change, and disabling logging do not provide the proactive, automated security posture that guard rails are designed to establish.
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Question 31: To access their online banking services, a bank's customers must enter a password and authenticate through a one-time code sent to their mobile phones. This practice exemplifies which security strategy? Dual verification process Biometric security Two-factor authentication Enhanced password policy
Dual verification process Biometric security Two-factor authentication Your answer is correct Enhanced password policy Overall explanation This security strategy, requiring both a password and a one-time code sent to a mobile phone, exemplifies two-factor authentication. It incorporates two distinct forms of verification: something the user knows (the password) and something the user possesses (the mobile phone to receive the code). This dual-layer security significantly strengthens defenses against unauthorized access, as it complicates potential breaches by requiring attackers to compromise more than just a single piece of user information.
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Question 32: In the context of data disposal and decommissioning, why is data sanitization considered more secure than simply deleting files? It involves physically destroying the storage media. It ensures data is backed up before deletion. It removes the data in a way that makes recovery impossible. It encrypts data so that it cannot be accessed without a key.
It involves physically destroying the storage media. It ensures data is backed up before deletion. Correct answer It removes the data in a way that makes recovery impossible. Your answer is incorrect It encrypts data so that it cannot be accessed without a key. Overall explanation Data sanitization is considered more secure than merely deleting files because it removes the data in such a manner that it cannot be recovered, even with advanced data recovery tools. This method is essential for protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access after the disposal of storage media. While physical destruction and encryption are methods of securing data, sanitization specifically refers to the process of making data irrecoverable, offering a distinct advantage over simple deletion or backup strategies.
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Question 33: Your organization is considering a hybrid cloud environment. What is the primary security consideration for data management in this scenario? Cost reduction Simplification of user access Increased storage capacity Compliance with data sovereignty laws
Cost reduction Simplification of user access Increased storage capacity Your answer is correct Compliance with data sovereignty laws Overall explanation When adopting a hybrid cloud environment, a primary security consideration is compliance with data sovereignty laws, which dictate how and where data should be stored and transferred. While hybrid clouds offer flexibility and scalability, ensuring data is handled according to jurisdictional regulations is critical to avoid legal and security issues.
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Question 34: An organization implements access control policies to restrict user access to information and systems based on their role and necessity. Which category of control does this action fall under? Operational Technical Physical Managerial
Operational Technical Physical Your answer is correct Managerial Overall explanation Implementing access control policies is a managerial control. Managerial controls involve the establishment of policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines that direct the organization's overall approach to security. Access control policies are part of the strategic framework that defines how access to information and systems is managed and controlled, specifying who can access what information and under what circumstances. Unlike technical controls, which would be the actual systems and technologies enforcing these policies, or operational controls, which are the day-to-day actions taken to adhere to these policies, managerial controls are about the overarching strategy and policy setting.
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Question 35: In terms of infrastructure security, what is a major advantage of microservices over monolithic architectures? Less complex networking Easier to update and patch Centralized security management Higher computational overhead
Less complex networking Correct answer Easier to update and patch Centralized security management Your answer is incorrect Higher computational overhead Overall explanation Microservices architectures offer an advantage in terms of infrastructure security because they are easier to update and patch compared to monolithic architectures. This modularity allows for targeted updates and quicker responses to vulnerabilities within specific services, without needing to redeploy the entire application, enhancing the overall security posture.
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Question 36: In the context of enhancing enterprise security through DNS filtering, which type of attack is most effectively mitigated? Phishing attacks SQL injection attacks Buffer overflow attacks DDoS attacks
Correct answer Phishing attacks SQL injection attacks Buffer overflow attacks Your answer is incorrect DDoS attacks Overall explanation DNS filtering is most effective in mitigating phishing attacks. By preventing users from accessing malicious websites known for phishing, DNS filtering plays a crucial role in blocking attempts to steal sensitive information such as login credentials and financial data. DDoS attacks target the availability of services and are not mitigated by DNS filtering. SQL injection and buffer overflow attacks exploit vulnerabilities in web applications and are unrelated to DNS filtering's primary function.
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Question 37: An organization is looking to reduce the risk of privilege escalation due to compromised administrator credentials. Which solution should they implement? The use of a single administrator account for ease of tracking Password vaulting combined with multi-factor authentication Encouraging the use of easy-to-remember passwords Mandatory password changes every 30 days
The use of a single administrator account for ease of tracking Correct answer Password vaulting combined with multi-factor authentication Encouraging the use of easy-to-remember passwords Your answer is incorrect Mandatory password changes every 30 days Overall explanation Combining password vaulting with multi-factor authentication (MFA) provides a robust security solution by securely storing privileged credentials and requiring multiple forms of verification before access is granted. This significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access through compromised credentials, as attackers would need to bypass multiple security measures. Mandatory password changes, using a single administrator account, and encouraging easy-to-remember passwords do not address the multifaceted threats associated with privilege escalation and may, in some cases, weaken security by simplifying credential theft or mismanagement.
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Question 38: A company is reviewing their cloud service provider's responsibility matrix before migrating their applications. Which of the following is typically the customer’s responsibility in both IaaS and SaaS models? Physical security Hardware maintenance Application layer security Network controls
Physical security Hardware maintenance Correct answer Application layer security Your answer is incorrect Network controls Overall explanation In both Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) and Software as a Service (SaaS) models, the customer is usually responsible for application layer security. This includes ensuring that applications are developed securely and are free from vulnerabilities. Physical security, network controls, and hardware maintenance are typically the responsibility of the cloud service provider, especially in a SaaS model.
