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Serology > Semi Finals > Flashcards

Semi Finals Flashcards

0
Q

Luminometer lacks in

A

Light source

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1
Q

Chemiluminiscence is measured through

A

Luminometer

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2
Q

In indirect IFA what is the composition of the reaction

A

Solid phase ab + ab from sample + fluoroscenated anti Ig

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3
Q

Name 4 fluorochromes

A

Fluorescein thioisocyanate
Phycocyanin
Texas red
Tetramethyl rhodamine

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5
Q

Adavantage of indirect IFA

A

Higher sensitivity

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6
Q

In direct IFA, what viral agent that is positive for cell surface antigen

A

Chlamydia

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8
Q

Disadvantage of indirect IFA

A

Queching (lowered flouroscence)

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9
Q

EMIT stands for

A

Enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique

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11
Q

3 viruses being detected in Direct IFA

A

HSV, EBV, CMV

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12
Q

It uses fluoroscent compound

A

Fluorescence immunoaasay

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13
Q

Developed EMIT

A

Syva corporation

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14
Q

This utilizes membrane bound cassetes

A

Rapid immunoassay

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15
Q

Labels being used in fluorecence immunoassay

A

Fluorophores or fluorochromes

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16
Q

Assay that Detects patient’s antibody

A

Capture assay

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17
Q

Purpose of washing?

A

To remove unbound antibody

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18
Q

Principle of pregnancy testing

A

Immunochromatography

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19
Q

Instrument used in direct IFA

A

Cell flow cytometry

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20
Q

A heterogenous enzyme immunoassay that is also known as Indirect ELISA

A

Non competitive heterogenous enzyme immunoassay

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21
Q

Enzymes used in EIA

A

HPO, ALP, glucose oxidase

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22
Q

It requires washing to remove unbound antibody

A

Heterogenous immunoassay

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23
Q

Advantage of enzymes when being utillized in EIA

A

Highly stable
Extreme specifity
Cant be altered by inhibitors

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24
Q

Immunassay that uses radioactive substances

A

Radioimmunoassay

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25
Q

Most common enzyme used in EIA

A

HPO

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26
Q

Type of immunoassay that reagents are simultaenously being added

A

Competitive immunoaasay

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27
Q

It uses enzymes as labels

A

Enzyme immunoassay

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28
Q

2 radioactive substances measured at the beta counter

A

14 carbon

3 hydrogen

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29
Q

Sandwhiched antigen by antibody

A

Capture assay

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30
Q

In vivo sensitization

A

DAT

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31
Q

Instrument used in radioimmunoassay

A

Scintillation counter

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32
Q

Used to check results in IAT

A

Check cells

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33
Q

It uses labels to detect serological reactions

A

Labelled immunoassay

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34
Q

2 radioactive substance that is measure at the gamma counter

A

131 Iodine

125 Iodine

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37
Q

Postive result in agglutination inhibition

A

No agglutination

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38
Q

Examples of DAT

A

HDN
HTR
AIHA

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39
Q

Type of immunoassay that competes for binding site

A

Competitive immunoaasay

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40
Q

The carrier in coagglutination

A

Bacteria

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41
Q

Requirement for IAT?

A

Incubation

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42
Q

In vitro sensitization

A

IAT

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43
Q

Region of HCG detected in pregnancy testing

A

Beta region

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44
Q

In reverse agglutination what is being detected

A

Antibody

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45
Q

Relationship in non competitive immunoassay

A

Direct proportional

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46
Q

AKA coombs test

A

Anti human globulin test

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47
Q

In coagglutination the FC binds to what part of S. Aureus

A

Protein A

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48
Q

It uses bacteria as the carrier

A

Coagglutination

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49
Q

Antigen are artificially attached to the carrier

A

Passive agglutination

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50
Q

What is being detected in passive agglutination

A

Antigens

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51
Q

Antigen are found naturally found on the surface of the particles

A

Direct agglutination

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52
Q

Widal test is used to detect what type of pathologic condition

A

Thypoid fever

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53
Q

Test performed to detect rickettsia infection

A

Weil felix

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54
Q

Numerous clumps

A

2+

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55
Q

Antibodies are attached to particulate carriers

A

Reverse agglutination

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56
Q

Other name of coombs cells

A

Check cells

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57
Q

It promotes the process of agglutination

A

Enchancement media

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58
Q

Used to ddetect mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

A

Cold agglutination

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59
Q

Biggest Immunoglobulin

A

IgM

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60
Q

Uses of IAT?

