Section 1, Chapter 4 - Control Of Traffic Flashcards

Question

Who can instruct controllers to withhold a clearance, and where are the relevant procedures listed?

Answer 1

The Aerodrome Operator and certain other authorized persons can instruct controllers to withhold a clearance. The personnel authorized under civil aviation legislation and the procedures to be adopted when detaining aircraft are listed in unit instructions.

Answer 2

If a controller is instructed to withhold take-off clearance, the controller should take reasonable steps to establish the authenticity and powers of the person giving the instruction.

Answer 3

A controller must withhold clearance to take-off when it is known that an aircraft has been detained by a police or HM Customs officer.

Answer 4

**If a controller believes a planned flight is liable to endanger life or involve a breach of legislation, they should:** * Warn the pilot of the hazardous condition or apparent infringement and obtain an acknowledgment of the message. * In the case of an infringement of legislation, warn the pilot that if they take off, the facts will be reported to the appropriate authority. * If the pilot still requests take-off clearance after acknowledging the warning, advise the pilot, when traffic permits, that there are no traffic reasons to restrict take-off. * Record the warning and any comment made by the pilot in the ATC Watch Log.

Answer 5

Clear and precise messages must be passed to the pilots concerned, and acknowledgments obtained. The recommended phraseology appears in CAP 413. Further transmissions may be necessary to ascertain the pilot's intentions.

Answer 6

In no circumstances is either an ATC clearance or permission to take-off to be withheld solely because the pilot has not obtained prior permission to proceed to their destination aerodrome. This matter is between the pilot and the appropriate Aerodrome Operator and is normally of no concern to ATC.

Answer 7

If an aerodrome abroad is closed, the information is to be relayed by RTF to any aircraft in flight bound for that aerodrome. Action may be limited to aircraft which have departed less than 30 minutes after the message has been received. A controller has no authority to withhold take-off clearance because the intended destination is closed.

Answer 8

Pertinent air traffic data is normally displayed on flight progress strips. Instructions for marking handwritten strips appear in Appendix D. Procedures for data display methods are described in MATS Part 2.

Answer 9

**Prioritization of Clearance Requests:** * Requests for clearances are normally dealt with in the order received and issued according to the traffic situation. * Certain flights are given priority over others according to a categorization table. * When two or more flights of different categories request clearance, the flight with the highest category is dealt with first. * Flow control procedures are implemented and actioned by the Central Flow Management Unit, and a flow control priority is allocated automatically on receipt of a flight plan.

Answer 10

Upon receiving the estimated delay for an approach, a pilot will determine whether they can continue to the aerodrome or divert to a suitable alternative aerodrome.

Answer 11

A pilot's declaration of "MINIMUM FUEL" indicates that no further fuel diversion options are available, and the aircraft is committed to land at the nominated aerodrome with not less than 'final reserve fuel'. **Final reserve fuel:** * Typically 30 minutes of flight for turbine-powered aircraft. * Typically 45 minutes of flight for piston-powered aircraft. *(Note: "MINIMUM FUEL" RTF phraseology is not universally used by every aircraft operator and pilot.)*

Answer 12

No, controllers are not required to provide priority to pilots of aircraft that have declared "MINIMUM FUEL" or have indicated that they are becoming short of fuel.

Answer 13

Controllers shall respond to a pilot's declaration of "MINIMUM FUEL" by: * Confirming the estimated delay they can expect to receive expressed in minutes, or no delay, when the pilot is en-route to, is joining, or is established in an airborne hold. * Expressing the remaining track mileage from touchdown if the aircraft is being vectored to an approach (SERA.11012(a)).

Answer 14

At locations where EATs (Estimated Approach Times) are not issued until the delay reaches a particular value, controllers must provide a general indication of the delay, based on the best information available at that time (see ENR 1.9-4).

Answer 15

Controllers shall keep pilots informed of any increase in delay or increase in track mileage after the pilot's initial declaration of "MINIMUM FUEL," following which the controller can expect the pilot to declare an emergency. Once in possession of either the estimated delay or remaining track mileage, the pilot will determine whether they can continue to the aerodrome with or without declaring a fuel emergency.

