Semis 2 Flashcards

1
Q

___ envelops the likelihood of occurrence of uncertain events and their potential for loss within an organization.

A

Software risk

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2
Q

___ has turned into a significant part of ___ as organizations keep on carrying out additional applications across multiple technology, multi-layered environment.

A

Risk management; software improvement

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3
Q

Commonly, ___ is seen as a mix of robustness, performance proficiency, security and transactional risk propagated throughout the system.

A

software risk

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4
Q

Most organizations do not have an interaction to directly address the software risk that results from ___.

A

dynamic custom software improvement

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5
Q

The conventional methodology is to depend on testing -

A

regression tests, performance tests, user integration tests.

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6
Q

In the chart, 30% of defects found in QA and live use are ___.

A

structural

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7
Q

Furthermore, the underlying defects are the…

A

primary software risk exposures in the application lifecycle

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8
Q

In light of known software financial economics, that is ___ for every function that directly lead to software risk.

A

25 defects

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9
Q

Adding a ___ is basic to quantify and prevent software risk in strategic systems.

A

structural quality gate to the QA cycle

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10
Q

Most primary quality defects are really not connected with ___, as per industry sources.

A

code quality issues

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11
Q

A typical misinterpretation that code quality tools could address ___.

A

software risk

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12
Q

In reality, ___ requires system level analysis to identify defects that pose software risk.

A

structural quality

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13
Q

Numerous organizations experience the ill effects of failed systems even when a vast amount of time and money are dedicated to ___.

A

functional testing methods

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14
Q

The ___ does identify approximately 90% of the cause of system failures; nonetheless, it does not represent less clear issues fit for influencing response times, infrastructure stability, and component functionality issues between application layers.

A

functional approach

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15
Q

___ make testing one step further by identifying unknown shortcomings coming from high severity engineering flaws in multi-tiered systems.

A

Software risk analysis solutions

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16
Q

In a complicated ___, it is not sufficient to manage issues as they become evident.

A

technology climate

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17
Q

___ is critical to experiencing flawless performance and benefiting from systems, applications, and your development team.

A

Prevention

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18
Q

Uncovering the not so clear shortcomings in an infrastructure by using dependable software risk analysis solutions ensures the proper identification of:

A

 System Vulnerabilities
 Compliance Issues
 Stability Problems
 Efficiency Weaknesses
 Performance Degradation
 Security Flaws

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19
Q

___ is an activity that utilizes different technological advancements and requires high levels of knowledge.

A

Software development

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20
Q

Due to these and different factors, every software development project contains ___.

A

elements of uncertainty

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21
Q

Due to these and different factors, every software development project contains elements of uncertainty. This is known as ___.

A

project risk

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22
Q

The success of a software development project depends quite heavily on the…

A

amount of risk that corresponds to each project activity

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23
Q

As a ___, it is not enough to simply know about the risks.

A

project manager

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24
Q

To achieve a successful outcome, ___ must identify, assess, prioritize, and manage all of the major risks

A

project leadership

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25
Q

___ implies risk control and mitigation.

A

Risk management

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26
Q

To begin with, you must recognize and make a design (plan). Then be prepared to act when a risk emerges, drawing upon the experience and information on the entire team to limit the effect on the project.

A

Risk management

27
Q

Risk management includes the following tasks:

A

 Identify risks and their triggers
 Classify and prioritize all risks
 Craft a plan that links each risk to a mitigation
 Monitor for risk triggers during the project
 Implement the mitigating action if any risk materializes
 Communicate risk status throughout project

28
Q

Risk management is an ___.

A

extensive discipline

29
Q

A checklist of best practices for managing risk on software development and software engineering projects should include

A

 Always be forward-thinking about risk management. Otherwise, the project team will be driven from one crisis to the next.
 Use checklists, and compare with similar previous projects.
 Prioritize risks, ranking each according to the severity of exposure.
 Develop a top-10 or top-20 risk list for your project. Like most project managers, you can probably reuse this list on the next project!
 Vigorously watch for surfacing risks by meeting with key stakeholders— especially with the marketing team and the customer.
 As practicable, split larger risks into smaller, easily recognizable and readilymanageable risks.
 Strongly encourage stakeholders to think proactively and communicate about risks throughout the entire project.

30
Q

___ is the overall term used to describe the collective procedures, strategies, solutions and tools used to safeguard the confidentiality, integrity and accessibility of the organization’s information and digital resources.

A

IT security

31
Q

A thorough ___ uses a mix of advanced technologies and human resources to prevent, detect, and remediate a variety of cyber threats and cyber attacks.

A

IT security procedure

32
Q

It will incorporate security for all hardware systems, software applications and endpoints, as well as the network itself and its various components, such as physical or cloud-based data centers.

A

a thorough IT security procedure

33
Q

IT security is an umbrella term that includes any ___ intended to protect the organization’s ___.