A

Cross matching
Ab Identification
Ab screen

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61
Q

Principle of blood typing

A

Red cell hemeagglutination

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62
Q

One solid clump

A

4+

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63
Q

Provides positive ion

A

Albumin 5-30%

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64
Q

Questionable result in agglutination

A

1+

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65
Q

Negative result in agglutination inhibition

A

Agglutination

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66
Q

Used to serotype salmonella spp.

A

Kauffmanand white scheme

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67
Q

In agglutination reaction, antigen involved are

A

Particulate

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68
Q

Transplacental immunoglobulin

A

IgG

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69
Q

It destroys the sialic acid

A

Enzymes

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70
Q

It is the initial combination of antigen and antibody

A

Sensitization

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71
Q

Term used to describe the distance of RBC from one another

A

Zeta potential

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74
Q

Useful procedures for the identification of monoclonal gamopathy

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

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75
Q

It provides the negative charge of an RBC

A

Sialic acid

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76
Q

In agglutination reactions antibody involved are

A

Agglutinous

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77
Q

Positive result in immunofixation electrophoresis

A

Precipitin bonds

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78
Q

Invented immunoelectrophoresis

A

Gravar and williams

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79
Q

Compostition of immunofixation electrophoresis

A

Immunoprecipitation + electrophoresis

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80
Q

End result in rocket immunoelectrophoresis

A

Conical shaped precipitin line

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81
Q

Several large clump

A

3+

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82
Q

Absent canals in immunofixation electrophoresis

A

Through

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83
Q

Process where the formation of aggregates starts

A

Lattice phase

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84
Q

Double diffusion, double dimension is also known as

A

Ouchterlony technique

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85
Q

Used to quantitate immunoglobulins

A

Rocket electrophoreis

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86
Q

Used to speed things up in electrophoretic procedures

A

Electric current

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87
Q

Technique wherein both antibody and antigen are moving

A

Ouchterlony technique

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88
Q

This technique is a first generation test like in HbsAg testing

A

Ouchterlony testing

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89
Q

Other name of mancini method

A

End point diffusion

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90
Q

Technique ised to separate molecules using electrical current

A

Electrophoresis

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91
Q

Other name of Fahey and McKelvey method

A

Kinetic diffusion

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92
Q

Interpretation of a smooth curve in ouchterlony testing

A

Identity (complete)

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93
Q

Rocket electrophoresis is a combination of electrophoresis and

A

RID

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94
Q

Spur formation means

A

Partial identity

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95
Q

Cancer cells that invades the tissue

A

Malignant

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96
Q

Intersection formation means

A

No identity

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97
Q

In oudin test the antibody is incorporated in

A

Agarose gel

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98
Q

Square of diameter is proportion to the concentration of ag-ab reaction

A

Mancini method

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99
Q

The end result in radial immunodiffusion

A

Precipitin ring

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100
Q

Oudin test is AKA

A

Single diffusion single dimension technique

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101
Q

No electrical current is used

A

Passive immunodiffusion

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102
Q

Insturment utilized in turbidimetric measurements

A

Spectrophotometer

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103
Q

Measure light that is scattered in a particular angle

A

Nephelometry

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104
Q

The optimum ration between antigen and antibody is termed as

A

Zone of equivalence

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105
Q

End result in oudin test

A

Precipitin line

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106
Q

Relationship of both turbidimetry and nephelometry

A

Direct proportional

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107
Q

Instrument used in nephelometry

A

Nephelometer

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108
Q

Excess in prozone

A

Antibody

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109
Q

Antigen and antibody are placed on the well dorectly opposite to each other

A

Counter immunoelectrophoresis

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110
Q

Examples of tertiary immunological reaction

A

Phagocytosis

Opsonizatio

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111
Q

Excess in postzone

A

Antigen

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112
Q

Removes water

A

PEG or dextran

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113
Q

Serum is stored in

A

Freezer

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114
Q

In precipitation reaction antigens involved are

A

Soluble

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115
Q

Result that is given in prozone and postzone conditions

A

False negative

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116
Q

Immunological reaction where it demonstrate antigen and antibody reaction

A

Secondary reactions

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117
Q

Immunological reaction where the combination of antigen and antibody complex is non visible

