SECTION 1 - SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

When was the RQ-1 Predator built?

A

January 1994

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Armed, multi-mission, medium-altitude, long endurance.

A

MQ-1/MQ-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This mode will guide the missile directly to the target along the launch line of sight.

A

LOAL Direct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance.

A

Wind shear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Utilizes a Rotax 914 turbo charged four-cylinder engine. (115 HP)

A

MQ-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When was the RQ-1 used operationally?

A

July 1995

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The most common upper level clouds.

A

Cirrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Secures the area and notifies the disaster response team for any dropped or partially armed munitions.

A

On-Scene Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Composed of four sections guidance warhead propulsion and control.

A

AGM 114

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ISR, CAS, CSAR, precision strike, buddy lase, friendly force overwatch, route clearance and target development.

A

MQ-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Contain the most severe weather hazards to flight.

A

Thunderstorms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Equipped with a Honeywell TPE331-10 turboprop engine capable of reverse thrust.

A

MQ-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A HEAT warhead designed to defeat reactive armor targets.

A

P warhead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Improved sensor suite used on the MQ-9.

A

AN/DAS-1A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Joint service weapon that uses an onboard GPS and INS guidance set with the MK 82 warhead.

A

GBU-38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This configuration for the hellfire guidance allows for engagement of targets located behind the aircraft.

A

Hellfire P+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This aircraft uses aviation gas.

A

MQ-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Abrupt variations in wind speed and direction.

A

Turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This is declared for any aircraft experiencing an aircraft fire hung ordinance.

A

IFE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DTV and IR nose cameras are mounted in the nose of the aircraft. (pilot’s view)

A

MQ-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maneuverable freefall weapon that guides to a spot of reflected laser energy.

A

GBU-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What was GA’s earlier RPA called?

A

Gnat-750

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Has a payload of 3000 lbs, a maximum ceiling of 50,000 ft and endurance of 36 hrs.

A

MQ-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This positively prevents AGM-114 missile firing.

A

Wingtip safety pin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A MAC warhead that that needs after target penetration.
N warhead
26
Aircrew report of weather conditions at altitude.
PIREP
27
USAF pushed for what role?
Hunter-Killer role
28
Changed its designation in 2002 with the addition of the AGM-114 Hellfire missiles.
MQ-1
29
This mode will alter the trajectory of the missile to cause a steep impact angle at weapons impact
LOAL High
30
What was the first MQ-9 and when was it's first flight?
Predator B-001 and 2 February 2001
31
Endurance of 14 hours when fully loaded with four AGM 114's and two GBU 12s.
MQ-9
32
This mode will alter the trajectory of the missile to cause a shallow impact angle at weapons impact.
LOAL Low
33
An all electric aircraft with the exception of the hydraulic braking system.
MQ-9
34
The use of this mode is limited.
LOAL Low
35
Missiles designed to receive target location data from the RPA.
Hellfire IIP
36
What requires and tracks targets using reflected laser energy?
The seeker
37
Equipped with seven hard points.
MQ-9
38
These missiles are the most restrictive and require that the target be located within +/-4° of the aircraft heading.
Hellfire II
39
Maximum altitude of 25,000 feet.
MQ-1
40
Larger WEZ than the Hellfire II.
Hellfire IIP
41
Missiles that will have a 3-axis IMU.
Hellfire P+
42
When you may have encountered a munition.
Recognize
43
First ever weaponized RPA and features precision a/g weapons delivery capability.
MQ-1
44
Provide steering commands used by the control section to direct the weapon.
Guidance Electronic Group
45
BFWH that includes a built in fuse delay.
M warhead
46
Contains a metal fuel that optimizes over pressure performance.
N warhead
47
All electric aircraft with control surfaces that are moved by servos.
MQ-1
48
This engagement requires an aircraft to serve as a launch platform, providing a missile for another aircraft or a ground observer
Remote-lase
49
Missile that accelerates the missile to a maximum speed of Mach 1.4.
AGM 114
50
These provide actual steering of the missile.
The fins
51
This mode is used for many tactical situations that require precise impact angles in moderate dispersal fragmentation.
LOAL Direct
52
Two engagement methods by which the missile can be guided to the target.
Self-lase and remote-lase
53
Allows kinetic penetration of a target, such as an automobile, prior to warhead detonation.
M warhead
54
This mode is ideal for personnel targets.
LOAL High
55
This engagement requires the aircraft launching the missile to guide it all the way to the target after the missile is away.
Self-lase
56
Aircrews will not take off if greater than:
Moderate turbulence
57
This section processes decodes the electric signal.
Computer section
58
This section is responsible for developing mechanical power necessary to actuate the control fins that guides the weapon.
Control section
59
Location of the MQ-9's seven hard points.
Three under each wing and one under the fuselage
60
Currently in use on the GBU-12.
The standard Mk82 general-purpose blast fragmentation bomb
61
Does not have an off-boresight capability.
GBU-12
62
Commonly referred to as a buddy lase.
Remote-lase
63
Do not touch move or disturb.
Retreat
64
Similar to light turbulence but of greater intensity.
Moderate turbulence
65
Secures the area and notifies the disaster response team.
On-Scene Commander
66
Safe withdrawal distance for a dropped or partially armed munitions, not involving fire.
300 ft
67
Relatively flat bases, dome shaped tops and a cauliflower appearance.
Cumulus
68
Notify the appropriate personnel.
Report
69
Set to a Mode 3a of 7700.
Aircraft IFF/SIF transponder
70
All personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for one hour after the last attempt to fire a hung weapon.
Hung ordinance
71
Prevents the laser from firing.
Laser safety pins
71
RPA operation in turbulence is permitted if the aircraft is operated within:
Maneuvering speed limitations
72
Summation of sky cover up to 2/8ths.
Few
73
Large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude.
Severe turbulence
75
Summation of sky cover of 3/8ths through 4/8ths.
Scattered
76
Lightning can also interrupt the:
Ku-band datalink
77
Display a wealth of information about present and approaching weather and provide you visible evidence of atmospheric motions, water content and stability.
Clouds
78
Aircraft violently tossed around with control virtually impossible.
Extreme turbulence
79
Large, dense, towering clouds with cauliflower-like tops which can range from as low as 500 feet to generally no higher than 15,000 unless in extreme cases.
Cumulonimbus
80
A term used to describe the absence of clouds or obscuring phenomena.
Clear
81
Summation of sky cover a 5/8ths through less than total cloud cover of an area.
Broken
82
Summation of total sky cover.
Overcast
83
Low-level cloud with clearly defined edges and are generally found below 6,500 feet but could reach altitudes of 8,000 feet.
Cumulus
84
Fire is involved, the withdrawal distance extends to:
4,000 ft
85
When precipitation evaporates completely in dry air beneath the cloud base.
Virga
86
Equipped with surge protection systems.
GCS
87
Has no lightning protection.
GDT
88
The distance the supported unit needs the aircraft to stay away from the target.
Standoff
89
This slant range standoff will produce the best picture quality while also minimizing aircraft noise signature.
3 to 6 nm
90
Can mostly be found between 16,000 feet and 45,000 feet.
Cirrus
91
Three-dimensional science.
Flying
92
The only real way to improve sensor performance in high atmospheric attenuation environments is to:
Get closer to the target and reduce the slant range
93
Place the aircraft:
Between the target and the sun
94
Aids in maintaining target PID in a heavily congested area.
Narrower FOVs
95
Thin feathery clouds in patches or narrow bands.
Cirrus
96
Slight and erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude.
Lift turbulence