Set 1 Flashcards by Gwynne Marie Salvacion

This method of disinfection is used for food pathogens and affects the flavor of the food:

A. Pasteurization
B. Boiling
C. Sterilization
D. None of the above

D. None of the above

Note: Pasteurizing at 70°C for 30 minutes, which kills food pathogens without damaging the nutritional value or flavor

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Nutritive media for fungi:

A. Trypic soy agar
B. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar
C. Nutrient agar
D. Chocolate agar

B. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

Notes:
NUTRITIVE MEDIA = Tryptic soy agar, and nutrient agar plates for bacteria;
Sabouraud’s dextrose agar for fungi, blood or chocolate agar

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Culture media that supports a wide range of most organism?

A. Differential media
B. Nonselective media
C. Enrichment media
D. Selective media

B. Nonselective media

Notes:
- Differential = Employ some factors that allow colonies of one bacterial species or type to exhibit
certain metabolic or culture characteristics
- Enrichment = Contains specific nutrients required for the growth of bacterial pathogens
- Selective = Support the growth of one group organisms but not another by adding
antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol

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MacConkey agar is a differential and selective media: TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

Note:
○ Selective for gram-negative organisms
○ Differential for lactose fermentation

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Dye present in MacConkey agar:

A. Phenol red
B. Crystal violet
C. Gentian blue
D. Neutral red

B. Crystal Violet

Note:
MacConkey agar
- Crystal violet = dye
- Neutral red = pH indicator

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These organisms can grow in only low levels of oxygen:

A. Strictly aerobic
B. Microaerophilic
C. Anaerobic
D. Facultative anaerobe

B. Microaerophilic

Note:
- Strictly aerobic: cannot grow in the absence of oxygen
- Anaerobic: oxygen is inhibitory or lethal
- Facultative anaerobic: grow in the presence or absence of oxygen

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These organisms require increased concentrations of carbon dioxide:

A. Microaerophiles
B. Anaerobe
C. Capnophiles
D. Facultative anaerobe

C. Capnophiles

Notes:
- Anaerobic: oxygen is inhibitory or lethal
- Facultative anaerobic: grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
- Microaerophiles: grow only in low levels of oxygen

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They exist as double stranded, closed, circular, autonomously replicating extrachromosomal genetic elements:

A. Jumping genes
B. Episomes
C. Plasmids
D. Nucleoid

C. Plasmids

Notes:
- Jumping genes = transposable elements; Pieces of DNA that move from one genetic element to another
- Episomes = capable of replication independently of the host chromosome

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Recipient cell uptakes free DNA and integrates into the recipient cell’s DNA:

A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Plasmid transfer

B. Transformation

Notes:
- Conjugation = Occurs between 2 living cell, involves cell-too-cell contact, requires mobilization of the donor bacterium’s chromosome
- Transduction = DNA form two bacteria may come together in one cell allowing recombination; Mediated by viruses capable of infecting bacteria (bacteriophage)
- Plasmid transfer = Conjugation

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This type of genetic exchange is seen when an organism develops antibiotic resistance:

A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Plasmid transfer

B. Transformation

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This type of genetic exchange is mediated by viruses capable of infecting bacteria:

A. Conjugation
B. Transformation
C. Transduction
D. Plasmid transfer

C. Transduction

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This structure is present in numerous amounts in gram-positive bacteria:

A. Techoic acids
B. Thick peptidoglycan layer
C. Thin peptidoglycan layer
D. Mycolic acids

A. Techoic acids

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Microscopically, if an organism is acid fast positive:
A. Red organism with a dark green background.
B. Red organisms with a blue green background.
C. Blue organisms in a red background.
D. Blue organisms in a green background.

B. Red organisms with a blue green background.

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Determines the mechanism of replication of the viral genome:

A. Nucleic acid genome
B. Viral capsid
C. Viral genome structure
D. Nucleic acid core

C. Viral genome structure

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Has tissue tropism to mucosal or cutaneous tissue:

A. Parvovirus B19
B. HSV1
C. VZV
D. Human papillomavirus

A. Parvovirus B19

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Most specific marker for diagnosis of acute Hepatitis B infection:

A. HbsAg
B. HbcAg
C. Anti-HbcAg IgM
D. Anti-HbsAg IgM

C. Anti-HbcAg IgM

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If there is a delay in examination for dermatophytes specimens, they should be refrigerated:

A. True
B. False

FALSE

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Birds on a fence:

A. Tricophyton spp.
B. Mucorales
C. Epidermophyton sp.
D. Fusarium spp.

A. Tricophyton spp.

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True of Blastomyces:

A. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of yeast at 37OC.
B. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of mold at 37OC.
C. Yeast forms have a single wall with broad based bud.
D. Molds produce spaghetti and meatballs morphology.

A. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of yeast at 37OC.

