Self Exam Mom Flashcards
(558 cards)
1
Q
What type of oven is low-temperature roasting is least likely to occur in:
A
convection ovens.
2
Q
Wire brush a grill:
A
from the front towards the back.
3
Q
Beef stew is done when the:
A
collagen is dissolved and the meat is tender.
4
Q
Which statement is false?
a) Elastin breaks down during braising.
b) Overloading a brazier with stewing meat hinders browning.
c) You may cook vegetables in a beef stew separately.
d) You do not generally braise Irish lamb stew.
A
Elastin breaks down during braising.
5
Q
You should cook shish kebabs by which method
A
grilling.
6
Q
When you roast meats to rare doneness, beef differs from pork and veal in that:
A
generally, you do not serve veal and pork rare.
7
Q
To allow for different cooking times and avoid steaming the meat on kebabs, you:
A
blanch firm vegetables for kebabs before skewering.
8
Q
Stewing meat differs from braising meat
A
you cut stewing meat into smaller pieces.
9
Q
You use less-tender cuts of meat for ground beef, but you can cook it by a dry heat
method because:
A
you cut elastin away and grinding breaks up the collagen.
10
Q
The recommended temperature range for low-temperature Meat roasting is:
A
120°C to 140°C.
or
248 °F to 284° F
11
Q
The best way to assess the doneness of a medium-rare beef roast is to:
A
measure the internal temperature with a meat thermometer.
12
Q
When cooking a sirloin steak by dry heat, doneness refers to the:
A
desired degree of protein coagulation.
13
Q
When browning meat, which is a deterrent to the browning process?
A
moisture
14
Q
The best way to determine the doneness of a sirloin steak is to:
A
press to determine the degree of firmness.
15
Q
You should season meat after grilling or broiling because:
A
seasoning draws moisture to the meat surface and hinders the browning process.
16
Q
Which factor has the most significant influence on the required cooking time for a
pork leg roast?
A
thickness
17
Q
Why do you loosely cover breaded products while holding them in a warming
cabinet?
A
Tightly wrapping or stacking breaded products causes the breading to become soggy
from steaming. This reduces the quality characteristics of the product.
18
Q
Simmering or boiling pork back ribs as the first step in cooking:
A
increases flavour loss.
19
Q
Which statement is false?
a) Stir-frying is basically a form of sautéing.
b) You add vegetables to a stir-fry all at once.
c) Stir-frying uses tender cuts of meat.
d) You do not usually cook stir-fry vegetables more than al dente.
A
You add vegetables to a stir-fry all at once.
20
Q
Which of the following beef cuts does not require a moist heat method?
- short ribs
- rib steak
- stewing meat
- brisket
A
rib steak
21
Q
To what does refreshing sweetbreads refer?
A
immersing poached thymus glands in an ice water bath
22
Q
You usually prepare beef tongue by:
A
braising or simmering.
23
Q
Why do different kinds of tripe come from the same animal?
A
beef cattle have four stomach chambers, three of which provide the different kinds of tripe.
24
Q
The texture of properly cooked tripe is:
A
al dente.
25
You commonly prepare beef heart by which cooking method
braising
26
Remove a prime rib roast that you cook medium according to customer preference from a 170°C oven when the internal temperature is:
136 ° F
or
58°C
27
Identify the groups of customers whom the CFIA recommends should eat meat well done.
the very young, elderly or immuno-suppressed
28
Does eating medium pork presents health risks.
No , Trichinosis is no longer a concern because of
| improvements in pork production and meat inspection.
29
What problem arises when you hold rare meat in a hot holding cabinet for any length of time and what temperature is necessary for the holding cabinet?
cooks meat at rare to a medium doneness. 60 C or 140 F is required
30
The class of chicken that commercial kitchens use most often is a:
fryer/broiler.
31
Which part of the chicken should you insert the thermometer
Thigh it takes the longest to cook
32
You should season deep-fried, breaded vegetables after breading and prior to frying. True or False
false
33
When you are cooking vegetables:
a) steaming shortens cooking time.
b) simmering shortens cooking time.
c) steaming reduces flavour loss.
d) both a and c.
d) both a and c
34
Which of the following fish is fatty?
a) halibut
b) cod
c) sole
d) salmon
d) salmon
35
A filleted round fish yields:
a) one fillet.
b) two fillets.
c) three fillets.
d) four fillets.
b) two fillets.
36
Cook Sole Paupiette by:
a) grilling.
b) baking.
c) poaching.
d) sautéing.
c) poaching
37
The term for enclosing fish in parchment and steaming it in its own moisture is:
a) paupiette.
b) en papillote.
c) Florentine.
d) Marinière.
b) en papillote
38
Which of the following best describes a difference between submersion poaching and
shallow poaching?
a) Shallow poaching involves a completely submerged product.
b) Shallow poaching uses a court bouillon.
c) Shallow poaching is ideal for lean fish.
d) Shallow poaching might use a cartouche.
d) Shallow poaching might use a cartouche.
39
Remove the beak from:
a) oysters.
b) mussels.
c) clams.
d) squid.
d) squid.
40
Which of the following is false?
a) Paupiettes are rolled fish fillets.
b) Hollandaise is an appropriate sauce for poached fish that you serve hot.
c) The term Florentine refers to spinach.
d) Grilling is the best choice for sole fillets.
d) Grilling is the best choice for sole fillets.
41
Which statement is false?
a) By standardizing a prep list the cook simply reviews and follows it.
b) Prepare a prep list at the end of a shift.
c) A timeline of activities is a modified prep list.
d) A prep list is a list of products that cooks need to prepare or tasks that they
must do.
b) Prepare a prep list at the end of a shift.
42
What is active listening?
Active listening is a communication technique that requires listeners to understand,
interpret and evaluate what they hear.
43
What is a par stock?
It is a predetermined amount of product that you need to have in inventory at all
times. Par stocks are the minimum amount of product an establishment wants to have
on hand until it places the next food/product order.
44
How are beginning and ending inventories related?
The ending inventory for one period is the beginning inventory for the next period.
For example, the ending inventory on April 30 is the beginning inventory on May 1.
45
Most commercially sold beef and poultry is not graded. True or False
False
46
Canada Grade A chicken is a better choice than Canada Utility chicken when you:
a) require boneless, skinless chicken stir fry meat.
b) want to use chicken from young animals only.
c) need to cook chicken for cold chicken salad sandwiches.
d) roast whole chickens and want a more uniform product.
d) roast whole chickens and want a more uniform product.
47
```
The grade for fresh vegetables and fruits that are uniform in size and shape, clean,
wholesome and possess a healthy-looking exterior is most likely:
a) Canada A.
b) Canada 1.
c) Canada B.
d) Canada 2.
e) a or b
f) b or c
g) c or d
```
e) a or b
48
Which statement is true?
a) Cello pack product should have an airtight seal.
b) Vacuum-packed product has a pillowy appearance.
c) A case of 100 oz tomatoes usually contains eight cans.
d) 72/88 count apples are larger than 100/113 count apples.
d) 72/88 count apples are larger than 100/113 count apples.
49
The seasonality of product commercial kitchens use is least affected by:
a) global warming extending the length of growing seasons.
b) advances in the preservation of foods.
c) importing food products from other parts of the world.
d) producing vegetables in greenhouses.
a) global warming extending the length of growing seasons.
50
What is the purpose of listing ingredients on food labels? In what order must they be
arranged?
The list of ingredients helps to protect consumers from allergens and helps
substantiate product claims on a food label. Manufacturers label the ingredients in a
product in descending order of quantity or as a percentage of the pre-packaged food
product. This means that they list the most predominant ingredient first, then the
second predominant ingredient, and so on.
51
Why is ice-packed chicken inconvenient to receive and store?
Ice-packed chicken is inconvenient to receive because you need to weigh the product
without the ice to verify that the correct amount (net weight) appears on the invoice.
It is inconvenient to store because the melting ice may leak and cause a health and
safety hazard when you move it or hold it in cold storage.
52
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Animal products are a source of cholesterol.
b) Fruits and vegetables naturally contain trans fatty acids.
c) Proteins are present in foods from animal sources.
d) Amino acids make up proteins.
b) Fruits and vegetables naturally contain trans fatty acids.
53
Complete proteins:
a) contain all the essential amino acids that the body cannot manufacture itself.
b) supply the most energy to the body.
c) contain all the vitamins necessary for proper body function.
d) contain both saturated and unsaturated amino acids.
a) contain all the essential amino acids that the body cannot manufacture itself.
54
Although it is not a nutrient, _____________ is necessary for healthy body function.
a) fat
b) fibre
c) glucose
d) protein
b) fibre
55
Which of the following is true?
a) 1gram of calcium = 12 calories
b) 1 gram of fat = 9 calories
c) 1 gram of protein = 6 calories
d) 1 gram of carbohydrates = 3 calories
b) 1 gram of fat = 9 calories
56
Which of the following types of fat is solid at room temperature, predominant in
animal products and often associated with heart disease and other health problems?
a) monounsaturated
b) unsaturated
c) polyunsaturated
d) saturated
d) saturated
57
Which of the following contain complete proteins?
a) whole grains
b) dried beans
c) frozen meats
d) canned peas
c) frozen meats
58
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Vitamin C is a water soluble vitamin.
b) The body makes vitamin D when sunlight touches the skin.
c) Trace minerals include sodium, calcium and zinc.
d) Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness.
c) Trace minerals include sodium, calcium and zinc.
59
Starches and sugars both belong to the group of compounds called carbohydrates.
a) true
b) false
a) true
60
What does essential mean, in the context of fatty acids and amino acids?
Essential amino acids and fatty acids are products that the body needs, but that it
cannot produce. If you do not get these acids through diet, the bodily functions that
they support will deteriorate.
61
A pescatarian eats __________ and plant products.
a) fish
b) meat
c) poultry
d) eggs
a) fish
62
Which of the following does the Canada Food Guide not identify as a food group?
a) grain products
b) milk and alternatives
c) vegetables and fruit
d) meat and extras
d) meat and extras
63
Which of the following would you not consider parve?
a) fruit and fruit products
b) vegetable and vegetable products
c) fin fish and fin fish products
d) lamb and lamb products
d) lamb and lamb products
64
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Hindus commonly practice vegetarianism.
b) Kashrut does not allow the consumption of pork.
c) Natural foods may include genetically modified crops.
d) Producers should not add vitamins, minerals, or flavourings to natural foods
in Canada.
c) Natural foods may include genetically modified crops
65
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Certified organic farms are free of all synthetic chemicals.
b) Organic foods are much healthier and loaded with extra nutrients.
c) Organic farms often have more diverse soil microbe communities.
d) Organic food products usually cost less than regular products.
c) Organic farms often have more diverse soil microbe communities.
66
Chickens that farmers allow to roam and forage freely and do not fence in are:
a) organic chickens.
b) free-run chickens.
c) grass fed chickens.
d) free-range chickens.
d) free-range chickens
67
Which of the following would a person with celiac sprue avoid?
a) cheese omelette with fried potatoes
b) poached salmon with hollandaise sauce
c) sautéed chicken and vegetables on rice
d) tuna salad sandwich on whole wheat bread
d) tuna salad sandwich on whole wheat bread
68
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Food labels must list the most abundant ingredient in a processed product
first.
b) Food labels do not necessarily list additives, vitamins and minerals in their
order of abundance.
c) A food label includes the product name, net quantity and manufacturer's
information.
d) Organic product must contain 100% organic ingredients in order to be
certified organic.
d) Organic product must contain 100% organic ingredients in order to be
certified organic.
69
Which of the following would likely be the most suitable for a diabetic diet?
a) waffles with whipped cream and strawberries
b) pancakes and real maple syrup
c) poached eggs on whole wheat toast
d) coffee and an apple fritter
c) poached eggs on whole wheat toast
70
Why might farm-raised salmon have a better flesh colour than their wild counterparts?
Feeds meet the nutritional requirements of the fish and some feed formulations
augment flesh colour. Producers of farm-raised Atlantic salmon may use feeds that
help ensure the development of a bright orange flesh colour.
71
The class of chicken that commercial kitchens use most often is a:
a) fryer/broiler.
b) roaster.
c) capon.
d) fowl.
a) fryer/broiler.
72
When you grill bone-in chicken pieces, the grill temperature is:
a) cooler than when you grill a medium rare steak.
b) hotter than when you grill a rare steak.
c) the same as when you cook a blue rare steak.
d) not a major consideration.
a) cooler than when you grill a medium rare steak.
73
You can use boneless turkey breasts in adaptations of recipes that call for:
a) lamb.
b) beef.
c) veal.
d) duck.
c) veal
74
Which poultry cut can you cook by sautéing?
a) chicken cut into halves
b) chicken cut into quarters
c) whole turkey legs
d) boneless chicken breasts
d) boneless chicken breasts
75
Which statement is false?
a) In foodservice operations, you usually cook stuffing for turkey separately.
b) You hold cooked stuffing for service at a temperature above 60°C.
c) A stuffed turkey requires additional cooking time.
d) You should reheat cooked stuffing to an internal temperature of 60°C.
d) You should reheat cooked stuffing to an internal temperature of 60°C
76
Which method most likely applies to Cornish chickens?
a) Cut the product into an eight-piece cut and prepare for cacciatore.
b) Debone the product and cut into a dice for Chicken à la King.
c) Debone, stuff, bake and serve a half chicken.
d) Debone the breast for cordon bleu and the legs for stuffing.
c) Debone, stuff, bake and serve a half chicken.
