Self Assessment Q - Exam 1 Flashcards
(178 cards)
1
Q
- Give three examples of large molecules that are routinely lost during fixation with aqueous solutions.
A
• Gags, proteoglycans, glycogen
2
Q
- Which tissue components are highlighted by using the PAS stain?
A
• Carbohydrates: glycocalyx
3
Q
- How can antibodies be used to visualize specific protein components (cytoplasmic, nuclear and extracellular) in routinely processed tissue?
A
• Bind specifically to antigen receptor via fluorescence (immunohistology) or radioactive isotopes – best is indirect (use 2nd antibody to amplify fluoro/radioisotope of 1st)
4
Q
- How does the preparation of tissue for TEM differ from that for conventional light microscopy?
A
• Gluteraldehyde: osmium tetroxide (heavy metal) to increase electron density and visual -> epoxy resin to plastic block -> cut with diamond knives to under thinner than 1 micrometer
5
Q
What technique allows histopathologists to detect specific sequences of RNA or DNA in a cell?
A
• In situ hybridization
6
Q
- Other than fluorescent markers, what other substances can be chemically attached to antibodies in order to detect specific tissue components with the light microscope?
A
• radioisotopes
7
Q
- What is the advantage to using monoclonal antibodies rather than polyclonal antibodies?
A
- Selected to be highly specific and bind strongly to protein to be detected
- Less non-specific binding to other proteins
8
Q
- Which organelles are only visible by electron microscopy?
A
• All aside from nucleus
9
Q
- Describe the structure and function of the lipid raft.
A
- Protein complex with higher concentrations of cholesterol and sat fatty acids
- Reduces lipid fluidity
- Single t-duc
10
Q
- List the functions of the plasma membrane.
A
• Physical barrier, selective permeability, electrochemical gradients, communication
11
Q
- What are some of the functions of the glycocalyx?
A
• Contain digestive enzymes, microvilli on brush border of intestines
12
Q
- Describe the structural and functional differences between smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum.
A
- RER: had ribosomes – protein synthesis
* SER: no ribosomes: steroid synth (adrenal cortex), drug detox (liver), muscle contraction (skel m)
13
Q
- Describe the morphology and function of the Golgi apparatus. In which cells is this organelle a prominent feature on light microscopy?
A
- Golgi: modify, sort, and package proteins
* lysosomes!
14
Q
- What are the general structure and functions of peroxisomes?
A
• Oxidative reasons generating h2o2, long “sausages” in oval capsules
15
Q
- What is the general structure and function of a lysosome?
A
- Spherical, formed from golgi
* Contain digestive enzymes
16
Q
- What are the structural and functional differences between cilia and microvilli?
A
- Cilia: 9 + 2 (axoneme) arrangement of doubles (microtub) – mvmt of particles
- Microvilli: made of actin (microfilament) – absorption – brush border, terminal web
17
Q
- Name the phase of mitosis in which the contractile ring is formed. What is the composition of the contractile ring?
A
• Begins in telophase, made of actin and myosin filaments
18
Q
- Describe the mitotic spindle and its composition during the cell cycle.
A
• Made of microtubules
19
Q
- Describe the structural organization of Centrioles.
A
• Circular: 9 triplets
20
Q
- List the functions of actin in the cell.
A
• Motility, contraction (via myosin interactions), microfilament
21
Q
- Describe the morphology of lipofuscin cytoplasmic inclusions.
A
- Pale brown granule
- Plenty in stable non-dividing cells
- Residual bodies after lysosomal digestion
22
Q
- Distinguish permanent cells from labile and stable cells in terms of the cell cycle.
A
- Labile: continuously dividing – bone marrow, epithelium, gi lining
- Stable: only divide in injury – liver, kidney
- Permanent: never divide: cardiac, neural
23
Q
- Distinguish the two processes of cell death; apoptosis and necrosis.
A
- Apoptosis: programed cell death – rapid – controlled by bcl-2 on mito memb – triggered by tumor suppression proteins
- Necrosis: cell death
24
Q
- What features are used to classify epithelial tissues?
