Section 1 Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
What is the generic term for an Air Traffic Service?
A
Air traffic control service
Air traffic advisory service
Flight information service
Alerting service
2
Q
What is the objectives of the air traffic services shall be to?
A
Prevent collisions between aircraft
Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in the need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required
3
Q
Who is an air traffic control service provided too?
A
Provided to-
IFR flights in airspace A,B, C, D and E
VFR flights in airspace B,C and D
All SVFR flights
All aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
4
Q
What is a Flight Information Service?
A
A service provided for the purpose of supplying advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight.
5
Q
What pertinent information is passed in a FIS?
A
Weather
Changes to serviceability of facilities
Conditions at aerodrome
Any other information likely to affect safety
6
Q
What does the UK flight information service consist of?
A
Basic service
Traffic service
Deconfliction service
Procedural service
7
Q
What is an alerting service?
A
Is provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required
8
Q
They’re 2 flight information regions within the uk, what’s the level?
A
Below FL 245 lower FIR
At and above FL 245 Upper FIR
9
Q
Describe class A airspace ?
A
IFR only
ATC clearance before entry
Have to comply with ATC instructions
All aircraft get separated from one another
10
Q
Describe class E airspace?
A
IFR and VFR
IFR flights must obtain an ATC clearance required before entry and must comply with ATC instructions
VFR do not require a ATC clearance
Separate IFR - IFR
Pass traffic information as far as practicable to IFR on participating and non participating VFR flights
Pass traffic information as far as practicable to VFR flights on participating and non participating VFR flights in accordance with the type of UK FIS provided
11
Q
Describe class C airspace?
A
IFR and VFR
ATC clearance before entry
Must comply with ATC instructions
Separate IFR - IFR
IFR - VFR
VFR - IFR
Pass traffic information on VFR flights on other VFR flights and give traffic avoidance when requested
Class C airspace is only above FL 195 - FL 600
12
Q
Describe class D airspace?
A
IFR and VFR
ATC clearance required before entry
Must comply with ATC instructions
Separate IFR - IFR
Pass traffic information to IFR/SVFR - VFR and give traffic avoidance when requested
Pass traffic information to VFR- all other flights and given traffic avoidance when requested
13
Q
Describe class G Airspace?
A
IFR and VFR
Don’t need ATC clearance or don’t need to comply with ATC instructions
No services provided
14
Q
What is the airspace speed limit?
A
Aircraft flying below FL 100, required to to fly of a speed limit of 250kts IAS.
See and avoid principle
15
Q
Who does the 250kt speed limit not apply to?
A
Flights in A(in uk) and B(not in uk) airspace
IFR flights in C airspace
For exempted VFR flights in C airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance of MATS 2
For exempted flights in D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS 2
Test flights in accordance with specified conditions
Aircraft taking part in flying displays and authorised by CAA
Aircraft with written permission from CAA
State aircraft and military aircraft
16
Q
What is the VFR criteria for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl ?
Class D
A
Aircraft - horizontal distance from cloud 1500m and 1000ft vertical and flight visibility of 5km
Same for above 3,000ft ( only difference at and above FL 100, flight visibility is 8km )
17
Q
For aircraft flying at 140 kt IAS or less, what are the VFR requirements for transiting class D airspace?
A
Remaining outside the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit …
Clear of cloud with the surface in sight and flight visibility of 5km
18
Q
For helicopters flight at 140kt IAS or less, wanting to transit class D airspace what are the requirements?
A
Remaining outside the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit ….
Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight
Flight visibility of 1500m
19
Q
What’s the difference regarding VFR minima from day to night? Class D
A
If flying at or below 3,000ft the aircraft must also have surface in sight
The rest is the same
20
Q
Who are exempt to transit class D regarding VFR minima by day?
A
Power line Pipe line Police Helimed SAR SAR helicopter training with a letter of agreement with the air traffic service provider
21
Q
When must a pilot fly IFR?
A
If in class A airspace
If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or if in a Control Zone SVFR
22
Q
What is an aerodrome traffic zone?
A
ATZ adopt the classification of airspace within which they are situated. Therefore aircraft flying within the ATZ are subject to the Rules of the Air.
TIA ATZ surface - 2,000ft and is 2,500m width
23
Q
What are the conditions for SVFR?
A
Fixed wing-
Class D reduce below a ground visibility less than 1500m and/or cloud ceiling of 600ft both by day and night.
Helicopters-
Class D reduce below a ground visibility less than 800m and/or cloud ceiling of 600ft both by day and night.
