Serology Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
CD markers for B cells
A
CD 19
CD 20
CD 21
CD 40
2
Q
CD markers for naïve T cells
A
CD 2
3
Q
CD markers for T-helper cells
A
CD 2
CD 3
CD 4
4
Q
CD markers for cytotoxic T cells
A
CD 2
CD 3
CD 8
5
Q
CD markers for natural killer cells
A
CD 16
CD 56
6
Q
Cd markers for macrophages and monocytes
A
CD 14
CD 64
7
Q
Components of the buffy coat in whole blood
A
WBC’s
Platelets
8
Q
The formed elements in whole blood
A
RBC’s
WBC’s
Platelets
9
Q
Which type of immunity conveys the longest lasting immunity to an infectious agent
A
Natural active immunity
10
Q
What substance will not stimulate an immune response unless it is bound to a larger molecule
A
hapten
11
Q
B and T cells are produced by stem cells that are formed in
A
bone marrow
12
Q
B cells mature in the……….. while T cells mature in the ……….
A
bone marrow
thymus
13
Q
B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are called
A
plasma cells
14
Q
Tissue macrophages are mature
A
monocytes
15
Q
measures the strength of interaction between an epitope and an antibody’s antigen binding site
A
affinity
16
Q
The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of C1 with
A
antigen-IgG or IgM complexes.
17
Q
If an individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected?
A
IgM
IgA
18
Q
The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is
A
IgG
19
Q
The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in milk
A
IgA
20
Q
Complement lyses cells by
A
insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
21
Q
Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is
A
IgG
22
Q
Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in
A
stem cells originating in the bone marrow.
23
Q
Complement can enhance phagocytosis because of the presence on macrophages and neutrophils of receptors for
A
C3b
24
Q
The class of immunoglobulin that binds firmly to mast cells and triggers anaphylaxis
A
IgE
25
The class of immunoglobulin that is present in highest concentration in secretions
IgA
26
The class of immunoglobulin that contains 10 heavy and 10 light chains
IgM
27
Involved in the presentation of antigen to CD4-positive cells
Class I MHC proteins
28
Involved in the presentation of antigen to CD8-positive cells
Class II MHC proteins
29
The part of an antigen that is recognized by the adaptive immune system is called
epitope
30
The role of classical complement pathway is to
Lyse microbe
31
Which molecule is present on every mature T helper cell
CD 4
32
Thymus is the place of primary differentiation of
T cells
33
C3b is able to bind on a microbe that will make it more attractive for phagocytosis. This process is
opsonization
34
Which antibodies activate the classic complement cascade if bound to antigen
IgM
| IgG
35
Antibodies of acute phase of infection are
IgM
36
A deficiency of complement component C2 will affect the:
Classical complement pathway
37
A deficiency in the Membrane attack complex will make a patient more prone to
Neisseria infections
38
In a sample of blood what is the percentage of plasma
55%
39
What kind of cells are indicative of a parasitic infection
eosinophils
40
Which part of the immunoglobulin binds the antigen
Fab fragment
41
C3 convertase in classical complement pathway
C4b2b
| cleaves C3
42
C5 convertase in classical complement pthway
C4b2b3b
| cleaves C5
43
Most common viral hepatitis that can cause cirrhosis
Hep B
| Hep C
44
Viral hepatitis that are oral-fecal
Hep A
| Hep E
45
Viral hepatitis with the highest mortality
Hep D
46
Viral hepatitis with highest chronicity
Hep C
47
The likelihood that a positive test results indicates real disease
Positive predictive value
48
The likelihood that a negative test result indicates no real disease
Negative predictive value
49
The percentage of sick people who are correctly identified as having the condition
Sensitivity
50
the proportion of negatives (healthy) which are correctly identified as such
Specificity
51
The proportion of a population who have the disease at a certain point of time
Prevalence
52
The frequency with which something, such as a disease or trait, appears in a particular population or area.