A
• Size and morphology are dictated by function
25
6. What are the 8 classifications of epithelia?
* Simple squamous: endothelium, lining of cavities (pleura, pericardium, perineum)
* Simple cuiboidal: ovary, thyroid, urinary – cover, secr
* Simple columnar: intestines, gallballder
* Pseudostratified: with cilia brush border, glycocalyx – bronchi, trachea, nasal
* Urothelium/transitional: bladder, ureters, renal calyx
* Stratified squamous (kera): skin – protection, prev water loss
* Stratified squamous (non-kera): protection, prev water loss, secr – melva – mouth, esophagus, larynx, vagina, anal canal
* Stratified cuiboidal: sweat glands, (developing ovarian follicle)
* Stratified columnar: conjunctiva - protection
26
7. What are the three specific forms of simple squamous epithelium? Name their specific anatomic locations.
* Simple squamous: endothelium, lining of cavities (pleura, pericardium, perineum)
* Stratified squamous (kera): skin – protection, prev water loss
* Stratified squamous (non-kera): protection, prev water loss, secr – melva
27
10. What are microvilli? Describe its ultrastructural composition. What cellular function is associated with microvilli?
• Made of microfilaments (actin) – absorption in intestines – increase SA
28
11. What are cilia? Describe its ultrastructural composition. What cellular function is associated with cilia?
• Made of microtubules: mvmt (trachea, bronchus, nasal sinus)
29
12. What is the terminal web? Describe its ultrastructural features.
• Actin filaments on apical surface of most epithelium
30
13. Why is the term stereocillia inappropriate?
* Not actually made of microtubules and actually resemble microvilli: but branched, immobile, longer
* Best seen in absorptive
31
14. What are erzin, villin and fimbrin?
• Actin-binding proteins in microvilli
32
15. What is the role of laminin?
• Makes up basal lamina (1 of 3) – attached to integrins
33
16. What are basal bodies?
* Structure similar to centrioles (9 triplets)
| * Continuous with axonemes at apical cytoplasm of cell
34
19. Which component of the junctional complex serves to create a barrier between cells and restricts the free passage of substances between adjacent epithelial cells?
• Zonula occulens: apical surface – connect cells with adjacent cells - actin
35
20. What is the principal function of the zonula adherens?
• Connect cytoskeletal components of adjacent cells – actin – forms part of “terminal web” – cytoskeletal feature at apical pole in many epithelial cells
36
23. Where is the basement membrane located? Which stain is used to reveal the basement membrane?
• Beneath epithelial cells, stained with immunochemistry (lots of glycoprotein in laminin) or PAS
37
25. In what ways are exocrine glands distinguished from endocrine glands?
• Exocrine:
o Ducts! Deliver secr materal to epithelium it is connected with
• Endocrine:
o Ductless – hormones into blood stream for distribution
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27. What is an acinus
• Secretory portion of exocrine gland (Also called alveoli)
39
30. What are the characteristics of connective tissue?
• Lots of ECM with protein fibers (collagen, elastin) and ground substance (gags, proteoglycans, multi-adhesive glycoproteins)
40
33. What is produced by fibroblast?
• fibers and ground substance
41
35. What is meant by the regenerative capacity of connective tissue?
* Spaces left after injuries are filled by connective tissue
* Scar tissue = dense irregular
* Depends on activity and growth of fibroblasts
42
42. What is the prevalent cell type of dense connective tissue?
• Fibroblasts: 49%
43
47. Which stains reveal reticular and elastic fibers?
• Metal impreg – silver stanin
44
49. In which tissues and organs can elastic fibers found in abundance?
• Mesentery, dermis, aorta
45
50. In which locations are elastic fibers abundant?
• Bv, especially arteries – fenestrated sheets called elastic lamellae
46
53. What is the fate of ground substance during routine processing?
• disappears
47
54. How are proteoglycans (PGs) and glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) related?
• Part of ground substance: proteoglycans make up core protein that attached sulfated gags
48
55. Why do PGs and GAGs stain with basic dyes?
• Basic dye: blue: basophilic (acidic/anionic) – dna, rna, gags (long polymer of repeating disacc units – hexosamine, uronic acid)
49
57. Which connective tissue cells are derived from the bone marrow?
• Macrophage, mast cells, plasma cells
50
58. How does Hyaluronan differ from other GAGs?
• Synth directly into ECM by hyaluronan synthase, located in memb
51
59. With what structures is Hyaluronan associated?
• Umbilical cord, synovial fluid, cartilage, vitreous humor
52
60. What is the chief function of Hyaluronan?
• Molecular diffusion, lubrication organs and joints
53
62. Why is it difficult to see the cytoplasm of fibroblasts in routine H&E material
• Removed during processing
54
64. From which type of cell does the tissue macrophage originate?
• Monocytes (bone marrow precursor cells)
| o Monocytes and macrophages are same cell at different stages of maturation
55
65. What nuclear feature of the macrophage is diagnostic for its identification?
• Prominent nucleus, nucleolus, numerous secondary lysosomes – phagocytic!