24
Q
Who are exempt from SVFR?
A
Police Helimed SAR Pipeline Power line SAR training
25
What are the pilots responsibilities regarding SVFR?
Must comply with ATC instructions
Is responsible for ensuring that his flight conditions enable him to remain clear of cloud and surface in sight
Flys at an IAS of 140 kt or less ( see and avoid )
Responsible for ensuring that he flys within the limitations of his license
Responsible for complying with the relevant Rules of the Air low flying restrictions (other than the 1000feet rule)
Responsible for avoiding ATZ unless been given permission by the relevant ATC unit
26
If an aircraft wishes to depart from an airfield at night but has a failure of any light which the ANO says must be displayed, can that aircraft depart ?
No
27
If an aircraft is in flight and there is a failure of his navigation lights? What should atc/ pilot do?
Land as soon as it is safe to do so, unless authorised by an ATC unit to continue his flight
Flight must remain in controlled airspace in the UK unless from another authority has been given permission to continue
If he wishes to leave controlled airspace he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome (this is up to the pilot, of where he thinks is suitable aerodrome)
28
What action should ATC do if a captive balloon breaks free ?
Notify the ACC unit and state the following -
```
Type of balloon
POB
Position of balloon site
Direction and speed drift
Last observed height
Length of cable attached to balloon
Balloon operators telephone number and name
```
29
Who should standard separation be applied too?
```
All fights in A airspace
IFR In C, D and E
IFR and VFR In C
IFR flights and SVFR flights
SVFR flights except when a reduction is authorised by the CAA
```
30
When shall increased separation standards minima be increased?
If requested by the pilot
Controller sees it necessary
Directed by the CAA
31
What is reduced separation in the vicinity?
In the vicinity of the aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if-
1- adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visual to the ATCO
2- each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of the other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation
3- when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation
32
If a ATCO is faced with a situation in which two of more aircraft are separated by less than the prescribed minima, what does the ATCO have to do?
Use every means at his disposal to obtain the required minimum with the least possible delay
When considered practicable, pass traffic information is an ATS surveillance service is being provided, otherwise, pass essential traffic information
33
What is essential traffic information?
Is separated for any period less than the specified standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance systems are not available
34
Regarding essential traffic information what shall be passed to an aircraft?
Direction of flight of conflicting traffic
Type of conflicting aircraft
Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point. Or if the aircraft is passing through it’s level.
Any alternative clearances
35
What type of separation is there?
Vertical- up to FL290 = 1000ft
Above FL290 = 2000ft
Except between 290-410= of RVSM approved is 1000ft
Horizontal- 3 types = lateral, longitudinal and separation based on ATS surveillance system information.
Lateral- track separation ( VOR, headings, geographical )
Longitudinal- time and distance
36
Based on departure longitudinal separation, what is 1 min rule?
Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45 degrees or more immediately after take off
The minimum may be reduced when aircraft are taking off from independent diverging or parallel runways provided the procedures have been approved by the CAA
37
Based on departure longitudinal separation, what is 2 min rule?
The proceeding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40knots or more faster than the following
Neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that would decrease the 2 minute separation between them
38
Based on departure longitudinal separation, what is 5 min rule?
Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true air speed of 20knots or more faster than the following aircraft.
Or
Provided that the 5 minute separation is maintained up to a reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal control area and the aircraft will be separated by either
- vertically
- by tracks which diverge by 30 degrees or more
- by Radar
Only to be used by units approved by the CAA
39
Based on departure longitudinal separation, what is 10 min rule?
Fully separated
40
What is wake turbulence ?
Shall be used to describe the effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of an aircraft
41
What is wake vortex?
Describes the nature of the air masses
42
The heavier the aircraft the more slowly it is flying, the ______ the vortex?
Stronger
43
In what type of weather are wake vortex persistent?
Calm conditions
44
If aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways are separated by less than 760m or if the flight path is to cross less than 1000ft below, what are the wake turbulence departure times?
Medium U/L or Small in front of a Light= 2 minutes
Heavy in front of a Medium U/L, Small or Light= 2 minutes
Heavy- Heavy = 4nm or time equivalent
If aircraft is on a T/G or low approach plus 1 minute to the above
45
For helicopters, how does an ATCO minimise the effects of wake turbulence ?
Instruct helicopters to ground taxi rather than air taxi when operating in areas where aircraft are parked or holding
Not to air taxi helicopters close to taxiways or runways where light aircraft operations are in progress both fixed wing and helicopters
If aircraft has to air taxi- avoid flying over parked aircraft, vehicles, or loose ground equipment.
