Security Operations Flashcards
Which of the following is not a common component of configuration management change control steps? A. Tested and presented B. Service level agreement approval C. Report change to management D. Approval of the change
B. A well-structured change management process should be established to aid staff members through many different types of changes to the environment. This process should be laid out in the change control policy. Although the types of changes vary, a standard list of procedures can help keep the process under control and ensure it is carried out in a predictable manner. A change control policy should include procedures for requesting a change to take place, approving the change, documentation of the change, testing and presentation, implementation, and reporting the change to management. Configuration management change control processes do not commonly have an effect on service level agreement approvals. Images A is incorrect because testing and presentation should be included in a standard change control policy. All changes must be fully tested to uncover any unforeseen results. Depending on the severity of the change and the company’s organization, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. This helps show different sides to the purpose and outcome of the change and the possible ramifications. Images C is incorrect because a procedure for reporting a change to management should be included in a standard change control policy. After a change is implemented, a full report summarizing the change should be submitted to management. This report can be submitted on a periodic basis to keep management up to date and ensure continual support. Images D is incorrect because a procedure for obtaining approval for the change should be included in a standard change control policy. The individual requesting the change must justify the reasons and clearly show the benefits and possible pitfalls of the change. Sometimes the requester is asked to conduct more research and provide more information before the change is approved.
A change management process should include a number of procedures. Which of the following incorrectly describes a characteristic or component of a change control policy? A. Changes that are unanimously approved by the change control committee must be tested to uncover any unforeseen results. B. Changes approved by the change control committee should be entered into a change log. C. A schedule that outlines the projected phases of the change should be developed. D. An individual or group should be responsible for approving proposed changes.
A. A well-structured change management process should be put into place to aid staff members through many different types of changes to the environment. This process should be laid out in the change control policy. Although the types of changes vary, a standard list of procedures can help keep the process under control and ensure it is carried out in a predictable manner. All changes approved by the change control committee (not just those unanimously approved) must be fully tested to uncover any unforeseen results. Depending on the severity of the change and the company’s organization, the change and implementation may need to be presented to a change control committee. This helps show different sides to the purpose and outcome of the change and the possible ramifications. Images B is incorrect because it is true that changes approved by the change control committee should be entered into a change log. The log should be updated as the process continues toward completion. It is important to track and document all changes that are approved and implemented. Images C is incorrect because once a change is fully tested and approved, a schedule should be developed that outlines the projected phases of the change being implemented and the necessary milestones. These steps should be fully documented, and progress should be monitored. Images D is incorrect because requests should be presented to an individual or group that is responsible for approving changes and overseeing the activities of changes that take place within an environment.
Device backup and other availability solutions are chosen to balance the value of having information available against the cost of keeping that information available. Which of the following best describes fault-tolerant technologies? A. They are among the most expensive solutions and are usually only for the most mission-critical information. B. They help service providers identify appropriate availability services for the specific customer. C. They are required to maintain integrity, regardless of the other technologies in place. D. They allow a failed component to be replaced while the system continues to run.
A. Fault-tolerant technologies keep information available not only against individual storage device faults, but even against whole system failures. Fault tolerance is among the most expensive possible solutions for availability and is commonly justified only for the most mission-critical information. All technology will eventually experience a failure of some form. A company that would suffer irreparable harm from any unplanned downtime can justify paying the high cost for fault-tolerant systems. Images B is incorrect because service level agreements (SLAs) help service providers, whether they are an internal IT operation or an outsourcer, decide what type of availability technology and service is appropriate. From this determination, the price of a service or the budget of the IT operation can be set. The process of developing an SLA with a business is also beneficial to the business. While some businesses have performed this type of introspection on their own, many have not, and being forced to go through the exercise as part of budgeting for their internal IT operations or external sourcing helps the business understand the real value of its information. Images C is incorrect because fault-tolerant technologies do not necessarily have anything to do with data or system integrity. Images D is incorrect because “hot-swappable” hardware does not require shutting down the system and may or may not be considered a fault-tolerant technology. Hot-swapping allows the administrator to replace the failed component while the system continues to run and information remains available; usually degraded performance results, but unplanned downtime is avoided.