Answer 16

Pilots should use the RTF phraseology "MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY" or "MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL" to declare an emergency. Controllers shall provide these aircraft with flight priority category A (SERA.11012(b)).

Answer 17

Controllers should ask the pilots to confirm if they are declaring an emergency. If there is no formal declaration of an emergency, controllers are not required to give priority to the flight.

Answer 18

**Category A: Highest priority** * Aircraft in emergency (e.g., engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill passenger) * Aircraft declaring a 'Police Emergency' * Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when safety of life is involved **Category B:** * Search and Rescue or other humanitarian flights * Police flights under normal operational priority * Other flights authorized by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights **Category C:** * Royal Flights * Flights carrying visiting Heads of State **Category D:** * Flights carrying the Prime Minister, Chancellor of the Exchequer, Home Secretary, or Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs * Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA **Category E:** * HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights * Other flights authorized by the CAA, including flight check aircraft on time or weather-critical calibration flights **Normal Flights:** * Flights with a filed flight plan conforming to normal routing procedures * Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit (RTF callsign “EXAM”) **Category Z: Lowest priority** * Training, non-standard, and other flights *Note: Ambulance aircraft carry patients or casualties, whereas medical aircraft carry harvested organs, biological material, medical equipment, and/or medical personnel. Search and Rescue aircraft may operate as ambulance or medical aircraft.*

Answer 19

**Flights within controlled or advisory airspace:** * A current flight plan, estimate, and control information must be passed to the receiving ACC, sector, or unit in sufficient time for analysis before coordination. **Flights passing from one UK FIR to another (not in controlled or advisory airspace):** * Details of flights that have passed an estimate for the FIR boundary or adjacent reporting point should be passed to the appropriate ACC whenever workload and communications permit.

Answer 20

**An estimate message should contain the following information:** * Direction of flight (eastbound or westbound) * Aircraft identification and type * Squawk * Transfer point and ETA * Level * True airspeed * Route * Destination and/or clearance limit

Answer 21

**Revisions to an estimate message must be passed if:** * There are any subsequent changes in Flight Level, Squawk, or route; or * The estimated time varies by more than 2 minutes (SERA.8020(b)(3)). The phraseology for telephoning estimate messages is shown in Appendix E.

Answer 22

Transfer of control is achieved when a flight, operating according to the coordination, reaches the position or level agreed upon between the transferring and accepting units.

Answer 23

Transfer of control normally takes place: * At an agreed reporting point * On an estimate for an FIR boundary * At or passing an agreed level * While the aircraft is climbing or descending to a previously agreed level, provided the transferring controller has ensured standard separation will exist between the transferred aircraft and all others for the remainder of the climb or descent.

Answer 24

Transfer of communication should not be confused with transfer of control. Transfer of communication may be allowed so that instructions effective later can be issued. However, an accepting ATC unit in communication with an aircraft that has not yet reached the stage of transfer of control must not alter the clearance without the transferring unit's approval.

Answer 25

The Expected Approach Time (EAT) is the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing. The actual time of leaving the holding fix depends on the approach clearance.

Answer 26

* Calculation: EATs are based on the landing rate and the traffic situation, and they are expressed as actual times, not time intervals. * Communication: EATs should be passed to aircraft well in advance and revised as necessary until the aircraft has left the holding facility.

Answer 27

* If the delay is not determined due to reasons other than weather (e.g., an obstruction on the runway), aircraft should be advised with "delay not determined." EATs should be issued as soon as approach procedures can recommence. * The expression "delay not determined" should not be used when changing runways. * Delays should be forecast with reasonable accuracy, and EATs should be passed to aircraft.

Answer 28

When flow management is in force and an ATC clearance contains a CTOT, the controller at the aerodrome must arrange the traffic so that the aircraft departs within the tolerance specified in MATS Part 2, in compliance with UK Reg (EU) No. 255/2010, which details Common Rules on air traffic flow management.

