Semester 1 Quiz Questions CNM Flashcards
(173 cards)
1
Q
Define a positive feedback system.
A
Output reinforces the input (amplifies)
Examples include blood clotting and uterine contractions during labor.
2
Q
List three functions of a cell plasma membrane.
A
- Transport in/out of cell
- Immunological identity
- Receptors for hormones etc.
3
Q
What is the function of ribosomes?
A
Protein factories of cell/protein synthesis
Found embedded into the rough endoplasmic reticulum and mobile in cytoplasm.
4
Q
Complete the following: Every eukaryotic cell has a nucleus except _______.
A
Red blood cells.
5
Q
What is a gene?
A
Subunit of chromosome, holding information to pass on genetic traits.
6
Q
What is a mutation?
A
Change in genetic sequence. Eg substitution, deletion, addition, inversion.
7
Q
What is a histone?
A
A protein which DNA coils around.
8
Q
Compare the number of divisions in mitosis and meiosis.
A
Mitosis: 1 division; Meiosis: 2 divisions.
9
Q
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis vs meiosis?
A
Mitosis: 2 daughter cells; Meiosis: 4 daughter cells.
10
Q
Are daughter cells from mitosis identical or non-identical?
A
Identical.
11
Q
Are daughter cells from meiosis identical or non-identical?
A
Non-identical.
12
Q
Define passive transport.
A
Crossing plasma membrane, moving down concentration gradient, no energy required.
13
Q
Define active transport.
A
Crossing plasma membrane, moving up the concentration gradient, energy required.
14
Q
True or False: Moving up a concentration is an example of passive transport.
A
False.
15
Q
True or False: Osmosis is an example of passive transport.
A
True.
16
Q
True or False: Phagocytosis is an example of active transport.
A
True.
17
Q
Briefly compare endocrine and exocrine glands.
A
Exocrine discharge their secretion in ducts (e.g., saliva, sweat); Endocrine discharge their secretion into blood and lymph (e.g., adrenals, pituitary).
18
Q
List three examples of serous membranes.
A
- Pleura
- Pericardium
- Peritoneum
19
Q
Define the term ‘supine’.
A
Lying face up.
20
Q
What is the basic unit of compact bone?
A
Osteon.
21
Q
What type of joint is the hip?
A
Synovial – ball and socket.
22
Q
What is the role of intervertebral discs?
A
Shock absorption and allows movement of adjacent vertebrae.
23
Q
List five risk factors for osteoporosis.
A
- Genetics
- Poor diet
- Female
- Early menopause
- Smoking
24
Q
What disease might the presentation of bilateral hand, wrist, shoulder and ankle pain indicate?
A
Rheumatoid arthritis.
25
What is a common cause of gout?
High purine (chemical)intake (e.g., red wine, shellfish).
26
Define the term striated.
Muscle fibres in parallel bundles.
27
What two molecules are needed for skeletal muscle contraction?
Calcium and ATP.
28
What is the function of myoglobin in skeletal muscle?
A protein that binds oxygen (for respiration).
29
What is the average life span of an erythrocyte?
90-120 days.
30
What is the most common plasma protein?
Albumin.
31
What is the main function of macrophages?
Phagocytosis.
32
What are monocytes referred to when they are found in tissue?
Macrophages.
33
What hormone stimulates erythropoiesis?
Erythropoietin (EPO).
34
List three nutritional requirements needed for erythropoiesis.
* Iron
* B12
* B9/Folate/folic acid
35
What is the most common cause of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
Smoking (90%!).
36
Describe what is meant by the term ‘mucociliary escalator’.
Mucous traps foreign particles and is swept up by cilia (hairlike projections) towards the epiglottis.(flap of cartilage prevents food entering windpipe)
37
What are two symptoms of acute bronchitis?
* Cough
* Sputum production (yellow/green)
38
What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism? (Blockage in a blood vessel)
DVT (deep vein thrombosis)in leg, breaks off to form an embolism.