77
Which bone do you leave attached to a chicken suprême?
a) drumette
b) femur
c) wishbone
d) keel bone
a) drumette
78
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Bake cordon bleu if frying does not cook it sufficiently.
b) You often use bread stuffing in boneless turkey leg roasts.
c) Use the oyster meat from Cornish chickens to prepare paillards.
d) Braised chicken dishes generally do not use fowl.
c) Use the oyster meat from Cornish chickens to prepare paillards.
79
Cooked flesh that readily falls off the bone indicates a properly cooked turkey.
a) true
b) false
b) false It is an indication of over-cooked turkey.
80
```
When you compare fish to meat in terms of cooking methods, the major difference is
the:
a) water content.
b) fat content.
c) amount of protein.
d) amount of connective tissue.
```
d) amount of connective tissue
81
Which of the following is true?
a) Determining doneness by textural firming is a reliable method for most
seafood cookery.
b) You can hold cooked fish hot in warming cabinets for extended periods of
time without any loss of quality.
c) You often serve English-style fish and chips with malt vinegar on the side.
d) Salmon is an excellent fish for battering and deep-frying.
c) You often serve English-style fish and chips with malt vinegar on the side.
82
Cioppino is:
a) a fish stew.
b) crusty bread.
c) a style of baked oyster.
d) deep-fried clams.
a) a fish stew.
83
Which ingredient has anti-bacterial properties?
a) nori
b) sushi-zu
c) mirin
d) wasabi
d) wasabi
84
The most accurate indicator of doneness of fish is firmness.
a) true
b) false
b) false Temperature is the most accurate indicator of doneness.
85
Fond de gibier and fond de veau brun:
a) are stocks you make from roasted bones.
b) use the blanch and refresh method.
c) are the same product.
d) are stocks you simmer for three hours.
a) are stocks you make from roasted bones.
86
Cook fish fumet for:
a) at least six hours.
b) three to five hours.
c) two to three hours.
d) less than one hour.
d) less than one hour.
87
Which of the following has the shortest simmering time?
a) white chicken stock
b) brown veal stock
c) white beef stock
d) white pork stock
e) brown lamb stock
a) white chicken stock
88
You may make fond blanc from:
a) pork bones.
b) veal bones.
c) chicken bones.
d) beef bones.
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
89
The French term for meat glaze is:
a) glace de poisson.
b) glace de boeuf.
c) glace de potrine.
d) glace de viande.
e) glace de volaille.
d) glace de viande
90
If you cut large bones into smaller pieces when you prepare stock, it will:
a) reduce cooking time.
b) enhance colour.
c) improve flavour extraction.
d) reduce the need for seasoning.
c) improve flavour extraction.
91
Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Veal bones are more vascular than beef bones.
b) Veal bones contain more collagen than beef bones.
c) Refrigerated, high-quality veal stock should be quite liquid.
d) Simmer veal stocks for about six hours.
c) Refrigerated, high-quality veal stock should be quite liquid.
92
When you prepare fish stock, cut the mirepoix:
a) finely.
b) coarsely.
c) julienne.
d) baton.
a) finely.
93
Why does the mise en place for brown beef stock include vegetable oil? NOTES
a) You cut beef bones for white stock in larger pieces.
b) You blanch and refresh beef bones for brown stock.
c) You roast beef bones for brown stock.
d) You simmer beef bones for white stock.
c) You roast beef bones for brown stock.
94
White pork stock is most appropriate for:
a) cream of cauliflower soup.
b) Irish stew.
c) beef vegetable soup.
d) split pea soup.
d) split pea soup
95
The texture of refrigerated glace de viande is:
a) liquid.
b) semi-liquid.
c) firm and rubbery.
d) hard and solid.
c) firm and rubbery.
96
The cooked vegetables left over from a brown vegetable stock are an excellent base
for making a remouillage.
a) true
b) false
b) false No flavours or nutrients remain in the vegetables.
97
Why do you simmer a court bouillon for 20 to 30 minutes before you add raw
seafood?
You cook the vegetables and aromatics first to allow their flavours to infuse into the
cooking liquid.
98
Why would you produce brown vegetable stock when bones are readily available?
Vegetarianism is a growing trend in today's society and some customers may have
religious beliefs that prohibit them from eating pork.
99
How do white chicken stock preparation procedures differ from white beef stock preparation procedures? a, b, and c need 3 answers
a) Chicken bones are more perishable than beef bones. You must use frozen
chicken bones as soon as you defrost them.
b) You often rinse chicken bones in cold water before use in order to remove some
of the blood and impurities that tend to cloud the stock (unless you are making
brown stock).
c) Chicken bones require less simmering time (usually three to four hours) than beef
bones. Stewing hens and turkey carcasses should simmer for up to four hours.
100
A consommé to which you add small cubed vegetables is consommé ____________.
brunoise
101
The British adapted an Indian soup called ___________________.
mulligatawny
102
How do consommé Celestine and consommé royale differ?
You garnish consommé Celestine with a julienne of crepe, while you garnish
consommé royale with a cooked egg custard that you cut into neat, uniform shapes.
103
You generally name a consommé according to its:
a) country of origin.
b) puréed ingredients.
c) kind and type of garnish.
d) method of clarification.
c) kind and type of garnish.
104
You usually simmer fresh vegetables in Scotch broth for a short time because:
a) you should not overcook the vegetables.
b) you use a clearmeat for clarification.
c) the stock becomes cloudy if they simmer too long.
d) the onions are already caramelized.
a) you should not overcook the vegetables
105
An appropriate garnish for a jellied consommé is:
a) a lemon wedge.
b) crumbled bacon.
c) diced raw turnip.
d) puréed peas.
a) a lemon wedge.
106
When you prepare a consommé:
a) stir it constantly.
b) do not stir it at all.
c) stir it occasionally during the entire cooking process.
d) stir it occasionally until the raft starts to form.
d) stir it occasionally until the raft starts to form.
107
```
The name of a consommé to which you add finely cut strips of vegetables is
consommé:
a) legume.
b) brunoise.
c) Celestine.
d) julienne.
```
d) julienne.
108
Which item is part of mulligatawny soup?
a) liver dumplings
b) Bombay duck
c) diced chicken
d) orange sections
c) diced chicken
109
A pappadam is an appropriate garnish for:
a) mulligatawny soup.
b) borscht.
c) French onion soup.
d) shrimp bisque.
a) mulligatawny soup.
110
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Béchamel-based sauces may break when you simmer them.
b) Béchamel-based sauces easily scorch when you simmer them.
c) Reduction is important when you make Mornay sauce.
d) You finish Mornay sauce by monter au beurre.
c) Reduction is important when you make Mornay sauce.
111
Another name for hunter sauce is:
a) béarnaise sauce.
b) bordelaise sauce.
c) chasseur sauce.
d) champignon sauce.
c) chasseur sauce
112
You make chasseur sauce with:
a) red wine and mushrooms.
b) mushrooms and tomato.
c) tomato and olives.
d) olives and white wine.
b) mushrooms and tomato.
113
Which of the following is a smooth, rich sauce that you garnish with bone marrow?
a) Béarnaise sauce
b) Choron sauce
c) Bordelaise sauce
d) chasseur sauce
c) Bordelaise sauce
114
Choron sauce should be:
a) pink.
b) yellow.
c) white.
d) brown.
a) pink
115
A gastrique contains:
a) caramelized sugar and vinegar.
b) vinegar and wine.
c) wine and fruit puree.
d) fruit puree and sugar.
a) caramelized sugar and vinegar.
116
You would be least likely to use a gastrique in:
a) Creole sauce.
b) duck a l'orange.
c) Provençale sauce.
d) sauce vin blanc.
d) sauce vin blanc
117
Which of the following is an herb native to southern Asia that resembles a small,
shiny lemon leaf and has a pungent fragrance?
a) curry leaf
b) lemon grass
c) tamarind
d) galangal
a) curry leaf
118
To make sauce choron, add ___________ to béarnaise sauce.
a) tomato concassée
b) glace de viande
c) tomato puree/paste
d) whipped cream
c) tomato puree/paste
119
Use glace de viande to flavour:
a) sauce foyot.
b) sauce choron.
c) beurre noisette.
d) beurre fondue.
a) sauce foyot.
120
What is another name for maître d'hôtel butter?
a) herb butter
b) garlic butter
c) parsley butter
d) Montpelier butter
c) parsley butter
121
What is the length of a château potato?
a) 1.75 cm
b) 5 cm
c) 3.5 cm
d) 4.75 cm
b) 5 cm
122
What does a fondante potato look like in comparison to a château?
a) lozenge rather than barrel shape
b) shorter than a château
c) half the size of a château
d) flat on the bottom
a) lozenge rather than barrel shape
123
What is the best choice of potato for duchesse potato?
a) Yukon gold
b) Bintje
c) russet
d) red
c) russet
124
How do you shape a classic duchesse potato?
a) hand shape it into a ball
b) with a piping bag fitted with a star tube
c) with a portion scoop
d) hand shape it into a cylinder
b) with a piping bag fitted with a star tube
125
Lyonnaise potatoes contain caramelized onions.
a) true
b) false
a) true
126
What are sliced potatoes with gruyère cheese?
a) Jackson potatoes
b) au gratin potatoes
c) pavé potatoes
d) gratin dauphinoise potatoes
d) gratin dauphinoise potatoes
127
You braise Boulangère potatoes.
a) true
b) false
a) true
128
Sweating onions and flavourings in fat is the initial step when you cook:
a) steamed rice.
b) rice pilaf.
c) scented rice.
d) wild rice.
b) rice pilaf
129
Use saffron threads to flavour risotto:
a) primavera.
b) funghi.
c) Milanese.
d) parmigiana.
c) Milanese
130
Basmati rice ___________ in volume when you cook it.
a) stays the same
b) doubles
c) triples
d) quadruples
c) triples
131
```
Which type of rice do you add to converted rice in order to help it clump for
timbales?
a) basmati
b) wild
c) jasmine
d) Arborio
```
c) jasmine
132
Which type of rice does not cook into individual grains?
a) converted
b) Thai fragrant
c) wild
d) basmati
b) Thai fragrant
133
Which of the following is false?
a) Semolina is pale yellow.
b) Semolina derives from a variety of hard wheat.
c) Semolina has a very low protein content.
d) Semolina produces high-quality pasta.
c) Semolina has a very low protein content.
134
The best choice of noodle for minestrone soup is:
a) manicotti.
b) orzo.
c) fusilli.
d) penne.
b) orzo.
135
The pasta method of cooking requires:
a) equal amounts of pasta to water by weight.
b) one part pasta to two parts water by weight.
c) one part pasta to four parts water by weight.
d) one part pasta to eight parts water by weight.
d) one part pasta to eight parts water by weight
136
What adjustment do you need in order to make to a lasagne recipe if you substitute
oven-ready lasagne noodles for regular dried (cooked al dente) lasagne noodles?
a) Add about 50% more salt to the sauce.
b) Add more liquid to make a somewhat thinner sauce.
c) Use a shorter baking period.
d) Add more eggs to the filling.
b) Add more liquid to make a somewhat thinner sauce.
137
Which of the following combinations is most likely not part of pesto sauce?
a) olive oil and pine nuts
b) pine nuts and parmesan cheese
c) parmesan cheese and walnuts
d) walnuts and tomato
d) walnuts and tomato
138
Which of the following preparations do you garnish with vegetables?
a) fettuccini Alfredo
b) linguini primavera
c) spaghetti carbonara
d) ravioli with pesto
b) linguini primavera
139
Which dish do you make with fine rice noodles that you fry with garlic, onions, chile
peppers, napa cabbage and crisp onion flakes?
a) mie goreng
b) kake udon
c) Singapore-style noodles
d) spaghetti carbonara
a) mie goreng
140
Describe the following pastas and some of their uses.
a) rotini
b) farfalle
c) conchiglie
a) Small- to medium-size spirals that you use for cold salads, baked macaroni with
cheese and various kinds of hearty sauces.
b) Bowtie pasta that is popular in cold salads. Use with lighter sauces.
c) Pasta shells that you may serve large versions with seafood sauces and small
versions in soups.
141
To maintain the best quality of vegetables during meal service, use:
a) stagger cooking.
b) bulk cooking.
c) mass cooking.
d) small batch cooking.
e) both a and d.
e) both a and d.
142
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Peel vegetables thinly in order to prevent loss of moisture.
b) Pre-cook onion rings before battering and deep-frying.
c) Cook vegetables you will blanch to a lesser degree than vegetables that are
par-cooked.
d) Plant acids will improve the colour and appearance of green beans.
c) Cook vegetables you will blanch to a lesser degree than vegetables that are
par-cooked.