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Question 39: Your organization is considering a hybrid cloud environment. What is the primary security consideration for data management in this scenario? Cost reduction Simplification of user access Increased storage capacity Compliance with data sovereignty laws
Cost reduction Simplification of user access Increased storage capacity Your answer is correct Compliance with data sovereignty laws Overall explanation When adopting a hybrid cloud environment, a primary security consideration is compliance with data sovereignty laws, which dictate how and where data should be stored and transferred. While hybrid clouds offer flexibility and scalability, ensuring data is handled according to jurisdictional regulations is critical to avoid legal and security issues.
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Question 40: A system administrator notices several attempts to request files from directories that are not publicly accessible. Which type of attack does this scenario suggest? Directory traversal Buffer overflow Replay Injection
Correct answer Directory traversal Buffer overflow Replay Your answer is incorrect Injection Overall explanation Directory traversal is an attack method that allows attackers to access restricted directories and execute commands outside of the server's root directory. Unlike injection, buffer overflow, or replay, directory traversal specifically targets the file system layout.
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Question 41: To protect sensitive information, an organization encrypts its data, both in transit and at rest. Under which category of control does encryption fall? Operational Physical Technical Managerial
Operational Physical Correct answer Technical Your answer is incorrect Managerial Overall explanation Encryption of data, both in transit and at rest, is considered a technical control. Technical controls use technology to protect information and to control access to resources. Encryption involves converting data into a coded form that can only be accessed and deciphered by individuals who possess the correct decryption key, thereby protecting the data from unauthorized access. Unlike managerial controls, which involve policy and governance, or operational controls, which are about implementing those policies, technical controls rely on specific technologies to safeguard data.
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Question 42: A company is deploying a new set of applications using containers. Which of the following is the most significant security advantage of using containerization over traditional virtual machines? Containers eliminate the need for backup and disaster recovery plans. Containers provide unlimited storage capacity. Containers offer rapid, consistent deployment and isolation between applications. Containers enhance physical security of the data center.
Containers eliminate the need for backup and disaster recovery plans. Containers provide unlimited storage capacity. Correct answer Containers offer rapid, consistent deployment and isolation between applications. Your answer is incorrect Containers enhance physical security of the data center. Overall explanation The most significant security advantage of using containerization is the rapid, consistent deployment combined with isolation between applications. Containers encapsulate an application and its dependencies into a single, portable unit, which can be isolated from other containers. This isolation helps in limiting the impact of malicious exploits. If one container is compromised, the malicious code is less likely to spread to others or the host system, compared to traditional virtual machines where applications might share more resources.
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Question 43: An IT department plans to perform system updates during a specific time frame when network usage is at its lowest to minimize impact on users. What is this specific time frame called? Ownership Maintenance window Stakeholders Approval process
Ownership Correct answer Maintenance window Stakeholders Your answer is incorrect Approval process Overall explanation A maintenance window is a scheduled time frame during which system updates, upgrades, or maintenance are performed. This is strategically planned during periods of low network usage to minimize impact on business operations and user experience. Opting for a maintenance window over the approval process or discussing ownership and stakeholders is advantageous because it focuses on the practical aspect of implementing changes in a manner that is least disruptive to the organization's operations.
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Question 44: A company is redesigning its network infrastructure to improve scalability and manageability. Which of the following would be the most beneficial to implement? Air-gapped networks Physical isolation Centralized architecture SDN
Air-gapped networks Physical isolation Centralized architecture Your answer is correct SDN Overall explanation Software-defined networking (SDN) would be the most beneficial to implement for improving scalability and manageability, as it allows for centralized control over network resources, making it easier to adjust and manage network behavior dynamically compared to physical isolation, air-gapped networks, or a strictly centralized architecture.
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Question 45: What is the primary advantage of using package monitoring in application security? It enables real-time detection of network intrusions. It simplifies the process of code obfuscation. It automates the generation of compliance reports. It identifies vulnerabilities within third-party dependencies.
It enables real-time detection of network intrusions. It simplifies the process of code obfuscation. It automates the generation of compliance reports. Your answer is correct It identifies vulnerabilities within third-party dependencies. Overall explanation Package monitoring is crucial for identifying vulnerabilities within third-party dependencies and libraries that an application uses. These external components can introduce security risks if they contain vulnerabilities that are not known or addressed. By monitoring these packages, organizations can be alerted to newly discovered vulnerabilities in their dependencies, enabling them to take timely action to mitigate potential security risks.
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Question 46: An organization is analyzing their security posture against recent attack trends. Which IDS/IPS strategy would be most effective in identifying and mitigating a zero-day exploit? Signature-based detection. Trend analysis. Heuristic analysis. Anomaly-based detection.
Signature-based detection. Trend analysis. Heuristic analysis. Your answer is correct Anomaly-based detection. Overall explanation Anomaly-based detection is effective against zero-day exploits because it identifies malicious activity based on deviations from normal network or system behavior, rather than relying on known signatures or trends, which would not yet exist for a zero-day threat. Heuristic analysis can also be effective but is more prone to false positives and typically relies on somewhat known behaviors, making anomaly-based detection the superior choice in this scenario.
