Section 1 General Flashcards
(165 cards)
1
Q
An Air Traffic Service is a generic term meaning variously (4)
A
(1) Air Traffic Control Service;
(2) Air Traffic Advisory Service;
(3) Flight Information Service;
(4) Alerting Service.
2
Q
The objectives of the air traffic services shall be to… (5)
A
(1) prevent collisions between aircraft
(2) prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
(3) expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
(4) provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights
(5) notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required.
3
Q
Air traffic control service shall be provided to (4)
A
(1) IFR flights in airspace Classes A, B, C, D and E;
(2) VFR flights in airspace Classes B, C and D;
(3) SVFR flights;
(4) to all aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
4
Q
What is the definition of and Air Traffic Advisory Service?
A
An Air Traffic Advisory Service is a service provided within Class F airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical, between participating IFR flights. Class F airspace is not currently established in the UK FIRs
5
Q
What is a Flight Information Service?
A
A flight information service is a service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
6
Q
What does a FIS include? (8)
A
(1) SIGMET and AIRMET information
(2) information concerning pre-eruption volcanic activity, volcanic eruptions, and volcanic ash clouds;
(3) information concerning the release into the atmosphere of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals;
(4) information on changes in the availability of radio navigation services;
(5) information on changes in condition of aerodromes and associated facilities, including information on the state of the aerodrome movement areas when they are affected by snow, ice, or significant depth of water;
(6) information on unmanned free balloons;
(7) information on space weather phenomena that have an impact on high frequency radio communications, communications via satellite, GNSS-based navigation, and surveillance systems, and/or pose a radiation risk to aircraft occupants at flight levels; and
(8) of any other information likely to affect safety
7
Q
What is the definition of an Alerting Service?
A
An Alerting Service is provided to notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as required
8
Q
Describe Class A airspace
A
- IFR only
- ATC clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions.
- Separate all aircraft from each other
9
Q
Describe Class D airspace
A
- IFR and VFR
-ATC clearance before entry. Comply with ATC instructions. - (a) Separate IFR flights from other IFR flights;
- (b) Pass traffic information to IFR flights and SVFR flights on VFR flights and give traffic avoidance advice when requested;
- (c) Pass traffic information to VFR flights on all other
flights and provide traffic avoidance advice when requested.
10
Q
What type of airspace is CAS?
A
A, C, D and E
11
Q
Whether verified or not,
Mode C / Mode S altitude reports indicates the
aircraft is either:
(i) at or below the lower limit of CAS;
or
(ii) at or above the upper limit of CAS.
Does this require a MOR and have they infringed CAS?
A
No and No
12
Q
Whether verified or not,
Mode C altitude reports indicates the aircraft is
either:
(i) 100 ft or more above the lower limit of CAS;
or
(ii) 100 ft or more below the upper limit of CAS.
Or
Mode S altitude reporting indicates the
aircraft is:
(iii) Any level above the lower limit of CAS;
or
(iv) Any level below the upper limit of CAS.
Does this require a MOR and have they infringed CAS?
A
Yes and Yes
13
Q
What is the airspace speed limit below FL100?
A
250 kt IAS
14
Q
The 250 kt speed limit does not apply to… (8)
A
(1) flights in Class A and B airspace;
(2) IFR flights in Class C airspace;
(3) for exempted VFR flights in Class C airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS Part 2;
(4) for exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS Part 2;
(5) test flights in accordance with specified conditions;
(6) aircraft taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA;
(7) aircraft subject to a written permission granted by the CAA;
(8) State aircraft such as military aircraft
15
Q
When should a pilot fly IFR?
A
(1) If the airspace has been notified as Class A;
(2) If the meteorological conditions preclude VFR flight or (within a Control Zone) SVFR flight.
16
Q
Semi circular rule- OCAS, when in level flight above 3,000 ft amsl. The altimeter is set to 1013.2 hPa and the cruising level is selected according to the magnetic track unless the aircraft is operated:
A
- In conformity with levels allocated by an appropriate ATSU; or
- In accordance with instrument approach procedures notified by the CAA in relation to an aerodrome.
17
Q
Magnetic track less than 180 degrees- odd or even cruising levels?
A
Odd (FL30, 50, 70, 90 etc. up to FL190)
18
Q
Magnetic track 180 degrees or less than 360 degrees - odd or even cruising levels?
A
Even (FL40, 60, 80,100 etc. up to FL180)
19
Q
SVFR minima for fixed wing
A
ground visibility less than 1500 m and/or cloud ceiling less than 600 ft
20
Q
SVFR minima for helicopters
A
ground visibility less than 800 m and/or cloud ceiling less than 600 ft
21
Q
Responsibilities of a pilot during SVFR (6)
A
(1) must comply with ATC instructions;
(2) is responsible for ensuring that flight conditions enable the pilot to remain clear of cloud, determine their flight path with reference to the surface and keep clear of obstructions;
(3) is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is flown at an indicated airspeed of 140 kt or less in order to provide adequate opportunity to observe any obstacles in time to avoid a collision
(4) is responsible for ensuring for flying within the limitations of their pilot’s licence;
(5) is responsible for complying with the relevant SERA and RoA Regulations low flying restrictions;
(6) is responsible for avoiding Aerodrome Traffic Zones unless prior permission for penetration has been obtained from the relevant ATC unit.