56
66. What are the names for macrophages at various tissue sites.
* Kupffer – liver
* Microglial – CNS
* Langerhans – skin
* Osteoclasts - bone
57
67. What are epithelioid cells?
• Activated macrophages
58
68. What is the role of macrophages in iron metabolism?
• Recycle Fe for production of Hb in new RBCs
59
69. How does one recognize mast cells in routine H&E material?
• Oval – strong basophilic granules
60
1. What is secreted by mast cells, and under what circumstances are they released?
* Heparin – anticoag
| * Histamine – promotes vasc permeability, smooth M contraction
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71. Within which type of connective tissue are mast cells most commonly found?
• Digestive and respiratory tract – sentinels against invasion
62
72. What is meant by metachromasia?
• High content of acidic radials in sulfated GAGs of mast cells can change color of some basic dyes from blue to purple/red
63
75. What are the precursor cells to plasma cells?
• Lymphoctye-derived, antibody producing cells
64
76. What characteristics of the cytoplasm and the nucleus are diagnostic for plasma cells?
• “clock face” – basophilic cytoplasm with clumps of heterochromatin around nuc79.
65
79. What is meant by wound healing?
* Done by myofibroblasts: characteristics of fibroblasts and smooth M (function more like smooth M)
* Rapidly closing wounds – high levels of actin and myosin
66
81. What are myofibroblasts and what role do they play in wound healing?
* characteristics of fibroblasts and smooth M (function more like smooth M)
* Rapidly closing wounds – high levels of actin and myosin
67
82. What are some of the local factors that interfere with wound healing?
• Activity and growth of fibroblasts
68
83. Where is mucous connective tissue found
• Wharton’s jelly: fetal umbilical cord
69
2. In which areas of the body is each type of fat typically found?
• White: in many organs, form about 20% body wt in adults
o Partly regulated by sex horm controlled adipose desposition in breast and thighs
• Brown: kidneys, adrenal glands, aorta, mediastinum (was 2-5% newborn wt located in back, neck, shoulders)
70
6. What hormone is secreted by unilocular adipocytes and what is the action of the hormone?
• Leptin: “satiety factor” – regulate appetite
71
8. Why do adipocytes appear empty following routine H&E processing?
• Removed by organic solvent processing usually.
72
13. In which location is brown adipose tissue typically found in adults?
• Kidney, adrenal glands, aorta, mediastinum
73
14. From which cell does a Liposarcoma develop?
• Unilocular adipocytes
74
15. Why is obesity considered a state of chronic inflammation?
• White adipose secrete many proinflammatory cytokines
75
5. Describe the lacuna of cartilage
• Where chondrocytes are located – surrounded by ECM
76
8. What accounts for the basophilia of the territorial matrix in hyaline cartilage?
• High levels of collagen, gags
77
9. Where is hyaline cartilage found in adults?
• Articular surf of movable joints, large respiratory passages, ventral ends of ribs, epiphyseal plates