39
What is the function of High Density Lipoproteins (HDLs)?
Remove LDLs from cells back to the liver.
40
What is a symptom of thrombocytopenia?
Easy bleeding.
41
What is the difference between a muscle strain and a tear?
Strain = over stretching of muscle; Tear = muscle is no longer whole.
42
What is the role of the respiratory system in regulating blood pH?
Breathe out excess carbon dioxide to reduce acidity.
43
What is a sign or symptom that might help differentiate a haemolytic anaemia?
Jaundice.
44
What gender is generally affected by haemophilia?
Boys.
45
List the components of the conductive system of the heart.
* SA node
* AV node
* AV bundle/bundle of His
* Right and left bundle branches
* Purkinje fibres
46
What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system on blood vessel diameter?
Increase.
47
What is a possible consequence of high levels of circulating Low Density Lipoproteins (LDLs)?
Atherosclerosis.
48
What is a common cause of pericarditis?
Viral infection (e.g., following cold/flu)
## Footnote
Viral infections are a frequent cause of pericarditis, leading to inflammation of the pericardium.
49
How can you differentiate between pericarditis and angina pectoris regarding pain relief?
Pericarditis is relieved by sitting upright and leaning forward; angina is relieved by rest/stopping exercise.
## Footnote
This differentiation is crucial for diagnosing the underlying conditions.
50
Identify a possible complication of pericarditis.
Pericardial effusion (fluid accumulation in pericardial cavity) or constrictive pericarditis.
## Footnote
These complications can lead to significant cardiac issues if not managed.
51
Name two monosaccharides.
Glucose, fructose
## Footnote
Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates.
52
Name two polysaccharides.
Starch, glycogen, cellulose
## Footnote
Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made of long chains of monosaccharides.
53
List the three main layers of the GIT wall.
Mucosa layer, Submucosa, Muscularis
## Footnote
These layers are essential for the function and structure of the gastrointestinal tract.
54
What is the function of the myenteric plexus?
Controls gastrointestinal motility.
## Footnote
The myenteric plexus is located in the muscularis layer of the GIT wall.
55
List five functions of saliva.
Digestion, lubricating, cleansing, defense, taste, buffer, waste removal
## Footnote
Saliva plays multiple roles in oral health and digestion.
56
What substance does the stomach produce to activate enzymes?
Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
## Footnote
HCl also acts as an antimicrobial agent.
57
What do parietal cells secrete along with hydrochloric acid?
Intrinsic factor
## Footnote
Intrinsic factor is necessary for Vitamin B12 absorption.
58
What is the function of Cholecystokinin (CCK)?
Stimulates pancreatic juice secretion, bile secretion, decreased stomach motility.
## Footnote
CCK plays an important role in digestion.
59
State two functions of bacteria found in the large intestine.
Digestion, Production of vitamins (e.g., Vitamin K)
## Footnote
Bacteria in the gut microbiome are crucial for digestive health.
60
The gall bladder lies on the surface of what organ?
Liver
## Footnote
The gall bladder stores bile produced by the liver.
61
What does the gall bladder secrete and what is its function?
Bile – emulsifies fats
## Footnote
Bile is essential for the digestion and absorption of dietary fats.
62
List five functions of the liver.
Cleansing, detoxification, bile production, haemolysis, synthesis of plasma proteins, metabolism of fats, glucose, amino acids, heat production, storage of vitamins and synthesis of vitamins.
## Footnote
The liver has numerous vital functions for maintaining homeostasis.
63
What does it mean that the pancreas has both an endocrine and exocrine function?
Endocrine – Hormones (e.g., insulin, glucagon) secreted into blood; Exocrine – Secretes pancreatic enzymes (e.g., pancreatic lipase) into duodenum.
## Footnote
The dual function is critical for both blood sugar regulation and digestion.
64
Explain the role of the stomach in Vitamin B12 absorption.
Secretes intrinsic factor needed for absorption of B12 in the terminal ileum.
