Session 1 Flashcards by Margaret Quaid

Which is not a connective tissue cell?
A. Bone cells
B. Skeletal muscle cells
C. Blood cells
D. Fat cells
E. Both skeletal muscle cells and blood cells are correct

B. Skeletal muscle cells

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Epithelial cells
A. Include fat-storing cells
B. Act as anchors for body structures
C. Form boundaries between body compartments
D. Both include fat-storing cells and act as anchors for body structures are correct
E. All of the choices are correct

C. Form boundaries between body compartments

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The cell type that is specialized to communicate with other cells and control their activities is
A. Epithelial cells
B. Muscle cells
C. Connective tissue cells
D. Nerve cells
E. All of the choices are correct

D. Nerve cells

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The developmental process that leads to specialized cell types is called
A. Genomics
B. Differentiation
C. Homeostasis
D. Positive
E. Acclimatization

B. Differentiation

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A positive feedback mechanism is an effective way to
A. Maintain a constant internal environment
B. Anticipate changes in the environment
C. Adapt to a new environment
D. Bring about a rapid change in the body
E. Detect changes in the external environment

D. Bring about a rapid change in the body

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Which of the following are the most common effector cells in reflex arcs?
A. Neurons
B. Muscle cells
C. Endocrine Gland cells
D. Both neurons and muscle cells are correct
E. Both muscle cells and endocrine gland cells are correct

E. Both muscle cells and endocrine gland cells are correct

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The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose into most of the body’s cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and the cells that secrete insulin. Which of the following statements is most likely to be correct?
A. A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration still further
B. An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration
C. A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration
D. An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration still further
E. None of the choices are correct

B. An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration

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A protein is found in blood that is produced by the pancreas and acts on the liver. That protein is probably
A. A hormone
B. An autocrine agent
C. A paracrine agent
D. A neurotransmitter
E. None of the choices are correct

A. A hormone

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Increasing sodium intake by eating a bag of potato chips without increasing sodium excretion would result in a
A. Positive sodium balance
B. Negative sodium balance
C. Stable sodium balance
D. It can’t be determined without knowing the size of the sodium pool

A. Positive sodium balance

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The composition of the fluid bathing the cells of the body is essentially the same as that within the cells.

False

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Homeostatic control systems and acclimatization are examples of biological adaptations.

True

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is a chemical released by axon terminals into a synaptic cleft.

neurotransmitter

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is a chemical released by endocrine cells into the bloodstream.

hormone

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is the regulation of cellular activity by messengers from nearby cells.

paracrine

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is the regulation of cellular activity by chemical mediators produced by that cell.

autocrine

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An atom’s identity is directly determined by
A. The number of electrons it has
B. The number of neutrons it has
C. The number of protons it has
D. The number of bonds it can form
E. Its atomic weight

C. The number of protons it has

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Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes. They differ in the number of
A. Protons
B. Neutrons
C. Electrons
D. Chemical bonds they can form
E. All of the choices are correct

B. Neutrons

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A covalent bond between two atoms is
A. Formed when each atom shares one of its inner-orbit electrons with the other atom
B. Formed when each atom shares one of its outer-orbit electrons with the other atom
C. The strongest of the chemical bonds
D. Formed when each atom shares one of its inner-orbit electrons with the other atom and the strongest of the chemical bonds
E. Formed when each atom shares one of its outer-orbit electrons with the other atom and the strongest of the chemical bonds

E. Formed when each atom shares one of its outer-orbit electrons with the other atom and the strongest of the chemical bonds

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Ions are
A. Electrically neutral
B. Electrically charged
C. Formed by the gain or loss of protons from the nucleus
D. Electrically charged and formed by the gain or loss of protons from the nucleus
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Electrically charged

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Free radicals
A. React rapidly with other atoms
B. Include hydroxyl radical and nitric oxide
C. Contain two electrons in the outermost orbital
D. React rapidly with other atoms and include hydroxyl radical and nitric oxide are correct
E. All of the choices are correct

D. React rapidly with other atoms and include hydroxyl radical and nitric oxide are correct

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A polar molecule
A. Contains a significant proportion of polar bonds relative to nonpolar bonds
B. May contain ionized groups
C. Can form hydrogen bonds with other polar molecules
D. Contains a significant proportion of polar bonds relative to nonpolar bonds and may contain ionized groups are correct
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