78
10. What is the location and composition of the perichondrium?
• Around cartilage – contains bv and neurals to supply avasc cartilage
79
13. What is the most important difference between elastic and hyaline cartilage?
• Elastic has abundant network of elastic fibers and collagen type II fibrils
80
15. What attributes distinguish fibrocartilage from the other types of cartilage?
• Mix of hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue
81
16. Where is fibrocartilage found?
• Iv disks, pubic symphysis
82
17. What is the developmental origin of cartilage tissue?
• mesenchyme
83
18. When is a chondroblast transformed into a chondrocyte?
• Differentiation takes place from center outwards from production of ECM
84
1. What substances found in the matrix of bone distinguishes bone from other connective tissues?
• Hydroxyapatite crystals
85
2. What are the functions of bone tissue?
* Mechanical: Protect vital organs, harbor bone marrow, attachment for m
* Metabolic: ca2+ and PO3 storage
86
3. What type of cell is found in the lacunae of bone
• osteocyte
87
4. What are canaliculi and what is found inside a canaliculus?
• Cytoplasmic projectors of osteocytes
88
7. What is the difference between red bone marrow and yellow bone marrow? Which is more abundant in adults?
* Red: hematopoietic – RBC, platelets, most WBC
| * Yellow – fat cells
89
8. At what locations does red marrow exist in adults accessible for biopsy and transplantation?
• Flat bones, cancellous material at end of long bones
90
14. What accounts for the basophilia of immature bone versus mature bone?
* Acidic/anionic: gags – charged sulfate groups
| * basophilic due to abundant rER for production of collagen and proteoglycans
91
15. What is osteoid?
• Premature bone
92
16. Where are osteoprogenitor cells located?
• perichondrium
93
17. What cell type is responsible for the mineralization of bone?
• osteonectin
94
18. What must be done to bone tissue before it can be embedded for sectioning and staining with H&E?
• Demineralized with acid
95
21. What is the function of a “resorptive” osteocyte? What is the technical term for this process?
* Ossification – bone resorbed by osteoclasts and deposited by osteoblasts
* For bone growth and remodeling
96
23. What histiological characteristics of osteoclasts make them easy to identify in LM?
• Large, basophilic, along edge
97
24. What is the cell of origin for osteoclasts?
• monocytes
98
25. What is Howship’s lacuna? How is it created?
• Cavities containing osteoclasts that undergo resorption
99
26. What is osteoporosis?
• Bone resorption > bone formation – usually in immobilized pts or postmenopausal women
100
27. What are the two patterns of osteogenesis?
* endochondral: hyaline cartilage bone – long bone
| * Intramembranous – isogenous (mitosis) – flat bone
101
8. What are Nissl bodies (also called Nissl substance)?
* Chromatophilic substances – concentrated RER and polysomes = basophilllic
* High rate of protein synthesis
102
9. How can axons be distinguished from dendrites in sections that pass through the cell body?
* Axons = myelinated, dendrites = not myelinated and have nissl bodies
* No nissl bodies in axons
103
16. What is the Schmidt-Lanterman cleft?
• Myelin cleft – contains schwann cell cytoplasm
104
19. Describe the structure and anatomic location of satellite cells and their function.
* In PNS ganglia
* Aggregated sensory/autonomal N cell bodies
* Regulate microenvironment
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20. What are the four types of glial cells in the CNS? Describe the functions of each type.
* Oligodendrocytes – myelinate
* Astrocyte – support BBB
* Ependymal cells – epithelial cells for lining central canal of SC – N migration during development of CNS
* Microglia – original from blood monocytes for immune defense
106
21. Which type of glial cell facilitates neuronal migration during the development of the CNS?
• ependymal
107
22. Which type of glial cell responds to damage to the CNS by proliferating and phagocytosis?
• microglia
108
23. Which glial cell type has a role in modifying the composition of the extracellular fluid surrounding neurons and contributes to the restricted permeability known as the blood brain barrier?
• astrocyte
109
27. What is the importance of neural crest in terms of the nervous system?
• Neural crest does all pns
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31. What constitutes the blood-nerve barrier?
* Capillary endothelium – tight jxns
* Basement membrane
* astrocyte
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40. How do the contacts between adjacent endothelial cells in brain capillaries differ from those in other locations?
• Tight junctions, astrocytes regulate what comes in and out
112
41. How do most substances (except oxygen and carbon dioxide) enter brain tissue from the blood?
regulated by astrocytes
| non-fenestrated
113
42. What is Wallerian degeneration
• N fiber is cut/crushed and part of axon distal to injury degen
114
10. What shape do skeletal myofibers have in cross section?
• Polygonal shape with diameter of 10-100 microns
115
13. Does H&E staining permit the recognition of red, white and intermediate myofibers?
• no
116
14. What histochemical reactions allow for the distinction between red and white fibers
• Myosin ATPase at acidic pH
o Slow oxidative, type I = highest lvls of activity = stain darkest
o Fast glycolytic, type IIb = lightest
o Fast oxidative-glycolytic, type IIa = intermediate
117
22. What is the role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cisternae?
* SR = store Ca2+, calsequestin
| * Terminal cisternae: adjacent to each side of t-tubule = triad allows depol to affect SF
118
28. What is the location and role of muscle satellite cells?
* Periphery – repair and regen – only in SKEL M!!!!