Follow standard taxi routes where helicopters and fixed wing aircraft share common areas on a movement area
46
What distance should be put into place, for helicopters taxiing or in a stationary hover, when light aircraft are taxiing?
X3 the rotor diameter of that helicopter
47
What should ATC clearances include?
Aircraft identification as shown on flight plan
Clearance limit
Route
Levels of flight for entire route or part and any change in levels if needed
Any necessary instructions or information on the other matters such as departure manoeuvres, slot etc
48
What is a clearance limit ?
A clearance limit is a point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall by specified by naming-
An aerodrome
A reporting point
A controlled or advisory airspace boundary
49
When should an aircraft be cleared for the entire route to the aerodrome of first intending landing?
It has planned to remain in controlled or advisory airspace throughout the flight
And
There is a reasonable assurance that prior to co-ordination will be effected ahead of the passage of the aircraft
50
What order is a conditional clearance to be given in?
Callsign of aircraft or vehicle being given the clearance
The condition ‘behind’
Identification of the subject of the condition ‘aircraft’
The clearance
A brief reiteration of the condition ‘behind’
(EZE66L, behind the landing PA34, via A1, Runway 23, line up behind)
51
If the ATCO has an amendment to add to a previous clearance, how should it be passed?
New clearance read in full, ‘climb now FL200’
Slow and precise
52
When shall a ATCO withhold a clearance ?
If the controller is instructed to with hold a take off clearance
When it is known that an aircraft has been denied by a police or HM customs
If the ATCO believes they should withhold a clearance but has not been instructed, as they have reason to believe the flight will endanger lives or involve a breach of legislation they should-
Warn the pilot of the hazardous condition, get an acknowledgment of the message
If pilot wishes to take off and infringement of legislation then he should be told it will be reported
If pilot still wishes to take off after acknowledgement and no traffic reason to permit take off
Put in ATC log
53
Do you provided priority to an aircraft declaring minimum fuel?
No
54
If a pilot reports MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL does he get priority ?
Yes
55
If there is a sick passenger onboard or any other medical problem, if the pilot does not state an emergency what should the ATCO do?
Say ‘confirm that they are declaring an emergency’
Do not give priority if not declaring an emergency
56
What is a flight priority A ?
Aircraft in an emergency (engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger )
Aircraft declaring a police/ambulance/medical emergency when the safety of life is involved
57
What flight is priority B?
Flights operating SAR or other humanitarian reasons.
Post accident flight checks
Open skies authorised by CAA
Police under normal operational priority
58
What flight priority is C?
Royal flights
Flights carrying visiting heads of state
(Which have been notified by NOTAM/Temporary Supplement
59
What is flight priority D?
Flights notified by CAA carrying heads of government or very senior government ministers
60
What flight priority is E?
Flight check aircraft engaged on it in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights
Other flights authorised by the CAA
61
What flight priority is normal status?
Flights which have flies a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures
Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA flight examining unit ‘EXAM’ callsign
62
What is flight priority Z?
Training
Non standard and other flights
63
What is transfer of control?
Is achieved when a flight, which is operating in accordance with the co-ordination, has reached the position or level agreement between the transferring and accepting units
64
When can transfer of control take place?
At an agreed reporting point
On an estimate for an FIR boundary
At or passing an agreed level
Whilst the aircraft is climbing/descending to a previously agreed level, provided that transferring controller has ensured that standard separation will remain until with the other unit
65
What is transfer of communication ?
It may be permitted so that instructions, which become effective later can be issued. But transfer of control has not yet taken place
66
What does CTOT stand for?
Calculated Take Off Time
67
In class D, what is the limitations for military and civil aircraft to be in a formation?
Military Aircraft- 1NM laterally and longitudinally. Within 100ft vertically or the formation leader
Civil Aircraft- 0.5NM laterally and longitudinally. Within 100ft vertically of the formation leader.
OR for ALL aircraft-
As agreed following prior tactical negotiation between appropriate supervisors
OR
As detailed in ACN (Airspace Co-ordination Notice)specific to the formation flight
68
If a formation flight, are separated/ stream extends for 3NM, what should the last aircraft do?
last aircraft should squawk the same code as the leader.
Every other aircraft in the formation will squawk standby
69
Formation flights within CAS, what is required before the formation can enter controlled airspace ?
ATCO are you obtain confirmation on RT that all aircraft in the formation are with the parameters.