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Consider the adage familiar to anyone who has observed oil spills in the ocean or has made a salad dressing: “Oil and water do not mix.” Which of the following helps explain this observation?
A. Oil is hydrophobic
B. Oil is nonpolar
C. Oil is composed largely of carbon and hydrogen
D. Water is hydrophilic
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

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Molecules that have properties of both polar and nonpolar molecules are called
A. Hydrophobic
B. Hydrophilic
C. Amphipathic
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct

C. Amphipathic

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Compounds A, B and C have molecular weights of 10, 50 and 100 respectively. If 5 grams of each compound were put into 1 liter of water, which compound will have the greatest molar concentration?
A. Compound A
B. Compound B
C. Compound C
D. All will have the same molar concentration

A. Compound A

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25. The pH of a solution A. Is a measure of the concentration of H atoms in solution B. Is a measure of the concentration of bound H+ ions in solution C. Is a measure of the concentration of free H+ ions in solution D. Increases as the acidity of the solution increases E. Both is a measure of the concentration of free H+ ions in solution and increases as the acidity of the solution increases are correct

C. Is a measure of the concentration of free H+ ions in solution

26. Glucose is a A. Monosaccharide B. Disaccharide C. Polysaccharide D. Glycoprotein E. Phospholipid

A. Monosaccharide

27. The covalent bond formed between two amino acids is called a(n) A. Glycosidic bond B. Peptide bond C. Phosphodiester bond D. Ester bond E. Hydrolytic bond

B. Peptide bond

28. Nucleic acids are A. Macromolecules B. Composed of nucleotides C. Distinguished from each other in part by the composition of the sugar they contain D. Macromolecules and composed of nucleotides E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

29. The mass of an atom is the sum of its protons and electrons

False

30. The atomic number of an element is given by the number of electrons in the atom.

False

31. Twelve grams of C contains the same number of atoms as one gram of H.

True

32. The number of covalent bonds that can be formed by a given atom depends upon the number of electrons present in the outermost orbit

True

In general, polar molecules will dissolve in polar solvents, while nonpolar molecules cannot.

True

34. The molarity of a solution is a measure of the concentration of the solute

true

35. Saturated fats contain carbon atoms linked by double bonds.

false

36. The sequence of amino acids in a protein is known as the secondary structure

false

__ Protein (connexin) lined channels (pores) joining cells that allow small molecules and electrical signals to directly pass from the cytosol of one cell to another. This allows tissues to coordinate responses to stimuli.

gap junction

Provide strong attachments between cells. Consist of protein discs (dense plaques) on the cytoplasmic membrane surface from which protein fibers extend into the cytoplasm to attach to the cytoskeleton, while other fibers, cadherins, extend into the intracellular space to interlock with cadherins extending from the adjacent cell.

desmosome

Occur where plasma membranes of adjacent cells are opposed so that there is no extracellular space between them. This prevents substances from flowing between cells, and forces them to pass through the cells, thus allowing the plasma membrane to function as a selective barrier.

tight junction

found between skin epithelial cells

desmosome

found between intestinal epithelial cells

tight junction

found between cardiac muscle cells

gap junction

1. Stem cells are capable differentiating into a wide variety of cell types, but they cannot proliferate and generate more stem cells. A) True. B) False.

False

2. During development unspecialized cells are transformed into specialized cells such as muscle cells and nerve cells through a process called: A) physiological genomics. B) pathophysiology. C) cell differentiation. D) cell multiplication.

C) cell differentiation

3. Which of the following lists of structures is organized from smallest and least complex to largest and most complex? A) Tissues, cells, organ systems, organs B) Organs, organ systems, tissues, cells C) Cells, organs, tissues, organ systems D) Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

D) Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

4. Which of the following is not one of the four types of tissues found in the human body? A) Epithelial B) Collagen C) Muscle D) Nerve

B) Collagen

5. Connective tissue cell types include all of the following except: A) epithelial cells. B) bone cells. C) red blood cells. D) adipose cells.

A) epithelial cells.