## Footnote
Without intrinsic factor, B12 cannot be efficiently absorbed.
65
What might increase the risk of oral infections in Xerostomia?
Reduced saliva compromises immune function.
## Footnote
Saliva contains antibodies and enzymes that help protect against infections.
66
List two possible causes of Xerostomia.
Drugs (e.g., antidepressants), radiotherapy, Sjögren's syndrome, stress/anxiety, dehydration
## Footnote
Xerostomia can result from various medical conditions and treatments.
67
List three causes of a peptic ulcer.
NSAIDs, H. Pylori, chronic gastritis, allergies, stress, smoking
## Footnote
Understanding these causes is important for prevention and treatment.
68
In acute gastritis, symptoms are worse with or without food?
WITH food
## Footnote
This is a key distinction when diagnosing gastritis.
69
In peptic ulcers, symptoms are worse with or without food?
WITHOUT food
## Footnote
This difference is crucial for patient assessment.
70
Compare GIT involvement between Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative Colitis.
Crohn’s – Affects terminal ileum but can affect any part of the GIT; skip lesions; transmural involvement. UC – Only affects colon; ulceration/superficial layer involvement.
## Footnote
Understanding these differences aids in diagnosis and treatment.
71
Compare the appearance of stools between Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative Colitis.
Crohn’s – Loose, semi-solid; UC – Frequent and watery/bloody/mucous.
## Footnote
Stool characteristics can provide important diagnostic clues.
72
What type of disease is Coeliac?
Autoimmune
## Footnote
Coeliac disease is characterized by an immune response to gluten.
73
Identify one possible complication of Coeliac disease.
Osteoporosis, anaemia, bowel cancer
## Footnote
These complications can arise if the disease is not managed properly.
74
State two symptoms of Coeliac disease.
Diarrhoea, bloating, flatulence, abdominal pain, weight loss, lethargy, mouth ulcers
## Footnote
Symptoms can vary widely among individuals.
75
List two significant causes of diverticulitis.
Low fibre diet, high intraabdominal pressure, weak connective tissue
## Footnote
A high-fiber diet is often recommended for prevention.
76
List four symptoms of acute pancreatitis.
Peri-umbilical pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, fever/chills
## Footnote
Recognizing these symptoms is important for timely medical intervention.
77
Why might patients with liver cirrhosis experience jaundice?
Obstruction of liver; reduction in hepatocyte function reduces ability to conjugate bilirubin.
## Footnote
Jaundice is a common symptom of liver dysfunction.
78
Why might patients with liver cirrhosis experience ascites?
Portal hypertension due to hepatic obstruction
## Footnote
Ascites is a common complication of advanced liver disease.
79
List three risk factors for gallstones.
Female, obesity, pregnancy, genetic factors, oral contraceptive pill, forties, still fertile
## Footnote
Understanding these risk factors can aid in prevention strategies.
80
Define the term ‘Upregulation’.
Increase in the number of receptors on a target cell due to hormone deficiency
## Footnote
Upregulation is a cellular response to maintain sensitivity to hormones.
81
Name the two hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
ADH, Oxytocin
## Footnote
These hormones play crucial roles in water balance and reproductive functions.
82
List three functions of Cortisol.
Gluconeogenesis, proteolysis, lipolysis, inhibit immune response, anti-inflammatory
## Footnote
Cortisol is a critical hormone for stress response and metabolism.
83
List three functions of Oxytocin.
Uterine contractions, milk ejection, bonding, anti-inflammatory
## Footnote
Oxytocin is often referred to as the 'love hormone' due to its role in social bonding.
84
Identify a cause of hyperprolactinaemia.
Pituitary tumour, acromegaly, PCOS
## Footnote
Elevated prolactin levels can lead to various reproductive issues.
85
Contrast Diabetes Insipidus and Mellitus in relation to urine.
Insipidus – very dilute, bland urine; Mellitus – sweet urine (glucosuria).
## Footnote
This contrast is critical for differential diagnosis.