And if not, ATCO must advise formation to remain outside controlled airspace and establish their intentions.
70
What does BLACKCAT mean regarding formations?
UK formation
71
What does BLACKCAT 1 mean regarding formations?
UK single element
72
What does DEADLY 31 flight mean regarding formations?
USAF or foreign aircraft formation
73
What does DEADLY 31 mean regarding formations?
USAF or foreign aircraft singleton.
74
What are the controllers actions when an aircraft reports a ground proximity warning ?
Controller should not stop the pilot from climbing
The controller should acknowledge and pass the relevant pressure setting QNH, QFE or Regional
Then restore any separation which may have been lost
75
Describe what a NDS flight is
Non Deviating Status flight is either civil or military have been allocated this status as they have an operational requirement to maintain a specific track and level
76
What is an UAA?
Unusual Aerial Activity is a generic term which in its ATC context, includes the following -
A concentration of aircraft that is significantly greater than normal
Activities that may require the issue of a permission or an exemption from the ANO or Rules of the Air Regulations
Air shows, displays, Air races or other competitions
Activities which require the establishment of a temporary ATSU
77
What type of airspace can UAA take place?
Any type of airspace!
Approval and clearance for a UAA witching CAS rests with the relevant airspace controlling authority
78
Do flights by unmanned free balloons (Met balloons etc) need permission from the CAA?
Yes
79
Are pilots of controlled balloon flights required to comply with the same rules that apply to other aircraft and subject to normal clearances?
Yes
80
What is the minimum weather conditions by day for a planned unmanned balloon?
VFR in the relevant class of airspace
Not permitted in Class A
81
What is the operating wind for unmanned planned balloons?
Won’t operate in wind speeds of greater than 15 knots
82
What is a police flight?
Flight by an aircraft operating under a Police Air Operators Certificate, to facilitate police operations where immediate and rapid transportation is essential
83
What is a flight cat A for police operations?
Police emergency
84
What is flight cat B for police operations?
Normal operational priority. They’ll expect atc to give them change in altitude or levels and instructions if they conflict with other traffic
85
What is flight cat Z for police operations?
Authorised for training or tests
86
How can you identify if there is more than one UKP on frequency ?
By the two digital individual aircraft identifier. UKP28 or three digits UKP28A
87
What is a HEMS flight?
HEMS flight operate to incidents where an immediate response is required for the safety of life
88
What is the flight cat A for HEMS operations?
Applies to all HEMS flights on emergency operational tasks
89
What is the flight cat E for HEMS operations?
Is authorised for use by an aircraft positioning for the purpose of conducting HEMS duties (returning to base
90
What is the flight cat Z for HEMS operations?
Authorised for training, tests
91
How can you identify HLE if there is more than one on frequency ?
By the two digital individual aircraft identifier. HLE63 or three digits HLE63A
The two digit is allocated by the CAA
92
What is a Mareva Injunction?
It is a court order, which prevents a defendant from removing assets from the UK from the jurisdiction of the court
93
When can a Mareva injunction be made?
An aircraft in flight or where the aircraft is located on the ground
94
Once ATC are aware of the Mareva injunction, what should the controller say to the pilot ?
You are subject to a court order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom, what are your intentions
ATS should continue to be provided as normal, even in the event that the pilot continues his flight
95
What type of visibility is used in Class D for aircraft taking off from or approaching to land at an aerodrome, entering ATZ or circuit?
Ground visibility
96
What type of visibility is used in Class D for aircraft transiting ?
Flight visibility
97
Are instructions issued to VFR flight mandatory in Class D?
Yes
98
What unit of pressure is used in the UK?
Hectopascals
99
What is the standard pressure setting?
1013.25 hPa
100
What does the QNH pressure indicate ?
Altitude
101
What does the QFE pressure setting indicate ?
Height above the reference datum
102
What is a regional pressure setting ?
Is a forecast of the lowest QNH value within an ASR
The values which are made available hourly for the period H + 1 and H + 2
103
What is the definition of a Transition Altitude ?
Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical positions of an aircraft is controlled by reference to the altitude ( or height when QFE is used )
Civil aerodromes = 3,000ft
104
What is the definition of a Transition Level?
Transition level is the lowest flight level avail ever for use above the transition altitude.
Within CAS it’s determined by the controlling authority and it will normally be based on the QNH of the major aerodrome
Outside CAS by the aerodrome operator and based on the aerodrome QNH
105
What is definition of the Transition Layer?
Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.