22
Q
When is a pilot required to file a flight plan? (6)
A
(1) any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an ATC Service;
(2) any IFR flight within advisory airspace;
(3) any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services;
(4) any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the Authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with air traffic service units in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification prescribed by the States concerned;
(5) any flight across international boundaries; and ‘Submission of a flight plan’ in the UK, the international borders for flight planning purposes are the international FIR boundaries.
(6) any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome.
23
Q
When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan? (2)
A
(1) if the flight involves flying over the sea more than 10 nm from the UK coast or flying over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations would be difficult;
or
(2) if the pilot intends to fly into an area in which SAR operations are in progress.
24
Q
Definition of an AIRPROX?
A
An AIRPROX is a situation in which, in the opinion of a pilot or a controller, the distance between aircraft as well as their relative positions and speeds have been such that the safety of the aircraft involved was or may have been compromised.
25
If the pilot requests to file an AIRPROX over RTF and ATCO workload isn't high, what details should the pilot pass over the RT? (7)
(1) The words “AIRPROX Report”;
(2) Position at time of incident;
(3) Time of incident;
(4) Altitude/Flight Level (climbing, descending or level flight);
(5) Heading;
(6) Brief details of incident including first sighting and miss distance;
(7) Weather conditions.
26
The ANO requires that an aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome at night if there is a failure of any light which the ANO requires to be displayed and the light cannot be immediately repaired or replaced.
If the aircraft is in flight, what shall they do?
Land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight.
27
Actions when captive balloons break free (6)
The appropriate ACC (SCACC for egnv) shall be telephoned without delay stating:
(1) The type of balloon and whether carrying any person;
(2) Position of balloon site;
(3) Direction and speed of drift;
(4) Last observed height;
(5) Length of cable attached to balloon; and
(6) Balloon operator’s name and telephone number.
28
What is an RMZ?
An Radio Mandatory Zone is airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of suitable/appropriate radio equipment is mandatory.
29
Two-way communication is considered to have been achieved once the pilot has provided at least the following information.... (6)
(1) Callsign
(2) Type of aircraft;
(3) Position;
(4) Level;
(5) Flight rules; and
(6) Intentions of the flight.
and has received acknowledgment from ATS
30
Standard vertical or horizontal separation shall be provided, between... (5)
(1) all flights in Class A
(2) IFR flights in Class C, D and E
(3) VFR flights in Class C
(4) IFR flights and SVFR flights
(5) SVFR flights, except where a reduction is authorised by the CAA.
31
Standard vertical or horizontal separation in Class G, is responsibility of the pilot, but DS or PS, ATCO's will provide information and advice aimed at achieving defined deconfliction minima.
TRUE or FALSE
True
32
Separation standards are minima and shall be increased when... (3)
(1) requested by the pilot;
(2) a controller considers it necessary;
(3) directed by the CAA.
33
Describe reduced separation in the vicinity (3)
(1) adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller; or
(2) each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation; or
(3) when one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports the other aircraft is in sight and can maintain their own separation
34
Can standard sep be reduced between a SAR escort?
Yes, a minimum is not laid down in UK FIRs and separation may be reduced to that which can be maintained visually or with airborne surveillance.
35
If, for any reason, an ATCO is faced with a situation in which two or more aircraft are separated by less than the prescribed minima, e.g. ATC errors or differences in the pilot’s estimated and actual times over reporting points, the controller is to, what?
(1) use every means at their disposal to obtain the required minimum with the least possible delay; and
(2) when considered practicable, pass traffic information if an ATS surveillance service is being provided, otherwise, pass essential traffic information
36
What is the definition of essential traffic information?
is traffic which is separated for any period by less than the specified
standard separation. It is normally passed in situations when ATS surveillance systems are not available.
37
What should essential traffic information include? (4)
(1) Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft;
(2) Type of conflicting aircraft;
(3) Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for aircraft passing through the level of another with less than the normal separation; the ETA for the reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will cross levels; and
(4) Any alternative clearance
38
The vertical separation minima is what, between aircraft flying subsonic?
- Up to FL290 apply 1,000 ft;
- Above FL290 apply 2,000 ft, except that between FL290 and FL410
inclusive, 1,000 ft may be applied between RVSM approved aircraft
operating in airspace designated as being notified for the application of this separation standard
39
An a/c may be instructed to climb or descend to a level previously occupied by another a/c provided what ? (3)
(when an a/c is IFR but requests to descent at their discretion)??
(1) vertical separation already exists;
(2) the vacating aircraft is proceeding to a level that will maintain vertical separation; and
(3) either:
(a) the atco observes that the vacating aircraft has left the level; or
(b) the pilot has reported vacating the level
40
What are the three types of horizontal separation?
(1) Lateral separation;
(2) Longitudinal separation;
(3) Separation based on ATS surveillance system information.
41
What is an exact reporting point?
An ‘exact reporting point’ is a position established by a navigational facility which is:
(1) overhead a VOR;
(2) overhead an NDB;
(3) a position notified as a reporting point and which is established by the intersection of VOR radials, or of a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB;
(4) a position established by a VOR radial combined with a range from a co-located or associated DME.
42
What types of lateral separation are there?