143
Which of the following liquids do you not use for cooking braised red cabbage?
a) milk
b) lemon juice
c) red wine
d) vinegar
a) milk
144
```
Which ingredient does not help to retain the red/purple colouration in braised red
cabbage?
a) apples
b) bacon fat
c) red wine
d) lemon juice
```
b) bacon fat
145
A bouquetière of vegetables:
a) is traditionally served with chateaubriand.
b) is an aromatic for braised red cabbage.
c) must use more than six different vegetables.
d) should be uniform in colour.
a) is traditionally served with chateaubriand.
146
Tournéd rutabaga is the best choice for:
a) ratatouille.
b) bouquetière.
c) filling or stuffing.
d) deep-frying.
b) bouquetière.
147
Why do thin slices of deep fried yams brown quickly?
Yams are naturally high in sugar, which caramelizes and browns quickly.
148
A barquette is a crisp cheese disk.
a) true
b) false
b) false A barquette is a boat-shaped tart shell.
149
Bruschetta and crostini are the same.
a) true
b) false
a) true
150
Fish that you cure with salt and sugar describes:
a) ceviche.
b) mignonette.
c) gravalax.
d) sashimi.
c) gravalax.
151
The term sushi refers to raw fish.
a) true
b) false
b) false The term sushi refers to the vinegared rice.
152
Name two (2) types of unsmoked ham.
a)
b)
a) prosciutto
| b) Serrano
153
You serve mignonette with:
a) amuse-bouches.
b) escabeche.
c) ceviche.
d) oysters.
d) oysters.
154
Tomatillos are a common ingredient in:
a) tapenade.
b) salsa.
c) steam buns.
d) frittata.
b) salsa.
155
The traditional herb you use to prepare gravalax is:
a) basil.
b) chives.
c) dill.
d) parsley.
c) dill.
156
You slice gravalax on a ____________ degree angle.
45
157
Traditional canapés have a _____________ or ______________ base.
bread or cracker
158
```
Name the four (4) traditional components of a canapé.
a)
b)
c)
d)
```
a) base
b) spread
c) body or filling
d) garnish.
159
The name for small buckwheat pancakes is _________________.
blini
160
Name the three (3) functions of a spread.
a)
b)
c)
a) to provide flavour
b) to act as a filling
c) to provide a moisture barrier
161
A suitable base for a shrimp salad canapé is a:
a) crostini.
b) soup spoon.
c) cucumber basket.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above
162
You shape a slice of salami in a cone to make a __________________.
coronet
163
To enhance the appearance of canapés and inhibit drying, you may coat them with
________________________.
aspic
164
Sushi-zu is:
a) mirin.
b) sweetened rice vinegar.
c) nori -wrapped sushi.
d) sashimi you make with previously frozen fish.
b) sweetened rice vinegar
165
What is the first step in preparing the rice for sushi?
Wash the rice thoroughly under cold running water.
166
Dry seaweed sheets are:
a) neta.
b) maki.
c) nori.
d) mirin.
c) nori.
167
When you place nori on a bamboo mat, which side is up?
the dull side
168
A blanched shrimp may top which kind of sushi?
a) nigiri
b) maki
c) sushi-zu
d) wasabi
a) nigiri
169
Which sushi ingredient has anti-bacterial properties?
wasabi
170
A common garnish for sashimi is __________________.
daikon
171
The portion size for à la carte appetizers is:
a) 85-95 g.
b) 100-120 g.
c) 130-150 g.
d) 155-170 g.
b) 100-120 g.
172
Salpicon is:
a) a Greek dish of spinach, mint and feta wrapped in phyllo.
b) a Spanish appetizer that you serve with drinks.
c) a filling for tarts of fine dice or julienne bound with a sauce.
d) a dough-wrapped filling that you deep-fry.
c) a filling for tarts of fine dice or julienne bound with a sauce.
173
Shish kebab refers specifically to:
a) beef.
b) chicken.
c) pork.
d) lamb.
d) lamb.
174
You marinate meat for kebabs __________________ and _____________________.
flavour and tenderize
175
Other than bread and crackers, what can you use as bases for canapés?
a)
b)
c)
a) spoons
b) shot glasses
c) slices or containers of vegetables
176
Which of the following is not a suitable garnish for a canapé?
a) caviar with duck confit
b) fig jam with chevre tart
c) pickled onion with veal cheek
d) candied nut with brie
a) caviar with duck confit
177
You add finely grated cheese to ________________ to make gougères.
choux paste
178
```
A mixture of ginger, scallions, garlic, soy sauce, sake, rice vinegar and mirin best
describes:
a) teriyaki sauce.
b) tzatziki sauce.
c) hoisin sauce.
d) sweet and sour sauce.
```
a) teriyaki sauce.
179
List three (3) benefits of setting up an action station.
a)
b)
c)
a) the guests receive fresh food
b) it entertains the guests
c) you can establish a theme
180
For a reception, hot appetizers should be approximately:
a) 40-50 g.
b) 50-75 g.
c) 60-80 g.
d) 75-90 g.
b) 50-75 g
181
The best ingredient to use for moisture retention in a brined product is:
a) granulated sugar.
b) honey.
c) brown sugar.
d) salt petre.
b) honey.
182
To inhibit bacterial growth, use:
a) sodium nitrite.
b) sodium nitrate.
c) phosphates.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above.
183
You can accelerate the brining process by:
a) heating the brine.
b) increasing the sugar content.
c) injecting brine into the muscle.
d) increasing the salt content.
c) injecting brine into the muscle.
184
Pickling vinegars have an acetic acid concentration of:
a) 4% to 6%.
b) 2.6% to 4%.
c) 6.2% to 8%.
d) 5% to 6%.
a) 4% to 6%.
185
The pH value for a pickled product should be in the range of:
a) 6 to 7.1.
b) 2.6 to 4.
c) 7 to 8.
d) 3 to 5.
b) 2.6 to 4.
186
To enhance the crunch of a dill pickle:
a) use distilled vinegar.
b) use hard water.
c) add alum.
d) add fresh dill.
c) add alum.
187
To achieve low-temperature pasteurization of a pickle, you must process it:
a) in boiling water for 10 minutes or more.
b) in boiling water for 5 minutes.
c) at 60°C for 30 minutes.
d) at 68°C for 30 minutes.
a) in boiling water for 10 minutes or more.
188
The salt concentration of a brine for meat ranges from:
a) 2.6% to 5.2%.
b) 2% to 3%.
c) 3% to 5%.
d) 5.3% to 8%.
c) 3% to 5%.
189
Old-fashioned style hams are dry-cured.
a) true
b) false
b) false They are wet cured.
190
You always make gravalax with more salt than sugar.
a) true
b) false
b) false The sugar and salt quantities vary by recipe.
191
Marinades always have an acidic ingredient.
a) true
b) false
b) false They can be as basic as oil with herbs.
192
The unique characteristics of a cheese are created during ___________.
conditioning
193
Camembert is an example of a/an _____________ ripened cheese.
surface
194
The white bloomy rind on a brie grows from _________________.
penicillium camemberti.
195
Firm cheeses are all:
a) surface ripened.
b) interior ripened.
c) not ripened.
d) inoculated.
b) interior ripened.
196
Cheese has the best flavour when:
a) you warm it to room temperature.
b) you serve it straight from the fridge.
c) you bake it.
d) you cut it with a wire.
a) you warm it to room temperature.
197
```
List the Canadian Dairy Information Centre's six (6) categories of cheese.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
```
a) fresh
b) soft
c) semi-soft
d) firm
e) hard
f) veined
198
A micromanager most likely struggles with which organizational skill?
a) meeting agendas
b) delegating
c) scheduling
d) communicating
b) delegating
199
Which of the following is not an operational organizational skill?
a) the ability to actively listen and communicate
b) a logical thought process on how to structure and complete activities
c) the ability to prioritize and implement time management plans
d) the knowledge and aptitude to make strategic decisions
d) the knowledge and aptitude to make strategic decisions
200
How do active listening and hearing differ?
a) Active listening involves your ears.
b) Hearing involves interpretation and engaging in thought.
c) Active listeners evaluate and contemplate what they hear.
d) Hearing includes gesturing and facial expressions.
c) Active listeners evaluate and contemplate what they hear.
201
Which of the following is an example of a relative standard?
a) pass/fail
b) yes/no
c) right/wrong
d) excellent/good
d) excellent/good
202
Management uses five (5) principle assets to accomplish goals in commercial
kitchens. Which is arguably the most important?
a) money
b) time
c) things
d) information
e) people
e) people
203
Which of the following statements is not a required provision of maternity leave? The
employee must:
a) have worked for 12 consecutive months with the employer to be eligible for
leave.
b) must take at least six weeks of her leave after the actual date of delivery
unless there is medical approval to resume work earlier.
c) apply to the employer in writing, at least four months prior to the day she
intends to commence leave.
d) be reinstated into her former position or provided with comparable work at no less than the same wages and benefits she received before the leave.
c) apply to the employer in writing, at least four months prior to the day she
intends to commence leave.
204
The objective of work simplification is to achieve maximum:
a) effort.
b) production.
c) production with minimal effort.
d) production with maximum effort.
c) production with minimal effort.
205
```
Identify characteristics that you can use in setting quality standards for food items
produced in a commercial kitchen.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
```
a) visual appeal
b) portion size
c) textures and consistencies
d) taste
e) temperature
206
```
Identify five (5) items that should be in an employee orientation information package.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
```
Any five (5) of the following are correct.
a) a job description for the employee's position along with evaluation
information
b) a short history of the company
c) the vision and mission statements of your company
d) any awards or noteworthy achievements of your company
e) company policies and procedures such as parking policy, scheduling
vacations, sick leave, overtime, smoking, safety and security procedures
f) universal performance standards for the organization such as arriving on time
and working until the end of the shift and being free of intoxicants during
work hours
g) a collective agreement or contract of employment if applicable
h) an employee handbook, if one is available
207
A static menu is one that offers the same dishes every day.
a) true
b) false
a) true
208
Table d'hôte literally means the guest's table in English.
a) true
b) false
b) false Table d'hôte literally means the host's table in English.
209
Menu terminology should include phrases and descriptions such as assorted, various,
special, secret and our own.
a) true
b) false
b) false These terms do not describe a menu item specifically or accurately.
210
```
List the four (4) main factors around which patron considerations revolve.
a)
b)
c)
d)
```
a) physiological needs
b) psychological needs
c) social needs
d) cultural dietary restrictions
211
Menus usually list foods in the order that the customer eats them. Give an example of
a menu that would not necessarily follow these guidelines.
static menus in quick service restaurants or institutions
212
How might you extend the production capacity of a kitchen that is limited by cooking
and preparation equipment?
a) Use convenience and value added product.
b) Increase the number of food deliveries per week.
c) Hire more service staff.
d) Increase the storage space.
a) Use convenience and value added product.
213
Which of the following menu development statements is false?
a) Repeating and rerunning food items with similar tastes and textures is a good way to create variety.
b) Your menu should include items with various textures and consistencies.
c) You usually want to provide hot and cold items on a menu.
d) Your menu should include a range of cuts and preparations.
a) Repeating and rerunning food items with similar tastes and textures is a good way to create variety.
214
Which of the following statements regarding the recording of an inventory is false?
a) You improve the efficiency of a physical inventory when you arrange
products in an orderly and consistent fashion.
b) It generally helps with inventory controls when you store similar products together.
c) If you record an inventory directly onto a computer spreadsheet, you save time later.
d) You must write physical inventories down on paper.
d) You must write physical inventories down on paper.
215
You are extending the value of the inventory from March 31. During the month of March, you purchased beef rib-eye on three occasions. Which invoice(s) do you use to determine the current market price?
a) March 10
b) March 10 and 15
c) March 24
d) March 15 and 24
e) March 10, 15 and 24
c) March 24
216
You are extending the value of your inventory from March 31. During the month of March, you purchased frozen shrimp on three occasions. Which invoice(s) do you use to determine the average market price?
a) March 10
b) March 10 and 15
c) March 24
d) March 15 and 24
e) March 10, 15 and 24
e) March 10, 15 and 24
217
Which of the following statements is true?
a) The beginning inventory is also the ending inventory for the same time
period.
b) The time period between inventories is always daily or weekly.
c) The ending inventory for a period becomes the opening inventory for the next period.
d) Opening inventory, ending inventory and purchases are the base for standard food cost.
c) The ending inventory for a period becomes the opening inventory for the next period.
218
Which formula do you use to calculate contribution margin?
a) $ Food Cost $ Average Inventory × 100
b) $ Selling Price − $ Variable Costs × 100
c) $ Selling Price − $ Food Cost
d) $ Food Cost $ Revenue × 100
c) $ Selling Price − $ Food Cost
219
Which of the following statements is true for a National Occupational Analysis (NOA)?
a) The NOA forms the basis for the Alberta Apprenticeship training program.
b) The NOA is developed by HRSDC staff from their perceptions of the trade.
c) The NOA is developed by staff from the host jurisdiction.
d) The NOA is the sole document used to develop a Red Seal exam.
d) The NOA is the sole document used to develop a Red Seal exam.
220
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the steps required to produce a Red Seal exam?
a) The host jurisdiction holds a workshop to develop the Red Seal exam plan, industry practitioners develop questions for the exam and then the NOA is developed from the exam plan.
b) The host jurisdiction holds a workshop to develop the Red Seal exam plan, the NOA is developed from the exam plan and then industry practitioners develop questions for the exam.
c) HRSDC convenes a workshop of industry practitioners to develop an NOA, the host jurisdiction collects and reviews all comments related to the draft NOA, and then HRSDC publishes the completed NOA.
d) HRSDC convenes a workshop of industry practitioners to develop an NOA, HRSDC collects and reviews all comments related to the draft NOA, and then HRSDC develops an exam plan.
d) HRSDC convenes a workshop of industry practitioners to develop an NOA, HRSDC collects and reviews all comments related to the draft NOA, and then HRSDC develops an exam plan
221
Which statement is true?
a) The NOA for a specific trade should be studied to prepare for a provincial
apprenticeship exam in that trade.
b) In an NOA, a Task is bigger in scope than a Block.
c) Industry practitioners are people that own businesses in a trade.
d) Industry practitioners are people that work hands on in a trade.
d) Industry practitioners are people that work hands on in a trade
222
What are the three types of questions used on Red Seal exams?
a) recall, application and critical thinking
b) recall, calculation and critical thinking
c) knowledge, calculation and critical thinking
d) knowledge, calculation and short answer
a) recall, application and critical thinking
223
Why is it important to obtain a Red Seal endorsement?
a) The Red Seal is the industry-accepted standard for excellence in a trade.
b) Employers will not hire Alberta journeymen without the endorsement.
c) It is required to become a certified journeyperson in Alberta.
d) A Red Seal endorsement is required to be able to work in another
jurisdiction.
a) The Red Seal is the industry-accepted standard for excellence in a trade.
224
You cut sirloin tip from:
a) pork tenderloin.
b) lamb rack.
c) veal leg (hind).
d) lamb loin.
c) veal leg (hind).
225
You do not usually broil veal loin chops until done because:
a) they contain a high proportion of elastin.
b) people generally eat them rare.
c) they are a less tender cut.
d) they are low in fat content.
d) they are low in fat content
226
When is it best to remove the oyster meat on a pork leg?
a) before you skin the pork leg
b) just before you remove the aitch bone
c) while you remove the femur
d) after you remove the inside round muscle
b) just before you remove the aitch bone
227
You make osso buco from:
a) lamb racks.
b) veal scaloppini.
c) lamb loin.
d) veal shanks.
d) veal shanks.
228
Which of the following do you not find in an untrimmed lamb rack?
a) femur
b) rib bones
c) shoulder blade
d) elastin
a) femur
229
The best temperature for roasting lamb racks is:
a) 75°C.
b) 140°C.
c) 225°C.
d) 300°C.
b) 140°C.
230
You debone a lamb loin for:
a) roasted lamb rack.
b) noisettes.
c) osso buco.
d) saltimbocca.
b) noisettes.
231
Which of the following contains tail, pin and knuckle bones?
a) long cut lamb leg
b) whole tenderloin
c) lamb loin
d) pork leg
a) long cut lamb leg
232
From which part of the tenderloin can you naturally cut tournedos?
a) butt tenderloin
b) head of the tenderloin
c) centre of the tenderloin
d) tip of the tenderloin
d) tip of the tenderloin
233
A chateaubriand is a:
a) sirloin steak for two.
b) tenderloin steak for two.
c) striploin steak for two.
d) rib steak for two.
b) tenderloin steak for two.
234
Which of the following is not part of a classic Beef Wellington?
a) mushroom duxelle
b) pâté de foie gras
c) asparagus spears
d) tenderloin steak
c) asparagus spears
235
Which preparation includes fresh sage leaves and prosciutto ham?
a) osso buco
b) saltimbocca alla Romana
c) veal blanquette
d) émincé of veal
b) saltimbocca alla Romana
236
You use moist heat only for:
a) osso buco.
b) saltimbocca alla Romana.
c) pork blanquette.
d) émincé de veau.
c) pork blanquette
237
You bake phyllo-wrapped tenderloin at:
a) 75°C.
b) 150°C.
c) 200°C.
d) 300°C.
c) 200°C.
238
Sage is an herb that you traditionally use to season:
a) lamb rack.
b) pork blanquette.
c) saltimbocca alla Romana.
d) chateaubriand.
c) saltimbocca alla Romana.
239
Which of the following is not an ingredient in gremolata?
a) garlic
b) parsley
c) lemon flesh
d) lemon zest
c) lemon flesh
240
Simmering meat differs from braising meat because you:
a) brown braised meat before simmering.
b) simmer braised meat before browning.
c) do not simmer braised meat.
d) braise less tender cuts.
a) brown braised meat before simmering.
241
Why might you refrain from serving an additional starch with Beef Wellington or
phyllo-wrapped pork tenderloin?
You might refrain from serving an additional starch with Beef Wellington or phyllo-
wrapped pork tenderloin because the pastries in these preparations are starches.
242
You can use butcher's twine to remove muscle tissues on lamb rib bones.
a) true
b) false
a) true
243
```
For the items in Table 1, identify the cut of meat, the cooking method and other appropriate distinguishing features.
Dish, Cut, Cooking Method and Features:
Filet mignon
Tournedos Rossini
Rack of lamb
Noisettes of lamb
Émincé of veal
Stroganoff
```
Filet mignon: Tenderloin, Grill
Tournedos Rossini: Tenderloin, Sauté or pan fry; dish includes crouton, Madeira sauce and foie gras
Rack of lamb: Rib, Sear; and roast at a low temperature
Noisettes of lamb: Loin, Sauté or pan fry
Émincé of veal: Leg, Sauté
Stroganoff: Tenderloin and
other tender beef cuts, Sauté
244
Which kind of poultry is a young pigeon?
a) capon
b) quail
c) squab
d) partridge
c) squab
245
Which filling is most suitable for deboned chicken legs?
a) broccoli and cheddar cheese
b) truffles and foie gras
c) wild rice and forcemeat
d) sliced ham and Swiss
c) wild rice and forcemeat
246
Which bone do you not find in the breast section of poultry?
a) drumette
b) keel bone
c) wish bone
d) femur
d) femur
247
You find the oyster meat of a bird:
a) along the keel bone.
b) next to the collar bone.
c) along the backbone.
d) next to the kneecap.
c) along the backbone.
248
Which stuffing technique requires a soft and elastic filling?
a) using a piping bag
b) filling by hand
c) using a spoon
d) using a portion scoop
a) using a piping bag
249
Which preparation requires a matignon?
a) coq au vin
b) chicken poêlé
c) confit de canard
d) cordon bleu
b) chicken poêlé
250
```
Which traditional preparation requires a salt and pepper rub, followed by 12-36 hours
of marinating?
a) coq au vin
b) chicken poêlé
c) confit of duck
d) seared duck breast
```
c) confit of duck
251
Which of the following does not describe the preparation or service of seared duck breast?
a) Season with salt and pepper.
b) Fry fat side down.
c) Serve well done (with an internal temperature of 77°C).
d) Rest the meat before you slice it.
c) Serve well done (with an internal temperature of 77°C)
252
Which product has the longest shelf life?
a) pheasant ballotine
b) duck confit
c) coq au vin
d) chicken poêlé
b) duck confit
253
Which flavour is most common for preparing duck?
a) citrus
b) sage
c) rosemary
d) basil
a) citrus
254
Cook braised poultry until the meat falls off the bones.
a) true
b) false
b) false; Cook it until it is tender.
255
Cook galantines and ballotines using moist heat cooking methods.
a) true
b) false
b) false; Bake or roast ballotines.
256
Although tuna is a round fish, it will yield:
a) one loin.
b) two loins.
c) three loins.
d) four loins.
d) four loins.
257
Which of the following is strictly a saltwater fish?
a) steelhead trout
b) Arctic char
c) bigeye tuna
d) rainbow trout
c) bigeye tuna
258
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Tomalley is the term for a lobster's stomach.
b) Langoustes are Pacific shrimp.
c) Ahi tuna is also known as yellowfin tuna.
d) Scampi is the correct term for large shrimp.
c) Ahi tuna is also known as yellowfin tuna.
259
```
In terms of cooking methods, when you compare fish flesh to meat or poultry, the
major difference lies in the:
a) water content.
b) fat content.
c) amount of protein.
d) amount of connective tissue.
```
d) amount of connective tissue.
260
Fresh Atlantic lobster that you boil requires:
a) one minute per 10 g.
b) one minute per 100 g.
c) one minute per ounce.
d) one minute per pound.
b) one minute per 100 g
261
Lobster Thermidor:
a) includes cooked lobster flesh in a rich cream sauce.
b) is usually served with drawn butter and lemon.
c) includes chopped tomato.
d) is also known as butter-poached lobster.
a) includes cooked lobster flesh in a rich cream sauce
262
The ingredients in scampi Provençale include:
a) mustard, cream and parmesan cheese.
b) crumbs, eggs and cream.
c) olive oil, garlic and tomato.
d) blond roux, garlic and peppers.
c) olive oil, garlic and tomato.
263
A rock lobster tail with a soft shell:
a) is undercooked.
b) is overcooked.
c) is natural and generally alright to serve.
d) is a food safety concern and you should discard it.
c) is natural and generally alright to serve
264
You often cook crab cakes by:
a) deep fat frying.
b) panfrying.
c) baking.
d) all the above.
d) all the above.
265
The most prized and generally most expensive crab to purchase is:
a) king crab.
b) Dungeness crab.
c) snow crab.
d) blue crab.
a) king crab.
266
If you notice char on a menu from an establishment in Alberta, it will likely be:
a) bull char.
b) brook char.
c) Arctic char.
d) lake char.
c) Arctic char
267
The flesh on char is most likely not:
a) white.
b) pink.
c) coral colour.
d) red.
a) white.
268
Paella ingredients include:
a) chicken pieces and spicy sausage.
b) beef stock and turkey.
c) tuna and polenta.
d) rice and king crab legs.
a) chicken pieces and spicy sausage.
269
Which of the following is the most common flavouring for fish and seafood?
a) freshly squeezed lemon juice
b) freshly chopped tarragon
c) cracked peppercorns
d) dill seed
a) freshly squeezed lemon juice
270
You would be least likely to serve which of the following with drawn butter?
a) baked paella
b) broiled rock lobster tails
c) boiled Atlantic lobster
d) steamed crab legs
a) baked paella
271
Which of the following is a freshwater product?
a) crawfish
b) langouste
c) langoustine
d) blue crab
a) crawfish
272
Which rice is the best choice for paella?
a) converted
b) long grain
c) short grain
d) wild
c) short grain
273
Steelhead are basically seagoing:
a) lake trout.
b) rainbow trout.
c) bull trout.
d) Arctic trout.
b) rainbow trout.
274
You seldom cook scampi by:
a) poaching.
b) baking.
c) sautéing.
d) braising.
d) braising.
275
Why do you often leave the skin on an Arctic char fillet when you pan-sear it?
Arctic char has a thin skin and small scales. Recipes that include pan-searing with the skin on are popular because the thin skin develops a crisp texture and golden colouration.
276
List five (5) menu categories in which crab cakes may appear.
a) hot hors d'oeuvres
b) appetizers
c) salads
d) soup garnishes
e) hot sandwich fillings or base
f) main course items
277
The term venison may refer to meat from:
a) deer.
b) elk.
c) caribou.
d) all the above.
d) all the above.
278
Rabbit flesh is most similar to:
a) deer.
b) elk.
c) chicken.
d) ostrich.
c) chicken
279
Which of the following would you remove from inside the rib cage of a rabbit?
a) tenderloins
b) flank
c) loins
d) femur
a) tenderloins
280
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Farmers raise quail are raised for their tasty and delicate flesh.
b) Farmers raise quail are raised for their eggs.
c) Quail are somewhat larger than pheasant.
d) You can cook quail on a grill.
c) Quail are somewhat larger than pheasant
281
Which of the following bison cuts is least acceptable to use for grilling steaks?
a) hump
b) sirloin
c) tenderloin
d) rib
a) hump
282
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Bison meat is usually less expensive than beef.
b) Bison meat is generally leaner than beef.
c) Bison meat tastes the same as beef.
d) Bison hump is cut from the hip of the animal.
b) Bison meat is generally leaner than beef.
283
Which of the following statements is false?
a) You purchase eviscerated and plucked pheasant whole and frozen.
b) Some suppliers sell pheasant suprêmes.
c) Pheasant thigh meat contains the most tendons.
d) Pheasant legs are suitable for making pheasant confit.
c) Pheasant thigh meat contains the most tendons.
284
You are least likely to use which of the following ingredients for larding?
a) pork skin
b) pork fatback
c) bacon
d) salt pork
a) pork skin
285
Which ingredient do you use for barding a venison roast if you want to maximize the juiciness and minimize flavour changes in the finished product?
a) salt pork
b) pork back fat
c) bacon
d) ham skin
b) pork back fat
286
Another term for caul fat is:
a) lace fat or crépine.
b) lace fat or tallow.
c) tallow or back fat.
d) back fat or venison casing.
a) lace fat or crépine
287
You may serve a whole quail as the portion for an entrée.
a) true
b) false
a) true
288
In regards to pheasant, cocks are larger than hens.
a) true
b) false
a) true
289
A cooked marinade is a preparation in which you simmer the protein directly in the flavourful liquid.
a) true
b) false
b) false A cooked marinade is one whose ingredients you cook.
