Semester 2 Final

Question 1

Skulls of (1) Modern gorilla, (2) Australopithecus afarensis, (3) Homo erectus, (4) Homo neanderthalensis, (5) Homo sapiens

Which of the following can be inferred from the differences between the skulls of Australopithecus afarensis and Homo neaderthalensis? (5 points)

Answer 1

Homo neaderthalensis had a larger cranial capacity than Australopithecus afarensis and had a larger brain.

Question 2

Which of these statements is a piece of evidence supporting the theory of evolution? (5 points)

Emus and ostriches are similar and exist in different geographical locations.
Emus and rheas are different names for the same animal.
Emus, ostriches, and rheas are a species that locally varies.
Ostriches have traits that resemble armadillos.

Answer 2

Emus and ostriches are similar and exist in different geographical locations.

Question 3

The embryos of a bird, a reptile, and a mammal are similar in appearance. How does comparing the physical appearance of embryos of different species support the theory of evolution? (5 points)

Answer 3

It shows that these organisms share a common ancestor.

Question 4

How might a comparison of the anatomy of two closely related animals such as lizards and snakes provide information about their evolutionary history? (5 points)

Answer 4

A greater number of shared traits would mean they recently diverged from a common ancestor.

Question 5

What does the theory of evolution tell us about how organisms adapt to their environment over time? (5 points)

Answer 5

A population changes in response to a change in environment.

Question 6

A team of scientists is researching the relationship between the two subspecies of A. africanus and concludes that the subspecies were actually different species. Which of the following would increase the reliability of this conclusion? (5 points)

Answer 6

A second group of scientists finding significant differences in the DNA of the two different subspecies

Question 7

Over millions of years, hominid species learned to use and create tools that became more complex over time. They eventually shaped stone into knives used for cutting, and they harnessed fire for light, heat, and cooking food. Which of the following best explains what effect this had on hominid evolution? (5 points)

Answer 7

Hominid tooth size decreased as they relied on cooked foods and tools for cutting.

Question 8

Both Darwin and Lamarck proposed mechanisms by which species might evolve. Although Darwin first published his ideas in the mid-1800s, most scientists continued to favor Lamarck’s explanation until near the end of that century. What was the most likely cause of the eventual shift from Lamarck’s hypothesis to that proposed by Darwin? (5 points)

Answer 8

More evidence accumulated supporting Darwin’s ideas than could be found to support Lamarck’s.

Question 9

Coral snakes are brightly colored highly venomous snakes with red, yellow, and black bands along their bodies. Another species of snake, called the scarlet king snake, has similar bands of red, black, and yellow. Which of the following describes the conditions that resulted in a large population of king snakes with these types of markings? (5 points)

Answer 9

Since king snakes with these markings were avoided by predators, they were able to survive to pass on this trait to offspring.

Question 10

A scientist makes a discovery that suggests a hominid species created and used relatively sophisticated tools. The scientist decides to publish his findings. Which of the following sources would be regarded as the most reliable? (5 points)

A scientific magazine article
A college or university website
A film on anthropology
A journal reviewed by peers

Answer 10

A journal reviewed by peers

Question 11

Monarch butterflies have brightly colored orange wings with black patterns on them, making them easily visible to birds that eat butterflies and moths, yet birds rarely eat the monarchs. Likewise, the monarch caterpillars are brightly striped yellow and white and black, and they also are rarely eaten by birds, although some wasps will attack them and feed them to their young. What can be inferred from these observations? (5 points)

Answer 11

Monarchs have a way of discouraging bird predation that does not involve hiding.

Question 12

What did Gould and Eldridge infer about the pace and timing of evolutionary change? (5 points)

Answer 12

Long periods of stability were punctuated with periods of evolutionary change.

Question 13

Scientists have observed that pythons have vestigial leg bones. They have also observed that snakes in general have more DNA sequences in common with four-legged geckos than they do with legless eels. What do these two observations have in common? (5 points)

Answer 13

They both suggest that snakes evolved from an ancestor with legs.