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Question 47: A security team is evaluating the benefits of automation in their network security operations. Which automation use case would most effectively improve reaction time to security incidents? Scheduling regular password change reminders Automatically escalating suspicious activities to the security team Scripting the backup process for critical data Automating the generation of monthly compliance reports
Scheduling regular password change reminders Correct answer Automatically escalating suspicious activities to the security team Scripting the backup process for critical data Your answer is incorrect Automating the generation of monthly compliance reports Overall explanation Automatically escalating suspicious activities ensures that potential threats are promptly reviewed by the security team, significantly reducing the window of opportunity for attackers. This proactive approach improves the organization's ability to respond quickly to incidents. While automating compliance reports, backup processes, and password change reminders are beneficial for operational efficiency and security hygiene, they do not directly contribute to quicker reaction times for handling security incidents.
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Question 48: What is the best practice for ensuring data destruction compliance during the decommissioning of data storage devices? Using freeware tools for data wiping Assigning the task to untrained employees to save costs Implementing a certified data destruction process Following manufacturer’s recommendations for device destruction
Using freeware tools for data wiping Assigning the task to untrained employees to save costs Correct answer Implementing a certified data destruction process Your answer is incorrect Following manufacturer’s recommendations for device destruction Overall explanation Implementing a certified data destruction process ensures that data is destroyed in compliance with legal, regulatory, and organizational standards. This process typically involves specific methods and verification steps to ensure that data cannot be recovered. Assigning the task to untrained employees or using freeware tools may not guarantee compliance or effectiveness. While following the manufacturer's recommendations can be helpful, it may not meet the specific compliance requirements of the organization or industry.
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Question 49: In an effort to reduce potential data breaches, a company wants to ensure that all data leaving its network is inspected and that sensitive information is encrypted. Which type of firewall should they implement? Layer 4 Firewall UTM WAF NGFW
Layer 4 Firewall UTM WAF Your answer is correct NGFW Overall explanation Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW) are designed to inspect data leaving the network more deeply than traditional firewalls, including the capability to perform SSL/TLS inspection, application-level inspection, and integrated intrusion prevention. They are better suited for identifying and encrypting sensitive information in comparison to Layer 4 Firewalls, which operate at a lower level and do not provide deep packet inspection. While UTMs offer a range of security features, NGFWs are more focused on advanced inspection capabilities and threat prevention.
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Question 50: For a financial institution implementing a new online banking platform, which security measure is essential for managing privileged access to financial data? Maintaining a shared account for all IT staff for ease of access and management Encouraging the use of personal passwords for work accounts to improve memory retention Allowing developers continuous access to live financial databases for troubleshooting Implementing password vaulting with stringent access controls and auditing
Maintaining a shared account for all IT staff for ease of access and management Encouraging the use of personal passwords for work accounts to improve memory retention Allowing developers continuous access to live financial databases for troubleshooting Your answer is correct Implementing password vaulting with stringent access controls and auditing Overall explanation Implementing password vaulting with stringent access controls and auditing provides a secure framework for managing privileged access to sensitive financial data. This approach ensures that access to critical systems is granted only to authorized personnel and that all access is tracked, providing accountability and reducing the risk of data breaches. Continuous access, using personal passwords for work, and shared accounts significantly increase the risk of unauthorized access and compromise the integrity and confidentiality of financial data.
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Question 51: An organization is considering updates to its legacy systems. Which of the following solutions provides the best balance between modernization and security for its aging infrastructure? On-premises hardware upgrades Decentralized systems Containerization Real-time operating system updates
On-premises hardware upgrades Decentralized systems Correct answer Containerization Your answer is incorrect Real-time operating system updates Overall explanation Containerization provides the best balance between modernization and security for aging infrastructure as it allows legacy applications to be encapsulated in containers, making them portable, more secure, and easier to manage without the need for immediate, extensive hardware upgrades or the complexities of decentralized systems.
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Question 52: While implementing identity and access management, a system administrator needs to ensure secure access to cloud services. Which of the following would be the most effective approach? Implementing SSO with MFA Using shared accounts with strong passwords Password-only authentication for all users Enabling anonymous access for easier user management
Correct answer Implementing SSO with MFA Using shared accounts with strong passwords Password-only authentication for all users Your answer is incorrect Enabling anonymous access for easier user management Overall explanation Implementing SSO with MFA strikes the optimal balance between security and convenience. SSO simplifies the user experience by reducing the number of passwords they need to remember, while MFA adds an additional layer of security by requiring more than one form of verification. Password-only authentication is weak due to the prevalence of password-based attacks. Shared accounts make accountability and auditing difficult. Anonymous access would significantly compromise security by not controlling who accesses the system.
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Question 53: A company's security policy prohibits employees from using personal devices for work-related activities. However, an employee uses their personal smartphone to access work emails via the corporate email server. Which security awareness topic does this behavior most directly relate to? Operational security Social engineering Password management Phishing
Correct answer Operational security Social engineering Password management Your answer is incorrect Phishing Overall explanation Using personal devices to access work-related resources violates operational security policies designed to protect corporate data. This behavior risks exposing sensitive information to potential security threats due to the varying levels of security between corporate and personal devices. While password management and social engineering are important security awareness topics, they do not directly relate to the misuse of personal devices for work purposes. Phishing is a specific type of security threat that, while important, is not the focus of this scenario.
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Question 54: Your company is implementing IaC to manage and provision its cloud infrastructure. What is the primary security concern with this approach? The manual process of code review makes IaC impractical. IaC scripts can contain vulnerabilities or misconfigurations that lead to security weaknesses. IaC eliminates the need for security audits and compliance checks. IaC can significantly increase the cost of cloud resources.