A

Primary immunological reaction

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118
Q

VDRL is used to detect

A

Syphilis

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119
Q

Chemical way of inactivating serum

A

Addition of choline chloride

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120
Q

Example of chemical inactivation of serum

A

Rapid plasma reagin

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121
Q

Used to detect unknown antigen using known antibody

A

Direct serological test or forward serological test

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122
Q

Red cell is stored in

A

Ref

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123
Q

Rapid plasma reagin is used to detect what kind of pathologic illness

A

Syphilis infection

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124
Q

Type of immunological reaction that is immunologically in vivo

A

Tertiary reaction

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125
Q

Setting for reinactivation of serum

A

56degrees celcius for 10mins

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126
Q

Test that involves antigen and antibody reaction

A

Serological test

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127
Q

Type of serologic test wherein known antigen is used to detect unknown antibody

A

Backward serological test or indirect serological test

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128
Q

Example of forward serological test

A

RC blood typing

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129
Q

Sugar present in Anti A antisera

A

N acetyl galactosamine

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130
Q

Sugar present in Anti B antisera

A

D galactose

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131
Q

Type of cancer treatment wherein antigen are given

A

Active

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132
Q

Capable of causing agglutination is what kind of immunoglobulin

A

IgM

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133
Q

Chemiluminiscence is composed of

A

Chemical reaction and luminal compound

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134
Q

Hormone present in pancreatic gastrinoma

A

Gastrin

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135
Q

Type of cancer treatment where antibody is given

A

Passive

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136
Q

Hormone present in carcinoma and trophoblastic tumors

A

HCG

137
Q

Carbohydrate antigen present in ovarian cancer

A

CA-125

138
Q

Hormone present in medullary thyroid cancer

A

Calciform

139
Q

Enzyme present in neural tissue neoplas

A

NSE

140
Q

Carbohydrate antigen present in breast cancer

A

CA 15-3

141
Q

Enzyme present in prostate cancer

A

PSA

142
Q

Cancer cells that doesnt invade the tissue

A

Benign

143
Q

Protein present in thyroid carcinoma

A

Thyroglobulin

144
Q

Study of antigen and antibody reaction

A

Serology

145
Q

Cell surface marker in breast cancer

A

Estrogen

146
Q

Cell surface marker in WBC neoplasm

A

Progesterone

147
Q

Antigens present in cancer or tumor cells units

A

Tumor associated antigen

148
Q

Immune system to eradicate cancer cells

A

Immunosurveilance

149
Q

Cancer cells that affects the normal function of the tissue

A

Malignant

150
Q

Phagocytic cells involved in imunnosurveilance

A

NK cells and T lymphocytes

151
Q

3 mysteries of tumor

A

Tumor
Lymp node
Metastasis

152
Q

Physical way of inactivating serum

A

56degree celcius for 30mins

153
Q

Enzyme present in bone and liver damage

A

ALP

154
Q

Example of bavkward serological test

A

Serum typing

156
Q

Measures the reduction in light intensity due to relection, absorption or scatter

A

Turbidimetry

157
Q

Causitive agent of thypoid fever

A

Salmonella spp.

160
Q

Immunoglobulin present in multiple myeloma and lymphoid malignancies

A

IgG

208
Q

Measures the diamter before the reaction is complete

A

Fahry and McKelvey method

209
Q

Immune defense factor that is found on saliva and tears

A

Lysozymes

210
Q

This are soluble factors that plays a role in defense mechanism of body

A

Humoral factors

211
Q

A soluble factor that when activated it will result to cell lysis

A

Complement protein

212
Q

Immune defense against intracellular organism

A

Phagocytosis

213
Q

Immunity wherein bcells are the major defense

A

Humoral immunity

214
Q

Immunity wherein Tcells are responsible for intracellular defense

A

Cell mediated

215
Q

A bacterial way inhibiting the immune system involved in avoiding the antibody

A

Antigenic mutation

216
Q

A virulent factor that gives the bacteria to block phagocytosis

A

Capsule

217
Q

Common targets of bacteria in inhibiting the immune system response

A

Chemotaxins and opsonins

218
Q

What is the target in inactivation of the complement cascade

A

C3b

219
Q

Lancefiled group classification of S. pyogenes

A

Group A

220
Q

This classification is based on the antigenic property of a bacteria

A

Lancefield group

221
Q

This are gram positive cocci in chains and catalase negative that resembles Beta hemolysis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

222
Q

Susceptible in bacotracin

A

S. Pyogenes

223
Q

Virulence factor of S. pyogenes that inhibits the c3b binding

A

M protein

224
Q

The test that differentiates S. pneumoniae from the viridans group

A

Optochin

225
Q

Exo antigen that destroys the DNA

A

Dnase

226
Q

Exo antigen that destroys clot

A

Streptokinase

227
Q

Exo antigen known to be the spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