Incidence
53
Immunity acquired by natural exposure to an infection
Natural active immunity
54
Immunity acquired by the injection of an antigen
Artificial active immunity
55
Immunity acquired by the natural acquisition of antibodies
Natural passive immunity
56
Immunity acquired by the administration of pre-made antibodies
Artificial passive immunity
57
Vial hepatitis that is that is double is double stranded DNA
Hep B
58
Serologic test to diagnose Hep A
IgM to HAV
59
Serologic test to diagnose Hep C
HCVab to HCV
60
Only serologic test positive during the window period of a patient with Hep B
HBcAb IgM
61
Hep B serologic tests postives in a patient previously infected with Hep B
HBcAb IgG
| HbsAb IgG
62
What does HBcAg mean
Hepatitis B core antigen
63
What does HBcAb
Antibody to the Hepatitis B core antigen
64
Which is the first antibody to appear in a person infected with hep B
HBcAb
65
What does HBeAg mean
Hep B e antigen
66
What does HBeAb mean
Antibody to the hepatitis B e antigen
67
In what part of the virus is the Hep B e antigen
in the core
68
Presence of HBsAg past 6 months indicates
Hep B chronic infection
69
Presence of HBsAb IgG indicates
Prior infection or
| previous immunization
70
Where in the blood will we find immunoglobulins
serum
| plasma
71
First cell to arrive at a site of inflammation
Neutrophil
72
Type of cell that produces antibodies
B lymphocyte (Plasma Cell)
73
The process of being protected against foreign antigens
immunity
74
Main component of the complement system that attracts neutrophils and macrophages to the site of inflammation
C5a
75
Major cytokines that induce fever
Il1
| tumor necrotic factor
76
The conversion of IgM to either IgG, IgA or IgE is called
class switching
77
Etiology of mononucleosis
Epstein Barr Virus
78
The aggregation of soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce a visible insoluble complex
Precipitation
79
Process whereby specific antigens aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the corresponding specific antibody is present in the serum
Agglutination
80
The first reaction involving antigen-antibody combination through single antigenic determinants on the particle surface
Sensitization
81
The sum of interactions between antibody and multiple antigenic determinants on a particle
Lattice formation
82
The largest amount of precipitation is seen when antigens and antibodies are present in optimal proportions
Equivalence zone
83
Zone of antibody excess
Prozone
84
Zone of antigen excess
Postzone
85
Antibody is detected when soluble antigen interacts with antibody and precipitate is formed.
Flocculation Test
86
Antibody is bound to latex beads; visible agglutination occurs when antigen binds to the latex-bound antibody
Latex agglutination
87
Antibodies bind to the surface antigens of bacteria in suspension, which results in visible agglutination
Direct bacterial agglutination
88
The maximum dilution that gives visible agglutination
Titer
89
Antibody that interacts with antigen on the surface of particles
Agglutinin
90
Antigen on the surface of particles such as red blood cells that react with the antibody to produce agglutination
Agglutinogen
91
Bacteria that belongs to group B strep
Streptococcus agalactiae
92
Bacteria that belongs to group A strep
Streptococcus pyogenes
93
Streptococcus most commonly associated with pulmonary infections and adult meningitis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
94
Streptococcus most commonly associated with pharyngitis, scarlet fever and impetigo
Group A strep
95
Streptococcus most commonly associated with neonatal meningitis
Group B strep
96
Serologic test for the detection of antibodies against Group A strep
ASO titer (antistreptolysin O)
97
Serologic test where a bacterial capsule swells with the addition of type-specific antiserum)
Quellung reaction
98
Streptococcus most commonly associated with dental caries
Streptococcus mutans
99
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by IgE
Hypersensitivity Type I
100
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by IgM or IgG against cell or tissue antigens
Hypersensitivity Type II
101
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by immune complexes of circulating antigens
Hypersensitivity Type III
102
Type of hypersensitivity mediated by T-Lymphocytes
Hypersensitivity Type IV
103
Also called delayed type hypersensitivity
Hypersensitivity Type IV
104
What type of hypersensitivity is allergic rhinitis
Hypersensitivity Type I
105
What type of hypersensitivity is asthma
Hypersensitivity Type I
106
What type of hypersensitivity can produce systemic anaphylaxis
Hypersensitivity Type I
107
What type of hypersensitivity is autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic
108
What type of hypersensitivity is acute rheumatic fever
Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic
109
What type of hypersensitivity is Goodpasture syndrome
Hypersensitivity Type II cytotoxic
110
What type of hypersensitivity is Myasthenia Gravis
Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic
111
What type of hypersensitivity is Graves disease
Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic
112
What type of hypersensitivity is Pernicious anemia
Hypersensitivity Type II non-cytotoxic
113
What type of hypersensitivity is systemic lupus erithematosus
Hypersensitivity type III
114
What type of hypersensitivity is rheumatoid arhtritis
Hypersensitivity type III
115
What type of hypersensitivity is post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Hypersensitivity type III
116
What type of hypersensitivity is Multiple sclerosis
Hypersensitivity type IV
117
What type of hypersensitivity is tuberculin test
Hypersensitivity type IV
118
What type of hypersensitivity is contact dermatitis
Hypersensitivity type IV
119
Confers immunity against HIV
CCR5 mutation
120
Decreases CD4 and MCI expression on host cells
Nef gene
121
Surface protein that binds to CD4
Gp 120
122
Early marker for HIV infection
P24
123
Evaluates progression of HIV infection
CD4:CD8 T cell ratio
124
Initial screening for HIV infection
ELISA or latex particle agglutination
125
Confirmation test for HIV infection
Western blot or IF
126
Test for the detection of HIV infection in newborns of HIV + mothers
PCR
127
Target cell for Human Immunodeficiency virus
CD4 T-lymphocytes
128
Predominant cells in rheumatoid arthritis
T lymphocytes
129
Gold standard serologic marker in rheumatoid arthritis
RF
130
New medications used to inhibit inflammation in RA
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors
131
Screening test done on RA before intubation or anesthesia
X-Ray for atlantoaxial subluxation
132
Gold standard serologic markers for SLE
anti-DS DNA ab's
| anti-SM ab's
133
Serologic markers diagnostic of a SLE flare
Decreased C3, C4
| Elevated DS DNA
134
Serologic marker to be screens for in a pregnant patient with SLE
anti Ro antibodies
135
Serologic marker positive in drug induced lupus
Anti-histone antibodies
136
Medications most commonly associated with drug induced lupus
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Quinidine
137
Medications associated with drug induced lupus that are often ANA negative
Quinidine
| Hydralazine
138
chronic multi-system disease characterized clinically by thickening of the skin caused by accumulation of connective tissue and by involvement of visceral organs (GI, lungs, kidneys)
Scleroderma
139
Serologic marker positive in Scleroderma
scl-70
140
Serologic marker positive in CREST syndrome
Anti-centromere antibodies
141
Disease produced by a lack of thymus
DiGeorge syndrome
142
How are T-cells in MHC class I deficiency
CD8 T cells decreased
| CD4 T cells normal
143
How are T-cells in MHC class II deficiency
CD4 T cells decreased
| CD8 T cells normal
144
Triad findings in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Decreased immunity
Thrombocytopenia
Eczema
145
Triad findings in Ataxia telangiectasia
Decreased immunity
Ataxia
Telangiectasia
146
Immunoglobulins decreased in ataxia telangiectasia
IgA
| IgE
147
Diseased due to a deficiency of maturation of B-cells
Brutons X-linked hypo-gamma globulinemia
148
Disease due to a deficiency of CD40L
X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
149
Diseased characterized by repeated sinopulmonary and GI infections
Selective IgA deficiency
150
Most common immunoglobulin deficiency
Selective IgA deficiency
151
Disease characterized by a delayed onset of normal IgG synthesis
Transient hypo-gamma-globulinemia of infancy
152
Etiologic agent for syphilis
Treponema pallidum
153
Serologic markers for syphilis screening
VDRL
| RPR
154
Alpha-feto-protein (AFP) is elevated in
liver, ovaries and testicular cancer
155
CA 15-3 is elevated in
Breast cancer
156
CA 19-9 is elevated in
Pancreatic, gastric and colon cancer
157
CA 125 is elevated in
Ovarian cancer
158
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is elevated in
Choriocarcinoma, testicular and germ cell tumors
159
Her2/neu is elevated in
Breast cancer
160
Prostate specific antigen is elevated in
Prostate cancer
161
Thyroglobulin is elevated in
Thyroid cancer
162
CA27-29 is elevated in
Breast cancer
163
Main tumor supressor genes
p-53
| Rb
164
Gene that has the potential to produce cancer
Oncogene
165
An initial change from normal cells to a different cell type
Metaplasia
166
Condition whereby cells lose the morphological characteristics of mature cells and their orientation with respect to each other
Anaplasia
167
Change in cell or tissue phenotype
Dysplasia
168
Increase in the volume of cells
Hypertrophy
169
Programmed cell death
Apoptosis