6. What is the name of the cell type whose functions include secretion, absorption, and forming barrier membranes? A) Epithelial cells B) Muscle cells C) Connective tissue cells D) Nerve cells

A) Epithelial cells

7. Which of the following is the most abundant fluid compartment in the human body? A) Extracellular fluid B) Interstitial fluid C) Blood plasma D) Intracellular fluid

D) Intracellular fluid

8. Most of the common physiological variables in normal, healthy organisms are maintained within a predictable range. A) True B) False

true

9. Shivering in response to a cold draft is an example of: A) A homeostatic mechanism B) Negative feedback C) A physiological reflex D) A and B E) All of the choices are correct

E) All of the choices are correct

10. If the amount of sodium in the blood decreases, then a negative feedback control mechanism would be expected to A) Decrease the amount of sodium in the blood B) Increase the amount of sodium in the blood C) Leave the amount of sodium unchanged D) Change the set point for sodium

B) Increase the amount of sodium in the blood

11. Physiological variables may vary within a range in the short term (a few hours) but can be considered constant when averaged over the long term (days). This concept is called: A) homeostasis. B) equilibrium. C) dynamic constancy. D) variability.

. C) dynamic constancy.

12 Heart rate is affected by the release of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla into the bloodstream. This is an example of A) Endocrine control B) Exocrine control C) Paracrine control D) Direct neural control E) None of the choices are correct

A) Endocrine control

13. Which of the following physiological processes involving hormones provide an example of positive feedback? A) Release of ADH from posterior pituitary in response to dehydration B) Release of oxytocin from posterior pituitary during parturition C) Release of parathyroid hormone from parathyroid gland in response to decreased plasma calcium D) A and B E) A and C

B) Release of oxytocin from posterior pituitary during parturition

14. Solutes that do not dissolve in water are called hydrophilic. True False

false

15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence for a regulatory reflex arc? A) Stimulus, effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor. B) Stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, effector. C) Stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector. D) Stimulus, effector, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, receptor. E) Effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor, stimulus.

C) Stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector.

16. The efferent pathway of a reflex arc A) is so named because it carries information to the integrating center. B) can be neural. C) can be hormonal. D) A and B E) B and C

E) B and C

17. The major effectors of biological reflexes are: A) brain and muscles B) muscles and endocrine glands C) skin and hair. D) heart and lungs.

B) muscles and endocrine glands

18. A burn patient ingests 100 grams of protein per day but is losing 110 grams of protein per day by various means. This patient is in A) Positive protein balance B) Negative protein balance C) Stable balance D) A state that can't be determined

B) Negative protein balance

19. The function of adenosine triphosphate is A) To transfer energy in a cell B) Catalyze chemical reactions C) Store large amounts of energy within the cell D) Act as a template for synthesizing lipids E) All of the choices are correct

A) To transfer energy in a cell

20. A covalent bond between two atoms is A) Formed when each atom shares one of its inner-orbit electrons with the other atom B) Formed when each atom shares one of its outer-orbit electrons with the other atom C) The strongest of the chemical bonds D) A and C E) B and C

E) B and C

21. When magnesium loses electrons to become an ion it forms A) A covalent bond B) A cation C) An anion D) A new element E) None of the choices is true

B) A cation

22. If a free radical oxidizes another molecule the free radical will A) Remove electrons from the other molecule B) Form an unbreakable bond with the other molecule C) Remove protons from the other molecule D) Stabilize the other molecule E) None of the choices are correct

A) Remove electrons from the other molecule

23. Hydrolysis A) Involves removal of water molecules from larger molecules B) Involves breaking of covalent bonds within water molecules and transfer of the resulting ions to other molecules C) Results in the breakdown of large molecules in the body D) A and B E) B and C

E) B and C

24. Proteins are A) Critically important for physiological processes B) Composed of fatty acids C) Composed of nucleic acids D) Macromolecules with subunits linked by polypeptide bonds E) A and D

E) A and D

25. Isotopes are different forms of an element that differ in their number of: A) electrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) protons & neutrons.

C) neutrons.

26. Which four elements account for 99% of all the atoms in the human body? A) Hydrogen, carbon, sodium, calcium B) Hydrogen, oxygen, sodium, phosphorus C) Hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, nitrogen D) Oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, sodium

C) Hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, nitrogen

27. Phospholipid molecules are best described as: A) polar B) non-polar C) amphipathic. D) ionic

C) amphipathic.