A

plan, measure or tool; digital assets

34
Q

Elements of IT security include:

A

 Cyber security
 Endpoint security, or endpoint protection
 Cloud security
 Network security
 Container security
 IoT security

35
Q

is the defending of advanced resources, including networks, systems, PCs and information, from cyber attacks.

A

Cyber security

36
Q

is the most common way of safeguarding an organization’s endpoints - such as desktops, laptops and mobile devices— from malicious activity.

A

Endpoint security, or endpoint protection

37
Q

is the collective term for the procedure and arrangements that safeguard the cloud infrastructure, and any service or application hosted within the cloud environment, from cyber threats.

A

Cloud security

38
Q

refers to the devices, technologies, and processes that safeguard the network and basic infrastructure from cyber attacks and evil actions. It incorporates a blend of preventive and defensive measures designed to deny unauthorized access of resources and data.

A

Network security

39
Q

is the continuous process of safeguarding containers — as well as the container pipeline, deployment infrastructure and supply — from cyber threats.

A

Container security

40
Q

is a subset of network protection that spotlights on safeguarding, checking and remediating dangers connected with the Internet of Things (IoT) and the network of connected IoT devices that gather, store, and share information through the internet.

A

IoT security

41
Q

IT security can be divided into two main areas: ___ and ___.

A

system disruptions and targeted malicious attacks

42
Q

A ___ can incorporate the temporary interruption of business operations due to any system component, such as faulty hardware, network failures or software glitches.

A

system disruption

43
Q

In these situations, the business is in danger of ___ because of inoperability or the possibility of reputational harm.

A

losing revenues

44
Q

While keeping up with full system operation is a significant piece of IT security, the really pressing perspective relates to ___, most of which are designed to access or steal data and other sensitive information.

A

cyber attacks

45
Q

Common cyber attacks include:

A

 Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs)
 Malware
 Phishing
 DoS or DDoS
 Botnets
 Insider Threats

46
Q

is a refined, supported cyber attack in which an intruder lays out an undetected presence in a network in order to steal sensitive data over a prolonged period of time.

A

Advanced Persistent Threats (APTs)

47
Q

is carefully planned and designed to infiltrate a specific organization, sidestep existing security efforts and go unnoticed.

A

APT assault

48
Q

is a term used to depict any program or code that is made with the goal to cause damage to a computer, network or server.

A

Malware (malevolent software)

49
Q

Common types of malware include…

A

viruses, ransomware, keyloggers, trojans, worms and spyware

50
Q

is a sort of cyber attack that uses email, SMS, telephone or web-based media to captivate a victim to share personal data — for example, passwords or account numbers — or to download a malicious file that will install viruses on their computer or phone.

A

Phishing

51
Q

is a malicious, targeted attack that floods a network with misleading requests in order to disrupt business operations.

A

Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack

52
Q

In a ___, users cannot perform routine and necessary tasks, such as accessing email, websites, online accounts or other resources that are operated by a compromised computer or network.

A

DoS attack

53
Q

A ___ is an attempt by malicious actors to render a service or a system (eg. server, network resource, or even a specific transaction) unavailable by flooding the resource with requests.

A

distributed-denial-of-service (DDoS) attack

54
Q

is a network of compromised computers that are supervised by a command and control (C&C) channel.

A

botnet

55
Q

The person who operates the command and control infrastructure, the ___, uses the compromised computers, or bots, to launch attacks designed to crash a target’s network, inject malware, harvest credentials or execute CPU-intensive tasks.

A

bot herder or botmaster

56
Q

is a cybersecurity attack that originates within the organization, typically through a current or former employee.

A

insider threat

57
Q

Components of a comprehensive IT security strategy include:

A

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)
Managed detection and response (MDR)
Incident response (IR)
Next-generation antivirus (NGAV)

58
Q

is a comprehensive solution that distinguishes and contextualizes suspicious activity to help the security team prioritize response and remediation efforts in the event of a security breach.

A

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

59
Q

is a cyber security service that joins technology and human expertise to perform threat hunting, observing (monitoring) and response.

A

Managed detection and response (MDR)

60
Q

The fundamental advantage of ___ is that it helps rapidly identify and limit the impact of threats without the need for additional staffing.

A

Managed detection and response (MDR)

61
Q

refers to the steps the organization takes to plan for, identify, contain and recover from a data breach.

A

Incident response (IR)

62
Q

This part ordinarily comes full circle in the improvement of an incident response plan, which is a record that outlines the steps and procedures the organization will take in the event of a security incident.

A

Incident response (IR)

63
Q

uses a combination of artificial intelligence, behavioral detection, AI algorithms and exploit mitigation, so known and unknown security threats can be anticipated and immediately prevented.

A

Next-generation antivirus (NGAV)

64
Q

is the simulation of real-world attacks in order to test an organization’s detection and response capacities.

A

Penetration testing, or pen testing