The manual process of code review makes IaC impractical. Correct answer IaC scripts can contain vulnerabilities or misconfigurations that lead to security weaknesses. IaC eliminates the need for security audits and compliance checks. Your answer is incorrect IaC can significantly increase the cost of cloud resources. Overall explanation The primary security concern with Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is that the scripts used to manage and provision cloud infrastructure can contain vulnerabilities or misconfigurations. If these scripts are executed without proper security checks, they can lead to significant security weaknesses, such as exposing sensitive data, granting excessive permissions, or creating unintended public access points. Therefore, it's crucial to incorporate security reviews and testing into the IaC lifecycle to prevent these issues.
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Question 55: After deploying a network configuration change, an organization encounters several unexpected issues that degrade system performance. They decide to revert the changes to the previous configuration. Which part of the change management process does this describe? Stakeholders Backout plan Standard operating procedure Maintenance window
Stakeholders Correct answer Backout plan Standard operating procedure Your answer is incorrect Maintenance window Overall explanation A backout plan is a predefined strategy for reverting changes in the event that the new configuration leads to unforeseen issues or degrades system performance. This part of the change management process is critical for quickly restoring operations to their former state without causing additional disruptions. It is preferred over discussing the roles of stakeholders or standard operating procedures because it directly addresses the immediate need to reverse a problematic change, ensuring business continuity and maintaining security integrity.
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Question 56: In an enterprise environment, which of the following best ensures that data in transit is protected from eavesdropping and interception over untrusted networks? TLS SASE WAF UTM
Correct answer TLS SASE WAF Your answer is incorrect UTM Overall explanation Transport Layer Security (TLS) is the best option to ensure that data in transit is protected from eavesdropping and interception over untrusted networks. TLS encrypts the data transmitted between client and server, ensuring that it remains confidential and intact. While SASE and UTM provide broad security solutions, they do not specifically focus on the encryption of data in transit like TLS does. A WAF is primarily concerned with protecting web applications from attacks and does not deal directly with the encryption of data in transit.
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Question 57: To protect data on USB drives used by employees for transferring work-related documents, a company implements encryption. What level of encryption ensures that the entire contents of the USB drive are protected? File Partition Volume Full-disk
File Partition Volume Your answer is correct Full-disk Overall explanation Full-disk encryption is the level of encryption that ensures the entire contents of USB drives are protected. This type of encryption secures all data on the drive, including files, folders, and system files, making it inaccessible without the correct decryption key. This approach is ideal for removable media like USB drives, as it provides comprehensive protection against unauthorized access, regardless of the device the drive is connected to. Partition, file, and volume encryption offer varying levels of granularity and might not secure the entire drive as effectively as full-disk encryption.
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Question 58: In preparing for external compliance reporting, a retail company should prioritize: Focusing solely on financial audits to minimize costs. Limiting the report to positive outcomes and improvements only. Reporting only to internal stakeholders to avoid external scrutiny. Covering all aspects of compliance, including privacy, security, and financial regulations.
Focusing solely on financial audits to minimize costs. Limiting the report to positive outcomes and improvements only. Reporting only to internal stakeholders to avoid external scrutiny. Your answer is correct Covering all aspects of compliance, including privacy, security, and financial regulations. Overall explanation For external compliance reporting, it's crucial to cover all relevant areas of compliance, including privacy, security, and financial regulations. This comprehensive approach ensures that the company meets the expectations and requirements of external regulators and stakeholders, minimizing the risk of fines, sanctions, or reputational damage. Focusing solely on financial audits ignores other critical aspects of compliance. Limiting reports to positive outcomes could be seen as lacking transparency, while reporting only to internal stakeholders fails to fulfill the requirements of external reporting.
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Question 59: To enhance security, a company requires employees to use a physical token along with a username and password when logging in to the system. This practice exemplifies the use of: Hard authentication tokens Security keys Soft authentication tokens Biometrics
Correct answer Hard authentication tokens Security keys Soft authentication tokens Your answer is incorrect Biometrics Overall explanation Hard authentication tokens, physical devices used to gain access to a network or service, combined with a username and password, provide a form of multifactor authentication, enhancing security by requiring something you have (the token) in addition to something you know (the password).
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Question 60: Your company utilizes IaC to manage its cloud infrastructure. What is the best approach to secure the IaC scripts? Apply manual approval processes for all changes Version control and continuous monitoring Store scripts in a public repository for easier access Rely on automatic encryption by the cloud provider
Apply manual approval processes for all changes Correct answer Version control and continuous monitoring Store scripts in a public repository for easier access Your answer is incorrect Rely on automatic encryption by the cloud provider Overall explanation The best approach to secure Infrastructure as Code (IaC) scripts is to use version control and implement continuous monitoring. Version control helps track changes and maintain the integrity of the code, while continuous monitoring can detect and alert on unauthorized changes or vulnerabilities. This approach ensures that IaC scripts are securely managed and updated, contrasting with less secure methods like public storage or sole reliance on provider encryption.
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Question 61: A company is revising its data retention policy to better align with global privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the most effective strategy to include in this revision? Reducing the frequency of data backup Increasing data storage capacity Limiting employee access to sensitive data Regular audits of data usage and storage
Reducing the frequency of data backup Increasing data storage capacity Limiting employee access to sensitive data Your answer is correct Regular audits of data usage and storage Overall explanation Regular audits of data usage and storage are essential when revising a data retention policy to ensure compliance with global privacy regulations. These audits help identify and rectify any practices that may not align with legal requirements, ensuring that data is only kept as long as necessary and used appropriately. This approach not only supports compliance but also enhances data governance and security by providing ongoing oversight of how data is managed within the company.