Question 14

Although most gray squirrels have gray fur, sometimes individuals with white or black fur are born. If a white-furred individual were born in a population of gray squirrels living in a Florida forest, what would be the most likely long-term consequence of its presence for the squirrel population if the forest remained unchanged for the next several generations? (5 points)

Answer 14

The population would remain primarily gray, and the white squirrel would likely get eaten prior to adulthood.

Question 15

Compare and contrast Artificial Selection and Natural Selection. Include one specific example of each.

Answer 15

Natural selection is the process by which a population naturally evolves with the necessary adaptions for survival. Artificial selection is the process by which a population is modified by a breeder’s selection. This causes a group of species to evolve with the traits only beneficial to the breeder, rather than the population. This can detriment and change a species for generations to come.
One specific difference between these two types of selection is that while natural selection produces adaptions beneficial to the species’ local environment, artificial selection produces adaptations beneficial only to the breeder, or farmer, curating this.

Question 16

List and describe two characteristics that distinguish primates from other mammals.

Answer 16

1. Primates have opposable thumbs, while other mammals do not. This means that primates have the ability to grip and maneuver things with one hand, permitted by this opposable thumb, while other mammals cannot.
2. Primates have larger brains than other mammals. This is correlated with the complexity of our brains, which can be observed through more sophisticated action.

Question 17

Describe how natural selection can occur in a population. Be sure to explain the 5 mechanisms essential to natural selection.

Answer 17

If the climate of a certain area linearly declines through many generations, then a species must adapt to that new environment. This could mean a heavier coat, or the ability to raise their body temperatures. Those that do not develop this feature will die off, while those that do will adapt, and further the species' population. 
  I believe these five mechanisms are...
  1. Adaption
  2. Differences in a population
  3. Overpopulation
  4. Modifications 
  5. Decline in population.

Question 18

Which of the following organisms exhibits radial symmetry? (4 points)

Answer 18

Starfish

Question 19

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of fungi that differentiates them from bacteria? (4 points)

Answer 19

Fungi are eukaryotes, while bacteria are prokaryotes.

Question 20

Which division in the plant kingdom consists of plants that lack xylem and phloem? (4 points)

Answer 20

Nonvascular plants

Question 21

Which of the following categories contains the most species? (4 points)

Answer 21

Phylum

Question 22

Which of the following statements correctly compares the functions of a plant’s roots and stem? (4 points)

Answer 22

The stem contains a high percentage of cells that provide structural support, unlike the roots.

Question 23

Which of the following correctly explains why viruses are not classified with either prokaryotic or eukaryotic organisms? (4 points)

Answer 23

They cannot reproduce outside a host cell.

Question 24

Which of the following best describes a feature that distinguishes animals from fungi? (4 points)

Answer 24

Animals digest their food inside their bodies, while fungi digest their food externally.

Question 25

Which type of plant tissue is involved in physiological processes like photosynthesis, storage, and support? (4 points)

Answer 25

Ground tissue

Question 26

A hurricane tore holes in the roof of your house, allowing a good deal of moisture inside. Very quickly, mold began to grow because of it. What would be the most effective and ecologically friendly way of killing the mold and why? (4 points)

Answer 26

Since protists need moist environments in order to grow well, drying out the area would kill the mold.

Question 27

Why might knowledge of the gene and protein sequences of a species be useful in classifying that species? (4 points)

Answer 27

It would make it possible to compare that species to other species at a level deeper than outward appearance.

Question 28

If an amoeba manages to engulf a bacterium using endocytosis, what is most likely to happen to the bacterium? (4 points)

Answer 28

It will be digested by the amoeba and used as a food source.

Question 29

Why might it be more useful to classify Bacteria and Archaea based on their morphology rather than solely on their phylogeny? (4 points)

Answer 29

Both domains are capable of sharing segments of DNA with unrelated organisms which makes genetic classification difficult.

Question 30

If two different organisms have nuclei in their cells and have young that are produced from eggs, what else can be assumed about them based on their phylogeny? (4 points)

Answer 30

They are members of the domain Eukaryota, and possibly members of the same kingdom.