228
Q

The most significant exo antigen of S. pyogenes

A

Streptolysin O

229
Q

Upper respiratory tract infection caused by S. pyogenes

A

Pharyngitis

230
Q

Skin infection of S. pyogenes

A

Impetigo

231
Q

Caused by erythrogenic toxin of group ABC streptococcus

A

Scarlet fever

232
Q

Test for scarlet fever

A

Dicks test

233
Q

2 damaging sequelae of S. pyogenes infection

A

ARF and PSG

234
Q

Methods used to detect group A streptococcal antigen

A 
Cell culture
EIA
Latex agglutination
BAP
PCR
235
Q

Test to detect Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rose waaler test

236
Q

Most diagnostically important ab in Group A streptococall Antibody

A

ASO
Anti dnase b
Anti nadase
Anti hyaluronidase

237
Q

Principle of ASO testing

A

Neutralization

238
Q

Reciprocal of the highest dillution demostrating no hemolysis in ASO testing

A

Titer

239
Q

Units used in ASO testing

A

Todd units

240
Q

A highly specific test for Group A streptococcal sequalae

A

Anti DNAse B testing

241
Q

A excellent screening tool for Group A streptococcal infection

A

Streptozyme testing

242
Q

Type of agglutination in streptozyme testing?

A

Direct agglutination

243
Q

A gram negative spiral bacteria

A

Helicobacter pylori

244
Q

Causitive agent of gastric carcinoma

A

H. pylori

245
Q

Causitive agent of ulcer

A

H. pylori

246
Q

Causitive agen of gastric and duodenal ulcerations

A

H. pylori

247
Q

Virulence factor of H. Pylori

A

CagA

VacA

248
Q

Methods used to detect the antigens produce by H. pylori

A 
Cell culture
Endoscopy
Gastric biopsy
Urease biopsy test
PCR
249
Q

Antibodies associated with H. pylori infection

A

IgG
IgM
IgA

250
Q

Most common antibody detected in H. pylori infection

A

IgG

251
Q

Class of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Mollicutes

252
Q

Leading cause of upper respiratory tract infection

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

253
Q

Causitive agent of walking pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

254
Q

AKA Eatons agent

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

255
Q

A requirement for the successful cultivation of M. pneumoniae

A

Sterol

256
Q

Appearance of M. pneumoniae in culture media

A

Fried egg

257
Q

Methods in the Detection of M. pneumoniae Antigen

A

TSB with 0.5 albumin
SP4 medium
Viral transport medium

258
Q

If a significant delay is expected in proccessing M. pneumonia suspected sample what temperature is required to store the sample

A

-70degrees celcius

259
Q

Methods in detecting M. pneumoniae antibodies

A

Cold agglutinins
EIA
IFA
PCR, NA amplification

260
Q

Blood group associated with cold agglutinins

A

I

261
Q

A rapid method used to detect M. pneumoniae antibodies

A

Nucleic Acid amplification

262
Q

Antibodies demonstrated in microbial dx that are manifested by high fever

A

Febrile Antigens

263
Q

Antigens used in detecting tularensis

A

Brucella

264
Q

Causitive agent of thypoid fever

A

Salmonella typhi

265
Q

MOT of Salmonella thyphi

A

Oral fecal route

266
Q

Scattered Thypoid fever during the middle ages

A

Thypoid Mary

267
Q

Thermolabile antigens of salmonella

A 
H antigen (flagella)
K antigen (capsule)
268
Q

Thermostable antigen of Salmonella

A

O antigen (somatic)