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Question 62: In the context of asset management, why is it important to maintain an updated inventory of all hardware devices within an organization? To facilitate faster internet speeds To enhance the aesthetic of the workspace To calculate the total weight of devices for shipping To ensure devices are efficiently utilized
To facilitate faster internet speeds To enhance the aesthetic of the workspace To calculate the total weight of devices for shipping Your answer is correct To ensure devices are efficiently utilized Overall explanation Maintaining an updated inventory of all hardware devices is crucial for ensuring that devices are efficiently utilized and to prevent unauthorized access or theft, which could lead to data breaches. An accurate inventory helps in asset management by tracking the status, location, and configuration of hardware devices, facilitating security audits and compliance checks. Faster internet speeds, the aesthetic of the workspace, and calculating the total weight of devices for shipping, while potentially relevant to operations, do not directly impact security and asset management in the same way.
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Question 63: In the process of data retention policy formulation, what is a critical factor to consider to ensure compliance with legal requirements? The duration for which data is retained The cost of storage media The color coding of files for easy retrieval The geographic location of data storage
Correct answer The duration for which data is retained The cost of storage media The color coding of files for easy retrieval Your answer is incorrect The geographic location of data storage Overall explanation The duration for which data is retained is crucial for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, as laws often specify minimum or maximum retention periods for certain types of data. The cost of storage media, geographic location of data storage, and color coding of files are operational considerations that, while important, do not directly impact legal compliance in the context of data retention.
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Question 64: An IT security team is planning to conduct a phishing awareness campaign. Which method would be most effective for educating employees about recognizing phishing attempts? Distribute printed brochures about the dangers of phishing. Send a test phishing email to employees to gauge their ability to identify phishing attempts. Post warnings about phishing on the company intranet. Hold a one-time seminar on the importance of cybersecurity.
Distribute printed brochures about the dangers of phishing. Correct answer Send a test phishing email to employees to gauge their ability to identify phishing attempts. Post warnings about phishing on the company intranet. Your answer is incorrect Hold a one-time seminar on the importance of cybersecurity. Overall explanation Sending a test phishing email provides a practical, hands-on experience that can effectively educate employees on recognizing phishing attempts. This method directly engages employees, allowing them to apply their knowledge in a real-world scenario and learn from the experience. Printed brochures (A), while informative, may not be as engaging or memorable. A one-time seminar (C) can provide valuable information but lacks the interactive component that reinforces learning. Posting warnings (D) is a passive approach and may not capture employees' attention or lead to significant behavioral changes.
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Question 65: During a review of network logs, an analyst notices several login attempts to the admin panel from an unauthorized country outside of normal business hours. What does this signify? Expected remote work behavior An insider threat Anomalous behavior indicating a potential security threat Routine maintenance activity
Expected remote work behavior An insider threat Correct answer Anomalous behavior indicating a potential security threat Your answer is incorrect Routine maintenance activity Overall explanation Login attempts from an unauthorized country, especially outside of normal business hours, represent anomalous behavior that could indicate a potential security threat, such as an attempted breach. This scenario is inconsistent with expected remote work behavior and routine maintenance activities, which are usually scheduled and known to the IT department. While it could potentially indicate an insider threat, the external origin suggests it is more likely an external actor attempting unauthorized access, making it imperative to investigate further to prevent a potential breach.
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Question 66: In an IaC environment, what is the primary security concern that should be addressed? Cost of infrastructure Physical server security Speed of deployment Misconfiguration of resources
Cost of infrastructure Physical server security Speed of deployment Your answer is correct Misconfiguration of resources Overall explanation In an Infrastructure as Code (IaC) environment, the primary security concern is the potential for misconfiguration of resources. Since infrastructure is provisioned and managed through code, errors in the code can lead to widespread security vulnerabilities. Ensuring that IaC configurations are reviewed and audited regularly helps prevent misconfigurations and enhances security.
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Question 67: A company is considering the use of biometric security measures. Which of the following provides the best balance between security and usability? Installing fingerprint scanners for access control. Implementing voice recognition software. Requiring physical keys for computer access. Using complex passwords for all systems.
Correct answer Installing fingerprint scanners for access control. Implementing voice recognition software. Requiring physical keys for computer access. Your answer is incorrect Using complex passwords for all systems. Overall explanation Installing fingerprint scanners offers a good balance between security and usability. Biometrics such as fingerprints provide a high level of security due to their uniqueness to each individual, and they are generally more user-friendly than remembering complex passwords or carrying physical keys. While voice recognition adds convenience, it may not offer the same level of security due to potential inaccuracies and the ability to be spoofed.
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Question 68: Which of the following best exemplifies the principle of ownership in the context of an organization's data management policy? A specific department is designated as responsible for maintaining the integrity of customer data. Data encryption is used for all communications within the organization. Employees are encouraged to use cloud storage solutions for work-related documents. All users have equal access to the company's internal network.