Which of the following refers to the expected amount of time it will take to get a device fixed and back into production after its failure? A. SLA B. MTTR C. Hot-swap D. MTBF
B. Mean time to repair (MTTR) is the expected amount of time it will take to get a device fixed and back into production after its failure. For a hard drive in a redundant array, the MTTR is the amount of time between the actual failure and the time when, after noticing the failure, someone has replaced the failed drive and the redundant array has completed rewriting the information on the new drive. This is likely to be measured in hours. For a nonredundant hard drive in a desktop PC, the MTTR is the amount of time between when the drive goes down and the point at which the replaced hard drive has been reloaded with the operating system, software, and any backed-up data belonging to the user. This is likely to be measured in days. For an unplanned reboot, the MTTR is the amount of time between the failure of the system and the point in time when it has rebooted its operating system, checked the state of its disks, restarted its applications, allowed its applications to check the consistency of their data, and once again begun processing transactions. Images A is incorrect because a service level agreement (SLA) addresses the degree of availability that will be provided to a customer, whether that customer be an internal department within the same organization or an external customer. The MTTR is the expected amount of time it will take to get a device fixed and back into production. The MTTR may pertain to fixing a component or the device or replacing the device. Images C is incorrect because hot-swapping refers to the replacement of a failed component while the system continues to run and information remains available. Usually degraded performance results, but unplanned downtime is avoided. Hot-swapping does not refer to the amount of time needed to get a system back up and running. Images D is incorrect because MTBF refers to mean time between failure, which is the estimated lifespan of a piece of equipment. It is calculated by the vendor of the equipment or a third party. The reason for using this value is to know approximately when a particular device will need to be replaced. It is used as a benchmark for reliability by predicting the average time that will pass in the operation of a component or a system until it needs to be replaced.
Which of the following correctly describes direct access and sequential access storage devices? A. Any point on a direct access storage device may be promptly reached, whereas every point in between the current position and the desired position of a sequential access storage device must be traversed in order to reach the desired position. B. RAIT is an example of a direct access storage device, while RAID is an example of a sequential access storage device. C. MAID is a direct access storage device, while RAID is an example of a sequential access storage device. D. As an example of sequential access storage, tape drives are faster than direct access storage devices.
A. Direct access storage device (DASD) is a general term for magnetic disk storage devices, which historically have been used in mainframe and minicomputer (mid-range computer) environments. A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is a type of DASD. The key distinction between DASDs and sequential access storage devices (SASDs) is that any point on a DASD may be promptly reached, whereas every point in between the current position and the desired position of an SASD must be traversed in order to reach the desired position. Tape drives are SASDs. Tape storage is the lowest-cost option for very large amounts of data but is very slow compared to disk storage. Images B is incorrect because RAIT stands for redundant array of independent tapes. RAIT uses tape drives, which are SASDs. In RAIT, data is striped in parallel to multiple tape drives, with or without a redundant parity drive. This provides the high capacity at low cost typical of tape storage, with higher-than-usual tape data transfer rates and optional data integrity. RAID is a type of DASD. RAID combines several physical disks and aggregates them into logical arrays. When data is saved, the information is written across all drives. A RAID appears as a single drive to applications and other devices. Images C is incorrect because both MAID, a massive array of inactive disks, and RAID are examples of DASDs. Any point on these magnetic disk storage devices can be reached without traversing every point between the current and desired positions. This makes DASDs faster than SASDs. Images D is incorrect because SASDs are slower than DASDs. Tape drives are an example of SASD technology.
Various levels of RAID dictate the type of activity that will take place within the RAID system. Which level is associated with byte-level parity? A. RAID level 0 B. RAID level 3 C. RAID level 5 D. RAID level 10
B. Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) provides fault tolerance for hard drives and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by breaking up the data and writing it across several disks so that different disk heads can work simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Recovery data is also created—this is called parity—so that if one disk fails, the parity data can be used to reconstruct the corrupted or lost information. Different activities that provide fault tolerance or performance improvements occur at different levels of a RAID system. RAID level 3 is a scheme employing byte-level striping and a dedicated parity disk. Data is striped over all but the last drive, with parity data held on only the last drive. If a drive fails, it can be reconstructed from the parity drive. The most common RAID levels used today is level 5. Images A is incorrect because only striping occurs at level 0. Data is striped over several drives. No redundancy or parity is involved. If one volume fails, the entire volume can be unusable. Level 0 is used for performance only. Images C is incorrect because RAID 5 employs block-level striping and interleaving parity across all disks. Data is written in disk block units to all drives. Parity is written to all drives also, which ensures there is no single point of failure. RAID level 5 is the most commonly used mode. Images D is incorrect because level 10 is associated with striping and mirroring. It is a combination of levels 1 and 0. Data is simultaneously mirrored and striped across several drives and can support multiple drive failures.
RAID systems use a number of techniques to provide redundancy and performance. Which of the following activities divides and writes data over several drives? A. Parity B. Mirroring C. Striping D. Hot-swapping
C. Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) is a technology used for redundancy and/or performance improvement. It combines several physical disks and aggregates them into logical arrays. When data is saved, the information is written across all drives. A RAID appears as a single drive to applications and other devices. When striping is used, data is written across all drives. This activity divides and writes the data over several drives. Both write and read performance are increased dramatically because more than one head is reading or writing data at the same time. Images A is incorrect because parity is used to rebuild lost or corrupted data. Various levels of RAID dictate the type of activity that will take place within the RAID system. Some levels deal only with performance issues, while other levels deal with performance and fault tolerance. If fault tolerance is one of the services a RAID level provides, parity is involved. If a drive fails, the parity is basically instructions that tell the RAID system how to rebuild the lost data on the new hard drive. Parity is used to rebuild a new drive so that all the information is restored. Images B is incorrect because mirroring occurs when data is written to two drives at once. If one drive fails, the other drive has the exact same data available. Mirroring provides redundancy. Mirroring occurs at level 1 of RAID systems, and with striping in level 10. Images D is incorrect because hot-swappable refers to a type of disk that is in most RAID systems. RAID systems with hot-swapping disks are able to replace drives while the system is running. When a drive is swapped out, or added, the parity data is used to rebuild the data on the new disk that was just added.
What is the difference between hierarchical storage management and storage area network technologies? A. HSM uses optical or tape jukeboxes, and SAN is a standard of how to develop and implement this technology. B. HSM and SAN are one and the same. The difference is in the implementation. C. HSM uses optical or tape jukeboxes, and SAN is a network of connected storage. D. SAN uses optical or tape jukeboxes, and HSM is a network of connected storage systems.
C. Hierarchical storage management (HSM) provides continuous online backup functionality. It combines hard disk technology with the cheaper and slower optical or tape jukeboxes. The HSM system dynamically manages the storage and recovery of files, which are copied to storage media devices that vary in speed and cost. The faster media hold the data that is accessed more often, and the seldom-used files are stored on the slower devices, or near-line devices. The storage media could include optical disks, magnetic disks, and tapes. This functionality happens in the background without the knowledge of the user or any need for user intervention. A storage area network (SAN), on the other hand, consists of numerous storage devices linked together by a high-speed private network and storage-specific switches. When a user makes a request for a file, he does not need to know which server or tape drive to go to—the SAN software finds it and provides it to the user. Images A is incorrect because SAN is not a standard for how to develop and implement HSM. A SAN is a network of connected storage devices. SANs provide redundancy, fault tolerance, reliability, and backups, and they allow the users and administrators to interact with the SAN as one virtual entity. Because the network that carries the data in the SAN is separate from a company’s regular data network, all of this performance, reliability, and flexibility comes without impact to the data networking capabilities of the systems on the network. Images B is incorrect because HSM and SAN are not the same. HSM uses conventional hard disk backup processes combined with optical/tape jukeboxes. A SAN uses a networked system of storage devices integrated into an established network. Images D is incorrect because the statement is backward. HSM uses optical or tape jukeboxes, and SAN is a network of connected storage systems. HSM was created to save money and time. It provides an economical and efficient way of storing data by combining higher-speed, higher-cost storage media for frequently accessed data with lower-speed, lower-cost media for infrequently accessed data. SANs, on the other hand, are for companies that have to keep track of terabytes of data and have the funds for this type of technology. They are not commonly used in large or midsized companies.
There are often scenarios where the IT staff must react to emergencies and quickly apply fixes or change configurations. When dealing with such emergencies, which of the following is the best approach to making changes? A. Review the changes within 48 hours of making them. B. Review and document the emergency changes after the incident is over. C. Activity should not take place in this manner. D. Formally submit the change to a change control committee and follow the complete change control process.
B. After the incident or emergency is over, the staff should review the changes to ensure that they are correct and do not open security holes or affect interoperability. The changes need to be properly documented and the system owner needs to be informed of changes. Images A is incorrect because it is not the best answer. The changes should be reviewed after the incident is over, but not necessarily within 48 hours. Many times the changes should be reviewed hours after they are implemented—not days. Images C is incorrect because, while it would be nice if emergencies didn’t happen, they are unavoidable. At one point or another, for example, an IT administrator will have to roll out a patch or change configurations to protect systems against a high-profile vulnerability. Images D is incorrect because if an emergency is taking place, then there is no time to go through the process of submitting a change to the change control committee and following the complete change control process. These steps usually apply to large changes that take place to a network or environment. These types of changes are typically expensive and can have lasting effects on a company.
Countries around the world are focusing on cyber warfare and how it can affect their utility and power grid infrastructures. Securing water, power, oil, gas, transportation, and manufacturing systems is an increasing priority for governments. These critical infrastructures are made up of different types of industrial control systems (ICS) that provide this type of functionality. Which of the following answers is not considered a common ICS? A. Central control systems B. Programmable logic controllers C. Supervisory control and data acquisition D. Distributed control systems
A. The most common types of industrial control systems (ICS) are distributed control systems (DCSs), programmable logical controllers (PLCs), and supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems. While these systems provide a type of central control functionality, this is not considered a common type of ICS because these systems are distributed in nature. DCSs are used to control product systems for industries such as water, electrical, and oil refineries. The DCS uses a centralized supervisory control loop to connect controllers that are distributed throughout a geographic location. The supervisor controllers on this centralized loop request status data from field controllers and feed this information back to a central interface for monitoring. The status data captured from sensors can be used in failover situations. The DCS can provide redundancy protection through a modular approach. This reduces the impact of a single fault, meaning that if one portion of the system went down, the whole system would not be down. Images B is incorrect because programmable logic controllers (PLCs) are common industrial control systems (ICS) and are used to connect sensors throughout the utility network and convert this sensor signal data into digital data that can be processed by monitoring and managing software. PLCs were originally created to carry out simplistic logic functions within basic hardware, but have evolved into powerful controllers used in both SCADA and DCS systems. In SCADA systems, the PLCs are most commonly used to communicate with remote field devices, and in DCS systems, they are used as local controllers in a supervisory control scheme. The PLC provides an application programming interface to allow for communication to an engineering control software application. Images C is incorrect because supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to a computerized system that is used to gather and process data and apply operational controls to the components that make up a utility-based environment. It is a common type of ICS. The SCADA control center allows for centralized monitoring and control for field sites (e.g., power grids, water systems). The field sites have remote station control devices (field devices), which provide data to the central control center. Based upon the data that is sent from the field device, an automated process or an operator can send out commands to control the remote devices to fix problems or change configurations for operational needs. This is a challenging environment to work within because the hardware and software are usually proprietary to the specific industry; are privately owned and operated; and communication can take place over telecommunication links, satellites, and microwave-based systems. Images D is incorrect because the distributed control system (DCS) is a common type of ICS. In a DCS, the control elements are not centralized. The control elements are distributed throughout the system and are managed by one or more computers. SCADA systems, DCSs, and PLCs are used in industrial sectors such as water, oil and gas, electric, transportation, etc. These systems are considered “critical infrastructure” and are highly interconnected and dependent systems. In the past, these critical infrastructure environments did not use the same type of technology and protocols as the Internet, and thus were isolated and very hard to attack. Over time, these proprietary environments have been turned into IP-based environments using networking devices and connected IP-based workstations. This shift allows for better centralized controlling and management, but opens them up to the same type of cyber attacks that the computer industry has always been vulnerable to.
John is responsible for providing a weekly report to his manager outlining the week’s security incidents and mitigation steps. What steps should he take if a report has no information? A. Send his manager an e-mail telling her so. B. Deliver last week’s report and make sure it’s clearly dated. C. Deliver a report that states “No output.” D. Don’t do anything.
C. If a report has no information (nothing to report), it should state, “No output.” This ensures that the manager is aware that there is no information to report and that John isn’t just slacking in his responsibilities. Images A is incorrect because John should still deliver his manager a report. It should say “No output.” Even though an e-mail achieves the objective of communicating that there’s nothing to report, a report should still be delivered for consistency. Images B is incorrect because delivering last week’s report does not provide documentation or communicate to John’s manager that there is nothing to report this week. He should give his manager a report that reads, “No output.” Images D is incorrect because if John doesn’t do anything when there is nothing to report, his manager must track John down and ask him for the report. For all she knows, John is slacking on his job duties. By providing a report that reads, “No output,” John is communicating this information to his manager in an efficient manner that she has come to expect.
Brian, a security administrator, is responding to a virus infection. The antivirus application reports that a file has been infected with a dangerous virus and disinfecting it could damage the file. What course of action should Brian take? A. Replace the file with the file saved from the day before. B. Disinfect the file and contact the vendor. C. Restore an uninfected version of the patched file from backup media. D. Back up the data and disinfect the file.
C. The best course of action is to install an uninfected version of a patched file from backup media. Attempts to disinfect the file could corrupt it, and it is important to restore a file that is known to be “clean.” Images A is incorrect because the previous day’s file could also be infected. It is best to replace the file entirely with a freshly installed and patched version. Images B is incorrect because disinfecting the file could cause damage, as stated in the question. In addition, the vendor of the application will not necessarily be useful in this situation. It is easier to restore a clean version of the file and move on with production. Images D is incorrect because backing up the file will also back up the virus, and as the question stated, disinfecting the file will cause damage and potential data loss.
Guidelines should be followed to allow secure remote administration. Which of the following is not one of those guidelines? A. A small number of administrators should be allowed to carry out remote functionality. B. Critical systems should be administered locally instead of remotely. C. Strong authentication should be in place. D. Telnet should be used to send commands and data.
D. Telnet should not be allowed for remote administration because it sends all data, including administrator credentials, in cleartext. This type of communication should go over more secure protocols, as in SSH. Images A is incorrect because it is true that only a small number of administrators should be able to carry out remote functionality. This helps minimize the risk posed to the network. Images B is incorrect because it is true that critical systems should be administered locally instead of remotely. It is safer to send administrative commands over the internal, private network than it is to do so over a public network. Images C is incorrect because it is true that strong authentication should be in place for any administration activities. Anything less than strong authentication, such as a password, would be easy for an attacker to crack and thereby gain administrative access.
In a redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) system, data and parity information are striped over several different disks. What is parity information? A. Information used to create new data B. Information used to erase data C. Information used to rebuild data D. Information used to build data
C. Redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) provides fault tolerance for hard drives and the data they hold and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by breaking up the data and writing it across several disks so that different disk heads can work simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. Control data is also spread across each disk—this is called parity—so that if one disk fails, the other disks can work together and restore its data. If fault tolerance is one of the services a RAID level provides, parity is involved. Images A is incorrect because parity information is not used to create new data but is used as instructions on how to re-create data that has been lost or corrupted. If a drive fails, the parity is basically instructions that tell the RAID system how to rebuild the lost data on the new hard drive. Parity is used to rebuild a new drive so that all the information is restored. Images B is incorrect because parity information is not used to erase data, but is used as instructions on how to re-create data that has been lost or corrupted. Images D is incorrect because parity information is not used to build data, but is used as instructions on how to re-create data that has been lost or corrupted.
Mirroring of drives is when data is written to two drives at once for redundancy purposes. What similar type of technology is shown in the graphic that follows? A. Direct access storage B. Disk duplexing C. Striping D. Massive array of inactive disks

B. Information that is required to always be available should be mirrored or duplexed. In both mirroring (also known as RAID 1) and duplexing, every data write operation occurs simultaneously or nearly simultaneously in more than one physical place. The distinction between mirroring and duplexing is that with mirroring the two (or more) physical places where the data is written may be attached to the same controller, leaving the storage still subject to the single point of failure of the controller itself; in duplexing, two or more controllers are used. Images A is incorrect because direct access storage is a general term for magnetic disk storage devices, which historically have been used in mainframe and minicomputer (mid-range computer) environments. A redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is a type of direct access storage device (DASD). Images C is incorrect because when data is written across all drives, the technique of striping is used. This activity divides and writes the data over several drives. The write performance is not affected, but the read performance is increased dramatically because more than one head is retrieving data at the same time. Parity information is used to rebuild lost or corrupted data. Striping just means data and potentially parity information is written across multiple disks. Images D is incorrect because in a massive array of inactive disks (MAID), rack-mounted disk arrays have all inactive disks powered down, with only the disk controller alive. When an application asks for data, the controller powers up the appropriate disk drive(s), transfers the data, and then powers the drive(s) down again. By powering down infrequently accessed drives, energy consumption is significantly reduced, and the service life of the disk drives may be increased.
There are several different types of important architectures within backup technologies. Which architecture does the graphic that follows represent? Server disks -> optical secondary storage -> tape tertiary storage A. Clustering B. Grid computing C. Backup tier security D. Hierarchical storage management

D. Hierarchical storage management (HSM) provides continuous online backup functionality. It combines hard disk technology with the cheaper and slower optical or tape jukeboxes. The HSM system dynamically manages the storage and recovery of files, which are copied to storage media devices that vary in speed and cost. The faster media hold the data that is accessed more often, and the seldom-used files are stored on the slower devices, or near-line devices. Images A is incorrect because clustering is a fault-tolerant server technology that is similar to redundant servers, except each server takes part in processing services that are requested. A server cluster is a group of servers that are viewed logically as one server to users and can be managed as a single logical system. Clustering provides for availability and scalability. It groups physically different systems and combines them logically, which provides immunity to faults and improves performance. Images B is incorrect because grid computing is a load-balanced parallel means of massive computation, similar to clusters, but implemented with loosely coupled systems that may join and leave the grid randomly. Most computers have extra CPU processing power that is not being used many times throughout the day. Just like the power grid provides electricity to entities on an as-needed basis, computers can volunteer to allow their extra processing power to be available to different groups for different projects. The first project to use grid computing was SETI (Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence), where people allowed their systems to participate in scanning the universe looking for aliens who are trying to talk to us. Images C is incorrect because backup tier security is not a formal technology and is a distracter answer.
___________ provides for availability and scalability. It groups physically different systems and combines them logically, which helps to provide immunity to faults and improves performance. A. Disc duping B. Clustering C. RAID D. Virtualization
B. Clustering is a fault-tolerant server technology that is similar to redundant servers, except each server takes part in processing services that are requested. A server cluster is a group of servers that are viewed logically as one server to users and can be managed as a single logical system. Clustering provides for availability and scalability. It groups physically different systems and combines them logically, which helps to provide immunity to faults and improves performance. Clusters work as an intelligent unit to balance traffic, and users who access the cluster do not know they may be accessing different systems at different times. To the users, all servers within the cluster are seen as one unit. Images A is incorrect because this is a distracter answer. There is not an official technology with this name. Images C is incorrect because redundant array of inexpensive disks (RAID) provides fault tolerance for hard drives and can improve system performance. Redundancy and speed are provided by breaking up the data and writing them across several disks so different disk heads can work simultaneously to retrieve the requested information. RAID does not address scalability and performance. Images D is incorrect because virtualization is the creation of a virtual version of something, such as a hardware platform, operating system, storage device, or network resource. Hardware virtualization or platform virtualization refers to the creation of a virtual machine that acts like a real system with an operating system. Software executed on these virtual machines is separated from the underlying hardware resources by an abstraction layer.