86
What molecule is needed for the production of thyroid hormones?
Iodine
## Footnote
Iodine deficiency can lead to thyroid dysfunction.
87
List five signs and symptoms of Hypothyroidism.
Tiredness, malaise, goitre, anorexia, cold intolerance, puffy eyes, depression, dry/brittle hair, loss of eyebrows, deep voice, bradycardia
## Footnote
Recognizing these symptoms can lead to timely diagnosis and treatment.
88
Describe the physical appearance of a person suffering from Cushing’s syndrome.
Central weight gain, thin extremities, thin skin, easy bruising, buffalo hump
## Footnote
Cushing’s syndrome results from prolonged exposure to high cortisol levels.
89
State four complications of Diabetes Mellitus.
Retinopathy, nephropathy, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia
## Footnote
These complications highlight the importance of managing blood sugar levels effectively.
90
What type of epithelium is present in the epidermis?
Stratified keratinized epithelium
## Footnote
This type of epithelium provides protection against environmental damage.
91
Does the epidermis contain blood vessels?
No
## Footnote
The epidermis relies on the underlying dermis for blood supply.
92
How long does it take to replace the epidermis?
40 days
## Footnote
This turnover is important for maintaining skin health.
93
Describe the structure of the dermis.
Matrix of collagen and elastin (connective tissue) providing tensile strength and allowing recoil/stretch.
## Footnote
The dermis supports the epidermis and houses various structures.
94
What is the purpose of sweating in the body?
Excretion of wastes (e.g., urea), thermoregulation (reduces body temperature)
## Footnote
Sweating is vital for both waste removal and temperature control.
95
Describe the appearance of a macule.
Change in surface color without elevation or depression, well defined
## Footnote
Macules are flat lesions that can indicate various dermatological conditions.
96
List common causes of atopic dermatitis (eczema).
Food (milk, eggs, soy, wheat), airborne (dust, mites, moulds), S.aureus
## Footnote
Understanding these triggers can help in managing eczema.
97
Describe the appearance of psoriasis.
Red scaly plaques, silvery scales, may bleed
## Footnote
Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition characterized by rapid skin cell turnover.
98
Compare the appearance of acne vulgaris and acne rosacea.
Vulgaris – Open blackheads or whiteheads, inflammatory papules, pustules, possible scarring; Rosacea – Facial flushing, inflammation, oily skin with papules and pustules but NO blackheads.
## Footnote
These conditions require different treatment approaches.
99
State two functions of the spleen.
Phagocytosis, storage of blood, haemolysis, maturation of B lymphocytes
## Footnote
The spleen plays a key role in immune function and blood filtration.
100
Explain the role of lymphatic nodes.
Filtering and removing foreign matter such as microbes, cell debris, inhaled particles.
## Footnote
Lymph nodes are crucial for the immune response.
101
List four symptoms of lymphoedema.
Severe fatigue, heavy swollen limb, discolouration of overlying skin, thickened overlying skin, recurrent skin infections
## Footnote
Lymphoedema can significantly impact quality of life.
102
Describe TWO differences between passive and active transport.
1. Passive transport does not require energy, while active transport requires energy.
2. Passive transport moves substances along the concentration gradient, whereas active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient.
103
Name the body cavity situated between the thoracic and pelvic cavities.
Abdominal cavity
104
Label and name ONE organelle involved in ATP production.
Mitochondrion
## Footnote
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell and are responsible for producing ATP through cellular respiration.
105
What happens during the 'Translation' phase of protein synthesis?
The process where ribosomes synthesize proteins using mRNA as a template.
## Footnote
Translation involves the decoding of mRNA into a polypeptide chain, facilitated by tRNA carrying amino acids.
106
Name TWO serous membranes found in the body.
* Pleura
* Peritoneum
## Footnote
Serous membranes line body cavities and cover organs, reducing friction during movement.
107
Name the short bones located in the wrist.
