Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Sec+Cumulative > sec_20250514002345 > Flashcards

sec_20250514002345 Flashcards

(87 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

AAA

A

AAA – Authentication, Authorization, Accounting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ACL

A

Access Control List. Permissions attached to a file when using DAC, or a list of filtering rules in a firewall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AH

A

Authentication Header
Provides:
Integrity
Encryption
Authentication
Anti-replay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

APT

A

An APT (advanced persistent threat) is the worst type of threat actor.
They can compromise a system, and by definition, maintain long term remote access without being detected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CA

A

Certificate Authority (provides certificates to computers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CASB

A

CASB = Cloud Access Security Broker. A proxy server that filters everything that goes in and out of the cloud. Typically includes all the functions a NGFW would have, plus many others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CIRT

A

Computer Incident Response Team, a team that handles cybersecurity incidents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

CIA

A

CIA – Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CRC

A

Cyclic Redundancy Check (used to detect errors with Ethernet messages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CRL

A

Certificate Revocation List: A list (by serial number) of all revoked certificates that a CA has previously issued. These lists can become very large, which is why OCSP was created. A decent option if the computer is airgapped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CSR

A

Certificate Signing Request: This is sent to a CA to begin the process of certificate creation. The CSR should include the public key, domain/device validation (proof of ownership), common name, location, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CVE

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CVSS

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System. It is a public framework for quantifying the severity of vulnerabilities in information systems, helping security teams prioritize patching and mitigation efforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DBA

A

Database Administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DHCP

A

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) refers to a network service that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration information to devices on a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DLP

A

Data Loss Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DLP

A

Data Loss Preventer. A software that stops users from leaking sensitive data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DNSSEC

A

Domain Name System Security Extensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DRP

A

Disaster Recovery Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

EAP

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a framework used for authenticating users on networks, particularly wireless networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EDR

A

EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response and its essentially
an advanced anti-malware software you would install on a computer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Embedded systems

A

Embedded systems. Computer systems that are extremely specialized, often with limited resources/hardware. Not built for constantly changing environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ESP

A

ESP: Encapsulating Security Payload
provides:
Integrity
Encryption
Authentication
Anti-replay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FDE