Correct answer A specific department is designated as responsible for maintaining the integrity of customer data. Data encryption is used for all communications within the organization. Employees are encouraged to use cloud storage solutions for work-related documents. Your answer is incorrect All users have equal access to the company's internal network. Overall explanation Designating a specific department as responsible for the integrity of customer data exemplifies the principle of ownership by clearly assigning the accountability and stewardship of specific data sets. This ensures that there are defined roles and responsibilities for managing and protecting data, which is crucial for maintaining its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. While cloud storage, equal access, and data encryption are important, they do not directly address the concept of ownership and responsibility for data management.
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Question 69: Your organization requires a solution that not only filters out malicious internet traffic but also provides detailed reporting and analysis for compliance purposes. Which type of firewall should be implemented? Layer 4 Firewall WAF NGFW UTM
Layer 4 Firewall WAF Correct answer NGFW Your answer is incorrect UTM Overall explanation A Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) is the best solution for an organization that needs to filter out malicious internet traffic while also providing detailed reporting and analysis for compliance purposes. NGFWs go beyond traditional firewalls by incorporating advanced features such as application awareness, integrated intrusion prevention, and enhanced threat intelligence. They offer more in-depth inspection of traffic and better control over data, which helps in compliance reporting and threat analysis. While UTM devices offer similar features, NGFWs are typically more focused on advanced security and reporting capabilities.
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Question 70: An organization displays warning signs around its facilities, indicating that surveillance cameras are in use. This action serves as an example of which type of control? Corrective Detective Preventive Deterrent
Corrective Detective Preventive Your answer is correct Deterrent Overall explanation Displaying warning signs about surveillance camera usage is a deterrent control. Deterrent controls are designed to discourage potential attackers by increasing the perceived risk of detection or punishment. By advertising the presence of surveillance cameras, the organization aims to deter unauthorized access or malicious activities by making potential perpetrators aware that their actions are likely to be monitored and recorded. This approach relies on the psychological effect of deterrence, contrasting with preventive controls, which physically or technically stop actions, and detective controls, which identify incidents after they have occurred.
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Question 71: To ensure that only authorized personnel can access certain areas within a building, an organization employs a system that requires something the person has. What physical security measure does this describe? Security guard Bollards Access badge Sensors
Security guard Bollards Correct answer Access badge Your answer is incorrect Sensors Overall explanation An access badge system is a physical security measure that controls access to certain areas within a building by requiring something the person has, namely, an access badge. This method authenticates individuals based on possession of the badge, which is programmed with the necessary access permissions. Unlike bollards, which are focused on vehicle access control; security guards, who provide physical security presence; or sensors, which detect and alert to breaches, access badges specifically manage and control individual access to secure areas.
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Question 72: An organization wants to prevent tailgating and piggybacking incidents at the entry points to its buildings. They implement a system that allows one person to enter at a time after authentication. What is this an example of? Sensors Access control vestibule Fencing Bollards
Sensors Correct answer Access control vestibule Fencing Your answer is incorrect Bollards Overall explanation An access control vestibule is designed to manage the flow of people entering or exiting a secure area, allowing one person to enter at a time after proper authentication. This effectively prevents tailgating and piggybacking, where unauthorized individuals might try to follow authorized personnel into restricted areas. Unlike bollards, which are aimed at stopping vehicles, fencing, which creates a physical barrier around a perimeter, or sensors, which detect and alert to various types of physical breaches, access control vestibules specifically control and monitor human access to secure environments.
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Question 73: Which of the following best describes the role of UBA in enhancing enterprise security? Ensuring secure wireless communication between devices Filtering and blocking malicious web content Identifying potential insider threats based on anomalies in user activity Encrypting data both at rest and in transit
Ensuring secure wireless communication between devices Filtering and blocking malicious web content Correct answer Identifying potential insider threats based on anomalies in user activity Your answer is incorrect Encrypting data both at rest and in transit Overall explanation User Behavior Analytics (UBA) enhances enterprise security by monitoring user activities and applying analytics to identify behavior that deviates from established patterns, potentially indicating malicious intent or compromised accounts. This capability makes UBA particularly effective in identifying insider threats, where legitimate credentials might be used for unauthorized purposes. Unlike web content filtering, data encryption, or securing wireless communication, UBA focuses on the human element, providing insights into user actions that could threaten security.
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Question 74: A website owner wants to ensure that all data transmitted between the web server and clients' browsers is secure and cannot be intercepted by third parties. Which solution should they implement to secure the communications? Hashing Key stretching Certificates Salting
Hashing Key stretching Correct answer Certificates Your answer is incorrect Salting Overall explanation Certificates, specifically SSL/TLS certificates, should be implemented to secure communications between the web server and clients' browsers. These certificates encrypt the data in transit, ensuring that any information transmitted is only decipherable by the intended recipient. This method prevents third parties from intercepting and reading the data, thereby protecting the integrity and confidentiality of the communication. Unlike hashing, salting, or key stretching, which are primarily used for securing stored data or passwords, certificates are designed to secure data in transit, making them the appropriate choice for this scenario.
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Question 75: A technology firm discovers several of its devices are being used without its knowledge to mine cryptocurrency. This activity is likely an example of: Shadow IT Insider threat Hacktivist Organized crime
Shadow IT Correct answer Insider threat Hacktivist Your answer is incorrect Organized crime Overall explanation The unauthorized use of company devices to mine cryptocurrency often indicates an insider threat, where an employee or someone with internal access exploits company resources for personal gain. This scenario does not fit the typical motivations of hacktivists, who are driven by political or social causes, nor does it align with the characteristics of shadow IT, which involves using unauthorized software or services rather than exploiting existing resources for malicious purposes. Organized crime typically targets financial gain through more direct means, such as data breaches or fraud, making an insider threat the most likely source in this scenario.