* Scaphoid
* Lunate
* Triquetrum
* Pisiform
* Trapezium
* Trapezoid
* Capitate
* Hamate
## Footnote
These bones collectively form the carpal bones in the wrist.
108
Describe TWO functions of the periosteum.
* Provides a surface for the attachment of muscles
* Contains blood vessels and nerves that supply the bone
## Footnote
The periosteum is a dense layer of vascular connective tissue enveloping the bones except at the surfaces of the joints.
109
Age of onset for Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Typically occurs between ages 30 and 60.
## Footnote
Rheumatoid Arthritis can occur at any age but is most common in middle-aged individuals.
110
Age of onset for Osteoarthritis?
Usually occurs in older adults, often after age 50.
## Footnote
Osteoarthritis is primarily associated with aging and wear and tear on the joints.
111
Type of disease for Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Autoimmune disease.
## Footnote
Rheumatoid Arthritis involves the immune system attacking the body's own joint tissues.
112
Type of disease for Osteoarthritis?
Degenerative joint disease.
## Footnote
Osteoarthritis is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage in joints.
113
Compare the distribution of joint symptoms in Rheumatoid Arthritis and Osteoarthritis.
Rheumatoid Arthritis: symmetrical joint involvement; Osteoarthritis: asymmetrical joint involvement.
## Footnote
Rheumatoid Arthritis tends to affect joints on both sides of the body equally, while Osteoarthritis often affects only one side.
114
What happens pathologically in the joint of a patient suffering from gout?
Inflammation and pain due to the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joint
## Footnote
Gout is a type of arthritis characterized by sudden and severe pain, redness, and tenderness in the joints, often affecting the big toe.
115
Name any TWO skeletal muscles located in the back.
* Trapezius
* Latissimus dorsi
## Footnote
These muscles are important for various movements of the shoulder and spine.
116
State ONE movement created by the hamstring muscles.
Flexion of the knee
## Footnote
The hamstring group includes muscles such as the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
117
Describe TWO ways in which cardiac muscle differs from skeletal muscle.
* Cardiac muscle is involuntary, while skeletal muscle is voluntary
* Cardiac muscle has intercalated discs, while skeletal muscle does not
## Footnote
These differences are crucial for the distinct functions of cardiac and skeletal muscles in the body.
118
Label the TWO myofilaments in muscle tissue.
* Actin
* Myosin
## Footnote
These myofilaments are critical for muscle contraction through the sliding filament theory.
119
What are FOUR symptoms of fibromyalgia?
* Chronic pain
* Fatigue
* Sleep disturbances
* Cognitive difficulties
## Footnote
Symptoms may vary among individuals and can include additional issues such as depression and anxiety.
120
Describe TWO suspected causes / triggers of fibromyalgia.
* Genetic predisposition
* Physical or emotional trauma
## Footnote
Other potential triggers may include infections, stress, or hormonal changes.
121
What is the most common allopathic medication prescribed to fibromyalgia patients?
Duloxetine
## Footnote
Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) often used to treat fibromyalgia and improve pain and mood.
122
Label the 'apex' of the lungs on the respiratory system image.
Apex is the topmost part of the lungs.
## Footnote
The apex of the lungs extends slightly above the first rib.
123
Label the 'medial aspect' of the lungs on the respiratory system image.
Medial aspect refers to the inner side of the lungs.
## Footnote
The medial aspect faces the heart and is important for understanding lung anatomy.
124
What is a potential problem of the lungs in babies born before 34 weeks gestation?
Inadequate lung development leading to respiratory distress syndrome
## Footnote
This condition is often due to a lack of surfactant, which is crucial for keeping the alveoli open.
125
Where is the respiratory centre located in the brain?
Medulla oblongata
## Footnote
The medulla oblongata is responsible for the automatic control of breathing.
126
What is the effect of increased blood carbon dioxide levels on blood pH?
Decreased blood pH (acidosis)
## Footnote
This occurs due to the formation of carbonic acid when CO2 dissolves in blood.