- Track separation, which shall be established by requiring aircraft to fly on specified tracks, which are separated by a minimum amount appropriate to the navigation aid employed.
and
-Geographical separation,
which is indicated by position reports over different geographical locations that have been specified in MATS Part 2 as being separated; and
(2) constant or increasing
43
What type of longitudinal separation are there?
-Time
- Distance
44
What is the definition of the term 'Same Track' ?
When the track of one aircraft is separated from the track of the
other by less than 45°
45
What is the definition of the term 'Reciprocal Track' ?
When the track of one aircraft is separated from the
reciprocal of the other by less than 45°
46
What is the definition of the term ‘Crossing track’ ?
When intersecting tracks which are not classed as ‘same’ or
‘reciprocal’.
47
Describe the 1 minute dep separation ?
Provided that the aircraft fly on tracks diverging by 45° or more
immediately after take-off.
The minimum may be reduced when aircraft are taking-off from independent diverging or parallel runways provided the procedures have been approved by the CAA
48
Describe the 2 minute dep separation ?
Provided that:
(1) the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed 40 knots or
more faster than the following; and
(2) neither aircraft is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that
would decrease the 2-minute separation between them.
49
Describe the 5 minute dep separation ?
Provided that the preceding aircraft has filed a true airspeed of 20
knots or more faster than the following aircraft.
Provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a
reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal
control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated either:
(1) vertically;
(2) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or
(3) by ATS Surveillance.
Only to be used at locations approved by the CAA
50
What does the term Wake Turbulence mean?
...to describe the effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of aircraft
51
What does the term Wake Vortex mean?
...which describes the nature of the air masses
52
Where PSR information is displayed, separation must be applied using the PSR returns, TRUE or FALSE?
True
53
Horizontal separation based on PSR and SSR information displayed
together exists when the distance between the centres of the returns does not represent less than the prescribed minimum provided that returns do not touch or overlap, TRUE or FALSE?
True
54
When approved by the CAA, separation based on ATS surveillance derived information may be applied between an aircraft taking-off and a preceding departing aircraft, or other aircraft in receipt of an ATS surveillance service, provided what?
provided there is a reasonable assurance that the departing aircraft will be identified within one mile from the end of the runway and that, at the time, the required separation will exist.
55
Provided the pilots are made aware of the limitations of the service, SSR only may be used to provide horizontal separation in the following circumstances...
(1) in accordance with MATS Part 2;
(2) to overcome temporary deficiencies within PSR cover, such as fading or clutter, the SSR return only of one aircraft may be used to provide separation from the PSR or SSR return of another aircraft provided the PSR and SSR situation displays are correctly aligned. In this context, ‘unavailable for use due to maintenance’ does not constitute a ‘temporary deficiency’;
(3) immediately after PSR failure for the minimum time necessary to establish procedural separation. Once established, services normally provided using radar may be resumed when the PSR is serviceable.
56
SSR shall not be used to provide horizontal separation if a controller has any doubt about the accuracy of the position symbol due to equipment malfunction, reflections, or any other reason.
TRUE or FALSE ?
True
57
What should an ATC clearance contain?
(1) Aircraft identification as shown in the flight plan;
(2) Clearance limit;
(3) Route, where prescribed in MATS Part 2;
(4) Levels of flight for the entire route or part thereof and changes of levels if required;
Note: Where an airborne joining clearance to enter controlled airspace is provided, the joining level assigned is considered acceptable with respect to the level content of a clearance.
(5) Any necessary instructions or information on other matters such as approach or departure manoeuvres, communications and the time of expiry of the clearance.
58
What is a clearance limit?
A clearance limit is the point to which an aircraft is granted an ATC clearance and shall be specified by naming:
(1) an aerodrome;
(2) a reporting point; or
(3) a controlled or advisory airspace boundary
59
An aircraft shall be cleared for the entire route to the aerodrome of first intended landing when...
(1) it has planned to remain within controlled or advisory airspace throughout the flight;
and
(2) there is reasonable assurance that prior co-ordination will be effected ahead of the passage of the aircraft.
60
What shall be passed when giving a 'Conditional Clearance' ?
(1) callsign of the aircraft or vehicle being given the clearance;
(2) the condition, e.g. “behind…”;
(3) identification of the subject of the condition, e.g. aircraft, reporting point, level etc;
(4) the clearance;
(5) a brief reiteration of the condition. "behind"
“(Callsign), behind the landing (aircraft type), via (holding point), runway (designator) line up behind.”
61
When two or more aircraft are at the same cruising level, who tends to get priority?
The preceding aircraft shall normally have priority
62
An aircraft at a cruising level shall normally have priority over other aircraft requesting that level, TRUE or FALSE ??
True
63
What are your actions when a pilot requests to change their level which is allocated to another cruising a/c?
ATCO's shall use the word “unable” in RTF phraseology and offer an alternative level
64
Shall FL195 be used as a cruising level?
No
65
OCAS below FL195, IFR a/c cruising levels shall be assigned according to the table of cruising levels. However, in accordance with ORS4 No.1578 this is not required, when ?
(1) At or below 3,000 ft amsl.
(2) Above 3,000 ft amsl, when aircraft are operate:
(a) in conformity with levels allocated by an appropriate ATSU; or
(b) in accordance with instrument approach procedures notified by the CAA in relation to an aerodrome
66
A pilot's declaration of "MINIMUM FUEL" indicates what?