Answer 29

* The first aircraft entering the holding pattern should be informed: "no traffic delay expected." * Subsequent aircraft should be informed: "delay not determined, (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement."

Answer 30

**Formations are considered a single unit for separation/deconfliction if they stay within the following parameters: ** **Class A/C/D and IFR in Class E Airspace:** * Military Aircraft: 1 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader. * Civilian Aircraft: 0.5 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader. * All Aircraft: As agreed following prior tactical negotiation between appropriate civilian and military supervisors or as detailed in an Airspace Coordination Notice (ACN) specific to the formation flight. **Class F/G and VFR in Class E Airspace:** * Military Aircraft: 1 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader. * Civilian Aircraft: 0.5 NM laterally and longitudinally, within 100 ft vertically of the formation leader. * All Aircraft: Subject to tactical ATC approval, 3 NM laterally and longitudinally and/or up to 1,000 ft vertically, or as detailed in an ACN specific to the formation flight.

Answer 31

* The callsign of the formation leader and the number of aircraft in the formation should be included in flight plans. * When making initial contact with the ATC unit, formation leaders should clearly state the number of aircraft in the formation. * Controllers must ensure that this information is obtained before establishing an Air Traffic Service (ATS).

Answer 32

* A discrete SSR code should be allocated to the lead aircraft. * All other aircraft should normally be instructed to squawk 'standby'. * If the formation stream extends for 3 NM or more, the last aircraft should also be allocated the same code. * For longer streams, the code should be allocated to intermediate aircraft as appropriate.

Answer 33

* All ATC instructions and clearances should be addressed to the formation leader. * The formation leader is responsible for ensuring safe separation between aircraft in the formation. * For military aircraft, this responsibility is known as "Military Accepts Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft" or MARSA.

Answer 34

* Clearly state the number of aircraft in a formation. * Identify the full extent of any formation more than 1 NM in length.

Answer 35

* Civilian VFR transit, arrival, and departure formation flights may take place in CTA/CTR/TMA without NSF approval, subject to normal airspace entry requirements, general requirements and procedures, and additional controlled airspace procedures. * All other civilian formation flights within such airspace, including SVFR, require NSF approval as detailed in UK AIP ENR 1.1.4. * In considering NSF requests, unit operations departments or ATC Supervisors should assess the impact on the control task and airspace, considering current and forecast meteorological conditions.

Answer 36

**Formation flights by military aircraft may take place in controlled airspace without NSF approval, subject to:** * Normal airspace entry requirements * General requirements and procedures * Additional controlled airspace procedures specified (next card)

Answer 37

Formations should be considered non-RVSM compliant, regardless of the RVSM status of the individual aircraft types.

Answer 38

All aircraft in the formation must monitor the relevant ATC frequency.

Answer 39

Before a formation enters CAS, controllers must obtain confirmation on RT that all aircraft in the formation are within the parameters specified in paragraph 15A. If the formation leader reports that they are outside these parameters, controllers must instruct the formation to remain clear of controlled airspace and establish their intentions.

Answer 40

* Controllers must obtain confirmation that all elements of the formation have vacated the level in question before re-allocating the previously assigned level. * Formation leaders should confirm when all formation elements have reached the new assigned level.

Answer 41

* The formation leader must immediately inform ATC if formation elements are unable to maintain within the parameters specified in 15A.1. * Controllers must then establish the extent of the formation to provide appropriate instructions and/or information based on the airspace classification and flight rules. * If necessary, additional discrete SSR codes should be allocated to individual aircraft.

Answer 42

The formation leader remains responsible for separation between aircraft in the formation until standard separation is achieved between individual aircraft and each aircraft is identified and placed under service. **Controllers must:** * Provide other IFR traffic with essential traffic information and instructions as necessary. * If practicable, establish standard separation minima between all aircraft in the formation as soon as possible, using ATS surveillance systems if available. If normal separation minima cannot be established, the aircraft should be given as much separation from each other as possible and the formation should be directed to leave controlled airspace by the shortest possible route.