A

FDE (Full Disk Encryption) you will need a TPM and should back up the keys to escrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
FIM
File integrity monitoring
26
GPO
GPO = Group Policy Object. A set of security settings in Windows.
27
HIDS
Host Intrusion Detection Systems
28
HIPS
Host Intrusion Prevention System
29
HSM
hardware security module (HSM) is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages secrets (most importantly digital keys), and performs encryption and decryption functions for digital signatures, strong authentication and other cryptographic functions.
30
IDS
Intrusion Detection System. A server/software that can detect well-known attacks, but unlike IPS doesn’t block them. Alerting only!
31
IPS
Intrusion Prevention System. A server/software that can block well-known attacks based off of signatures (pattern recognition).
32
IPSec
IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a suite of protocols that provide security for network communications over an IP network
33
IRP
Incident Response Plan
34
Key Escrow
it is advisable to back up the encryption keys to a safe place. This is called key escrow
35
LEAP
Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol (LEAP) is a proprietary wireless LAN authentication method developed by Cisco Systems
36
MAC
In the MAC (mandatory access control) model: Subjects (users/applications) are granted clearance tags/labels. Objects (files/folders/etc) are given classification tags/labels. If you have, for example, secret clearance, you are permitted within the MAC model to see secret, confidential, and any other classifications considered to be beneath secret. You cannot see any files with classifications above your clearance level, such as top secret.
37
NAC
NAC = Network Access Control. Typically provided through 802.1x or MAC filtering.
38
NAT
NAT (Network Address Translation) refers to the process of translating private IP addresses within an internal network to a public IP address before they are sent to an external network
39
NGFW
Next Generation Firewall. A firewall that can also act as a DLP (Data Loss Preventer) and a VPN endpoint
40
NIDS
Network-Based Intrusion Detection System
41
NIPS
Network-based Intrusion Prevention System
42
OAUTH
Oauth is typically used for sending authorizations from one web service / cloud server to another, but doesn’t typically handle authentication.
43
OCSP
Online Certificate Status Protocol: Used to quickly check that a certificate hasn’t been revoked, without needing to download a complete CRL from the CA. OCSP messages are signed to provide authenticity, integrity, and non-repud. This requires an internet connection.
44
OpenID Connect
OpenID Connect combines the functionality of Oauth with the functionality of a SSO (authentication) solution.
45
PAM
Privileged Account Management. This category of software can offer all of the requirements shown above, and much more.
46
PAP
PAP, typically used with point to point serial connections, sends your password as plaintext.
47
PEAP
PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) enhances wireless network security by encasing the EAP authentication process within a TLS tunnel
48
PFX File
A binary format for storing the server certificate, any intermediate certificates, and the private key into a single encryptable file. This file is typically what is sent to key escrow.
49
RA
Registration Authority. Company that owns the CAs (Certificate Authorities)
50
RADIUS
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service. It's a protocol used to authenticate and authorize users accessing a network, commonly used for VPNs, Wi-Fi networks, and other network access points
51
RBAC
Role Based Access Control. An access structure where permissions are granted to roles based off of job functions/responsibilities. Those roles are assigned to users so that they only get the permissions they need for their job.
52
RDP
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a secure network communication protocol developed by Microsoft
53
RPO
Recovery point objective
54
RTOS
RTOS = Real Time Operating System. Optimized for time-sensitive applications. They are not designed for flexibility or frequent changes.
55
SAML
SAML is an XML-based format used to exchange authentication information and thereby achieve identity federations (SSO). It doesn’t actually send your password from one system to another in the process. Instead it tokenizes credentials across multiple parties. Security Assertion Markup Language. Used for ID federation (web based SSO)
56
SAN
Storage Area Network
57
SASE
SASE = Secure Access Service Edge. A cloud software as a service (SaaS) that enables an organization to support remote users by automatically opening a VPN tunnels from them to nearby and redundant cloud gateways/access brokers. This is apposed to filtering all the traffic through a corporate data center which can become a choke point and single point of failure.
58
SCADA
SCADA = Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition. Used to control industrial systems that are typically not designed for dynamic or rapidly changing environments
59
SD-WAN
Software Defined Wide Area Networks. Using software to control how the internet functions.
60
SDLC
Software Development Life Cycle
61
SDN
Software-defined networking combines traditional network design with automated and flexible deployment
62
Secure Enclave
Secure Enclave is a security subsystem within Apple SOC (systems on a chip).
63
Serverless framework
Serverless frameworks offer: Cost Efficiency: Serverless frameworks operate on a pay-per-use model. (examples include AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, or Google Cloud Functions) Scalability: Serverless architectures automatically scale up or down based on demand. Reduced Complexity: The cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure, so that the developer can focus on making their app.
64
SPF
SPF = Sender Policy Framework. Used to stop email spoofing/forgery.
65
SSO
Single Sign-On. It's a security authentication method that allows users to access multiple applications and systems using a single set of credentials. This centralized authentication approach simplifies the user experience and can improve security by reducing password management burdens and potential vulnerabilities.
66
TLS
Transport Layer Security. An encryption system used to encrypt HTTP and turn it into HTTPS. This primarily provides confidentiality and authenticity to HTTP traffic. TLS typically requires certificates to operate.
67
TPM
TPM (Trusted Platform Module) BitLocker will store the encryption keys on the TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
68
WAF
Web Application Firewall. A firewall that filters HTTP messages to protect a web server/site from attacks such as buffer overflows, cross-site scripts (XSS), SQL injections, and malware.
69
Zero Trust
Zero Trust – is a security strategy or architecture that focuses on the following: Never trust, always verify. Assume all traffic is from the internet and every message is a possible attack. Everyone and everything must authenticate. MFA is preferred. Least privilege for everyone. Company wide access controls should be in place. The network should be heavily segmented and filtered.
70
SCAP
SCAP = Secure Content Automation Protocol. Usually used as a vulnerability scanner or a compliance scanner. Use it to determine if a device is following a known baseline.
71
S/MIME
S/MIME is a protocol for singing and encrypting emails.
72
IMAP
IMAP is a protocol used for accessing and managing emails stored on an email server.
73
SNMP
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring and configuring network equipment. The only version of SNMP that is secure (encryption & integrity) is version 3.
74
SOAR
SOAR stands for Security Orchestration Automation and Response.
75
SIEM
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems
76
OWASP
Open Web Application Security Project. OWASP is a non-profit foundation dedicated to improving the security of software and web applications.
77
SLA
service level agreement
78
MOU
memorandum of understanding
79
MSA
Master Service Agreement
80
BPA
Business partnership agreements (BPA) are legal agreements between partners
81
ARO
Annual Rate of Occurrence – how often an attack or event happens per year.
82
RTO
Recovery Time Objective – how long it should take to perform recovery when following a IRP/DRP.
83
RPO
Recovery Point Objective – how much data we are willing to lose / how often to make backups.
84
SLE
Single Loss Expectancy – how much is lost when the asset is attacked once.
85
MTBF
MTBF = Mean Time Between Failures
86
MTTR
MTTR = Mean Time To Recovery (real world average time for recovery)
87
MOA
memorandum of agreement

Sec+Cumulative (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions