Sedation in Emergency Medicine Flashcards

(25 cards)

1
Q

What are the main reasons for sedation in an ED setting?

A
  • To facilitate medical procedures
  • To relieve pain and discomfort
  • Procedural sedation
  • Foreign body removal
  • Anxiety or agitation control
  • Mechanical ventilation synchronization
  • Trauma management (e.g., cervical spine injury)
  • Intracranial pressure (ICP) control

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2
Q

What are the four levels of sedation?

A
  • Minimal Sedation: Responds normally to verbal commands
  • Moderate Sedation: Requires light tactile stimulation
  • Deep Sedation: Needs deep stimulation, may not maintain airway reflexes
  • General Anesthesia: No response to pain, requires full airway management

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3
Q

What are the key properties and risks of ketamine?

A
  • Properties: Dissociative anesthetic with analgesic effects
  • Uses: Procedural sedation and intubation
  • Risks: Laryngospasm, emergence agitation (hallucinations upon waking)

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4
Q

What is a major limitation of propofol?

A
  • No analgesic properties (must be combined with an opioid)
  • Increases cardiovascular instability → Risk of hypotension

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5
Q

How does fentanyl differ from other sedative drugs?

A
  • It is an opioid analgesic, not a sedative
  • High doses can induce sedation but primarily used for pain relief

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6
Q

What is ketofol, and is it more effective than using ketamine or propofol alone?

A
  • Ketofol is a combination of ketamine and propofol
  • Cochrane Review found no significant benefit over using them separately

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7
Q

What are the advantages of nitrous oxide?

A
  • Inhaled analgesic/sedative
  • Short-acting, useful for minor procedures

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8
Q

What are key considerations for airway management in a sedated patient?

A
  • Proper positioning
  • Jaw thrust maneuver
  • Use of an oropharyngeal (Guedel) or nasopharyngeal airway
  • Intubation if necessary

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9
Q

What monitoring is required for sedated patients?

A
  • Continuous visual observation
  • Capnography (end-tidal CO2 monitoring)
  • Vital signs (SpO2, BP, HR)
  • Watch for adverse effects: Respiratory depression, hypotension, nausea, aspiration

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10
Q

What are the primary reasons for intubation in the ED?

A
  • Airway protection (GCS <8)
  • Respiratory failure (fatigue, CO2 retention)
  • Overdose or aspiration risk
  • Severe trauma (e.g., cervical spine injury)
  • Inhalation burns

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11
Q

What challenges make intubation in the ED difficult?

A
  • Full stomach (aspiration risk)
  • Airway trauma or swelling
  • Unstable vitals (hypotension, hypoxia)
  • Limited patient cooperation

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12
Q

What is the purpose of pre-oxygenation before intubation?

A
  • Maximizes oxygen reserves → Extends safe apnea time
  • Prevents rapid desaturation during intubation attempts

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13
Q

What is Delayed Sequence Intubation (DSI)?

A
  • Sedation before paralysis to allow proper pre-oxygenation
  • Uses ketamine (1 mg/kg IV) for procedural sedation
  • Helpful in patients who are hypoxic, confused, or uncooperative

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14
Q

What are the 7 key steps in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?

A
  • Plan & Prepare (Check airway equipment, team roles, medications)
  • Protect Cervical Spine (if needed)
  • Pre-Oxygenation (High-flow O2 for 3 minutes)
  • Pre-Medicate (if indicated)
  • Paralyze & Induce (Ketamine or Propofol + Rocuronium/Suxamethonium)
  • Placement & Proof (Capnography, auscultation, chest rise, X-ray)
  • Post-Intubation Management (Secure ETT, ongoing sedation, ventilation)

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15
Q

Which medications are commonly used for induction in RSI?

A
  • Ketamine
  • Propofol

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16
Q

Which drugs are used for paralysis in RSI?

A
  • Depolarizing agent: Suxamethonium
  • Non-depolarizing agents: Rocuronium, Vecuronium

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17
Q

How is proper ETT placement confirmed?

A
  • Capnography (ETCO2) → Gold standard
  • Direct visualization of cords
  • Chest auscultation (bilateral breath sounds)
  • Chest X-ray confirmation

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18
Q

Why is cuff pressure management important?

A
  • Ideal pressure: 25-30 cmH2O
  • Prevents air leaks while avoiding tracheal injury

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19
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia and its triggers?

A
  • A life-threatening hypermetabolic reaction to anesthetic agents
  • Triggered by succinylcholine and volatile anesthetics (e.g., sevoflurane, isoflurane)

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20
Q

What are early signs of malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • Rapid increase in end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2)
  • Generalized muscle rigidity
  • Unexplained tachycardia and tachypnea
  • Acidosis and hyperkalemia

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21
Q

What are late signs of malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • Severe hyperthermia (>1°C rise every few minutes)
  • Rhabdomyolysis (elevated CK, myoglobinuria, AKI risk)
  • Cardiovascular collapse

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22
Q

How is malignant hyperthermia treated?

A
  • Stop triggering agents immediately
  • Administer Dantrolene (2.5 mg/kg IV) ASAP
  • Aggressive cooling (ice packs, cold IV fluids, cooling blankets)
  • Manage hyperkalemia (IV calcium, insulin + glucose, salbutamol)
  • Correct acidosis with IV bicarbonate

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23
Q

Why is pre-oxygenation the most important step in intubation?

A
  • Extends safe apnea period up to 8 minutes
  • Without pre-oxygenation, desaturation occurs within ~45 seconds

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24
Q

How can ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) be prevented?

A
  • Good oral hygiene (toothbrushing > chlorhexidine alone)
  • Avoiding unnecessary intubation
  • Closed suction systems

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25
Why is eye protection crucial in intubated patients?
* 40-60% of intubated patients develop corneal abrasions * Prevention: Eye ointment or polyethylene covers ## Footnote None