269
Q

Lab methods in detecting Salmonella infection

A

Culture medthod
Widal test
Thypidot

270
Q

Standard method in detecting thypoid fever

A

Culture method

271
Q

A test in salmonella infection wherein IgM and Igzg are detected

A

Thypidot

272
Q

A direct agglutination test used to detect salmonella antigens

A

Widal test

273
Q

Habitat of salmonella during the first week

A

Gall bladder

274
Q

Habitat of salmonella during the 2nd and 3rd week

A

Urinary bladder

275
Q

Habitat of salmonella during the fourth week

A

Instestine

276
Q

Immunoglobulin present in recent infection of salmonella

A

IgM

277
Q

Immunoglobulin that indicates past infections with salmonella

A

IgG

278
Q

Specimen of choice during the 1st week of infection of salmonella

A

Blood

279
Q

Specimen of choice during the 2nd and 3rd week of infection of salmonella

A

Urine

280
Q

Specimen of choice during the fourth week of salmonella infection

A

Stool

281
Q

A gram negative coccobacilli

A

Rickettsia

282
Q

The 2 distinct groups of rickettsia

A

Spotted Fever Group

Thypus group

283
Q

Obligate intracellular parasites and a gram negative coccobacilli

A

Rickettsia

284
Q

Anthropods that are associated in rickettsial infection

A

Ticks
Mice
Lice
Flies

285
Q

The only rickettsia specie that is true human pathogen

A

R. prowazeki

286
Q

Causitive agent of epidemic typhus

A

R. prowazeki

287
Q

Sensitive serologic test used in rickketsial infection

A

IFA
IBA
Micro IF

288
Q

Gold standard serological test in rickketsial infection

A

Micro IF

289
Q

Causitive agent of scrubs

A

R. tsutsugamuchi

290
Q

Caustive agent of Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetii

291
Q

Causitive agent of rickketsialpox

A

R. akari

292
Q

Causitive agent of bullseye rash

A

B. burgdorferi

293
Q

B. Burgdorferi is trasmitted via what anthropad

A

Ticks (ixodes)

294
Q

1st case of lyme disease was seen in

A

Lyme connecticut USA

295
Q

Laboratory diagnosis for lyme disease infection

A

IFA
EIA
Western blot
PCR

296
Q

Confirmatory test for lyme disease

A

Western blot

297
Q

Causitive agent of leptospirosis

A

L. interrogans

298
Q

Infection stage of leptospirosis characterized by fever and headache

A

Septisemic stage

299
Q

Infection stage of leptospirosis characterized by jaundice

A

Immunological stage

300
Q

Lab diagnosis for leptospirosis

A

Culture method
Microscopy
Serologic test

301
Q

Causitive agent of syphilis

A

T. pallidum subsp. pallidum

302
Q

Spanish colonizer that is responsible for the transmission of syphilis worldwide

A

Christopher colombus

303
Q

Caustive agent of yaws

A

T. pallidum subsp. pertenue

304
Q

Causitive agent of bejel

A

T. pallidum subsp endemicum

305
Q

Causitive agent of pinta

A

T. Carateum

306
Q

Trepnema species are being differentiated by their

A

Epidemiological and clinical manifestation

307
Q

Stains used in treponema spp.

A

Giemsa stain

Gram stain

308
Q

Virulence factor of Treponema spp that delays immune response

A

Treponemal rare outer membrane protein (TROMP)

309
Q

Microscope thst is used to visualize treponema spp

A

Dark field

Fluorescence microscope

310
Q

MOT of treponema spp

A

Sexual intercourse
Parenteral exposure
Congrnital infections

311
Q

Stage of syphilis characterized by the apperance of hard chancre

A

Primary syphilis

312
Q

In primary syphilis, under the dark field microscopy whatis the characteristic of the organism is expected to be visualized

A

Coiled organism with corkscrew motility

313
Q

Is antibody present in primary syphilis?

A

No

314
Q

Specimen of choice in primary syphilis

A

Fluid from lesions

315
Q

Stage of syphilis that is characterized by localized infection

A

Primary syphilis

316
Q

Stage of syphilis characterized by generalized lesions

A

Secondary syphilis

317
Q

Laboratory diagnos of secondary syphilis

A

Dark field microscopy
Serologic test
Fluorscence Microscopy

318
Q

Systemic infection is under what category of syphilis according to its stages

A

Secondary

319
Q

Stage of syphilis that is characterized by mucocutaneous and generalized

A

Secondary syphilis

320
Q

The appearance of condylomata lata is under what stage of syphilis

A

Secondary syphilis

321
Q

Stage of syphilis generally after the 2nd year of infection

A

Latent syphilis

322
Q

Characteristic of an idividual with latent syphilis

A

Asymptomatic

323
Q

Latent syphilis can only be detected through

A

Serological test

324
Q

Non infectious stageof syphilis

A

Latent syphilis

325
Q

Sample of choice in latent syphilis

A

Serum

326
Q

Stage of syphilis that is characterized by the presence of destrucitve lesions

A

Tertiary stage

327
Q

This are destructive lesions seen in tertiary syphilis

A

Gummas

328
Q

This are the non infectious stage of syphilis

A

Latent syphilis

Tertiary syphilis

329
Q

3 clinical manifestation of tertiary syphilis

A

Gomatous
Cardiovascular
Neuromuscular

330
Q

A asymptomatic clinical manifestation of syphilis wherein CNS is involved

A

Neurosyphilis

331
Q

Specimen of choice in neurosyphilis

A

CSF

332
Q

A clinical manifestation of syphilis caused by maternal spirocherria and transplacental transmission of microorganisms