290
Why are barding and larding popular with game meats?
Game flesh is naturally lean. The extra fat from barding or larding helps to keep the flesh moist and juicy as it cooks. It also adds flavour.
291
Why would you add ground pork to ground deer when making meatballs? How much should you usually add?
Ground deer is naturally very lean and the addition of a fattier meat improves the texture and eating quality. A ratio of 1/3 ground pork to 2/3 ground deer usually results in meatballs that are juicier and more tender.
292
What are the basic ingredients in a wet marinade?
Basic ingredients in a wet marinade include acids, oils and aromatics.
293
When should you season braised fennel?
a) at the start of sweating
b) at the simmering point
c) after you reduce the braising liquid
d) just after you cut it
c) after you reduce the braising liquid
294
Which vegetable must you blanch when you use it for a rolled vegetable?
a) cabbage leaves
b) baby beet leaves
c) Swiss chard leaves
d) spinach leaves
a) cabbage leaves
295
Why would you remove the core on a fennel bulb?
a) to cut the fennel into wedge form
b) because the core is very woody and fibrous
c) because the core is bitter and overpowering
d) to cut the fennel into bâtonnets
d) to cut the fennel into bâtonnets
296
When do you use a cooked filling for stuffed vegetables?
a) when the vegetable has a short cooking time
b) you never use cooked fillings
c) when you steam the stuffed vegetable
d) when you braise the stuffed vegetable
a) when the vegetable has a short cooking time
297
Which are the correct steps for grilling zucchini?
a) trim, slice, brush with fat, grill and season
b) blanch, trim, brush with fat, season and grill
c) season, brush with fat, trim, slice and grill
d) trim, brush with fat, grill, slice and season
a) trim, slice, brush with fat, grill and season
298
Which vegetable requires blanching before you grill it?
a) zucchini slices
b) portobello caps
c) bell pepper strips
d) carrot slices
d) carrot slices
299
Which vegetable are you least likely to use to prepare vegetable poêlé?
a) cherry tomatoes
b) parsnips
c) carrots
d) turnip
a) cherry tomatoes
300
Dried mushrooms reconstitute most quickly in:
a) 4°C stock.
b) 20°C wine.
c) 20°C water.
d) 60°C water.
d) 60°C water.
301
Which of the following promotes uniform browning of roasted vegetables?
a) Choose vegetables with similar textures.
b) Cut the vegetables uniformly.
c) Spread the vegetables evenly onto the roasting pan.
d) Dry the product before roasting.
e) All of the above.
e) All of the above
302
Which of the following applies to cooking wilted greens?
a) use high heat
b) use low heat
c) use no fat
d) use vegetable oil only
a) use high heat
303
Which of the following vegetables do you not serve raw?
a) fiddleheads
b) portobello
c) fennel
d) zucchini
a) fiddleheads
304
Which of the following preparations contains finely chopped or minced ingredients?
a) vegetable poêlé
b) wild mushroom ragout
c) duxelle
d) wilted greens
c) duxelle
305
Which is the correct ratio of water to dried legumes when you soak them?
a) 1 part water to 1 part dried legume
b) 1 part water to 2 parts dried legume
c) 2 parts water to 1 part dried legume
d) 3 parts water to 1 part dried legume
d) 3 parts water to 1 part dried legume
306
You should remove the gills of this mushroom when you prepare mushroom ragout.
a) oyster
b) portobello
c) brown
d) shiitake
b) portobello
307
Which legume do you not need to tip?
a) string bean
b) wax bean
c) snow pea
d) shelled pea
d) shelled pea
308
Which of the following is false?
a) You can use fresh mushrooms for crudités after you wash and trim them.
b) Sweat fresh mushroom caps with baking soda to enhance their white
appearance and help hold their shape.
c) Slice and sauté fresh mushrooms for garnish on entrées.
d) Bake filled mushrooms in an oven.
b) Sweat fresh mushroom caps with baking soda to enhance their white
appearance and help hold their shape.
309
You prepare Beef Wellington with:
a) duxelle.
b) vegetable poêlé.
c) tomato sauce.
d) legume ragout.
a) duxelle.
310
You must thaw frozen mushrooms before you cook them.
a) true
b) false
b) false You can incorporate them from frozen into sauces and soups.
311
You should discard the steeping liquids from dried mushrooms.
a) true
b) false
b) false The liquid is very flavourful and you can use it in stocks and sauces.
312
You should not steam frozen vegetables.
a) true
b) false
b) false Steaming is an effective way to cook frozen vegetables.
313
When you braise vegetables, discard the remaining liquid.
a) true
b) false
b) false You reduce the liquid to a glaze or thicken it to accompany the
vegetable.
314
Fresh fiddleheads are in season from early September to late October.
a) true
b) false
b) false Fresh fiddleheads are in season from April to May.
315
Why do we serve vegetables with entrées?
Vegetables provide proteins and starches with nutritional balance. They add colour, texture and height to a plate.
316
Why do you trim or remove the stem before grilling Portobello mushroom caps?
You trim or remove the stem to permit the mushroom cap to sit level on the grill.
317
Grenadine syrup uses the juice of __________________ as a base.
pomegranates
318
The common name for a carambola is:
a) rambutan.
b) sugar apple.
c) wax apple.
d) star fruit.
d) star fruit.
319
You require a melon ball cutter when you prepare:
a) chateau potato.
b) pommes rissole.
c) pommes Anna.
d) Parisienne potatoes.
d) Parisienne potatoes.
320
Dumplings, which you serve as side dishes and in soups and stews, are:
a) made from soft dough or batters.
b) a form of pasta that contains at least 5% egg solids.
c) cooked by simmering or steaming.
d) both a and c.
d) both a and c.
321
Which of the following items does not belong with the others?
a) steamed carrots
b) long-grain brown rice
c) bulgur pilaf
d) Lorette potato
a) steamed carrots
322
Which of the following items does not belong with the others?
a) long-grain white rice
b) short-grain brown rice
c) short-grain white rice
d) long-grain wild rice
d) long-grain wild rice
323
When gnocchi is fully cooked, you should:
a) finish and serve it right away.
b) hold it in hot water until you need it.
c) air cool and then reheat it when you need it.
d) hold hot for 10-15 minutes before you serve it.
a) finish and serve it right away.
324
Which of the following is true?
a) Flavones are responsible for the colouration of purple potatoes.
b) Carotenoids dissolve in water and stain products that they contact.
c) The pH of the cooking liquid affects chlorophyll. Alkaline cooking conditions will cause these pigments to turn blue or blue green.
d) Most domestic water in Alberta is slightly alkaline, so add a little lemon juice to your cooking water when you boil purple potatoes.
d) Most domestic water in Alberta is slightly alkaline, so add a little lemon juice to your cooking water when you boil purple potatoes.
325
Parmesan cheese is not an ingredient in:
a) Lorette potato.
b) dauphine potato.
c) polenta.
d) risotto.
b) dauphine potato
326
Which of the following is buckwheat groats?
a) bulgur
b) polenta
c) kasha
d) couscous
c) kasha
327
Which of the following derives from hard wheat?
a) bulgur
b) kasha
c) polenta
d) quinoa
a) bulgur
328
Groats does not include the:
a) bran.
b) germ.
c) endosperm.
d) hull.
d) hull
329
Which of the following contains the least fibre?
a) bulgur
b) kasha
c) quinoa
d) couscous
d) couscous
330
Risotto primavera contains:
a) garden vegetables.
b) saffron threads.
c) green lentils.
d) sautéed mushrooms.
a) garden vegetables.
331
The base ingredient for polenta is:
a) semolina.
b) farina.
c) cornmeal.
d) couscous.
c) cornmeal
332
Which technique is least acceptable to cook couscous?
a) steaming in a combi-oven
b) using a couscoussière
c) simmering in a braising liquid
d) cooking in a covered strainer set over boiling liquid
c) simmering in a braising liquid
333
Which corn product is least likely to be an ingredient in corn cakes?
a) frozen kernel corn
b) canned niblet corn
c) cornmeal
d) cornstarch
d) cornstarch
334
You rinse quinoa under cold running water to:
a) reduce bitterness.
b) reduce starch.
c) improve yield.
d) improve mouth feel.
a) reduce bitterness
335
Which of the following is false?
a) Wild rice is the seed of a prairie grass native to Canada and the United States.
b) You should cook wild rice in lots of water to keep the grains separate and to allow them to cook thoroughly.
c) Wild rice is quite fibrous and takes an hour or longer to cook.
d) Wild rice is an expensive ingredient and you often mix it with another type
of rice to reduce the cost.
a) Wild rice is the seed of a prairie grass native to Canada and the United States.
336
Pearl rice is an excellent type of rice to use for rice pilaf.
a) true
b) false
b) false Pearl rice is too sticky for pilaf.
337
Why does brown rice have a shorter shelf life than white rice?
Brown rice contains the germ. The germ contains some fat, which turns rancid when you leave it at room temperature. White rice does not contain the germ.
338
The flavour of rouille is:
a) acidic.
b) spicy.
c) bland.
d) sweet.
b) spicy.
339
Bouillabaisse and cioppino differ in that:
a) bouillabaisse may contain bone-in sections of fish.
b) cioppino may contain bone-in sections of fish.
c) bouillabaisse is very red because of the tomatoes.
d) cioppino is very red because of the tomatoes.
d) cioppino is very red because of the tomatoes.
340
Which of the following soups contains saffron?
a) goulash
b) gumbo
c) bouillabaisse
d) wonton
c) bouillabaisse
341
You can serve some cream soups hot or cold. The hot soup generally requires:
a) more seasoning than the cold soup.
b) less seasoning than the cold soup.
c) the same amount of seasoning as the cold soup.
d) that you cool it before you add seasoning.
b) less seasoning than the cold soup.
342
The mixture of egg whites and lean ground fish that you use to clarify stock is:
a) fond de poisson.
b) beurre manié.
c) clearmeat.
d) liaison.
c) clearmeat
343
An appropriate garnish for a jellied consommé is:
a) a lemon wedge.
b) crumbled bacon.
c) diced raw turnip.
d) puréed peas.
a) a lemon wedge.
344
In comparison to hot soups, cold soups require:
a) longer cooking.
b) less seasoning.
c) more seasoning.
d) the same amount of seasoning.
c) more seasoning.
345
Which of the following soups originated in San Francisco?
a) cioppino
b) gulyás
c) gumbo
d) avgolemono
a) cioppino
346
How does war wonton soup differ from wonton soup?
a) War wonton soup contains pork dumplings.
b) Wonton soup contains pork dumplings.
c) War wonton soup includes Asian vegetables as a garnish.
d) Wonton soup includes Asian vegetables as a garnish.
c) War wonton soup includes Asian vegetables as a garnish.
347
Paprika is a dominant spice in:
a) cioppino.
b) gulyás.
c) gumbo.
d) avgolemono.
b) gulyás
348
You fry the onions and paprika for goulash soup.
a) true
b) false
b false You sweat the onions and paprika.
349
You cook quenelles by:
a) poaching in a liquid.
b) deep-frying in a fat.
c) baking in an oven.
d) braising or sautéing.
a) poaching in a liquid
350
The acidic ingredient in the clearmeat for fish consommé is:
a) red wine.
b) vinegar.
c) lemon juice.
d) chopped tomatoes.
c) lemon juice
351
Vichyssoise is not:
a) a cold savoury soup.
b) seasoned less than potato leek soup.
c) potato and leek soup.
d) part of French cuisine.
b) seasoned less than potato leek soup
352
Filé powder is most likely an ingredient in:
a) chilled melon soup.
b) gumbo soup.
c) vichyssoise.
d) avgolemono.
b) gumbo soup
353
Dried lily buds are most likely an ingredient in:
a) hot and sour soup.
b) chilled melon soup.
c) goulash soup.
d) avgolemono.
a) hot and sour soup.
354
Avgolemono is:
a) a cold savoury soup.
b) simmered after finishing.
c) tomato based.
d) a Greek specialty soup.
d) a Greek specialty soup.
355
Black Chinese mushrooms are not:
a) black truffles.
b) wood ear mushrooms.
c) cloud ear fungus.
d) black Chinese fungus.
a) black truffles
356
Why might you want your chilled melon soup to be tart in one instance and sweeter
in another?
A melon soup that you serve as an appetizer or palate cleanser might be more tart because you want it to be refreshing and light. As a dessert or as part of the dessert, you generally make it sweeter and richer.
357
Which of the following are you least likely to use for a wild mushroom sauce?
a) demi-glace
b) velouté
c) suprême sauce
d) sauce Portugaise
d) sauce Portugaise
358
You use lecithin to produce:
a) essences.
b) foam sauces.
c) beurre blanc.
d) chimichurri.
b) foam sauces
359
Saffron would be most appropriate in:
a) beurre blanc.
b) beurre rouge.
c) wild mushroom sauce.
d) charcutiére sauce.
a) beurre blanc
360
Which of the following applications is suitable for chimichurri?
a) drizzle over grilled meat
b) use as a marinade
c) serve at room temperature
d) all the above
d) all the above
361
Which of the following are you least likely to use to prepare charcutiére sauce?
a) demi-glace
b) espagnole
c) gherkins
d) red wine
b) espagnole
362
You serve charcutiére sauce with:
a) lobster.
b) pork.
c) salmon.
d) chicken.
b) pork.