Bob is a new security administrator at a financial institution. The organization has experienced some suspicious activity on one of the critical servers that contain customer data. When reviewing how the systems are administered, he uncovers some concerning issues pertaining to remote administration. Which of the following should not be put into place to reduce these concerns? i. Commands and data should not be sent in cleartext. ii. SSH should be used, not Telnet. iii. Truly critical systems should be administered locally instead of remotely. iv. Only a small number of administrators should be able to carry out remote functionality. v. Strong authentication should be in place for any administration activities. A. i, ii B. None of them C. ii, iv D. All of them
B. All of these countermeasures should be put into place for proper remote administration activities. Images A is incorrect because sensitive commands and data should not be sent in cleartext (that is, they should be encrypted) to critical systems. For example, SSH should be used, not Telnet. SSH is a network protocol for secure data communication. It allows for remote shell services and command execution and other secure network services between two networked systems. It was designed as a replacement for Telnet and other insecure remote shell protocols such as the Berkeley rsh and rexec protocols, which send information, notably passwords, in plaintext, rendering them susceptible to interception and disclosure. Images C is incorrect because sensitive commands and data should not be sent in cleartext (that is, they should be encrypted). For example, SSH should be used, not Telnet. Truly critical systems should be administered locally instead of remotely. Only a small number of administrators should be able to carry out this remote functionality. Images D is incorrect because all of these countermeasures should be put into place for proper remote administration activities.
A suspected crime has been reported within your organization. Which of the following steps should the incident response team take first? A. Establish a procedure for responding to the incident. B. Call in forensic experts. C. Determine that a crime has been committed. D. Notify senior management.
C. When a suspected crime is reported, the incident response team should follow a set of predetermined steps to ensure uniformity in their approach and make sure no steps are skipped. First, the incident response team should investigate the report and determine that an actual crime has been committed. If the team determines that a crime has been carried out, senior management should be informed immediately. At this point, the company must decide if it wants to conduct its own forensic investigation or call in external experts. Images A is incorrect because a procedure for responding to an incident should be established before an incident takes place. Incident handling is commonly a recovery plan that responds to malicious technical threats. While the primary goal of incident handling is to contain and mitigate any damage caused by an incident and to prevent any further damage, other objectives include detecting a problem, determining its cause, resolving the problem, and documenting the entire process. Images B is incorrect because calling in a forensics team does not occur until the incident response team has investigated the report and verified that a crime has occurred. Then the company can decide if it wants to conduct its own forensic investigation or call in external experts. If experts are going to be called in, the system that was attacked should be left alone in order to try and preserve as much evidence of the attack as possible. Images D is incorrect because the incident response team must first determine that a crime has indeed been carried out before it can notify senior management. There is no need to alarm senior management if the report is false.
Which of the following is a correct statement regarding digital forensics? A. It is the study of computer technology. B. It is a set of hardware-specific processes that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in a court of law. C. It encompasses network and code analysis, and may be referred to as electronic data discovery. D. Digital forensic responsibilities should be assigned to a network administrator before an incident occurs.
C. Forensics is a science and an art that requires specialized techniques for the recovery, authentication, and analysis of electronic data that could have been affected by a criminal act. It is the coming together of computer science, information technology, and engineering with the legal system. When discussing digital forensics with others, you might hear the terms computer forensics, network forensics, electronic data discovery, cyberforensics, and forensic computing. (ISC)2 uses digital forensics as a synonym for all of these other terms, so that’s what you will most likely see on the CISSP exam. Digital forensics encompasses all domains in which evidence is in a digital or electronic form, either in storage or on the wire. Images A is incorrect because digital forensics involves more than just the study of information technology. It encompasses the study of information technology but stretches into evidence gathering and protecting and working within specific legal systems. Images B is incorrect because digital forensics does not refer to hardware or software. It is a set of specific processes relating to reconstruction of computer usage, examination of residual data, authentication of data by technical analysis or explanation of technical features of data, and computer usage that must be followed in order for evidence to be admissible in a court of law. Images D is incorrect because digital forensics should be conducted by people with the proper training and skill set, which could or could not be the network administrator. Digital evidence can be fragile and must be worked with appropriately. If someone reboots the attacked system or inspects various files, it could corrupt viable evidence, change timestamps on key files, and erase footprints the criminal may have left.