Answer 43

* Civilian controllers may permit an IFR formation to join up in controlled airspace only when one of the aircraft is in emergency and a formation join up is essential. * Military controllers have specific procedures for formation join up in controlled airspace, considering the formation’s proximity to UARs and other airspace users.

Answer 44

* Normal Procedure: Military formation flights within controlled airspace are normally conducted as Operational Air Traffic (OAT). * Exception: There may be occasions when formation flights plan as General Air Traffic (GAT) and receive a service from civil controllers.

Answer 45

* An aircraft in an emergency that needs to break away from the formation must squawk the emergency special purpose code. * It is usual for another element of the formation to follow the emergency aircraft. 1. The emergency aircraft will squawk the emergency code. 2. If the accompanying aircraft is not already in close formation, it will squawk a discrete code until it joins formation with the emergency aircraft. * If the lead aircraft is in an emergency, the formation will advise ATC of the new leader, who must be identified and allocated a discrete squawk.

Answer 46

* UK Military Formations: Standard UK military callsign procedures apply. * Foreign Aircraft: When working with USAF or foreign aircraft, use the suffix “flight” or “formation” to indicate that the call refers to a formation. **Examples:** * "BLACKCAT" – denotes a UK formation. * "BLACKCAT 1" – denotes a UK single element. * "DEADLY 31 flight" – denotes a USAF formation. * "DEADLY 31" – denotes a USAF singleton.

Answer 47

Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) is a generic term that captures all equipment that assists a pilot to avoid a Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) event, including but not limited to: * Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) * Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) * Ground Collision Avoidance System (GCAS)

Answer 48

All turbine-powered aircraft engaged in Commercial Air Transport (CAT) operations with: * A Maximum Certified Take-Off Mass (MCTOM) of more than 5,700 kg, or * More than 9 passenger seats are required to be fitted with a TAWS system.

Answer 49

* When a TAWS warning that requires the pilot to climb immediately is triggered (normally at or below 2,500 ft AGL with a 20-second warning of a CFIT event), pilots will prioritize manually operating their aircraft to respond to the warning. * As a result, informing ATC of their response to the TAWS warning may be delayed.

Answer 50

* Controllers should not dissuade a pilot from climbing their aircraft upon receipt of a TAWS warning. * The controller should acknowledge the message and pass the appropriate pressure setting (QFE, QNH, or Regional Pressure Setting) for confirmation.

Answer 51

* Controllers should be aware that when a TAWS warning instructs a pilot to climb, ACAS Resolution Advisories (RAs) are temporarily suppressed for the aircraft receiving the TAWS warning. * This suppression only affects the aircraft receiving the TAWS warning while the warning remains active. * Other aircraft in conflict that are suitably equipped and not receiving a TAWS warning may still receive an ACAS RA. * Controllers should respond to ACAS RA reports from other aircraft in accordance with section 1, chapter 10, paragraph 6.

Answer 52

* Essential traffic information and/or traffic information/traffic avoidance advice should be passed first to aircraft in conflict with the aircraft responding to a TAWS warning. * Then, essential traffic information and/or traffic information/traffic avoidance advice should be passed to the aircraft responding to the TAWS warning once its Mode C/Mode S altitude report is observed to be at or above the appropriate SMAC level. * Exceptionally, a controller may pass traffic information earlier if it is considered essential to mitigate an actual or perceived risk of collision.

Answer 53

* Notification: CAA Airspace Regulation (AR) will notify ATC units in advance when a flight is allocated NDS. Queries should be addressed to AR. Details appear in Appendix H. * Operational Requirement: Aircraft (both military and civil) with NDS must maintain a specific track and level(s) or a particular route and level(s). * Controller Responsibility: 1. NDS aircraft must not be moved from their pre-planned flight path to avoid rendering them operationally ineffective. 2. If adequate separation cannot be maintained, controllers must seek coordination with the agency providing service to the NDS aircraft.