Question 31

When the Linnaean system of classification was first developed in the early 1700s, it only had two kingdoms for living things, the plant and animal kingdoms. Three more kingdoms have been added since then, as well as a higher division of three domains. Why are we still using this system if we have to keep changing the way it is organized? (4 points)

Answer 31

The changes reflect increases in our knowledge of the structure and operation of living things.

Question 32

Which of the following correctly summarizes why Bacteria and Archaea are not in the same kingdom? (4 points)

Answer 32

Their cell walls are created from different substances and Bacteria has an RNA polymerase that Archaea lacks.

Question 33

An unknown plant species has separate male and female gametophytes, and releases spores into the environment. Which of the following is the most logical conclusion about the life cycle of this plant? (4 points)

Answer 33

The plant is a moss, and the gametophyte is its dominant phase.

Question 34

Which of the following best compares the roles of the reproductive structures found in an angiosperm? (4 points)

Answer 34

The male stamens hold the pollen, the female pistil holds the ovule, and the petals attract pollinators.

Question 35

What are three environmental stimuli that plants respond to? What mechanism do plants use to respond to these stimuli?

Answer 35

1. Light- Phototropism is a plants reaction to light; the plant's stem will grow towards it, while the roots will grow away 2. Gravity- Gravitropism is a plant's reaction to gravity; stems and leaves will grow away from gravity, while roots will grow up towards the tug of gravity. 3. Touch- I cannot recall what tropism this is, but I do know that it relates to how a plant grows in response to touch. For reference, a vine will grow straight until it comes into contact with an object; then one side will grow slower so that the plant can weave around the object. It is quite brilliant, actually!

Question 36

List and describe two specific adaptations plants made over time in order to adapt to live on land.

Answer 36

1. Spores- Spores allow for plants to reproduce asexually. Two plants in which spores occur are ferns and moss. 2. Vascular Tissue- The vascular tissue of a plant is highly important, as it allows the species to transport water, nutrients, and food. There are two types of vascular tissue; xylem and phloem.

Question 37

How do bacterial species build antibiotic resistance?

Answer 37

For an antibiotic to kill a bacteria it attacks the cell wall or halts the synthesis of protein. For a bacteria to build antibiotic resistance, it could have been in contact with such an antibiotic before (at a low dose) and has adapted an immunity to it. Secondly, bacteria can develop resistant endospheres that cannot be killed by anything. These unsusceptible bacteria can then transfer their immunity to other bacteria.

Question 38

Which of the following best describes an example of a specific immune response to pathogens? (5 points)

Answer 38

Cytotoxic T cells are activated and destroy cells that pathogens have invaded.

Question 39

If there is a mutation in a zygote, where is it likely to be found in the fetus? (5 points)

Answer 39

The mutation will occur in all the cells of the fetus since they all formed by mitosis from the zygote.

Question 40

The children in a middle school classroom are all exposed to chicken pox one week. Among these students are John, who had chicken pox when he was much younger, and Sara, who has never had chicken pox. Which student do you expect would be less likely to become ill with chicken pox following this exposure and why? (5 points)

Answer 40

John: he has naturally acquired active immunity to chicken pox from his previous exposure.

Question 41

Which of the following happens when infected body cells are detected during a cell-mediated immune response? (5 points)

Answer 41

Helper T cells divide and activate cytotoxic T cells, which destroy the infected cells.

Question 42

An otherwise healthy 40-year-old man was in a car accident that caused damage to his right kidney, and the organ had to be removed. What long-term effect can the removal of his kidney have on his blood pressure? (5 points)

Answer 42

His blood pressure could increase because of increased blood volume controlled by one remaining kidney.

Question 43

The elderly can have impaired immune systems, making them susceptible to infections that can take longer to heal. Which of the following would be most helpful in preventing these types of illnesses in the elderly? (5 points)

Answer 43

Older people should be vaccinated for common viruses like the flu virus.

Question 44

Which correctly compares the immunity produced by a vaccine with the immunity produced by injection of antibodies from an external source? (5 points)

Answer 44

A vaccine helps the body develop memory cells that make immunity last, whereas injection of antibodies only produces a temporary immunity.