The first available FL and 1,000ft separation
106
What does the Regional Pressure setting indicate?
Altitude
107
What does the standard pressure setting indicate?
A Flight level
108
What is Aerodrome Reference Data ?
Aerodrome elevation is the elevation of the highest point on the landing area. It is the elevation upon which the height for visual manoeuvring (circling) is based.
Also there is threshold elevation which is published for each runway
109
Why may an aircraft divert?
When the weather at the planned destination is reported below the minima prescribed by an Aircraft Operator for the aircraft
When instructions on the landing area, which constitute a hazard to aircraft landing and cannot be cleared within a reasonable period
The failure of airborne equipment
The failure of essential ground aids to landing in circumstances which would require their use
Unacceptable delay due to congestion of air traffic
Closure of aerodrome of destination
110
Information concerning a military diversion should be passed to who?
D & D
111
What is the definition of a Royal Flight?
A royal flight within UK airspace is defined as the movement of an aircraft specifically tasked to carry one or more members of the Royal Family afforded such status by the Head or Royal Travel, The Royal Household
112
Within the UK, can members of other Royal families, PMs and Head of State or Commonwealth be also granted Royal Flight status?
Yes
113
Do Standard ATC procedures apply to Royal Flights when operating in Class A,C and D airspace?
Yes
114
When a fixed wing aircraft with a Royal Flight status is operating in uncontrolled airspace or class E what is put in place? And what type of airspace is it?
CAS-T
Class D
115
For arriving and departing royal flights within an aerodrome what is put in place?
Temporary control zones (where no permanent control zone exists) and control areas
116
How far do controlled zones extend to?
Between 5nm and 10nm radius from the centre of the aerodrome from the ground level to an upper level designated for each Royal Flight dependant upon the royal aircraft type and other aerodromes surrounding airspace
117
What time period is a control zone established for?
Outbound- 15 mins before until 30 mins after the ETD of the royal aircraft
Inbound- 15 mins before until 30 mins after the ETA of the royal aircraft
118
Who can cancel a temporary control zone, area or airway?
At the discretion of the military commander or civil ATC supervisor as appropriate, when the royal aircraft has left the temporary zone, area or airway and is established in permanent class A, C or D airspace or has landed.
119
Regarding royal flights, what is a temporary control area?
Class D temporary control areas, with dimensions and duration therefore will be established to meet the specific requirements of a royal flight.
Control authority will be appropriate civil or military ACC
120
Regarding royal flights what is a permanent control zone or area?
Class D, controlling authority will be civil or military ACC and if the aerodrome already has a control zone the royal flight permanent control zone may sit above the level of the aerodromes control zone
121
Is CAS-T established for helicopter royal flights ?
No, normal ATC procedures apply to royal helicopter within or wishing to join controlled airspace.
If outside controlled airspace, a Royal low level corridor will be promulgated by NOTAM
122
What is the squawk code for a royal flight ?
0037
123
What is ACAS?
Airborne Collision Avoidance System, is an aircraft system based on SSR transponder signals, which operates independently off ground based equipment, to provide advise to pilot in potential conflicting aircraft that’s are equipped with SSE transponders
124
What is TCAS?
Traffic alert and collision avoidance system.
TCAS equipment reacts to transponders of other aircraft to determine whether or not there is a potential Rick of collision
125
Regarding TCAS, what is TA?
Traffic advisory warning.
Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of TA information.
Typically 45 seconds before the assumed collision (if at FL 200)
126
Regarding TCAS, what is RA?
Resolution Advisory warning.
Pilot receives advice to climb or descend, pilots are expected to respond immediately and manoeuvre
Typically 30 seconds before the assumed collision (is at FL200)
127
If a pilot says ‘ C/S TCAS RA ‘ what is the phraseology ATC should respond with?
C/S Roger
128
What type of FIS services are provided in the UK?
Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction and Procedural
129
What is the definition of a Basic Service?
Is a type of UK FIS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
Including weather, changes of serviceabilities, conditions at the aerodrome, general airspace information
130
What is the definition of a Traffic Service?
Same as basic but more in depth traffic information is passed, the controller provides specific surveillance derived traffic information to assist the pilot in avoiding other traffic
131
What is the definition of a Deconfliction Service?
Deconfliction service is a surveillance based type of UK FIS, same as basic and traffic but also gives the aircraft headings and or levels to fly
132
What is the definition of a Procedural Service?
Is an ATS where in addition to the provision of basic services the controller provides restrictions, instructions, and approach clearances