127
What happens pathologically in the airways of an asthmatic patient?
Inflammation and narrowing of the airways
## Footnote
This includes bronchoconstriction, increased mucus production, and airway hyperresponsiveness.
128
What is meant by 'extrinsic' (atopic) asthma?
Asthma triggered by external allergens
## Footnote
Common triggers include pollen, dust mites, and pet dander.
129
State TWO symptoms of asthma (other than breathlessness).
* Coughing
* Wheezing
## Footnote
These symptoms can worsen at night or during physical activity.
130
What is one cause of obstructive sleep apnoea?
1. Obesity
2. Alcohol consumption
## Footnote
Other causes can include anatomical abnormalities, smoking, and age.
131
What is one possible cause of finger 'clubbing' in relation to the respiratory system?
Lung cancer
## Footnote
Other potential causes include interstitial lung disease and cystic fibrosis.
132
In adults, leukocytes and other blood cells are produced by the _______.
[bone marrow]
133
The leukocyte that is most prevalent in the body is _______.
[neutrophils]
134
Basophils are another type of leukocyte that become _______ in tissue.
[mast cells]
135
Basophils release chemicals such as _______ which are important for allergic responses.
[histamines]
136
Describe one function of thromboxane.
Promotes platelet aggregation
## Footnote
Thromboxane also causes vasoconstriction.
137
An individual that is blood group O+ can receive blood from which blood groups?
* O+
* O-
* A-
* B-
* A+
* B+
## Footnote
O+ individuals can receive O+ and O- blood, but they can also receive A+ and B+ due to the Rh factor.
138
What is the specific role of vitamin K in relation to the blood?
Essential for blood clotting
## Footnote
Vitamin K is crucial for the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver.
139
State FOUR symptoms of anaemia
1. Fatigue
2. Weakness
3. Pale skin
4. Shortness of breath
## Footnote
Symptoms of anaemia can vary based on severity and underlying causes.
140
What is ONE symptom that is more suggestive of anaemia caused by B12 deficiency than iron deficiency?
Neuropathy
## Footnote
Neuropathy can manifest as tingling or numbness in extremities and is more commonly associated with B12 deficiency.
141
Explain how jaundice could occur as a result of some types of anaemia
Destruction of red blood cells leads to increased bilirubin levels
## Footnote
In hemolytic anaemias, the rapid breakdown of red blood cells can overwhelm the liver's ability to process bilirubin, resulting in jaundice.
142
How might the appearance of a patient differ between anemia and polycythaemia?
Anaemia may present with pale skin, while polycythaemia may show ruddy complexion
## Footnote
Patients with polycythaemia often have a flushed appearance due to increased red blood cell mass.
143
What is meant by the 'hepatic first pass'?
The metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation
## Footnote
This process can significantly reduce the bioavailability of certain orally administered medications.
144
Label the locations of any TWO components of the heart's conductive system
1. Sinoatrial (SA) node
2. Atrioventricular (AV) node
## Footnote
The SA node is the primary pacemaker of the heart, while the AV node serves as a gatekeeper to the ventricles.
145
What happens pathologically in 'angina pectoris'?
Angina pectoris occurs due to myocardial ischemia, where the heart muscle doesn't receive enough blood and oxygen.
146
List TWO symptoms of angina pectoris.
* Chest pain or discomfort
* Shortness of breath
147
How might the presentation of a Myocardial Infarction (MI) differ from angina pectoris?
A Myocardial Infarction typically presents with prolonged chest pain, often accompanied by sweating, nausea, and radiating pain, whereas angina pectoris usually presents with temporary chest pain.
148
Describe ONE function of the greater omentum.
The greater omentum helps in immune response and fat storage.
149
Indicate TWO substances that are found in saliva.
* Amylase
* Mucins
150
Label the following TWO parts of the stomach: A and B.
* A: Pylorus (pyloric sphincter)
* B: Lesser curvature
151
What supports the role of absorption in the small intestine?