Answer 54

Unusual Aerial Activity (UAA) includes: * A concentration of aircraft that is significantly greater than normal. * Activities that may require the issue of a Permission or an Exemption from the ANO or RoA Regulations. * Air Shows, Displays, Air Races, or other competitions. * Activities which require the establishment of a temporary ATSU (Air Traffic Service Unit).

Answer 55

* Approval and clearance for a UAA within controlled airspace rest with the relevant airspace controlling authority. * Controllers may become involved in arrangements for UAAs, which can take place in any class of airspace. * Many UAAs, whether in or outside controlled airspace, involve Airspace Regulation (AR) in coordination with the sponsor and other participants. * Notification of the event to the aviation community is required.

Answer 56

* Early Warning: Early warning of all UAAs is essential for timely coordination and notification by Airspace Regulation (AR). * Notice Requirements and Responsibilities: These are described in the UK AIP and Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs). * Notification to ATC Units: 1. AR notifies affected ATC units of airspace reservations or temporary procedures through NOTAM and Airspace Coordination Notices. 2. This initial dissemination may be supplemented by Temporary Operating Instructions or other locally produced briefing material.

Answer 57

Airspace Regulation (AR) is responsible for: * Allocating GAT flight priorities. * Allocating Non-Deviating Status (NDS). * Coordinating Controlled Airspace Temporary (CAS-T) requirements. * Coordinating VVIP/special/calibration flights. * Coordinating air-to-air refuelling. * Coordinating military deployments and exercises.

Answer 58

* Permission: Written permission from the CAA is required for flights by unmanned free balloons in controlled airspace notified for the purposes of Article 92(2) of the ANO 2016. * Compliance: Pilots of controlled balloon flights must comply with the same rules as other aircraft and are subject to normal clearances. Balloons can typically only comply with ATC instructions for changes in level. * Clearance: It is anticipated (but not mandatory) that clearance would be sought before take-off and rarely issued for flights in busy airspace. Balloon flights are not permitted in Class A airspace. * Weather Conditions: The minimum in-flight weather conditions by day are those required for VFR in the relevant class of airspace. * Controller Considerations: Controllers should consider the present and expected traffic situation when considering flight requests and should not hesitate to refuse clearance if other traffic might be compromised. It is unlikely that balloons will operate in wind speeds greater than 15 knots.

Answer 59

Sailplanes: The term 'sailplane' (often referred to as 'glider' for conventional sailplanes) includes: * Conventional sailplanes * Powered sailplanes * Hang gliders * Paragliders * Other comparable craft Types of Lift: * Thermal Lift: Caused by a column of rising air. * Ridge (Orographic) Lift: Caused by rising air on the windward side of a slope or ridge. * Wave Lift: Caused by oscillations on the lee side of high ground due to the disturbance in the horizontal air flow caused by the high ground.

Answer 60

* Route Deviations: Up to 30° around a straight-line route. * Thermalling: Circling in thermals, typically over an area around 0.5 NM wide. * Surveillance Returns: Intermittent, may appear stationary or show downwind drift. * Paragliders/Hang Gliders: Fly with the prevailing wind, flights over four hours and 100 NM common. * Fixed-Wing Sailplanes: Long cross-country flights over 300 NM, speeds between 60 and 130 kt.

Answer 61

* Flight Patterns: Alternates between straight-line flight and periods of gaining height. * Clearance Requests: Mostly from radio-equipped, conventional sailplanes. * Purpose: Cross country flying, crossing/transiting controlled airspace, or exploiting thermal lift. * Path Deviations: Likely to deviate by around 30° or 2 NM. * Altitude Changes: Significant variations expected. * Thermalling Requests: Specific location requests to 'thermal' in controlled airspace.

Answer 62

A sailplane’s heading and track can differ due to wind effects. Pilots navigate by track rather than heading due to the limitations of the magnetic compass, which is mainly useful for indicating cardinal direction.