28. Nitrogen atoms can form a maximum of four covalent bonds with other atoms. True False

false

29. A solution with a pH of 8 is more acidic than one with a pH of 3. True False

false

30. In DNA, thymine binds with adenine and cytosine binds with uracil. True False

false

How many grams of glucose (C6H12O6) are required to make 2.5 liters of a 3M glucose solution?

1350 grams

32. Hypertonic saline solutions are sometimes used clinically to help treat patients with increased intracranial pressure. A liter of 3% hypertonic saline contains 30 grams of sodium chloride (NaCl). What is the molarity of this saline solution?

0.517 M

36. A major function of plasma membranes is to A. Store calcium ions B. Store organic chemicals for metabolism C. Provide genetic information D. Generate ATP E. Regulate the passage of molecules into and out of the cell

E. Regulate the passage of molecules into and out of the cell

37. Cell membranes A. Are components of the cytosol B. Are passive barriers against the passage of molecules from one side to the other C. Consist primarily of protein and carbohydrate D. Consist primarily of phospholipids and protein E. Both are passive barriers against the passage of molecules from one side to the other and consist primarily of protein and carbohydrate are correct

D. Consist primarily of phospholipids and protein

38. Tight junctions A. Hold cells tightly together so that they cannot readily be pulled apart B. Form barriers that regulate the passage of materials across epithelial membranes C. Are commonly found in smooth muscle D. Both hold cells tightly together so that they cannot readily be pulled apart and form barriers that regulate the passage of materials across epithelial membranes are correct E. Both form barriers that regulate the passage of materials across epithelial membranes and are commonly found in smooth muscle are correct

B. Form barriers that regulate the passage of materials across epithelial membranes

39. Functions of agranular (smooth) endoplasmic reticulum include A. Synthesis of proteins for use in the cell B. Synthesis of steroids C. Storage of intracellular calcium ion D. Synthesis of proteins for use in the cell and storage of intracellular calcium ion E. Synthesis of steroids and storage of intracellular calcium ion

E. Synthesis of steroids and storage of intracellular calcium ion

40. The organelles that digest engulfed bacteria and cell debris are the A. Peroxisomes B. Endosomes C. Lysosomes D. Ribosomes E. Mitochondria

C. Lysosomes

41. Functions of the Golgi apparatus include A. Modifying proteins synthesized on free ribosomes B. Modifying proteins synthesized on ribosomes associated with granular (rough) endoplasmic reticulum C. Allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles D. Modifying proteins synthesized on free ribosomes and allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles E. Modifying proteins synthesized on ribosomes associated with granular (rough) endoplasmic reticulum and allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles

E. Modifying proteins synthesized on ribosomes associated with granular (rough) endoplasmic reticulum and allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles

42. Which of the following is not true of the cytoskeleton? A. It refers to the cellular components of bone B. It refers to a network of cytoplasmic filaments C. It is important for cellular movement D. It helps to determine a cell's shape E. None of the choices are false

A. It refers to the cellular components of bone

43. Cell A is a gland cell that makes and secretes proteins. Cell B is another type of cell that synthesizes and secretes steroids. If you were to look at electron micrographs of the two cells, what differences would you expect to see? A. Cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell BB. Cell A would have fewer secretion granules than cell B C. Cell A would have more agranular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B D. Both cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B and cell A would have fewer secretion granules than cell B are correct E. Both cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B and cell A would have more agranular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B are correct

. Cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell BB. Cell A would have fewer secretion granules than cell B

44. In Tay Sach's disease, lysosomes do not carry out their normal function. Predict which condition would be a symptom of Tay Sach's disease. A. There is excessive accumulation of damaged organelles in a cell B. Cells are unable to synthesize proteins C. Cells can only make ATP by glycolysis D. Proteins cannot be secreted by exocytosis E. Steroid hormones can't be produced

A. There is excessive accumulation of damaged organelles in a cell

45. Actin filaments are composed of the globular protein actin. They make up the major portion of the cytoskeleton and play a role in cell movement and muscle contraction. True False

true

46. Intermediate filaments are found in regions of mechanical stress, eg. desmosomes. They are tension-bearing filaments that help maintain cell shape and rigidity. True False

true

47. Microtubules are composed of protein tubulin subunits. They give shape to nerve cell dendritic processes, and form centrioles and spindle fibers that function in cell division. True False

true

1. What best describes the cell type that is specialized to communicate with other cells and control their activities? A. Epithelial B. Muscle C. Connective tissue D. Nerve E. All of the choices are correct.