The structure of the small intestine supports its role of absorption
## Footnote
The small intestine has a large surface area due to villi and microvilli, enhancing nutrient absorption.
152
Describe TWO functions of the large intestinal microbial flora.
1. Fermentation of undigested carbohydrates
* 2. Synthesis of certain vitamins (e.g., vitamin K)
## Footnote
The microbial flora contributes to gut health and aids in digestion.
153
What happens during phase I liver detoxification?
Phase I detoxification involves the modification of toxic substances through oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis
## Footnote
This process often makes substances more reactive and prepares them for phase II detoxification.
154
State FOUR functions of the liver (other than detoxification).
1. Metabolism of carbohydrates
* 2. Metabolism of fats
* 3. Synthesis of proteins
* 4. Storage of vitamins and minerals
## Footnote
The liver plays a critical role in maintaining overall metabolic homeostasis.
155
Explain why patients might be susceptible to recurrent oral thrush.
Patients might be susceptible due to immune system suppression, antibiotic use, or diabetes
## Footnote
These factors can disrupt the normal balance of oral flora, allowing Candida to proliferate.
156
Compare the microorganisms that cause oral thrush and cold sores.
Oral thrush is caused by Candida species, while cold sores are caused by the herpes simplex virus
## Footnote
Candida is a fungus, whereas herpes simplex is a virus, highlighting a difference in type of pathogen.
157
What is the medical term for inflammation of the appendix?
Appendicitis
## Footnote
Appendicitis often requires surgical intervention.
158
List FOUR symptoms of appendicitis.
* Abdominal pain
* Nausea
* Vomiting
* Loss of appetite
## Footnote
Symptoms can vary but typically include localized pain in the lower right abdomen.
159
Name the TWO pathologies associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease.
* Crohn's disease
* Ulcerative colitis
## Footnote
Both pathologies involve chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.
160
State FOUR symptoms of Inflammatory Bowel Disease.
* Diarrhea
* Abdominal pain
* Weight loss
* Fatigue
## Footnote
Symptoms can be intermittent and vary in severity.
161
State TWO suspected causes of Inflammatory Bowel Diseases.
* Genetic factors
* Environmental triggers
## Footnote
The exact cause is not fully understood, but these factors are believed to contribute.
162
What is meant by 'Coeliac Disease'?
An autoimmune disorder where ingestion of gluten leads to damage in the small intestine.
## Footnote
Symptoms may include diarrhea, bloating, and fatigue.
163
Name ONE hormone released by the posterior pituitary gland
Oxytocin
## Footnote
Functions include stimulating uterine contractions during childbirth.
164
What is ONE function of Oxytocin?
Stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth.
## Footnote
It also plays a role in social bonding.
165
Complete the following flow diagram: Anterior Pituitary Hormone binds to receptors on the _______.
Thyroid Gland
## Footnote
This process is part of the regulation of metabolism.
166
Name ONE hormone and its function: Hormone - Melatonin
Intensifies the sympathetic response, increasing heart rate and blood pressure.
## Footnote
Melatonin is primarily involved in regulating sleep-wake cycles.
167
What is the primary difference between Type I and Type II Diabetes Mellitus?
Type I Diabetes is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas, leading to absolute insulin deficiency. Type II Diabetes involves insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency.
168
List FOUR symptoms of Type I Diabetes.
* Increased thirst (polydipsia)
* Frequent urination (polyuria)
* Extreme hunger (polyphagia)
* Unexplained weight loss
169
List TWO complications of Diabetes Mellitus.
* Cardiovascular disease
* Neuropathy
170
What are the two conditions being compared in terms of skin appearance?
Eczema (Dermatitis) and Psoriasis
171
List two functions of the lymphatic system.
* Maintains fluid balance in the body
* Supports immune system function
172
What is the name of the lymphatic duct that drains most of the body?
Thoracic duct
173
State two causes of Splenomegaly.
* Infections
* Liver diseases