A

Congenital syphilis

333
Q

Composition of the hutchinsonian triad in congenital syphilis

A

Hutchinsons teeth
Interstitial keratitis
Nerver deafness

334
Q

The condition wherein there is a deformity of the palate and collapse of nasal bone

A

Saddle nose deformity

335
Q

A non treponemal antigen thatis nested from damaged cells its source is cows heart

A

Cardiolipin

336
Q

3 main lab diagnosis of syphilis infection

A

Direct detetction of spirochetes
Non treponemal serological test
Treponemal serological test

337
Q

A non specific test used to diagnose treponemal spp.

A

Non treponemal serological test

338
Q

A specific derological test utilized to detect treponemal spp.

A

Treponemal serological test

339
Q

A non treponemal diagnostic marker in syphilis infection

A

Reagin antibodies

340
Q

This are very fine particles

A

Floculation

341
Q

It is between agglutination and particulation

A

Floculation

342
Q

Specimen used in VDRL

A

Heated Serum and CSF

343
Q

In VDRL results are read

A

Microscropically

344
Q

Reagents used in VDRL

A

cardiolipin
Lecitin
Cholesterol

345
Q

The main reagent used to detect reagin

A

Cardiolipin

346
Q

Reagent in VDRL that neutralizes the anti complementry property of cardiolipin

A

Lecithin

347
Q

Reagent in VDRL that provides adsorption centers to increase reacting surface

A

Cholesterol

348
Q

Setting for the rotator in VDRL serum

A

180rpm for 4mins

180rpm for 8mins

349
Q

Ring diameter of serum VDRL

A

14mm

350
Q

Ring diameter of CSF VDRL

A

16mm

351
Q

Depth of CSF VDRL

A

1.75mm

352
Q

What is absent in CSF that makes it passive for heating procedure

A

Complementary protein

353
Q

Gauge used in qualitative serum

A

18 gauge

354
Q

Gauge used in quantitative serum

A

19 gauge

355
Q

Gauge used in CSF VDRL

A

21 or 22 gauge

356
Q

Type of syringe used to deliver specimen of syphilis

A

Hamilton syringe

357
Q

In VDRL reporting how will you interpret no clumps

A

Non reactive

358
Q

In VDRL reporting how will you interpret small clumps

A

Weakly reactive

359
Q

In VDRL reporting how will you interpret medium to large clump

A

Reactive

360
Q

Condition wherein it will give a false positive results in VDRL

A 
SLE
RF
IM
malaria
Pregnancy
361
Q

What will be reported in VDRL testing

A

Last reactive

362
Q

It is used to confirmed VDRL test results

A

Treponemal test

363
Q

A test for syphilis infection wherein it uses unheated serum

A

Rapid plasma reagin

364
Q

In RPR fhe result is read

A

Macroscopically

365
Q

Reagent for RPR

A

Colorless alcoholic solution containing cardiolipin, lecithin, charcoal, choline chloride, thimerosal

366
Q

Reagent in RPR that allow for easier visualization

A

Charcoal

367
Q

Reagent in RPR that is utilized as a preservative

A

Thimerosal

368
Q

Rotator setting in RPR

A

100rpm for 8mins

369
Q

Ring diameter in RPR

A

18mm

370
Q

Antigen delivery needle gauge

A

20gauge 60drops/mL

371
Q

Used to detect treponemal antibodies and uses true treponemal antigens

A

Treponemal serological test

372
Q

The non pathogenic source of treponemal spp.

A

Reiter strain

373
Q

The pathogenic source of treponema spp.

A

Nichols strain

374
Q

Principle of FTA-ABS

A

IF immunoaasay

375
Q

The reagent antigen in FTA ABS

A

Nichols strain dried and fixed on slide

376
Q

What removes the cross reactivity between other treponemes like reiter treponeme that is used in FTA ABS

A

Absorbent

377
Q

The test of choice in FTA ABS

A

Dark field microscopy

378
Q

The principle of this test is the antibody that is produced against T. pallidum plus Complement protein can immobilize live treponemes

A

T. pallidum immobilization test

379
Q

Reagent antigen used in TPI test

A

Live actively motile T. pallidum organisms

380
Q

Positive result in TPI testing

A

> 50% immobilized treponemes

Serology (1 decks)

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