363
The base for sauce Portugaise is:
a) demi-glace.
b) velouté.
c) tomato.
d) hollandaise.
c) tomato
364
The base for white bercy sauce is:
a) chicken velouté.
b) fish velouté.
c) beurre blanc.
d) tomato.
b) fish velouté
365
White bercy sauce is most similar to:
a) sauce beurre rouge.
b) sauce vin blanc.
c) Périgueux sauce.
d) sauce beurre blanc.
b) sauce vin blanc.
366
Which of the following contains glace de viande?
a) sauce vin blanc
b) Béarnaise sauce
c) sauce Foyot
d) Marchand de vin
c) sauce Foyot
367
You may also call mushroom essence:
a) mushroom duxelle.
b) mushroom liquor.
c) truffled demi-glace.
d) glace de fungi.
b) mushroom liquor
368
You make Périgueux sauce from:
a) velouté.
b) demi-glace.
c) béchamel.
d) hollandaise.
b) demi-glace
369
The best choice to serve sauce Périgueux with is:
a) venison tournedos.
b) chicken cordon bleu.
c) steamed lobster.
d) poached halibut.
a) venison tournedos
370
Which of the following is significantly different from the rest?
a) sauce Périgourdine
b) sauce Périgord
c) sauce Périgueux
d) sauce Piquante
d) sauce Piquante
371
Which of the following is not acceptable for storing flavoured vinegars?
a) aluminum canister with a rubberized lid
b) clear glass jar with glass lid
c) coloured glass bottle with a cork
d) plastic container with plastic lid
a) aluminum canister with a rubberized lid
372
Pomace olive oil is olive oil that producers:
a) extract by pressing the olives.
b) extract from olives by means of chemical processes.
c) treat to neutralize strong flavours.
d) treat to lighten the colour.
b) extract from olives by means of chemical processes
373
Which of the following statements is false?
a) The hot oil method for making infused oils heats the aromatics with the oil.
b) The hot oil method for making infused oils reduces the risk of food borne
illness.
c) The hot oil method for making infused oils hinders flavour transfer to the oil.
d) The hot oil method for making infused oils is an acceptable method for
infusing flavours into oil.
c) The hot oil method for making infused oils hinders flavour transfer to the oil
374
Mango chutney often includes:
a) carrots.
b) raisins.
c) vodka.
d) rosemary.
b) raisins.
375
Which of the following do you make with tomatillos?
a) salsa roja
b) salsa verde
c) salsa fresca
d) guacamole
b) salsa verde
376
White wine is most often an ingredient in:
a) Dijon mustard.
b) hot mustard.
c) grainy mustard.
d) honey mustard.
a) Dijon mustard.
377
Which ingredient is not necessary for making prepared mustard?
a) ground mustard seed
b) water
c) vegetable oil
d) vinegar or lemon juice
c) vegetable oil
378
What condiment is most appropriate for tandoori chicken with papadums?
a) grainy mustard
b) mango chutney
c) salsa verde
d) ketchup
b) mango chutney
379
Why are the seeds in grainy mustard sometimes different in colour and size?
because they can come from different species of plants
380
Why do you sometimes leave the avocado pit sitting on top of guacamole when you
store it?
The pit helps prevent discolouration.
381
Why might you bruise the fresh herbs you use to prepare infused oil with the cold oil
method?
Bruising the herbs helps speed the transfer of the flavours to the oil.
382
What is the danger of using raw produce to make infused oil?
Raw produce may harbour Clostridium botulinum, a type of food poisoning.
383
Which of the following is not a white grape variety?
a) Chardonnay
b) Zinfandel
c) Riesling
d) Pinot blanc
b) Zinfandel
384
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Lagers are beers that brewers produce by means of cool or cold fermentation.
b) Lambic beers often contain fruits in the brew.
c) Porters are light-bodied beers with a fruity character.
d) Brewers use top fermenting yeasts to produce ales.
c) Porters are light-bodied beers with a fruity character
385
Which of the following wines is known for its buttery, oaky finish?
a) Pinot noir
b) Riesling
c) Gewürztraminer
d) Chardonnay
d) Chardonnay
386
```
Which of the following wines is best to serve with foods that have citrus and
herbaceous characteristics?
a) Riesling
b) Sauvignon blanc
c) Pinot grigio
d) Chardonnay
```
b) Sauvignon blanc
387
A spirit flavoured with juniper is:
a) vodka.
b) bourbon.
c) gin.
d) tequila.
c) gin
388
Which of the following does fermentation of corn generally produce?
a) bourbon
b) rye whisky
c) scotch
d) rum
a) bourbon
389
At what temperature should you serve a 150 mL portion of red wine?
a) 4-6°C
b) 8-10°C
c) 14-16°C
d) 22-24°C
c) 14-16°C
390
Tannins are more predominant in red wine.
a) true
b) false
a) true
391
Vintners add brandy or other neutral spirits to fortify wines in order to boost the
alcohol content and stop fermentation.
a) true
b) false
a) true
392
Liquor is a sweetened spirit that producers flavour with ingredients like seeds, fruits,
herbs, flowers, nuts, spices, roots, leaves and bark.
a) true
b) false
b) false These are ingredients in liqueurs.
393
The alcohol in brandy begins to boil and evaporate at:
a) 80°C.
b) 90°C.
c) 100°C.
d) 110°C.
a) 80°C.
394
A Cabernet Sauvignon marinade is most appropriate for:
a) fillet of sole.
b) beef hip.
c) chicken breast.
d) lobster tail.
b) beef hip
395
For which of the following would a Champagne marinade be least appropriate?
a) fillet of sole
b) beef hip
c) chicken breast
d) lobster tail
b) beef hip
396
If you prepare four different marinades for chicken thighs using a similar volume of
alcoholic beverage in each, in which marinade should the chicken thighs marinate for
the least amount of time?
a) red wine marinade
b) white wine marinade
c) beer marinade
d) gin marinade
d) gin marinade
397
Which of the following sauces does not traditionally include white wine?
a) sauce vin blanc
b) sauce Lyonnaise
c) sauce Bordelaise
d) sauce chasseur
c) sauce Bordelaise
398
```
List four (4) ways you might reduce the chance of curdling when you use spirits in a
dairy-based sauce.
```
a) Add a hot spirit to a hot sauce.
b) Add the spirit gradually and whisk it in well as you add it.
c) Thicken the dairy based sauce before you add the spirit.
d) Do not simmer the spirit with the dairy-based sauce for an extended period of
time.
399
List four (4) reasons why the flavour of flambéed tournedos would differ from those that are not flambéed.
a) Flambéing caramelizes the sugars in the product.
b) Flambéing a dish concentrates the flavours by evaporating liquids.
c) Flambéing a dish changes flavours through chemical reactions.
d) The liquor you use for flambé adds new flavours and concentrates them as the
alcohol burns.
400
Describe the three (3) basic methods to incorporate wines into sauces.
a) Wine reduction refers to sauces in which you simmer the wine alone or with
other ingredients to produce a concentrated flavourful liquid. You then combine
the concentrated liquid with a neutrally flavoured sauce to produce a sauce that
has a distinctive wine flavour.
b) Wine inclusion refers to sauces to which you add wine directly as a liquid. You
then simmer the wine and other sauce ingredients as the recipe requires. These
sauces may also include wine flavoured marinades in the sauce.
c) Pan sauces often include wines that you use to deglaze sauté pans and roasting
pans. You can then thicken these deglazing liquids with basic sauces or starch or
beurre manié to produce a wine flavoured sauce.
401
Which of the following is least acceptable as a garnish for a leafy green salad?
a) thinly sliced mushrooms
b) fine julienne of pepper
c) medium diced carrots
d) chopped scallions
c) medium diced carrots
402
Tabbouleh is a:
a) starch salad.
b) green salad.
c) vegetable salad.
d) fruit salad.
a) starch salad.
403
Starches and grains in salads are normally:
a) soaked.
b) blanched.
c) partially cooked.
d) completely cooked.
d) completely cooked.
404
Form cheese crisps using:
a) juice glasses.
b) wooden spoons.
c) rolling pins.
d) all of the above.
d) all of the above
405
How does presenting a buffet salad differ from presenting a portioned salad?
a) Buffet salad garnishes are appealing to the eye and palate.
b) Buffet garnish designs are more durable.
c) Portioned salads use a variety of colours.
d) Portioned salads provide textural contrast.
b) Buffet garnish designs are more durable
406
Which of the following fruits contains an enzyme that impedes gelatin from setting?
a) strawberries halves
b) kiwi wedges
c) sliced peaches
d) whole raspberries
b) kiwi wedges
407
Cooked dressings generally rely on __________ for thickening.
Cooked dressings generally rely on starches for thickening.
408
You can make croutons in house or you can purchase them. What factors should you consider if you normally purchase croutons from your supplier and you are
considering making your own?
Consider the equipment, time and financial resources you will require to make your
own croutons versus buying commercially produced croutons. If you use day old
bread and crusts, you may be able to produce high quality croutons at a reduced cost,
but you should include the cost of labour if you want to know the real cost of the
product.
Commercially produced croutons are consistent, uniform and simple to use. The
quality of your homemade croutons must be similar to or better than those you can
purchase. The quality and uniformity of homemade croutons may be reduced if you do not follow standardized recipes and production methods.
409
Why can you use canned mandarins in a gelatin fruit mould, but you cannot use
sliced, fresh oranges?
Sliced fresh oranges are very moist and acidic. Producers cook mandarin wedges
during the canning process, which makes them more firm and dry. Canned mandarins
are less acidic and less likely to weaken the gelatin.
410
You should exchange or replace buffet platters every:
a) 5 to 10 minutes.
b) 15 to 30 minutes.
c) 1 to 2 hours.
d) 3 to 4 hours.
b) 15 to 30 minutes.
411
```
Ladles for sauces and condiments that accompany buffet platters are normally no
larger than:
a) 5 mL.
b) 30 mL.
c) 100 mL.
d) 200 mL.
```
b) 30 mL.
412
Which of the following is acceptable for silver platters?
a) soak them in bleach for cleaning
b) wipe them with scouring pads
c) wash them in automatic dishwashers
d) wrap them in linen for storage
d) wrap them in linen for storage
413
You should remove minor streaks and smudges on non-silver platters and trays with:
a) side rags and cold water.
b) cotton towels and window cleaner.
c) lint-free towels with vinegar and water solution.
d) dish soap and scouring pads.
c) lint-free towels with vinegar and water solution
414
A thin layer of aspic on edible buffet items:
a) causes product colours to fade.
b) produces items with more of a matte finish.
c) causes light to reflect and the product to shine.
d) helps keep croutons and crusts crisp.
c) causes light to reflect and the product to shine.
415
Which colour is often absent on buffet platters?
a) brown
b) green
c) yellow
d) blue
d) blue
416
Which garnish is least appropriate for a meat tray that contains sliced capicolla,
smoked turkey and roasted beef?
a) cherry tomatoes
b) pickled asparagus
c) mushroom caps filled with ham mousse
d) cucumber slices with cream cheese and caviar
d) cucumber slices with cream cheese and caviar
417
How many double service lines would you require to serve 200 people in 20 minutes?
a) 1 or 2
b) between 3 and 5
c) between 6 and 9
d) more than 10
b) between 3 and 5
418
Why might a grosse pièce be both an edible and inedible garnish?
Generally, the grosse pièce is for display only; it provides height and adds interest to
the tray. It also helps control eye movement and provides a stopping point as the
guest looks at the display. In some cases, especially with cheese trays, the grosse
pièce is intended for consumption. You can slice the large piece of cheese or the roast items near the end of the buffet time for guests to consume.
419
When you serve seafood terrines, you often:
a) slice them by hand.
b) cut them on an electric slicer.
c) serve them on skewers.
d) fold and roll them.
a) slice them by hand
420
Which of the following statements is true?
a) You rarely fold smoked salmon slices for a platter.
b) You do not roll or fold gravalax for a platter.
c) You rarely serve whole poached fish displays on modern buffets.
d) You should not serve chunks of cooked fish and seafood on platters.
c) You rarely serve whole poached fish displays on modern buffets
421
Which crudité platter arrangement is the most appropriate?
a) carrot batons, broccoli florets, button mushrooms, celery sticks and
cauliflower florets
b) carrot batons, broccoli florets, celery sticks, button mushrooms and
cauliflower florets
c) carrot batons, celery sticks, button mushrooms, cauliflower florets and broccoli florets
d) carrot batons, broccoli florets, cauliflower florets, button mushrooms and
celery sticks
a) carrot batons, broccoli florets, button mushrooms, celery sticks and cauliflower florets
422
What are the advantages of peeling a pineapple to make a corrugated pattern around
the perimeter?
The corrugation enhances the appearance of the pineapple and the edible yield is
higher.
423
What is the advantage of placing blocks of cheese on a platter?
There is more visual impact, the cheese is more easily recognizable and it retains a
fresh appearance for a longer time.