* Cardiac M lacks sat cell
* Smooth M regen = rapid because cells/fibers are small and relatively less differentiated = renewed mitotic activity after injury
119
29. What determines whether damaged muscle is replaced with new myofibers or scar tissue?
* If external lamina is disrupted
| * disrupted=scar tissue
120
30. What is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?
• Mutations in dystrophin
o actin-binding protein inside sarcolemma of skel M
o involved in functional org of myofibrils
• defective link between cytoskel and ECM – exacerbated by M contract = atrophy
121
33. What are the components of the intercalated disk as resolved on electron microscopy?
* Can see desmosomes, fascia adherens – transverse regions of discs
* Gap jxn – less abundant, longitudinally oriented (parallel to myofibers)
122
38. The dense bodies in smooth muscle are analogous to which striated muscle structure?
• Alpha-actinin for thin filament attachment – analogous for z-disks
123
44. What are caveolae and how are they formed
* Short plasmalemma invag
| * Numerous at surface of smooth muscle cells
124
23. What is the hematocrit?
• Total blood volume – normal is 44%
125
Albumin
most abundant – osmotic P
126
o Globulins
txp
127
o Immunoglobins (y-globulins)
antibodies
128
o Fibrinogen
liver – clotting
129
o Complement proteins
defense system for inflammation and microorg
130
25. How does the preparation of a blood smear differ from the preparation of tissue for light microscopy?
• Prick finger to withdraw blood – blood on slide – pull blood across first slide’s surface using second slide – blood dries – apply stain – add cover slip – light microscope
131
26. What are the two classes of lymphocytes? Upon what are these classes based?
* B – helper, differentiate in bone marrow
| * T – cytotoxic, differentiate in thymus
132
27. What does the Wright stain reveal?
• Differentiation of blood cell types – eosin and methylene blue
133
28. Describe the shape of the erythrocyte? How is the shape of an erythrocyte optimized for gas exchange and flow through capillaries?
```
• Biconcave
• Large SA for gas exchange
• Flexible – adapt to turn in cap
o Cup-like shape in capillaries
o Rouleaux – adhere in stacks in large bv
```
134
29. Describe the structure of the plasmalemma of erythrocytes.
* Best known membrane of any cell
| * 40 lipid, 10 carb, 50 protein
135
30. What is responsible for the homogenous acidophilia of erythrocytes?
• Hemoglobin = aciddophillic
136
31. What is anemia and how is it classified?
• Fewer RBCs per mL of blood
137
32. In which organs are erythrocytes phagocytosed?
• Macrophages of spleen, liver, bone marrow
138
38. What substance secreted by neutrophils assist in their migration through connective tissue?
• Icam-1
139
39. What substance is contained within neutrophilic azurophilic granules?
• Lysosomes – kill and degrade microorganisms
140
40. In which type of blood vessel are neutrophils most likely to leave the bloodstream to enter the tissues?
• Postcapillary venules
141
42. Distinguish the structure and function of eosinophils from neutrophils.
* Bilobe
* Red/dark pink granules
* Histamine - inflammation
142
43. Distinguish the structure and function of basophils from eosinophils.
* Bilobed, s-shaped
| * Usually intensely basophilic granules covering up entire cell
143
44. What is distinctive about the cytoplasmic and nuclear staining of basophils?
• Intensely basophilic granules – usually cover up nucleus
144
45. In what ways are basophils and mast cells similar?
* Intensely basophilic staining
| * Inflammation, histamine release
145
46. How are the three types of lymphocytes distinguished?
• CD markers: surface molecules
| o B, T, NK cells
146
47. Which capacity of lymphocytes distinguishes them from other leukocytes?
• Similar in size to RBCs
147
48. What term is given to those lymphocytes in the blood that have developed the capacity to recognize and respond to antigens.
• T
148
49. What are the distinctive features of monocytes in a blood smear?
• Large, kidney-shaped nuc
149
52. What are blood groups? How are they determined?
• Surface antigens
150
56. Describe the asymmetric division of pleuripotent stem cells.
• One differentiates, other stays as stem cell
151
57. What are colony forming units?
• Progenitor cells for blood cells – RBC, platelets, leukocyte, lymphoctye
152
58. Describe the three functions of colony stimulating factor.
• Also called hemopoietic growth factors (cytokines)