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Question 76: During the acquisition process of new computing devices for a company, which of the following practices is MOST important to ensure the devices do not compromise the company's network security upon integration? Selecting devices based purely on the lowest cost. Focusing on devices that offer the most user-friendly experience. Choosing devices with the highest specifications available. Ensuring devices come from reputable vendors with secure supply chains.
Selecting devices based purely on the lowest cost. Focusing on devices that offer the most user-friendly experience. Choosing devices with the highest specifications available. Your answer is correct Ensuring devices come from reputable vendors with secure supply chains. Overall explanation Choosing devices from reputable vendors with secure supply chains is crucial because it minimizes the risk of introducing compromised hardware into the company's network, which could include pre-installed malware or vulnerabilities. While high specifications, cost, and user experience are important considerations, they do not directly impact network security as much as the assurance of a secure supply chain does.
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Question 77: A company is redesigning its network infrastructure to improve scalability and manageability. Which of the following would be the most beneficial to implement? Physical isolation SDN Air-gapped networks Centralized architecture
Physical isolation Correct answer SDN Air-gapped networks Your answer is incorrect Centralized architecture Overall explanation Software-defined networking (SDN) would be the most beneficial to implement for improving scalability and manageability, as it allows for centralized control over network resources, making it easier to adjust and manage network behavior dynamically compared to physical isolation, air-gapped networks, or a strictly centralized architecture.
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Question 78: An organization is looking to implement a decentralized database that ensures data integrity and transparency across multiple parties without a central authority. What technology is most suitable for this application? Digital signatures Blockchain Key stretching Hashing
Digital signatures Correct answer Blockchain Key stretching Your answer is incorrect Hashing Overall explanation Blockchain technology is most suitable for implementing a decentralized database that ensures data integrity and transparency without the need for a central authority. Blockchain's structure of linked blocks allows data to be stored in a tamper-evident manner across a network of participants. Each block contains a cryptographic hash of the previous block, creating a secure and immutable record of transactions. This technology supports transparency and integrity, making it ideal for applications where multiple parties need to trust shared data. Unlike hashing, which is a method used within blockchain but does not provide a decentralized structure by itself, or digital signatures and key stretching, which are security measures for data integrity and password protection respectively, blockchain offers a comprehensive solution for decentralized data management.
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Question 79: Which site consideration option involves having infrastructure ready to use with power and cooling but no operational servers? Hot Warm Geographic dispersion Cold
Hot Warm Geographic dispersion Your answer is correct Cold Overall explanation A cold site is a location with infrastructure like power and cooling in place but no operational servers. It's a cost-effective option for organizations needing quick recovery without continuous operation. Hot and warm sites both involve operational servers, with hot sites being fully equipped for immediate use and warm sites requiring some setup time. Geographic dispersion refers to spreading resources across different locations for redundancy.
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Question 80: A software company distributes updates to its users and needs a method to ensure that the updates have not been tampered with and genuinely come from the company. What technology should they use? Key stretching Salting Digital signatures Hashing
Key stretching Salting Correct answer Digital signatures Your answer is incorrect Hashing Overall explanation Digital signatures are the ideal technology for ensuring the integrity and authenticity of software updates. By signing the updates with a private key, the company can guarantee that any modifications to the software after it has been signed will invalidate the signature. Users can then use the company's public key to verify the signature, confirming that the update has not been tampered with and that it indeed comes from the company. Unlike hashing or salting, which ensure data integrity but not authenticity, or key stretching, which is used for password security, digital signatures provide a secure method to verify both the integrity and the source of the data.
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Question 81: In the context of SDN, what is a primary security benefit compared to traditional network management? Traditional networks are inherently more secure due to their physical nature. SDN requires no human intervention, thus eliminating human error. SDN technology is newer and therefore more secure by design. SDN allows for centralized network management and control, enabling quicker response to threats.
Traditional networks are inherently more secure due to their physical nature. SDN requires no human intervention, thus eliminating human error. SDN technology is newer and therefore more secure by design. Your answer is correct SDN allows for centralized network management and control, enabling quicker response to threats. Overall explanation A primary security benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN) compared to traditional network management is the centralized control it provides. This centralization allows network administrators to quickly and efficiently respond to changing network conditions and threats. For instance, in case of a detected vulnerability or ongoing attack, security policies can be updated across the entire network from a central point, unlike traditional networks where changes might need to be applied device by device.
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Question 82: Which protocol and port combination is most appropriate for securely transferring files between servers over the internet? HTTP over port 80 FTP over port 21 SMTP over port 25 SFTP over port 22
HTTP over port 80 FTP over port 21 SMTP over port 25 Your answer is correct SFTP over port 22 Overall explanation SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) over port 22 is the best choice for securely transferring files between servers over the internet. SFTP provides a secure channel with encryption, ensuring that both authentication information and data are protected during transmission. FTP over port 21 does not encrypt data, making it vulnerable to interception. HTTP over port 80 is also not secure as it transmits data in plaintext. SMTP over port 25 is intended for email transmission, not file transfer, making it unsuitable for this purpose.