424
Why should you keep different types of fruits separate for a buffet?
to reduce cross-contamination and the risk of an allergic reaction
425
Which of the following best describes a chaud-froid sauce?
a) Mornay sauce to which you add fast set gelatin
b) hollandaise sauce to which you add leaf gelatin
c) chicken velouté to which you add gelatin
d) glace de poisson to which you add gelatin
c) chicken velouté to which you add gelatin
426
You cook galantines in:
a) modified brioche dough.
b) their own skin.
c) a double boiler.
d) a galantine mould.
b) their own skin
427
A savoury mousse always contains:
a) meat protein.
b) fish protein.
c) whipped egg whites.
d) heavy cream.
d) heavy cream
428
When you describe pâté, the term maison means:
a) of the house.
b) with aspic.
c) including crust.
d) wrapped in back fat.
a) of the house.
429
The term pâté en croûte refers to a:
a) cooked forcemeat that you wrap in jelly.
b) cooked forcemeat that you cook in its own skin.
c) forcemeat that you cook in pastry.
d) forcemeat that you cook in a mould.
c) forcemeat that you cook in pastry.
430
Cook whole salmon for a showpiece in:
a) fish bouillon.
b) fish fumet.
c) court bouillon.
d) fish stock.
c) court bouillon
431
The term chaud-froid literally means:
a) chilled-heated.
b) cold-set.
c) hot-cold.
d) firm-chilled.
c) hot-cold.
432
Which of the following is not a suitable garnish for a terrine?
a) dill mayonnaise
b) ranch dressing
c) pickled vegetables
d) Mornay sauce
d) Mornay sauce
433
Galantines are what shape?
a) square
b) triangular
c) tubular
d) rectangular
c) tubular
434
Which words best describe a mousse or mousseline?
a) syrup and paste
b) froth and foam
c) chilled and cream
d) firm and dense
b) froth and foam
435
```
Which of the following products is best for stopping an aspic leak when you are
filling a baked pâté en croûte?
a) aluminum foil
b) butter
c) mayonnaise
d) saran wrap
```
b) butter
436
You add panades to forcemeats:
a) just before cooking.
b) after cooking.
c) during the grinding mixing stage.
d) during the marinating stage.
c) during the grinding mixing stage.
437
Which of the following statements is true?
a) You always make panades from bread.
b) You keep panades warm prior to mixing.
c) Panades always contain whipped cream.
d) You make panades in advance of mixing.
d) You make panades in advance of mixing
438
The term blooming in aspic preparation refers to:
a) heating the aspic.
b) straining the aspic.
c) the process of softening leaf or powder gelatin in cold liquid.
d) allowing the gelatin to come to a simmer.
c) the process of softening leaf or powder gelatin in cold liquid
439
When you fill a pâté mould with aspic, the aspic should be:
a) fairly warm.
b) lukewarm.
c) cold and syrupy.
d) hot (above 60°C).
b) lukewarm
440
A forcemeat you prepare gratin style:
a) includes sautéed and browned proteins.
b) is popular for making frankfurters and knockwurst.
c) has a coarse texture and usually includes pork and pork liver.
d) is cubed, seasoned, cured, rested, ground and then placed into the desired
cooking vessel.
a) includes sautéed and browned proteins.
441
In general, showpieces on edible buffets should be attractive and:
a) include four different proteins.
b) easy to serve.
c) include a variety of seafood.
d) difficult to prepare.
b) easy to serve
442
Which of the following techniques results in the greatest brine absorption?
a) tumbling
b) needling
c) cold smoking
d) drying
a) tumbling
443
Which of the following statements regarding fresh frying sausage is false?
a) You usually cure fresh frying sausage.
b) You cook fresh frying sausage before you serve it.
c) You hot smoke fresh frying sausage.
d) Making fresh frying sausage is similar to forcemeat production.
c) You hot smoke fresh frying sausage
444
Which ham is not smoked or cooked?
a) prosciutto
b) Black Forest Ham
c) toupie ham
d) honey-maple ham
a) prosciutto
445
Which of the following is most appropriate for an assorted meat platter on a luncheon buffet?
a) capicolla
b) frankfurter
c) bratwurst
d) knackwurst
a) capicolla
446
List the three (3) products you can add to forcemeats to inhibit bacterial growth.
a)
b)
c)
a) sodium nitrate
b) sodium nitrite
c) potassium erythorbate
447
What is the most important food safety practice in sausage making?
Maintain the product temperature at or below 4°C.
448
What product is responsible for the natural thickness of a Cumberland sauce?
a) white roux
b) jelly
c) starchy vegetables
d) tapioca
b) jelly
449
Cumberland sauce is least appropriate for:
a) veal pâté.
b) pheasant galantine.
c) seafood terrine.
d) pâté en croûte.
c) seafood terrine
450
What product is responsible for the natural thickness of a red pepper coulis?
a) blond roux
b) savoury jelly
c) pureed vegetable
d) tapioca starch
c) pureed vegetable
451
A rémoulade is most appropriate for:
a) veal pâté.
b) pheasant galantine.
c) salmon terrine.
d) pâté en croûte.
c) salmon terrine.
452
Which of the following is most similar to a tartar sauce?
a) Cumberland sauce
b) rémoulade
c) aioli
d) coulis
b) rémoulade
453
Why might you pass a pepper coulis through a tamis?
to make it smoother
454
Which type of ice is usually the clearest and easiest to use for carving?
a) glacial ice
b) one-stage blocks
c) lake ice
d) two-stage blocks
b) one-stage blocks
455
Which tool are you most likely to use to make finer cuts and to provide details?
a) Japanese ice saw
b) small v-shaped chisel
c) scriber compass
d) small chainsaw
b) small v-shaped chisel
456
Which shortening is pliable and easy to work at 5-25°C?
a) S.P.S.
b) butter
c) lard
d) tallow
a) S.P.S.
457
Which of the following is most appropriate for creating a life-size fat sculpture of a swan?
a) wire and mesh framework
b) wooden framework made of popsicle sticks
c) reusable rubberized mould
d) foam framework
a) wire and mesh framework
458
Which of the following are you least likely to use for fruit and vegetable carvings?
a) flat chisel
b) paring knife
c) channel knife
d) parisienne scoop
a) flat chisel
459
Which term best describes pouring liquid sugar into moulds or into sheets?
a) cast sugar
b) spun sugar
c) pulled sugar
d) blown sugar
a) cast sugar
460
Why might you include crushed ice around the base of your ice carving?
It helps to stabilize the carving and can visually add to your display.
461
Why should you temper your ice block before you carve it?
It allows the ice to become spongy, which greatly enhances the chances of a successful carving because the ice block is less prone to fracturing.
462
The term for a canoe-shaped tartlet is:
a) baba.
b) babka.
c) barquette.
d) brandade.
c) barquette.
463
Ice cream may be either ____________ frozen or ______________ frozen.
Ice cream may be either still frozen or churn frozen.
464
To divide a side of beef into two quarters, the cut is made between the 12th and 13th
ribs.
a) true
b) false
a) true
465
Rib roast and steaks are cut from the hind quarter.
a) true
b) false
b) false
466
Where is the primal cut containing the sirloin tip located?
a) chuck
b) sirloin butt
c) long loin
d) hip
d) hip
467
The primal cut from which T-bone steaks are cut is the:
a) hip.
b) rib.
c) short loin.
d) sirloin butt.
c) short loin.
468
The part of the beef tenderloin that is cut from the sirloin is called:
a) butt tenderloin.
b) short tenderloin.
c) 3⁄4 tenderloin.
d) half tenderloin.
a) butt tenderloin
469
A New York steak is cut from the strip loin.
a) true
b) false
a) true
470
Veal cutlets are cut from the leg.
a) true
b) false
a) true
471
The "light meat" of chicken and turkey differs from the "dark meat" because:
a) the light meat has less fat and less connective tissue.
b) the dark meat has less fat and less connective tissue.
c) the light meat has less fat and more connective tissue.
d) the dark meat takes less cooking time.
a) the light meat has less fat and less connective tissue.
472
The vein on shrimp is removed because of the toxins found in the vein.
a) true
b) false
b) false
473
When roasting meats rare, beef differs from pork and veal because:
a) the interior temperature of beef would be higher.
b) the interior temperature of pork would be higher.
c) the interior temperature of veal would be higher.
d) veal and pork are usually not served rare.
d) veal and pork are usually not served rare.
474
Which of the following beef cuts would require a moist-heat cooking method?
a) Swiss steak
b) rib eye steak
c) sirloin steak
d) tenderloin steak
a) Swiss steak
475
When using a thermometer to test for doneness in a roasted turkey, the thermometer
is inserted in the thickest muscle of the inner thigh because:
a) the thigh is easily accessible.
b) the thigh takes the longest to cook.
c) the wing would not support the thermometer.
d) the breast takes longer to cook.
b) the thigh takes the longest to cook.
476
Which of the following poultry parts could be cooked by sautéing?
a) chicken cut into halves
b) chicken cut into quarters
c) whole turkey legs
d) sliced boneless chicken breasts
d) sliced boneless chicken breasts
477
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Poaching is usually used for tender products.
b) A lower temperature is maintained in poaching.
c) The simmering method is used for fowl.
d) Poaching temperatures begin at about 90°C.
d) Poaching temperatures begin at about 90°C.
478
```
When testing for doneness in chicken and turkey, the final internal temperature
should register a minimum of:
a) 60°C.
b) 67°C.
c) 77°C.
d) 87°C.
```
c) 77°C
479
When cooking beef, selection of dry heat or moist-heat methods is based primarily on:
a) available time.
b) size of the cut.
c) tenderness of the cut.
d) breed of cattle.
c) tenderness of the cut
480
Which of the following is always served well-done?
a) lamb
b) veal
c) beef
d) chicken
d) chicken
481
Simmering meat differs from braising meat because:
a) braised meat is browned before simmering.
b) braised meat is simmered before browning.
c) braised meat is not simmered.
d) less tender cuts are braised.
a) braised meat is browned before simmering
482
Although less tender cuts of meat are used for ground beef, they can be cooked by a
dry heat method because:
a) collagen has turned into gelatin.
b) elastin is cut away and muscle fibres broken up.
c) enzymes have broken down connective tissue.
d) acid helps dissolve collagen.
b) elastin is cut away and muscle fibres broken up
483
Because tests have proven that roasting at low temperature results in a superior
product, the recommended roasting temperature for red meat is:
a) 60°C to 80°C.
b) 80°C to 100°C.
c) 100°C to 120°C.
d) 120°C to 140°C.
d) 120°C to 140°C
484
When cooking meat by dry heat, doneness relates to the:
a) desired degree of protein coagulation.
b) rate at which moisture evaporates.
c) rate at which carbohydrate caramelizes.
d) desired stage of connective tissue breakdown.
a) desired degree of protein coagulation.
485
When browning meat, which of the following would act as a deterrent to the browning process?
a) coating an item with a bit of oil or fat
b) using high-temperature roasting
c) seasoning a steak prior to grilling
d) dredging product lightly in cornstarch to absorb liquid
c) seasoning a steak prior to grilling
486
The doneness of a sirloin steak is determined by:
a) using a meat thermometer.
b) observing the degree of surface brownness.
c) repeatedly cutting into the steak to observe interior.
d) pressing to determine the degree of firmness.
d) pressing to determine the degree of firmness.
487
Which of the following cuts of meat is most suitable for high-temperature roasting?
a) beef brisket
b) roast leg of pork
c) rack of lamb
d) whole roast turkey
c) rack of lamb
488
Beef Pot Roast and Swiss Steak are both examples of braised meat dishes, but they
differ because:
a) Swiss Steak is cooked in individual portions.
b) Beef Pot Roast is cooked in individual portions.
c) Swiss Steak is browned, then simmered.
d) Beef Pot Roast is browned, then simmered.
a) Swiss Steak is cooked in individual portions
489
While some chefs recommend seasoning meat before broiling because the flavour becomes part of the brown crust that develops in the cooking process, others disagree because:
a) moisture drawn to the meat surface retards browning.
b) seasoning toughens protein.
c) seasoning penetrates too deeply during cooking.
d) meat does not require seasoning.
a) moisture drawn to the meat surface retards browning.
490
When using a combination heat method, meat is cooked to the stage of:
a) rare to medium rare.
b) medium rare to medium.
c) medium to medium well.
d) well done.
d) well done.