Which of the following dictates that all evidence be labeled with information indicating who secured and validated it? A. Chain of custody B. Due care C. Investigation D. Motive, opportunity, and means
A. A crucial piece in the digital forensics process is keeping a proper chain of custody of the evidence. Because evidence from these types of crimes can be very volatile and easily dismissed from court due to improper handling, it is important to follow very strict and organized procedures when collecting and tagging evidence in every single case. Furthermore, the chain of custody should follow evidence through its entire life cycle, beginning with identification and ending with its destruction, permanent archiving, or return to owner. When copies of data need to be made, this process must meet certain standards to ensure quality and reliability. Specialized software for this purpose can be used. The copies must be able to be independently verified and must be tamperproof. Each piece of evidence should be marked in some way with the date, time, initials of the collector, and a case number if one has been assigned. The piece of evidence should then be sealed in a container, which should be marked with the same information. The container should be sealed with evidence tape, and if possible, the writing should be on the tape so that a broken seal can be detected. Images B is incorrect because due care means to carry out activities that a reasonable person would be expected to carry out in the same situation. In short, due care means that a company practiced common sense and prudent management and acted responsibly. If a company does not practice due care in its efforts to protect itself from computer crime, it can be found negligent and legally liable for damages. A chain of custody, on the other hand, is a history that shows how evidence was collected, analyzed, transported, and preserved in order to be presented in court. Because electronic evidence can be easily modified, a clearly defined chain of custody demonstrates that the evidence is trustworthy. Images C is incorrect because investigation involves the proper collection of relevant data during the incident response process and includes analysis, interpretation, reaction, and recovery. The goals of this stage are to reduce the impact of the incident, identify the cause of the incident, resume operations as soon as possible, and apply what was learned to prevent the incident from recurring. It is also at this stage where it is determined whether a forensic investigation will take place. The chain of custody dictates how this material should be properly collected and protected during its life cycle of being evidence. Images D is incorrect because motive, opportunity, and means (MOM) is a strategy used to understand why a crime was carried out and by whom. This is the same strategy used to determine the suspects in a traditional, noncomputer crime. Motive is the “who” and “why” of a crime. Understanding the motive for a crime is an important piece in figuring out who would engage in such an activity. For example, many hackers attack big-name sites because when the sites go down, it is splashed all over the news. However, once these activities are no longer so highly publicized, the individuals will eventually stop initiating these types of attacks because their motive will have been diminished. Opportunity is the “where” and “when” of a crime. Opportunities usually arise when certain vulnerabilities or weaknesses are present. If a company does not have a firewall, hackers and attackers have all types of opportunities within that network. Once a crime fighter finds out why a person would want to commit a crime (motive), she will look at what could allow the criminal to be successful (opportunity). Means pertains to the capabilities a criminal would need to be successful. Suppose a crime fighter was asked to investigate a complex embezzlement that took place within a financial institution. If the suspects were three people who knew how to use a mouse, a keyboard, and a word processing application, but only one of them was a programmer and system analyst, the crime fighter would realize that this person may have the means to commit this crime much more successfully than the other two individuals.
Which of the following is not true of a forensic investigation? A. The crime scene should be modified as necessary. B. A file copy tool may not recover all data areas of the device that are necessary for investigation. C. Contamination of the crime scene may not negate derived evidence, but it should still be documented. D. Only individuals with knowledge of basic crime scene analysis should have access to the crime scene.
A. The principles of criminalistics are included in the forensic investigation process. They are identification of the crime scene, protection of the environment against contamination and loss of evidence, identification of evidence and potential sources of evidence, and collection of evidence. In regard to minimizing the degree of contamination, it is important to understand that it is impossible not to change a crime scene—be it physical or digital. The key is to minimize changes and document what you did and why, and how the crime scene was affected. Images B is incorrect because it is true that a file copy tool may not recover all data areas of the device necessary for investigation. During the examination and analysis process of a forensic investigation, it is critical that the investigator works from an image that contains all of the data from the original disk. It must be a bit-level copy, sector by sector, to capture deleted files, slack spaces, and unallocated clusters. These types of images can be created through the use of specialized tools such as FTK Imager, EnCase, or the dd Unix utility. Images C is incorrect because it is true that if a crime scene becomes contaminated, that should be documented. While it may not negate the derived evidence, it will make investigating the crime and providing useful evidence for court more challenging. Whether the crime scene is physical or digital, it is important to control who comes in contact with the evidence of the crime to ensure its integrity. Images D is incorrect because the statement is true. Only authorized individuals should be allowed to access the crime scene, and these individuals should have knowledge of basic crime scene analysis. Other measures to protect the crime scene include documenting who is at the crime scene and the last individuals to interact with the system. In court, the integrity of the evidence may be in question if there were too many people milling around the crime scene.