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Question 83: An organization implements a firewall to monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. Under which control type does this action fall? Preventive Detective Corrective Deterrent
Correct answer Preventive Detective Corrective Your answer is incorrect Deterrent Overall explanation The implementation of a firewall is a preventive control measure. Preventive controls are designed to stop unauthorized actions or events from occurring by setting up barriers or safeguards. A firewall actively prevents unauthorized access to a network by filtering traffic based on established security rules, thereby blocking potentially harmful traffic before it can penetrate the network. This approach is proactive, aiming to mitigate risks by preventing security breaches ahead of time, distinguishing it from other controls that may detect, deter, correct, or compensate for security incidents after they occur.
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Question 84: A financial organization needs to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of its client communication. Which of the following technologies should be implemented to secure email communications? WAF VPN TLS SASE
WAF VPN Correct answer TLS Your answer is incorrect SASE Overall explanation Transport Layer Security (TLS) is the best option for securing email communications as it provides encryption for the data in transit, ensuring confidentiality and integrity. While VPNs can secure network traffic, they are not specifically designed for email. SASE is an overarching network architecture and is not specifically tailored to secure email communications. A WAF is intended to protect web applications and does not apply to email security.
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Question 85: A company is considering the implementation of an automation solution for user provisioning. Which of the following benefits is the primary reason for adopting this automation? Reducing the dependency on human resources for routine tasks Making the user provisioning process more complex and time-consuming Eliminating the need for any form of access control Ensuring that all users have admin rights for convenience
Correct answer Reducing the dependency on human resources for routine tasks Making the user provisioning process more complex and time-consuming Eliminating the need for any form of access control Your answer is incorrect Ensuring that all users have admin rights for convenience Overall explanation Automating user provisioning reduces the dependency on human resources for routine, repetitive tasks. This not only improves efficiency and saves time but also allows the IT staff to focus on more strategic, value-added activities. It enhances security by ensuring consistent application of access controls and reduces the potential for human error. Eliminating access control, providing universal admin rights, and adding complexity are counterproductive and would likely compromise security and efficiency.
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Question 86: A network administrator is configuring an IDS to enhance network security. For known malware and attack vectors, which detection method should be prioritized? Anomaly-based detection. Heuristic analysis. Behavioral analysis. Signature-based detection.
Anomaly-based detection. Heuristic analysis. Behavioral analysis. Your answer is correct Signature-based detection. Overall explanation Signature-based detection is ideal for identifying and mitigating known malware and attack vectors because it relies on a database of known threat signatures for detection. This method offers high accuracy for known threats, unlike anomaly-based, heuristic, or behavioral analysis, which are better suited for detecting unknown or emerging threats but may result in higher false positives when dealing with known issues.
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Question 87: For a company dealing with customers' financial data, the right to be forgotten implies that the company must: Keep all customer data indefinitely for potential future audits. Store customer data in a country of the customer's choosing. Erase personal data upon a customer's request, provided there are no legal grounds to retain it. Transfer all customer data to another company upon the customer's request.
Keep all customer data indefinitely for potential future audits. Store customer data in a country of the customer's choosing. Correct answer Erase personal data upon a customer's request, provided there are no legal grounds to retain it. Your answer is incorrect Transfer all customer data to another company upon the customer's request. Overall explanation The right to be forgotten gives individuals the power to have their personal data erased by a company upon request, assuming there are no overriding legal reasons for the company to retain that data. This right is particularly relevant for companies handling sensitive financial information, as it directly impacts data privacy and protection.
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Question 88: In the context of securing a workstation, why is enabling full disk encryption beneficial? It accelerates the computer's performance. It ensures that data remains secure even if the device is physically stolen. It prevents unauthorized users from accessing the network. It automatically updates the operating system to the latest version.
It accelerates the computer's performance. Correct answer It ensures that data remains secure even if the device is physically stolen. It prevents unauthorized users from accessing the network. Your answer is incorrect It automatically updates the operating system to the latest version. Overall explanation Enabling full disk encryption ensures that data stored on the device is inaccessible without the correct encryption key, offering protection against data breaches in case the device is lost or stolen. While it does not directly prevent unauthorized network access or accelerate computer performance, and it is not related to operating system updates, encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of the data on the device itself.
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Question 89: What is the most effective method to maintain the security of a cloud infrastructure? Implementing strict IAM controls. Ensuring physical security of the cloud servers. Conducting frequent off-site backups. Regularly changing CSP passwords.
Correct answer Implementing strict IAM controls. Ensuring physical security of the cloud servers. Conducting frequent off-site backups. Your answer is incorrect Regularly changing CSP passwords. Overall explanation Implementing strict Identity and Access Management (IAM) controls is essential for maintaining cloud infrastructure security. It enables the management of user access and privileges, ensuring that only authorized users can access specific resources. While regularly changing passwords and conducting off-site backups are good security practices, they do not directly address access control and resource permissions as effectively as IAM does. Ensuring the physical security of cloud servers is primarily the responsibility of the CSP, not the cloud user.
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Question 90: What technology is most effective for continuously monitoring and detecting unauthorized modifications to critical system files and configurations? IDS Firewalls FIM Antivirus software
IDS Firewalls Correct answer FIM Your answer is incorrect Antivirus software Overall explanation File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is specifically designed for continuously monitoring and detecting changes in files, ensuring the integrity of critical system files and configurations. It alerts administrators to unauthorized modifications, which could indicate a security breach or non-compliance with policies. While firewalls and antivirus software are essential for a comprehensive security posture, they serve different purposes, such as blocking unauthorized access and detecting malware, respectively. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) monitor network or system activities for malicious actions but are not specifically focused on file integrity.