And is this declared as an emergency
that there is no further fuel diversion and No
67
As an ATCO how do you respond to a pilot stating 'minimum fuel' ?
- confirming the estimated delay they can expect to receive expressed in minutes
- or no delay, when the pilot is en-route to, is joining, or is established in an airborne hold;
- or expressing the remaining track mileage from touchdown if the aircraft is being vectored to an approach
68
Describe flight priorities A
- Aircraft in emergency (e.g. engine fault, fuel shortage, seriously ill
passenger).
- Aircraft which have declared a ‘Police Emergency’.
- Ambulance/Medical/Search and Rescue aircraft when the safety of
life is involved.
- 'British Rescue' SRG
69
Describe flight priorities B
- Flights operating for SAR or other humanitarian reasons.
- Police flights under normal operational priority.
- Other flights authorised by the CAA, including Open Skies Flights.
- 'British Rescue' SRG
70
Describe flight priorities C
-Royal Flights
-Flights carrying visiting Heads of State
71
Describe flight priorities D
Flights carrying the:
(1) Prime Minister,
(2) Chancellor of the Exchequer,
(3) Home Secretary, or
(4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs.
Flights carrying visiting Heads of Government notified by the CAA.
72
Describe flight priorities E
- HEMS/Search and Rescue positioning flights.
- Other flights authorised by the CAA, including flight check aircraft
engaged on, or in transit to, time or weather critical calibration flights
- 'Coastguard' SRD
73
Describe 'normal' flight priorities
- Flights which have filed a flight plan in the normal way and conforming with normal routing procedures.
- Initial instrument flight tests conducted by the CAA Flight Examining Unit. (RTF callsign “EXAM”)
- 'Coastguard' SRD
74
Describe flight priorities Z
- Training
- non-standard and other flights.
- 'Coastguard' SRD
75
What is Transfer of Control ?
Transfer of control is achieved when a flight, which is operating in accordance with the co-ordination, has reached the position or level agreed between the transferring and accepting units
76
When does Transfer of Control take place?
(1) At an agreed reporting point;
(2) On an estimate for an FIR boundary;
(3) At or passing an agreed level; or
(4) While the aircraft is climbing or descending to a previously agreed level, provided that the transferring atco has ensured that standard separation will exist between the transferred aircraft and all others for the remainder of the climb or descent.
(The phrase “continue as cleared” is not to be used in response to an initial call from an aircraft)
77
What is Transfer of Communication?
Transfer of communication may be permitted so that instructions, which become effective later, can be issued.
78
It is emphasised that an accepting ATC unit which is in
communication with an aircraft not having yet reached the stage of transfer of control shall not alter the clearance without the approval of the transferring unit. TRUE or FALSE
True
79
Definition of EAT ?
EAT is the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing. The actual time of leaving the holding fix will depend upon the approach clearance.
80
What are EAT's based on ?
The landing rate and are calculated according to the traffic
situation.
81
When is the term 'delay not determined' used ?
If, for reasons other than weather, e.g. an obstruction on the runway, the extent of the delay is not known, aircraft are to be advised “delay not determined”. As soon as it is possible for aircraft to re-commence approach procedures, EATs are to be issued.
82
The expression “delay not determined” is not to be used when changing runways. TRUE or FALSE
True
83
What term is to be used if an aircraft is holding due to weather ?
“no traffic delay expected”. Subsequent aircraft are to be passed “delay not determined (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement”
84
What are the formation procedures for military and civil aircraft inside CAS? (4)
Military aircraft:
1 NM laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the formation leader;
Civilian aircraft:
0.5 NM laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the formation leader;
- Or as detailed in ACN (airspace co-ordination notice)
- Or prior to tactical negotiation between appropriate civilian and military supervisors;
85
What are the formation procedures for military and civil aircraft OCAS? (4)
Military aircraft:
1 NM laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the formation leader;
Civilian aircraft:
0.5 NM laterally and longitudinally, and within 100ft vertically of the formation leader;
- Or as detailed in ACN (airspace co-ordination notice)
- Or subject to tactical ATC approval, 3 NM laterally and longitudinally &/or up to 1,000 ft vertically
86
During a formation when should you instruct the pilot to squawk 'Standby' ?
Units with SSR should allocate a discrete code to the lead aircraft, all other aircraft should normally be instructed to squawk ‘standby’.
87
During a formation, when the formation extends further than 3nm, what should the last a/c squawk ?
should also be allocated the same code as the leader
88
What does MARSA stand for ?
‘Military Accepts Responsibility for Separation of Aircraft’
89
What are your actions if a VFR formation wants to take place inside CAS?
Civilian VFR transit, arrival and departure formation flights may take place in CTA/CTR/ TMA without NSF approval, subject to the normal airspace entry requirements, the general requirements and procedures above, and the additional controlled airspace procedures specified below.
90
Terrain Awareness and Warning System (TAWS) is a generic term that captures all equipment that assists a pilot to avoid a CFIT event such as, but not limited to...
- Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS);
- Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS); and
- Ground Collison Avoidance System (GCAS).
91
What level is a TAWS warning triggered instructing the pilot to climb immediately, and how long is the warning given to the pilot on a CFIT event.
When the aircraft is at or below 2,500 ft AGL and typically gives a 20 second warning
92
Will pilots prioritise manually operating their aircraft over informing ATC that they are responding to a TAWS warning?