D. Nerve

2. The developmental process that leads to specialized cell types is called A. Genomics B. Differentiation C. Homeostasis D. Proliferation E. Acclimatization

B. Differentiation

3. Homeostasis A. Refers to rigid constancy of the internal environment B. Refers to dynamic constancy of the internal environment C. Is maintained primarily by positive feedback mechanisms D. A and C E. B and C

B. Refers to dynamic constancy of the internal environment

4. A positive feedback mechanism occurs in anticipation of a change in the environment. True False

false

5. Which of the following comprise the afferent and efferent pathways in reflex arcs of homeostatic control? A. Nerve fibers B. Muscles C. Hormones D. A and B E. A and C

E. A and C

6. The pH of milk of magnesia is 10.5. A. It is an basic solution B. It is an acidic solution C. It is a neutral solution D. It has more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions

A. It is an basic solution

7. One function of epithelial cells is to form selective barriers regulating exchange of materials across them. True False

true

is the regulation of a cell’s activity by messengers produced by nearby cells.

paracrine

is the regulation of a cell’s activity by chemical mediators produced by that cell.

autocrine

10. An element’s atomic mass is primarily determined by A. The number of electrons it has B. The number of neutrons it has C. The number of protons it has D. The number of electrons and protons it has E. The number of protons and neutrons it has

E. The number of protons and neutrons it has

11. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Isotopes are different forms of the same molecule B. Isotopes have the same atomic number C. Isotopes differ in their number of neutrons D. A and B E. B and C

E. B and C

12. A ionic bond between two atoms is A. Formed when one atom transfers an electron to another atom to fill its outermost shell B. Formed when each atom shares one of its outer-orbit electrons with the other atom C. The strongest of the chemical bonds D. A and C E. B and C

A. Formed when one atom transfers an electron to another atom to fill its outermost shell

13. Amphipathic molecules: A. Possess only hydrophilic properties B. Possess only hydrophobic properties C. Possess both hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties D. Possess neither hydrophobic nor hydrophilic properties E. Cannot interact with other molecules

C. Possess both hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties

14. The process by which polymers are made into smaller monomeric subunits: A. Requires hydrolysis B. Requires dehydration C. Occurs only in carbohydrates D. A and B E. B and C

A. Requires hydrolysis

15. Glycogen is a: A. Monosaccharide B. Disaccharide C. Polysaccharide D. Glycoprotein E. Phospholipid

C. Polysaccharide

16. Steroids are: A. Phospholipids B. Lipids C. Derived from cholesterol D. A and B E. B and C

E. B and C

17. The function of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is: A. To transfer energy within a cell B. Catalyze chemical reactions C. Store large amounts of energy within liver cells D. Act as a template for synthesizing lipids E. All of the choices are correct

A. To transfer energy within a cell

18. The sequence of amino acids in a protein is known as the primary structure of the protein. True False

true

19. RNA and DNA differ in that A. RNA contains the pyrimidine thymine whereas DNA contains the pyrimidine uracil B. RNA is made up of two chains whereas DNA is made of one chain C. RNA contains the sugar ribose whereas DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose D. A and B E. B and C

C. RNA contains the sugar ribose whereas DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose

20. Salt (NaCl) has a molecular weight of 58. How many grams of salt are required to make 2 liters of a 1M salt solution?

116

21. What is the molecular weight of ethyl alcohol, C2H6O?

22. The cytosol consists of the region outside of the cell nucleus. True False

false

23. Desmosomes occur where plasma membranes of adjacent cells are opposed so that there is no extracellular space between them. True False

false

24. Which of the following statements if FALSE concerning smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)? A. It is the location of fatty acid and steroid synthesis. B. It has ribosomes attached to its surface. C. It stores calcium ions (Ca++) D. A and B E. B and C

B. It has ribosomes attached to its surface.

25. Which of the following cell process involves cytoskeletal filaments? A. Supporting the framework that gives the cell shape B. Trafficking molecules around the cytoplasm C. Cell motility D. A and B E. A, B, and C

E. A, B, and C

Session 1 Flashcards

(111 cards)