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Self Assessment 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Anopleocephala, where is it found, and what does it cause?

A

Equine tapeworm, found at ileocecal junction and causes ileocecal intussusception

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2
Q

What is the most common site of osteochondritis dissecans of the hock?

A

Lateral ridge of the trochlea

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3
Q

Rotavirus involves which part of the GI tract?

A

small intestine

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in 5-15 day old piglets? Treatment?

A

Isospora suis;
Treatment- sulfamethazine
Prevention- feed anticoccidails to sows 2 weeks before farrowing

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5
Q

What is seen in dogs with estrogen toxicity

A

thrombocytopenia

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6
Q

What is the MAC and what is it seen as?

A

MAC= concentration of a vapour in alveoli of lungs needed to prevent movement in 50 % of pts; Seen as a number that shows the potency of the agent

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7
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans is caused by ?

A

Ancylostoma canium

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8
Q

Yohimbine reverses?

A

alpha 2 i.e. xylazine

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9
Q

Naloxone reverses?

A

opoids

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10
Q

Rodent ulcers is another word for? Where are they located?

A

Eosinophilic plaques; usually on lips

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11
Q

What are the lab work findings in lymphangiectasia?

A

decreased protein, cholesterol, and lymphocytes

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12
Q

What is the treatment for oral papillomas?

A

No intervention usally

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13
Q

What test do you use for tuberculosis in cattle?

A

Intradermal tuberlin test

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14
Q

What is seen in animals in myasthenia gravis

A

Thymoma

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15
Q

What does acetaminophen cause?

A

Heinz body anemia

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16
Q

Blinking of the eye is controlled by which nerve?

A

Facial

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17
Q

What do mares do to show they are in estrus?

A

Mares in estrus raise their tail, squat, urinate, evert the vulvar lips to expose the clitoris, and ultimately tolerate copulation

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18
Q

What yeast is common in cockatiels?

A

canidiasis

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19
Q

what is the broad based yeast?

A

blastomycosis

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20
Q

what is 3-methylindole?

A

Cattle that are moved to lush forage that is high in tryptophan metabolize the tryptophan to 3-methylindole in the rumen. The 3-MI is toxic to the lung, resulting in acute interstitial pneumonia and emphysema. This syndrome is known as acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema (ABPEE), fog fever or grunts.Necropsy findings showed acute interstitial pneumonia and air filled bullae

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21
Q

What is sodium hypochlorite?

A

bleach

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22
Q

Which organism has an undulating membrane and multiple flagella?

A

Tritichomonas foetus

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23
Q

Classical Swine Fever AKA…

A

hog cholera or swine fever

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24
Q

Who gets benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

intact, male dogs

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25
How do you treat benign prostatic hyperplasia?
castration or finasteride if they want to be used for breeding
26
What metabolic disturbances are present in a uroabdomen?
hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, and mild to moderate acidosis
27
Most common cutaneous tumor in dogs. Treatment.
Histocytoma; benign neglect
28
Nephrospleenic ligament attaches which two organs
spleen and left kidney
29
Normal calving position for both foal and calf
anterior, longitudinal, dorsosacral with forelimbs extended
30
What is the universal donor for cats?
There is no universal donor
31
What do you give for amitraz toxicity?
Yohimbine
32
What conditions are assoicated with monoclonal gammopathy and hyperviscosity syndrome?
multiple myeloma, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, lymphoma, and plasmacytoma
33
When are cows at the greatest risk for ketosis?
three weeks post parturition
34
Bowing at the radial/ulna is a result of a premature closing of....
distal radius
35
What is a reasonable estimate of a dog's blood volume?
80m mL/kg
36
How do you give prostaglandin?
IM
37
Cerebellar hypoplasia is caused by _________ virus which is a _______.
cause by feline panleukopenia virus, which is a parvo virus
38
What type of estrus cycle do cats have?
Seasonal, polyestrus, induced ovulator
39
What antibiotics can you not take with calicum?
-doxycyline
40
What is the flotation medium for giardia?
zinc sulfate
41
Which salivary glands do you generally remove?
mandibular and sublingual
42
What is the most common urolith mineral in cats on an acidifying diet?
calicum oxalate
43
Tell me about vestibular disease...
Vestibular disease can be peripheral or central, and central vestibular disease can be classic in appearance or paradoxical. Peripheral vestibular disease is due to a lesion in the inner ear or vestibular portion of cranial nerve VIII. Classic central vestibular disease is due to a lesion in the brainstem or cerebellum. Signs with peripheral and classic central vestibular disease include head tilt, falling, and circling to the same side as the lesion with nystagmus with fast phase to the opposite side. With paradoxical vestibular disease, the lesion is in certain regions of the cerebellum (flocculonodular lobe) or caudal cerebellar peduncle and produces signs to the opposite sides from which is seen with peripheral and classic central disease.
44
A horse presents with vestibular signs. Which of the following findings allows the clinician to differentiate between central vestibular and peripheral vestibular disease?
The correct answer is proprioceptive deficits. Observation of proprioceptive deficits helps localize the lesion centrally. In addition to proprioceptive deficits, any animal with multiple cranial nerve signs along with other vestibular signs is considered to have central vestibular disease. Nystagmus, circling, ataxia, and head tilt is seen in both central and peripheral vestibular disease.
45
The fast phase of nystagmus goes _____ the lesion
The fast phase of nystagmus tends to go away from the lesion. The direction of nystagmus is named after the fast phase.
46
Most common batercia isolated from UTI? others?
Most common =E.coli; others strep, staph, proteus, klebsiella, and pseudomonas
47
Biochemistry changes for a PSS
decreased BUN, glucose, cholesterol and albumin; ammonium biurate crystals in urine; Increased liver enzymes
48
What are the key lesions of botulism?
There are no distinguishing lesions
49
gestational length in a cow?
280
50
Gestational length in a cat?
58-67 days
51
side effect of amphotericin B
nephrotoxicity
52
What heart rhythum has no P waves?
atrial fibrillation
53
What surgical procedure can prevent intussusception?
enteroplication
54
What is the most common acquired cardiac defect in the dog?
Myxomatous AV Valve Degeneration | Degenerative AV valvular disease, Endocardiosis
55
What is the diagnosis for a cow with exopthalmos and strabismus of the right eye with enlargment of the lymph node and dependent pitting edema of the brisket area.
lymphosarcoma
56
What are characterisitics of IMHA?
polychromasia, autoagglutination, and spherocytes
57
Where do you need to float equine teeth?
Mandible(lower)- lingunial; maxilla buccal
58
What parasite can cause hypertrophic gastritis with chronic vomiting?
Ollulanus tricuspis
59
interstitial nephritis is seen with.....
excessive ingestion of sulfonamides
60
How do you treat calicum oxalate stones in small animal?
alkalinzing diet
61
What is the most common bacteria in cat bite wounds?
Pasterella
62
What is typical for a biospy confirming IBD?
lymphocytic plasmacytic inflammation
63
What causes cutaneous larva migrans? what about viseral?
cutaneous- ancylostoma; visceral- toxacara
64
What plant causes prolonged gestation in mares?
Fescue

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