Yes
93
When the pilot informs ATC of a TAWS warning they're responding too, what is the ATCO's actions?
The message should be acknowledged and the appropriate
pressure setting passed for confirmation (QFE, QNH or Regional Pressure Setting).
The warning gives the pilot instruction to climb, so be alert and pass essential t/i if required.
94
What is an NDS flight?
Non-Deviating Status
Aircraft which have been allocated this status have an operational requirement to maintain a specific track and level(s) or a particular route and level(s).
If adequate separation cannot be maintained between other aircraft and the NDS flight, atco's are to seek co-ordination with the agency providing the service to the NDS aircraft.
95
Describe balloon flights inside CAS (6)
-Required to comply with the same rules that apply to other aircraft and subject to normal clearances.
-Practice balloons are only able to comply with instructions from an ATC unit for changes in level. It is anticipated, although not mandatory, that clearance would be sought prior to take-off
and would only rarely be issued for flights in busy airspace.
-VFR conditions only
-Balloon flights are not permitted in Class A airspace.
-Take into account the present and expected traffic situation
- It is unlikely that balloons will be operating in wind speeds of greater than 15 knots.
96
What is a Freezing Order also known as Mareva Injunction ?
Is a court order, which prevents a defendant from removing assets from the UK and, from the jurisdiction of the court.
Upon receipt of such a freezing order, ATS providers
should establish whether they are in communication with the aircraft in question.
“You are subject to a Court Order prohibiting your aircraft from leaving the United Kingdom, what are your intentions?”.
97
Describe the operation of gliders inside CAS
- Many gliders are radio equipped and therefore may request transit through Class D CAS under VFR in accordance with the normal airspace procedures.
- Assess traffic situation
- May not be able to adhere to specific levels or routes and may not be able to supply precise details of their intentions.
98
What does surveillance services comprise of? (5)
(1) separation of arriving, departing and en-route traffic;
(2) vectoring;
(3) position information to assist in the navigation of aircraft;
(4) monitoring traffic to provide information to the procedural controller;
(5) assistance to aircraft crossing controlled airspace.
99
Before you provide any services to an a/c using surveillance services you shall either...
(1) identify the aircraft, using a method appropriate to the surveillance system in use; or
(2) have had the identity of the aircraft transferred from another controller.
(The act of identifying an aircraft does not imply that a service is being given).
100
Surveillance systems may also be used to provide the following, whether or not the aircraft has been identified...
(1) Information on the position of aircraft likely to constitute a hazard;
(2) Avoiding action;
(3) Information about observed weather for pilots and other controllers; and
(4) Assistance to aircraft in emergency.
101
When is a pilot advised if their service commences, terminates or changes?
(1) OCAS
(2) entering CAS, except when entering CAS in connection with an IFR flight holding in Class E
(3) changing from IFR to VFR or VFR to IFR within Class E
(4) VFR flights entering Class B-D airspace from Class E airspace, or VFR flights leaving Class B-D airspace to enter Class E airspace;
(5) leaving CAS:
(a) unless pilots are provided with advance notice or
(b) except when leaving CAS in connection with an IFR flight holding in Class E airspace
102
For flights leaving CAS atco's should provide pilots with advance
notice, how?
(1) the lateral or vertical point at which the aircraft will leave CAS. Such notice should be provided between 5-10 NM or 3,000-6,000 ft prior to the boundary of CAS;
(2) the type of ATS that will subsequently be provided, unless the aircraft is coordinated and transferred to another ATS unit before crossing the boundary of CAS.
103
A Radar Control Service may be provided to aircraft operating...
(1) IFR,
(2) Special VFR; and
(3) VFR in Class B-D airspace
104
When providing a radar service controllers issue instructions to...
(1) pilots of aircraft operating IFR are required to comply; and
(2) pilots of aircraft operating Special VFR or VFR will comply unless they advise the controller otherwise.
105
Describe the turn method (PSR identification)
An aircraft may be identified by ascertaining its heading and, following a period of track observation, correlating the observed movement of a particular Position Indication with:
(1) the acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30°;
(2) one or more changes of heading of at least 30°‚ as instructed by another controller;
(3) one or more changes of heading of at least 30° reported by the pilot.
-ATCO's should take into consideration, terrain, other surveillance
returns, PSR coverage and the RoA Regulations before instructing an aircraft to alter heading.
106
Describe the departing method (PSR identification)
By observing and correlating the Position Indication of a departing aircraft to a known airborne time. Identification is to be achieved within one mile of the end of the runway unless otherwise authorised by the CAA.
Particular care should be taken to avoid confusion with aircraft overflying the aerodrome, making a MAP, departing from an adjacent runway or holding overhead the aerodrome
107
Describe the reporting method (PSR identification)
By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is:
(1) over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or
(2) at a particular distance not exceeding 30 NM on a particular radial from a co-located VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or
(3) over a notified VRP or prominent geographical feature, in
either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.
108
How do you identify an a/c using Mode A ?
(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four-digit code;
(2) Recognising a validated four-digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity;
(3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.
109
How do you validate Mode A codes ?
(1) Instructing the aircraft to squawk the assigned code and observing that the correct numbers appear on the situation display;
(2) Instructing the aircraft to “squawk IDENT” and simultaneously checking the code numbers associated with the SSR response;
(3) Matching an already identified Position Indication with the assigned code for the flight.