Answer 63

* Compatibility Decision: Controllers must decide if a sailplane operation is compatible with the prevailing traffic situation. * Lateral Constraints: Controllers may constrain sailplane flights laterally using features on the 1:500,000 Aeronautical Chart (e.g., instructing the pilot to route no further west than a specific town or maintain a set distance from an aerodrome). * Track Specification: Controllers may specify a particular track for the sailplane to follow. * Clearance Timing: If immediate clearance is not possible, the pilot must be advised when it is likely to be granted. * Identification Methods: When identifying a sailplane, controllers should avoid using 'the turn method' and instead use SSR or ADS-B where approved and if the aircraft is equipped.

Answer 64

* Paraglider: 1,000 ft loss for every 1.5 NM * Hang glider: 1,000 ft loss for every 2 NM * Standard Class sailplane: 1,500 ft loss for every 10 NM * Open Class sailplane: 1,000 ft loss for every 10 NM

Answer 65

* Section 1, Chapter 5: Contains details on handling sailplanes operating VFR in Class D airspace and their integration with other VFR and IFR traffic. * Letters of Agreement: Information on Letters of Agreement between ATC units and other airspace users, including gliding operations, is provided in Section 1, Chapter 5. * TRAs: Details of sailplane operations in Temporary Reserved Airspaces (TRAs) are provided in Section 4. * CAP 413: Contains RTF phraseology and explanations of terms relating to sailplane operations.

Answer 66

A Police flight is a flight by an aircraft operating under a Police Air Operator’s Certificate, which facilitates police operations where immediate and rapid transportation is essential. Purposes include: * Responding to a ‘Police Emergency’: Declared by the pilot when immediate response is required due to life being at immediate risk, or when a serious crime or major incident is in progress. * Supporting Ground Personnel: In sensitive and serious operations. * Non-Standard and Other Flights: To support various police operations.

Answer 67

**Flight Category A:** * For aircraft declaring a "Police Emergency". * Callsign: "POLICE [XX or XXX] Alpha". **Flight Category B:** * For normal operational priority. * Controllers may suggest new altitude or minor changes to the operating area to avoid delays to other traffic. * Callsign: "POLICE [XX or XXX]". **Flight Category Z:** * For training, test, and other flights involving police aircraft. * Callsign: "POLICE [XX or XXX] Zulu".

Answer 68

**Radiotelephony Callsign:** * The callsign begins with "POLICE". * The ICAO three-letter telephony designator is "UKP". **Aircraft Identifier:** * A two-digit individual aircraft identifier. * Exceptionally, a three-digit identifier for units operating two or more aircraft, consisting of a two-digit root followed by single digits for each aircraft in a regional operation. **Flight Category Suffix:** * Indicates the priority required by the pilot. * "Alpha": Indicates a 'Police Emergency'. * No Suffix: Indicates flight category 'B' (normal operational priority). * "Zulu": Indicates training, testing, or other flights involving police aircraft.

Answer 69

Police aircraft should select either Mode A0032 or other SSR codes assigned to the Police and promulgated in the AIP. However, if they are receiving a service from an ATS Unit that requires a different setting, they should use the SSR code assigned according to that unit's SSR allocation plan.

Answer 70

A HEMS flight is a flight by a helicopter operating under a HEMS approval, aimed at facilitating emergency medical assistance where immediate and rapid transportation is essential. This includes carrying medical personnel, medical supplies, or ill or injured persons.

Answer 71

**Flight Category A:** * For all HEMS flights on emergency operational tasks. * Callsign: "HELIMED [XX] Alpha". **Flight Category E:** * For aircraft positioning to conduct HEMS duties (e.g., returning to base after delivering a casualty to hospital). * Afforded priority over normal flights. * Callsign: "HELIMED [XX] Echo". **Normal Flight Category:** * Used when SAR aircraft do not require additional priority. * Callsign: "HELIMED [XX]". **Flight Category Z:** * For training, test, and other flights involving HEMS aircraft. * Callsign: "HELIMED [XX] Zulu"

Answer 72

Radiotelephony Callsign: * The callsign begins with "HELIMED". * The ICAO three-letter telephony designator is "HLE". Aircraft Identifier: * A two-digit individual aircraft identifier allocated to each HEMS aircraft by the CAA. Flight Category Suffix: * Indicates the priority required by the pilot. * "Alpha": Emergency operational tasks. * "Echo": Positioning for HEMS duties. * "Zulu": Training, test, and other flights. * No suffix indicates the normal flight category.