Question 45

Which of the following correctly compares the functions of the epididymis and the urethra? (5 points)

Answer 45

Sperm are stored in the epididymis and leave the body through the urethra.

Question 46

An elderly woman finds that her back hurts almost all the time. Her doctor tells her it is because she has osteoporosis. Why might a disease that causes her bones to thin make her back hurt? (5 points)

Answer 46

The bones of her vertebrae have lost calcium and crumbled enough to begin pinching the nerves leaving her spinal cord.

Question 47

Which of the following explains why the likelihood of survival is low for a fetus born before 32 weeks? (5 points)

Answer 47

The fetus does not have fully developed lungs.

Question 48

Your biceps muscle is attached with tendons to the top of your humerus and to the end of your radius, near your elbow. What would happen if the biceps were attached to the top and bottom of your humerus instead? (5 points)

Answer 48

You would not be able to pull your forearm up toward your shoulder.

Question 49

Where does a zygote implant after fertilization? (5 points)

Answer 49

Uterus

Question 50

The blood pressure in blood vessels decreases with the distance the blood travels, starting from when it was pumped out of the heart's ventricle. Using this information, which statement correctly orders the blood pressure in the major types of blood vessels from least pressure to greatest? (5 points)

Answer 50

veins < capillaries < arteries

Question 51

Which of the following describes what might happen if the septum in the heart ruptured? (5 points)

Answer 51

Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood would mix in the heart.

Question 52

A researcher is interested in finding out if the amount of amylase, a digestive enzyme found in saliva responsible for digesting starch, varies from person to person. Which of the following would be the best way to test this? (5 points)

Answer 52

Take consistent amounts of saliva samples from a number of people who have not eaten in 8 hours and measure the quantity of amylase in each sample.

Question 53

Which of the following describes how polluted water sources would most likely affect one’s personal health? (5 points)

Answer 53

Pathogens would invade the body and cause disease, such as giardia.

Question 54

Explain how skeletal muscle and bone work together to move your arm.

Answer 54

Skeletal muscles are attached to bone by tendons; tendons allow skeletal muscles to pull on the bone like a lever, while the joint acts as a fixed point on the arm. Typically, several muscles surround a fixed point, which allows each to pull in a different direction. Here, the bicep is able to contract, while the tricep relaxes, and vice versa.

Question 55

List and describe 2 specific and 2 nonspecific defenses the human body uses to protect itself against pathogens.

Answer 55

Specific: 1. Antibodies have the capability to directly attack antigens- a molecule found on the surface of bacteria- or produce antigen-binding proteins. 2. Lymphocytes are white blood cells that include T and B cells: these recognize and destroy antigens. Nonspecific: 1. Our skin covers our body surface, thus creating a protective surface for the internal systems. Skin also contains external defenses, such as acidic oil and sweat. 2. Mucus helps prevent pathogens from entering the body. In both your nose and throat, this secretion contains enzymes that break down bacterial walls.

Question 56

Describe the development of a human from the first steps after fertilization to the end of the 9th month of pregnancy. Include the major developments during each trimester of pregnancy.

Answer 56

First Trimester: Once fertilized, the cell undergoes mitosis, where it later forms the blastocyst. After 6 to 7 days, this implants itself in the uterus. This is now an embryo, developing from the uterine lining. Here, the embryo begins to develop into three separate types of tissue: ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. After eight weeks of development, this embryo is now a fetus. Three months through said development, the majority of the major organs are formed, although unable to function on their own. Second Trimester: In months 4 to 6, the tissues begin to function and develop further. The fetus develops eyelashes, and eyebrows, as well as a unique fingerprint. Third Trimester: In months 7 to 9, the fetus still continues to develop. The lungs and other organs finish their development, while the fetus doubles in size. The fetus also begins to store its own nutrients. Labor is brought about by the release of hormones from the pituitary gland. As labor continues, the cervix expands, the amniotic sac breaks, the uterus contracts, and the baby is able to push through.