110
What are your actions if the Mode A code is incorrect or not appearing ?
- To reset the assigned code
- Where this fails to achieve display of the assigned code then the pilot is to be instructed to select code 0000.
-If a corrupt code still exists, the pilot should normally be instructed to switch off the transponder. However, the corrupt code may be retained to assist identification and tracking provided the Mode C has been verified. Associated ATC units are to be informed of the retention of corrupt data.
111
An ATCO may deem Mode A codes to be validated when it can be ascertained from the Code Assignment Plan, unless what? (2)
(1) the code is promulgated as being unvalidated; or
(2) the controller has been notified that the code is corrupt.
112
What is a special purpose code? and are these Validated and Verified? (4)
(1) Emergency codes 7500, 7600 and 7700;
(2) Code 1000, to indicate an aircraft conducting IFR flight as GAT, where the downlinked aircraft identification is validated as matching the aircraft identification entered in the flight plan;
(3) Code 2000 which is selected by pilots of aircraft entering the UK from an adjacent FIR where the operation of transponders has not been required; and
Note: Code 2000 is also used for the purpose of IFR conspicuity.
(4) Code 7007, which is selected by aircraft engaged on airborne observation flights under the terms of the Treaty on Open Skies. Flight Priority Category B status has been granted for such flights and details will be published by NOTAM.
And not V & V
113
114
Pilots are required to squawk a VFR or IFR conspicuity when operating at and above FL100 and are advised to do so when below FL100 unless? and are these Validated and Verified? (4)
(1) they have been assigned a discrete code;
(2) they are transponding on one of the special purpose codes, a frequency monitoring code, or on one of the other specific conspicuity codes assigned in accordance with the Code Assignment Plan;
(3) they are flying below 3,000 ft in the aerodrome traffic pattern and have been instructed to select the aerodrome traffic pattern conspicuity code (7010); or
(4) on grounds of safety the aircraft has been instructed to squawk standby. In view of the associated reduction in protection from ACAS, such circumstances are to be regarded as exceptional. ATSUs shall log the circumstances and duration of any such occurrences. Records are to be made available to the CAA on request.
And not V & V
0024-CLB
0033- PARA
2000 IFR cons
7000 VFR cons
7001 LL mil
7002 Danger area general
7003 Red Arrows
7004 Aerobatics
7005 High energy manoeuvres
7006 Autonomous Operations within TRA and TRA (G)
7010 CCT
115
What are Frequency Monitoring Codes used for?
To prevent and mitigate airspace infringements, pilots operating close to CAS may select local SSR conspicuity codes and monitor the promulgated frequency.
Selection of such codes and associated frequency monitoring does not imply the provision of any form of ATS.
Procedures for the use of monitoring codes and actions to be taken by controllers shall be detailed in MATS Part 2
116
What are the 2 levels of Mode S, and what are they?
Elementary and Enhanced
Elementary Mode S provides selective interrogation of aircraft, and the aircraft identification Down-Linked Airborne Parameter (DAP).
Enhanced Mode S enables further DAPs from an aircraft’s flight management system, which include:
(1) Selected altitude
(2) IAS;
(3) ground speed;
(4) magnetic heading;
(5) rate of climb / descent.
117
What is a TMZ?
A TMZ is airspace of defined dimensions within which aircraft are required to carry and operate a Mode S SSR transponder, unless in compliance with alternative provisions prescribed for that particular airspace by the ANSP.
118
How can you transfer the identify of an a/c if only PSR is available?
(1) Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used.
If the information on two situation displays is derived from separate PSR heads the transferring atco must ensure that the blips on both displays correlate before using this method.
(2) Designation of the Position Indication in terms of a direction and distance from a common reference point (geographical position or navigational facility) accurately indicated on both displays.
The Position Indication, as seen by the accepting controller, must be within 3 NM of the position stated. The distance between the aircraft and the reference point must not exceed:
(a) 30 NM, if the aircraft is flying along a published ATS route or direction is given as a bearing in degrees;
(b) 15 NM in other circumstances.
(3) Designation of the Position Indication by positioning an electronic marker or symbol so that only one Position Indication is indicated and there is no possible doubt of correct identification.
119
You should advise an a/c that you have lost identity, unless in what circumstance ?
When using SSR, atcos may be temporarily unable to read the data blocks associated with aircraft due to overlapping or garbling.
Although this constitutes a loss of identification, the pilot need not be advised that identification has been lost if the atco anticipates that identification will be re-established immediately the overlapping or garbling ceases.
120
121
When should a pilot be informed of their position?
(1) Following identification of the aircraft using the turn method;
(2) When the pilot requests the information;
(3) When the aircraft is flying off the correct track;
(4) When an aircraft estimate differs significantly from the atco’s estimate based on ATS surveillance system observation; and
(5) When the pilot is instructed to resume their own navigation following vectoring, if considered necessary by the atco.
122
Do you need to inform a/c that their identified or pass position information inside CAS?
Methods of Identification-
SSR
Turn
Departing aircraft
Position Report
No, only by the Turn Method
123
Do you need to inform a/c that their identified or pass position information OCAS?
Methods of Identification-
SSR
Turn
Departing aircraft
Position Report
Yes to all of the methods that they are identified BUT only need to inform them of their position is using the Turn Method
124
If an a/c is under is BS, do you need to inform them that they are identified from any method?