Answer 73

SAR flights operate to and from incidents where a response is required for the safety of life. These flights might be time-critical and may involve the transportation of casualties to hospital.

Answer 74

* The callsign used for aircraft engaged in SAR activities is task dependent and can be either “COASTGUARD” or “BRITISH RESCUE”. * Re-tasking: Coastguard callsigns can be re-tasked by the Joint Rescue Coordination Centre (JRCC) and will adopt the callsign "British Rescue". * HEMS Tasks: SAR helicopters may also undertake HEMS tasks and will use the callsign "British Rescue" in these instances.

Answer 75

* Notification of Callsign Change: The ATSU providing the ATS to the aircraft at the time of re-tasking must inform the ATS unit at the departure aerodrome of the change in callsign from 'Coastguard' to 'British Rescue'. * Abbreviation: The callsign "BRITISH RESCUE" may be abbreviated to "RESCUE" by an ATSU within the UK FIR when appropriate after initial contact.

Answer 76

**Flight Category A:** * Applies to SAR or HEMS flights when the safety of life is involved. * Callsign: "BRITISH RESCUE [XXX] Alpha". **Flight Category B:** * Applies to SAR, HEMS, or humanitarian flights when priority is required. * Callsign: "BRITISH RESCUE [XXX] Bravo". **Flight Category E:** * Authorized for SAR aircraft carrying out a positioning flight following a SAR or HEMS task (e.g., returning to base after delivering a patient/casualty). * Callsign: "COASTGUARD [XXX] Echo". **Normal Flight Category:** * Used when SAR aircraft do not require additional priority. * Callsign: "COASTGUARD [XXX]". **Flight Category Z:** * Used for training and testing flights in SAR aircraft. * Callsign: "COASTGUARD [XXX] Zulu".

Answer 77

**BRITISH RESCUE Callsigns:** * ICAO Three-Letter Telephony Designator: SRG * Aircraft Identifier: A three-digit individual aircraft identifier allocated by the JRCC * Suffix: The three-digit identifier will be suffixed with "Alpha" or "Bravo" to indicate the corresponding flight category **COASTGUARD Callsigns:** * ICAO Three-Letter Telephony Designator: SRD * Aircraft Identifier: A three-digit individual aircraft identifier allocated by the JRCC * Suffix: The three-digit identifier may be suffixed with "Echo" or "Zulu" to indicate the corresponding flight category. The absence of a suffix indicates the normal flight category **Training and Testing Flights:** SAR aircraft engaged in training and testing will use the base allocated callsign, prefixed with "Coastguard".

Answer 78

* Definition: A freezing order (previously known as a 'Mareva injunction') is a court order preventing a defendant from removing assets from the UK and the jurisdiction of the court. * Notification: ATS providers and their personnel may be notified of freezing orders imposed on specific aircraft. * Implication: While a freezing order is most likely to be served at the aerodrome where the aircraft is located, it is possible for an order to be notified to an ATS unit concerning an aircraft in flight.

Answer 79

* Establish Communication: Determine if they are in communication with the aircraft specified in the freezing order, which is likely to specify the aircraft registration rather than a callsign. * Inform the Pilot: If the aircraft is being provided with an ATS, the controller should inform the pilot with the following message: * *“You are subject to a Court Order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom, what are your intentions?”* * Procedure Application: This procedure applies regardless of whether the aircraft is conducting an internal UK flight or an international flight.

Answer 80

**Controller Actions:** * Do not take any actions that would compromise flight safety. * Continue providing ATS as normal, even if the pilot continues their flight. * Note that freezing orders are relevant to international flights, but the aircraft could be flying legitimately on an internal flight within the UK. **ATS Provider Procedures:** * Develop and promulgate local procedures for handling situations involving freezing orders. * Consider taking legal advice to ensure procedures are consistent with legal obligations related to the order.