Stephanie has been put in charge of developing incident response and forensics procedures her company needs to carry out if an incident occurs. She needs to ensure that their procedures map to the international principles for gathering and protecting digital evidence. She also needs to ensure that if and when internal forensics teams are deployed, they have labels, tags, evidence bags, cable ties, imaging software, and other associated tools. Which of the following best describes what Stephanie needs to build for the deployment teams? A. Local and remote imaging system B. Forensics field kit C. Chain of custody procedures and tools D. Digital evidence collection software
B. When forensics teams are deployed to investigate a potential crime, they should be properly equipped with all of the tools and supplies needed. The following are some of the common items in the forensics field kits: • Documentation tools: Tags, labels, and timelined forms • Disassembly and removal tools: Antistatic bands, pliers, tweezers, screwdrivers, wire cutters, and so on • Package and transport supplies: Antistatic bags, evidence bags and tape, cable ties, and others Images A is incorrect because imaging software and tools only make up some of the tools that a forensics team needs. These types of tools do not include the items identified in the question, which are labels, tags, evidence bags, cable ties, imaging software, and other associated tools. These items should be organized and be in a field kit. Images C is incorrect because chain of custody procedures and tools only make up some of the components that a forensics team needs. These types of tools do not include the items identified in the question, which are labels, tags, evidence bags, cable ties, imaging software, and other associated tools. These items should be organized and be in a field kit. A chain of custody is a history that shows how evidence was collected, analyzed, transported, and preserved in order to be presented in court. Because electronic evidence can be easily modified, a clearly defined chain of custody demonstrates that the evidence is trustworthy. Images D is incorrect because digital evidence collection tools only make up some of the components that a forensics team needs. These types of tools do not include the items identified in the question, which are labels, tags, evidence bags, cable ties, imaging software, and other associated tools. These items should be organized and be in a field kit. There are specialized software suites that allow forensics personnel to properly collect, analyze, and manage digital evidence through its life cycle. They are important, but only one component of an overall forensics kit.
When developing a recovery and continuity program within an organization, different metrics can be used to properly measure potential damages and recovery requirements. These metrics help us quantify our risks and the benefits of controls we can put into place. Two metrics commonly used in the development of recovery programs are recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO). Data restoration (RPO) requirements can be different from service restoration (RTO) requirements. Which of the following best defines these two main recovery measurements in this type of scenario? A. RPO is the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. RTO is the acceptable time period before a service level must be restored. B. RTO is the earliest time period in which a data set must be restored. RPO is the acceptable amount of downtime in a given period. C. RPO is the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. RTO is the earliest time period in which data must be restored. D. RPO is the acceptable amount of downtime measured. RTO is the earliest time period in which a service level must be restored.
A. The recovery point objective (RPO) is the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. This value represents the earliest point in time by which data must be recovered. The higher the value of data, the more funds or other resources that can be put into place to ensure a smaller amount of data is lost in the event of a disaster. For example, if the RPO is set to two hours, this means that the organization has to have backup and restore processes that will only allow for the loss of up to two hours of data. The restore process cannot be something as time consuming as restoring from a backup tape manually, but will need to be an automated restoration process that can restore data more quickly and allow the production environment to be up and running and carrying out business processes. The recovery time objective (RTO) is the acceptable period before a specific service level must be restored in order to avoid unacceptable consequences after a disruption or disaster. While RPO pertains to data, RTO deals with the actual processing capabilities of an environment. Images B is incorrect because the RTO is the earliest time period in which a service level must be restored; thus, it does not explicitly deal with recovering a data set. And the RPO is the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, not downtime in general. The definitions in this answer are backwards. The RPO provides the recovery team with a requirement or goal to work toward when establishing data recovery processes. RPO values for less critical data will be higher; thus, the recovery processes can include slower and cheaper recovery solutions. If an RPO value is high, then the data is more critical in nature and the team must implement solutions that recover this type of data more quickly. RTO values also give the recovery team requirements to work with so that they know the type of recovery solutions that must be deployed. If a production environment has to be up and running within one hour after a disruption, the team must deploy redundancy into the environment so that the systems can respond quickly. Images C is incorrect because the RTO metric pertains to how quickly services must come back online and not how quickly data must be restored. The RTO provides the recovery team with an objective, which is a goal to achieve as it pertains to getting systems and network capabilities up and running after they went down. This metric tells the team how long the organization can endure being offline and still stay in business. A small business that does not depend upon time-sensitive transactions may be able to be offline for one to two days without negatively affecting the survivability of the company. If a company like Amazon.com was offline for two days, the financial and reputation hit that it would have to endure may not put the company out of business, but this potential loss is too much to risk, thus expensive recovery solutions are necessary. If you understand how much you can potentially lose, you will make better decisions about what to put into place to make sure that any potential loss is endurable and not devastating. Images D is incorrect because the RPO measurement pertains to data recovery and not service downtime. RPO is the maximum tolerable time period during which data may be unavailable, which is not the same as a measurement of how much data may be lost. For example, if a company’s main database gets corrupted and the company can absorb the impact of not having the data on this database restored for 48 hours, then the recovery team can implement tape backups that are stored and retrieved from an offsite location. The restoration timeline of this data has to take into account how long it will take for someone to go get the tape from the offsite location, bring it to the production environment, carry out the restore process, and test the newly recovered data. All of those steps have to happen successfully within the RPO window of 48 hours.