May identify them to facilitate co-ordination or to assist in the provision of generic navigational assistance, but is not required to inform the pilot that identification has taken place or to pass a position report.
125
How is position information passed? (5)
(1) A well-known geographical position;
(2) Bearing (using points of the compass) and distance from a known position;
(3) Magnetic track and distance to a location displayed on the situation display that is a reporting point, an en-route navigational aid, or an approach aid;
(4) Latitude and Longitude (by specific units only when authorised in Mats 2) or
(5) Distance from touchdown if the aircraft is on final approach.
126
Vertical separation using Mode C is not applied against aircraft transponding A0000. TRUE or FALSE
True
127
Minimum vertical separation may be applied between verified Mode C transponding aircraft provided the intentions of both aircraft are known to a controller because either: (3)
(1) they are under their control;
(2) they have been coordinated; or
(3) they are operating in accordance with established agreements.
128
Controllers are to verify the accuracy of Mode C data, once the aircraft has been identified and the Mode A validated, by checking that the readout indicates ___ft or less from the level reported by the pilot
200ft
129
An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates ___ft or less from that level;
200ft
130
An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of ___ft or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction;
400ft
131
An aircraft climbing or descending may be considered to have passed through a level when the Mode C readout indicates that the level has been passed by ____ft or more and continuing in the required direction
400ft
132
An aircraft may be considered to have reached an assigned level when three successive Mode C readouts indicate ___ft or less from that level
200ft
133
The transfer of responsibility for an aircraft from one controller to another may be effected provided that: (3)
(1) satisfactory two-way speech communication is available between them;
(2) the identity has been transferred to, or has been established by, the accepting controller; and
(3) the accepting controller is informed of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the aircraft at the stage of transfer
134
Control of arriving aircraft may be transferred to Approach Radar Control, when other aircraft would otherwise delay the released aircraft’s progress, in accordance with the following conditions:
(1) The transfer of control message is prefixed “radar release”;
(2) Details of all conflicting aircraft are passed to the approach radar controller;
(3) Conflicting aircraft are either transferred to Approach Radar Control or identified according to the accepting controller’s decision; and
(4) Neither the track nor the level of the conflicting aircraft is altered without co-ordination.
135
Controllers should monitor the operation of aircraft in adjacent
uncontrolled airspace, particularly if circumstances have made it necessary to vector an aircraft to be less than ___NM from the boundary
2nm
136
When can you vector a/c OCAS ? (3)
(1) when an emergency situation arises
(2) when avoiding severe weather; the circumstances must be explained to the pilot before the aircraft leaves controlled airspace; and
(3) when specifically requested by the pilot.
137
What is the minimum terrain clearance within the defined
final approach area?
Achieved if levels are assigned in accordance with a procedure approved by the CAA
138
What is the minimum terrain clearance within the Surveillance
Minimum Altitude Area?
Levels allocated must be in accordance with the information
published on the SMAC
139
What is the minimum terrain clearance within the 30 NM of
the radar antenna associated with the unit providing the service?
1,000 ft above any fixed obstacle within:
(1) 5 NM of the aircraft; and
(2) 15 NM ahead and 20° either side of the aircraft’s
track.
When the aircraft is within 15 NM of the antenna, and
provided a SMAC or approved procedure has been notified,
the 5 NM in (1) and the 15 NM in (2) may be reduced to 3
and 10 NM respectively.
140
What is the minimum terrain clearance Outside the phases
above?
1,000 ft above any fixed obstacle:
(1) which lies within 15 NM of the centreline of the ATS
route; or
(2) within 30 NM of the aircraft (for all other flights).
In sections of control areas where the base is defined as a
flight level, the lowest useable level normally provides not
less than 1,500 ft terrain clearance
141
Definition of an Unknown A/C
A position symbol which cannot be associated with an aircraft known by the controller to be operating within the airspace concerned shall be considered to represent an unknown aircraft.
142
Action by ATCO inside class D airspace regarding unknown a/c
If surveillance derived, or other information, indicates that an aircraft is making an unauthorised penetration of the airspace, is lost, or has
experienced radio failure:
IFR flights shall be given traffic avoidance advice and traffic information shall be passed.
VFR and SVFR flights shall be given traffic information and if requested by the pilot or when deemed necessary by the controller, traffic avoidance advice shall be suggested; see note 1
(When providing traffic avoidance advice, controllers shall remind pilots of their responsibility to remain clear of cloud with the surface in sight)
143
Action by ATCO inside class G airspace regarding unknown a/c
Flights receiving either the DS or PS shall be given traffic information and deconfliction advice in accordance with CAP 774
When the atco considers that more immediate action is required by the pilot, traffic avoidance advice may be passed by ATC before traffic information.
Flights receiving either the TS or BS shall be given traffic information in accordance with CAP 774
144
When traffic avoidance advice is issued on request to VFR/SVFR aircraft under Radar Control Service, controllers are not required to achieve separation minima. TRUE or FALSE
Should you advise pilots when the confliction no longer exists?
True and Yes
145
What shall traffic information include to a pilot ? (4)
(1) Bearing from the aircraft in terms of the 12-hour clock (when the aircraft is turning, direction of the unknown aircraft by compass points);
(2) Distance from the aircraft in nautical miles;
(3) Direction in which the unknown aircraft is proceeding, e.g. “traffic is opposite direction/crossing left to right”, etc; and
(4) Height information when available, this may include the unverified Mode C of unknown aircraft.