o Stimulate prolif of progenitor and precursor cells
o Promote cell differentitation/maturation within specific lineages
153
61. What types of cells are derived from myeloid stem cells?
• Everything but lymphocytes
154
63. What is erythropoietin (EPO)?
• RBC progenitor factor
155
64. At which stage of maturation does the red cell cytoplasm begin to fill with hemoglobin?
• Basophilic erythroblast – large number of free polysomes synth Hb
156
65. What is a reticulocyte?
• Stage in erythrocyte maturation when pyknotic nucleus is ejected
157
67. Distinguish the azurophilic granules from specific granules.
* Azurophilic – lysosomal hydrolases – basic dye, similar in all granulocytes
* Specific – how it differentiates to 3 types
158
70. Describe the process of Thrombopoiesis.
• Megakaryoblasts – megakaryocytes – platelets
159
71. Describe the process of endomitosis?
• Replication of chromosomes in absence of cell/nuclear division
160
68. Describe the maturation of agranulocytes.
• Monocyte: monoblast -> promonocyte (divide twice) – monocyte – (circulation in blood where they mature as macrophages)
• Lymphocyte: lymphoblast – (divide 2-3 times) to lymphocyte
o Development = smaller nuclei, loss of nucleoli, decrease cell size
161
2. Which of the following is true regarding the PAS stain?
a) Stains aldehydes bright red
b) Stains sugars bright red
c) Stains aldehydes blue
d) Stains sugars blue
e) Attacks a single –OH group
b) Stains sugars bright red
162
"dynamic instability"
continuous cycles of polymerization and depoly at steady-state conditions
microtubules
dependent on concentrations of tubulin, Ca2+, Mg2+, MAPs
163
How does a hydrophobic steroid hormone (such as estrogen or testosterone) elicit a response in the target cell?
Binding to a G-protein coupled receptor in the cell membrane, leading to a signaling cascade and activation of transcription factors.
Binding to a receptor coupled to an ion channel, leading to increased intracellular Ca++ levels
Diffusing across the membrane and binding intracellular receptors, which will act as transcription factor in the nucleus.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis facilitated by clathrin coated pits.
Diffusing across the membrane and binding intracellular receptors, which will act as transcription factor in the nucleus.
164
Hemosiderin
iron storage
from macrophage phagocytosis
disease: chronic blood loss
165
Type 7 collagen
secures the basal lamina to the underlying ECM
166
Which best differentiates between plasma and serum?
Serum contains heparin
Serum contains fibrinogen
Plasma contains heparin
B + C
Serum contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant
Serum contains fibrinogen - Fibrinogen is used up in the clotting process, thus serum lacks fibrinogen
***Plasma contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant
B + C
167
Serum contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant
Serum contains fibrinogen - Fibrinogen is used up in the clotting process, thus serum lacks fibrinogen
Plasma contains added heparin - heparin is added to plasma as an anticoagulant
B + C
```
Neutrophils - Neutrophils
Love - Lymphocytes
Making - Monocytes
Everything - Eosinophils
Better - Basophils
```
168
32. Which epithelia is specific to the urinary system and has tight junctions to keep urine out of cells preventing cell lysis?
Stratified Squamous
Stratified Columnar
Pseudo-stratified Columnar Epithelium
Urothelium
Answer: D Urothelium – Transitional Epithelium
- UMBRELLA CELLS
- Specific to Urinary System
- TIGHT JUNCTIONS
- Keep Urine out of cells
- When Dome Cells are present… BLADDER EMPTY
- When Dome Cells are flattened out… BLADDER FULL
169
ALPHA granules of platelets
ADhesive (clotting factors/proteins, -- Fibrinogen, fibronectin, VWF)
Clot formation & retraction
170
delta/dense granules of platelets
Activate (Non-proteins -- ATP/ADP, Serotonin)
| Recruit others and activate
171
how do platelets have a role in degrading clots?
activating plasmin
172
19. List some of the important functions of integral and peripheral membrane proteins.
• Integrations of these proteins due to hydrophobic interactions between lipids and nonpolar aa of proteins – SIGNALLING!!
173
40. What is the significance of hemosiderin in cells
* Storage complex for iron
| * Made of ferritin
174
What kind of filaments are specific to the cell?
Intermediate filaments. Different kinds of filaments depending on what type of cell it is.
175
Lipid droplets in adipocytes are called....
Inclusions
176
Cadherins
Calcium dependent proteins for:
- cell adhesion (zipper-like)
- cell migration
- transmemb signaling
Zonula adhesions, macula adhesions (desmosomes)
177
Most common connective tissue type? Where found usually? Characteristics?
Loose connective
In tissue later underlying epithelium
Highly cellular, vascular
178
Fibronectins
| Purpose?
Most abundant multiadhesive glycoproteins in ecm of connective tissue
Cross-linking provides stab of wound and substrate for cell adhesion and migration