491
What is the disadvantage of blanching and refreshing bones?
a) Proteins coagulate when heated.
b) Some flavour is lost.
c) Impurities cause cloudiness.
d) More bones are required.
b) Some flavour is lost
492
As a stock simmers, gelatin is extracted due to the breaking down of what substance?
a) collagen
b) elastin
c) the mirepoix
d) the sachet
a) collagen
493
What are the proportions for a regular mirepoix?
a) 50% carrots to 25% each of onions and celery
b) 50% onions to 25% each of carrots and celery
c) 50% celery to 25% each of carrots and onions
d) 50% onion and 50% celery
e) 50% onion and 50% carrot
f) equal amounts of carrots, celery and onions
b) 50% onions to 25% each of carrots and celery
494
Cooked stock should be cooled quickly to do which of the following?
a) prevent the growth of bacteria
b) improve the flavour
c) dissolve the impurities
d) extract more gelatin
a) prevent the growth of bacteria
495
```
When preparing a stock from large beef bones, the bones should first be cut to which
of the following lengths?
a) 4 cm to 6 cm
b) 8 cm to 10 cm
c) 12 cm to 14 cm
d) 16 cm to18 cm
```
b) 8 cm to 10 cm
496
What is the recommended simmering time for chicken stock?
a) 30 minutes
b) 3 to 4 hours
c) 6 hours
d) at least 12 hours
b) 3 to 4 hours
497
What is the recommended simmering time for beef stock?
a) 30 minutes
b) 4 hours
c) 8 hours
d) at least 12 hours
c) 8 hours
498
How does brown stock differ from white stock?
a) Beef bones are not used for a white stock.
b) Beef bones are not used for a brown stock.
c) Bones are blanched for a brown stock.
d) Bones are roasted for a brown stock.
d) Bones are roasted for a brown stock.
499
Fumet is a term used to describe a flavourful:
a) fish stock.
b) chicken stock.
c) white beef stock.
d) brown stock.
a) fish stock
500
When chopping vegetables for a mirepoix, cut them smallest for:
a) fish stock.
b) chicken stock.
c) white beef stock.
d) brown stock.
a) fish stock
501
What is the recommended simmering time for fish stock?
a) 10 to 15 minutes
b) 30 to 45 minutes
c) 60 to 75 minutes
b) 30 to 45 minutes
502
Do not add acidic ingredients to cooked sauces until the starch is gelatinized fully because:
a) acids speed up gelatinization.
b) acids inhibit gelatinization.
c) acids promote bacterial growth.
d) acids discourage bacterial growth.
b) acids inhibit gelatinization
503
When the proportion of fat to starch is higher than standard proportions, the result is:
a) an undercooked roux.
b) an overcooked roux.
c) a slack roux.
d) a stiff roux.
c) a slack roux
504
White roux differs from brown roux because:
a) you cook brown roux at a higher heat.
b) you cook white roux at a higher heat.
c) brown roux requires a shorter cooking time.
d) white roux requires the same cooking time.
b) you cook white roux at a higher heat.
505
If you thicken a sauce with a cornstarch slurry it is likely to:
a) thicken when holding for long periods in a steam table.
b) thin out when holding for long periods in a steam table.
c) cost more than using arrowroot.
d) be cloudy and milky when gelatinized fully.
b) thin out when holding for long periods in a steam table.
506
Which ingredient has the greatest thickening power, based on equal measure?
a) cake flour
b) bread flour
c) deeply browned flour
d) liaison
a) cake flour
507
Cake flour is the best choice for roux because:
a) the starch content of cake flour is higher.
b) the starch content of bread flour is higher.
c) cake flour is not a true starch.
d) bread flour is not a true starch.
a) the starch content of cake flour is higher
508
A liaison thickens a sauce by:
a) separation of starch granules.
b) gelatinization of starch granules.
c) coagulation of egg yolk protein.
d) coagulation of egg white protein.
c) coagulation of egg yolk protein
509
The three basic categories of soups are:
a) vegetable, thick and consommé soups.
b) cream, purees and bisque soups.
c) bisques, chowders and cream soups.
d) thin, thick and ethnic soups.
d) thin, thick and ethnic soups
510
A cream soup is usually named for its:
a) country of origin.
b) main flavour ingredient.
c) type of garnish.
d) method of clarification.
b) main flavour ingredient
511
A natural thickener in purees is:
a) a roux.
b) high-starch vegetables.
c) low-starch vegetables.
d) a crouton.
b) high-starch vegetables.
512
The consistency of a cream soup should be similar to the consistency of:
a) chicken stock.
b) homogenized milk.
c) cold whipping cream.
d) mashed bananas.
c) cold whipping cream
513
```
The mixture of egg whites and lean ground beef used to clarify the stock in a
consommé is called:
a) a roux.
b) beurre manié.
c) clearmeat.
d) liaison.
```
c) clearmeat.
514
If you find that your cream soup has curdled, the action that probably caused it was:
a) thickening the stock before adding the milk.
b) thickening the milk before adding it to the soup.
c) boiling the soup after the milk was added.
d) adding heated milk to simmering soup.
c) boiling the soup after the milk was added
515
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Roux and other starch thickeners stabilize milk and cream.
b) Purees are coarser in texture than cream soups.
c) The sole function of a garnish is visual presentation.
d) Soup should be heated in small batches for service.
c) The sole function of a garnish is visual presentation.
516
Hollandaise sauce is categorized as:
a) a liaison-finished sauce.
b) a gelatinized sauce.
c) an emulsion.
d) a velouté.
c) an emulsion.
517
Which of the following is considered a derivative sauce of veal velouté?
a) Allemande sauce
b) Supreme sauce
c) Mushroom sauce
d) White wine sauce
a) Allemande sauce
518
Which of the following does not describe a demi-glace?
a) half brown stock, plus half brown sauce, reduced by half
b) a rich flavourful sauce, often used in place of espagnole
c) a derivative of tomato sauce plus espagnole
d) literally translated as "half glaze"
c) a derivative of tomato sauce plus espagnole
519
Which of the following derivative sauces is not derived from brown sauce?
a) Mushroom
b) Spanish
c) Madeira
d) Poivrade
b) Spanish
520
Which of the following derivative sauces is derived from tomato sauce?
a) Spanish
b) Mousseline
c) Supreme
d) Lyonnaise
a) Spanish
521
Soubise, a derivative sauce of béchamel, is characterized by the flavour of:
a) cheddar cheese and mustard.
b) green peppers and mushrooms.
c) Madeira wines.
d) cooked onions.
d) cooked onions
522
```
The choice of chicken, veal or fish velouté as a base for a derivative sauce is
determined by:
a) available time.
b) available stock.
c) the food to be served.
d) your personal preference.
```
c) the food to be served.
523
Adding the roux to the simmering liquid:
a) is the recommended procedure.
b) is one of two approved methods.
c) is not recommended.
d) causes spattering.
b) is one of two approved methods.
524
Salt and lemon juice:
a) are seldom used for sauces.
b) are very important in sauce preparation.
c) lessen existing sauce flavours.
d) should be added before starches are gelatinized.
b) are very important in sauce preparation
525
Which of the statements listed is not a reason to use a reduction method?
a) to concentrate basic flavour in a sauce
b) to add more flavour to a sauce
c) to thicken a sauce
d) to improve an over-seasoned sauce
d) to improve an over-seasoned sauce
526
When holding hollandaise sauce for service, the temperature is between 30 and 50°C.
Because this temperature range encourages bacterial growth, what sanitation
procedure should be followed to avoid food poisoning?
a) Boil the sauce to kill bacteria.
b) Add more lemon juice because acid inhibits bacterial growth.
c) Store the sauce in the refrigerator.
d) Discard the sauce after one and a half hours.
d) Discard the sauce after one and a half hours
527
What does the term concasser mean?
a) to use an electric chopper
b) to chop finely
c) to cut into very thin slices
d) to chop coarsely
d) to chop coarsely
528
```
What are the dimensions for vegetable garnish for consommé brunoise using a
regular brunoise cut?
a) 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm
b) 2 mm × 2 mm × 2 mm
c) 5 mm × 5 mm × 5 mm
d) 10 mm × 10 mm × 10 mm
```
b) 2 mm × 2 mm × 2 mm
529
What are the dimensions for allumette potatoes?
a) 2 mm × 2 mm × 4 mm
b) 3 mm × 3 mm × 5 cm
c) 5 mm × 5 mm × 5 mm
d) 5 mm × 5 mm × 5 cm
b) 3 mm × 3 mm × 5 cm
530
```
Which of the following dice cuts describes carrots that are diced to 3 mm × 3 mm × 3
mm?
a) brunoise
b) small dice
c) medium dice
d) julienne
```
b) small dice
531
Which of the following describes château potatoes?
a) diced
b) julienne
c) concasser
d) turned
d) turned
532
Which statement is false?
a) Paysanne cut vegetables may be triangular.
b) Paysanne cut vegetables may be square.
c) Paysanne cut vegetables may be rectangular.
d) Paysanne cut vegetables have uniform dimensions.
e) Paysanne cut vegetables should be cut uniformly.
e) Paysanne cut vegetables should be cut uniformly
533
Which statement is false?
a) Tomato concassé is chopped coarsely.
b) Remove seeds when making tomato concassé.
c) Château potatoes are smaller than bâtons.
d) Many nutrients are found just under the skin of vegetables.
c) Château potatoes are smaller than bâtons.
534
The pigment carotenoid is predominantly present in:
a) rutabaga.
b) red beets.
c) peas.
d) cauliflower.
a) rutabaga
535
The pigment chlorophyll is predominantly present in:
a) rutabaga.
b) red beets.
c) peas.
d) cauliflower.
c) peas.
536
Anthocyanin and betalain are least prevalent in:
a) red peppers.
b) red cabbage.
c) red beets.
d) blueberries.
a) red peppers.
537
The pigment anthoxanthin is predominantly present in:
a) rutabaga.
b) red beets.
c) peas.
d) cauliflower.
d) cauliflower.
538
Which fresh vegetable should you cooked covered?
a) green cabbage
b) broccoli
c) onions
d) kernel corn
d) kernel corn
539
Why are red beets best cooked unpeeled, with the root and some stem intact?
a) Betalain dissolves easily in water.
b) Acids turn beets blue or blue-green.
c) Cooking time is shortened.
d) both b and c
a) Betalain dissolves easily in water.
540
Which statement about the use of acids in vegetable cookery is false?
a) Acids turn red-pigmented vegetables a brighter red.
b) Acids toughen vegetables by firming fibre.
c) Acids lengthen cooking time.
d) Acids turn green vegetables a brighter green.
d) Acids turn green vegetables a brighter green.
541
```
When you add cream of tartar to the cooking water when cooking cauliflower, the
cauliflower whitens because:
a) anthoxanthins stay white in acid.
b) acid shortens the cooking time.
c) chlorophylls stay white in alkalis.
d) acid softens fibre.
```
a) anthoxanthins stay white in acid
542
Cooking vegetables in water that is extremely alkaline (hard) negatively affects:
a) texture.
b) flavour.
c) colour.
d) digestion.
a) texture.
543
```
Which breaded or battered vegetables should you blanch or precook before coating
them for deep frying?
a) onions rings
b) mushrooms
c) zucchini
d) broccoli
```
d) broccoli
544
Cooking green cabbage uncovered:
a) breaks down textures.
b) increases flavour loss.
c) decreases flavour loss.
d) improves nutrient levels.
b) increases flavour loss
545
Acid in the cooking water adversely affects:
a) carrots.
b) red beets.
c) cauliflower.
d) peas.
d) peas.
546
Which of the following potatoes fits into the sautéed category?
a) William potatoes
b) O'Brien potatoes
c) allumette potatoes
d) croquette potatoes
b) O'Brien potatoes
547
Which of the following potatoes is not an example of a deep-fried potato?
a) straw potatoes
b) O'Brien potatoes
c) allumette potatoes
d) gaufrette potatoes
b) O'Brien potatoes
548
Simmering potatoes differs from simmering carrots because:
a) no salt is added for potatoes.
b) no salt is added for carrots.
c) carrots are generally started in cold water.
d) potatoes are generally started in cold water.
d) potatoes are generally started in cold water.
549
Potatoes that are wrapped in foil and cooked in the oven have been:
a) baked.
b) roasted.
c) simmered.
d) steamed.
d) steamed.
550
```
If cooked pasta is stored for later service, you must drain and rinse it in cold water in
order to:
a) improve flavour.
b) prevent further cooking.
c) retain moisture.
d) firm fibre.
```
b) prevent further cooking
551
In addition to simmering, raw rice can be prepared by the:
a) pasta method.
b) deep-frying method.
c) pilaf method.
d) fried rice method.
c) pilaf method.
552
A salad you serve as an appetizer should:
a) stimulate the appetite.
b) be flavourful and filling.
c) be a balanced meal.
d) both b) and c)
a) stimulate the appetite
553
Egg salad is an example of:
a) a separate course salad.
b) a bound salad.
c) a protein salad.
d) a green salad.
e) both a) and b)
f) both b) and c)
f) both b) and c)
554
The acidity range for most salad vinegar is:
a) 2-4%.
b) 4-6%.
c) 7-9%.
d) 9-11%.
b) 4-6%
555
Eggs, ham, onions and peppers are the key ingredients in a:
a) gyro sandwich.
b) Monte Cristo sandwich.
c) Denver sandwich.
d) Reuben sandwich.
e) clubhouse sandwich.
c) Denver sandwich.
556
Slice the bread for tea sandwiches thicker than the bread you use for regular
sandwiches.
a) true
b) false
b) false The bread is sliced thinner.
557
A checkerboard sandwich uses five layers of bread.
a) true
b) false
b) false It starts with four slices and then three of the ribbon slices.
558
Frozen value-added foods are not processed by:
a) air-blown freezing through cell walls.
b) contact freezing between two low-temperature plates.
c) reverse radiation freezing.
d) immersion freezing in liquid nitrogen.
c) reverse radiation freezing.