146
If a pilot is cleared to follow their own navigation, or accepts a heading, in order to avoid weather, the pilot should be requested to report when able to accept vectors back on-track. TRUE or FALSE
True
147
Clutter on the situation display has the potential to impact on ATS provision in the following ways... (5)
(1) Increased risk of the controller not detecting conflicting traffic.
(2) Aircraft position symbols, track histories, data blocks may be hidden or obscured.
(3) Spurious track(s) may be generated, which may be indistinguishable from genuine aircraft returns.
(4) There may be in delay in aircraft being identified and placed under an ATS.
(5) Increased controller workload
148
In the event of clutter being present on the situational display OCAS controllers should consider the nature and extent of the clutter and if necessary, take the following actions: (3)
(1) For aircraft in receipt of a DS or TS, controllers
should inform the pilot of the extent of the clutter and where practicable offer a reroute.
(2) For aircraft in receipt of a TS, and those aircraft under a DS that are not rerouted as above, controllers shall inform pilots of a reduction in traffic information/deconfliction advice as detailed within CAP 774. If the controller cannot maintain aircraft identity, the service shall be terminated.
(3) For all surveillance services, in order to maintain track identity of aircraft being vectored to final approach, if re-routing around the clutter is not practicable for the reasons specified above, an alternative type of approach may need to be conducted.
149
In the event of clutter being present on the situational display Inside CAS controllers should consider the nature and extent of the clutter and if necessary, take the following actions: (3)
(1) The controller may vector the aircraft around the clutter; however, this might not be practicable due to traffic density, airspace availability and/or the requirement to follow specific arrival or departure tracks.
(2) If the intensity of the clutter is such that the controller is not able to clearly see the aircraft’s PSR or SSR position symbol, radar separation shall not be used to separate it and other controlled aircraft.
(3) The controller may provide IFR traffic in Class E airspace with reduced traffic information.
150
Definition of Transition Altitude
Transition altitude is the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitude (or height when QFE is used).
151
Definition of Transition Layer
Transition layer is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level. Within the UK, the first available flight level above the transition altitude is separated from the transition altitude by a minimum pressure interval corresponding to a nominal 1,000 ft.
152
Definition of Transition Level
Transition level is the lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition altitude and shall be located at least a nominal 1,000 ft above the transition altitude to permit the transition altitude and the transition level to be used concurrently in cruising flight, with vertical separation ensured
153
Definition of Visual Manoeuvring (Circling)
If an aircraft makes an instrument approach that is to be followed by a visual manoeuvre (circling) to land on another runway, as appropriate, the QFE aerodrome or QFE threshold is to be given
154
How long are temporary control zones and temporary control areas established for regarding Royal Flights? (Fixed Wing Only)
(for outbound flights) of 15 minutes before, until 30 minutes after the ETD, or
(for inbound flights) for a period of 15 minutes before until 30 minutes after the ETA at the aerodrome concerned.
155
What is established for Royal Flights (helicopters) ?
a Royal Low-Level Corridor will be promulgated by NOTAM, details of which are contained in the UK AIP (ENR) Section.
156
Typically ___seconds before the assumed collision (Traffic Advisory (TA) warning)
45 seconds
157
Typically ___seconds before the assumed collision (Resolution Advisory (RA) warning)
30 seconds
158
What are pilots actions regarding TA?
Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action on the basis of
TA information alone but may ask for traffic information. Pilot
looks for conflicting aircraft visually.
Does NOT manoeuvre.
159
What are pilots actions regarding RA?
Pilot receives advice to climb, descend or maintain their
existing flight profile. Rate of climb or descent may also be
given.
Pilots are expected to respond immediately but have
been instructed to restrict manoeuvres to the minimum
necessary to resolve the confliction, advise the ATC unit as
soon as is practical thereafter and return to their original flight
path as soon as it is safe to do so.
160
Pilot: (C/S) TCAS RA
What is your response?
Controller: (C/S) ROGER
161
Pilot: (C/S) CLEAR OF CONFLICT RETURNING TO (assigned clearance)
or
Pilot: (C/S) CLEAR OF CONFLICT (assigned clearance) RESUMED
What is your response?
Controller: (C/S) ROGER (or alternative instructions)
162
Why do you pass Traffic Information to other ATSU?
The purpose of traffic information is to enable the recipient to determine whether or not any action is necessary to achieve or maintain the required separation between the subject aircraft.
163
Definition of Co-ordination
Co-ordination is the act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged.
164
When requesting co-ordination, a controller shall? (3)
(1) make verbal contact with the appropriate controller and, after identifying themselves, open the dialogue with the words “Request Co-ordination”;
(2) refer to their aircraft and the aircraft upon which co-ordination is requested in the order most appropriate to the situation;
(3) propose a course of action upon which agreement is requested and obtain a clear decision on that proposal. To ensure clarity and avoid misunderstandings, before terminating the call, parties shall explicitly state the action required of their aircraft to achieve the agreed course of action.
165
Speed control should not be applied in the following circumstances...
(1) In holding patterns, other than where published on approach charts; and
(2) In areas of thunderstorms or known turbulence