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True of Paracoccidoides brasilensis:

A. Diagnostic tissue phase is large, thick-walled yeast with multiple buds.
B. Molds produce spaghetti and meatballs
C. Yeast forms produce double walls with broad based buds.
D. Diagnostic tissue phase is formation of intercalary and terminal chlamydochonidia.

A. Diagnostic tissue phase is large, thick-walled yeast with multiple buds.

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Mycelial forms of the fungus show daisy head or flowerette microconidia:

A. Paracoccodoides brasilensis
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Blastomyces
D. Histoplasma capsulatum

B. Sporothrix schenckii

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Selective and differential for Vibrio spp.:

A. Hektoen Enteric agar
B. TCBS agar
C. EMB agar
D. XLD agar

B. TCBS agar

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Gives Mycobacteria spp. its acid fastness:

A. Outer membrane
B. Mycolic acid
C. Techoic acid
D. Murein layer

B. Mycolic acid

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Causes acute endocarditis in IV drug users:

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Eikenella corrodens
D. Kingella kingae

A. Staphylococcus aureus

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Presumptive identification of Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococci from other Beta-hemolytic streptococci: A. PYR test B. CAMP test C. Growth on blood agar D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test

D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test

Test used to differentiate Group B streptococci from other Streptococci: A. PYR test B. CAMP test C. Growth on blood agar D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test

B. CAMP test

Test used to differentiate Group B streptococci from other Streptococci: A. PYR test B. CAMP test C. Growth on blood agar D. Bacitracin Susceptibility test

B. CAMP test

Which of the following is FALSE of Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli. B. Gran positive lancet-shaped cocci. C. Positive Quelling test. D. Alpha hemolytic.

A. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli

Used for the presumptive identification of catalase-negative gram-positive cocci: A. LAP test B. PYR test C. Quellung test D. Bile Solubility test

A. LAP test

Associated with dental or surgical procedures often leading to tooth abscess: A. Viridans B. Eikenella corrodens C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Kingella kingae

A. Viridans

Associated with dental or surgical procedures often leading to tooth abscess: A. Viridans B. Eikenella corrodens C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Kingella kingae

A. Viridans

CS, 35 years old, female, known smoker, alcoholic beverage drinker, and IV drug user has been diagnosed with acute endocarditis since 2015. What is the risk factor present in the history that predisposes the patient to develop the disease? A. Alcoholic beverage drinker B. Smoker C. IV drug user D. Female

C. IV drug user

What is the most common heart valve involved? A. Mitral valve B. Tricuspid valve C. All of the above D. None of the above

B. Tricuspid valve

This organism is non-motile, gram-negative rod that is seen in infections resulting from human bites: A. Viridans B. Eikenella corrodens C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Kingella kingae

B. Eikenella corrodens

ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What do you expect on gram staining of the ulcer? A. Pleomorphic coccobacilli B. Small coccobacilli with occasional cells appearing as tangled fragments C. Slender, coccobacillary described as school of fish D. Small pleomorphic form or sometimes long filamentous forms

C. Slender, coccobacillary described as school of fish

ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What do you expect on gram staining of the ulcer = Slender, coccobacillary described as school of fish What is the most likely organism isolated? A. Treponema pallidum B. Haemophilus ducreyi C. Neisseria gonorrhea D. None of the above

B. Haemophilus ducreyi

Organisms that CAN be detected using Gram's stain: A. Ureaplasma B. Chlamydia C. Mycobacteria D. Spirochetes

C. Mycobacteria

Selective medium for isolation of S. aureus: A. Sheep blood agar B. Mannitol salt agar C. Chocolate agar D. Nutrient broth

B. Mannitol salt agar

This organism is the causative agent for the major cause of preventable blindness worldwide: A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Neisseria gonorrheae C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Chlamydia psittaci

A. Chlamydia trachomatis

Gram-negative rods exhibiting bipolar staining that resembles a closed safety pin: A. Yersinia pestis B. Enterobacter aerogenes C. Escherichia coli D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A. Yersinia pestis

Described to cause community-acquired atypical pneumonia that can occur singly or cause outbreaks in families and military recruit camps: A. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Ureaplasma urylyticum

A. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae

Causative agent for Cat Scratch Disease: A. Bartonella henselae B. Bartonella quintana C. Bartonella alsatica D. Bartonella bacilliformis

A. Bartonella henselae

This step in viral replication is also termed as adsorption: A. Attachment B. Penetration C. Viral entry D. Uncoating

A. Attachment

What compound is present if there is a red color on the Voges Proskauer test? A. Acetoin B. Glucose C. Amino acids D. Lactose

A. Acetoin

Identify the organism: • MAC: non-lactose fermenter, swarming colonies with characteristic smell • IMViC: -, +, -, - • ONPG: + • Urea: + A. Proteus vulgaris B. Proteus mirabilis C. Escherichia coli D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

B. Proteus mirabilis

This virulence factor of Pseudomonas is a polysaccharide polymer that inhibits phagocytosis: A. Capsule B. Pili C. Alginate D. Catalases

C. Alginate

This test differentiates Vibrios from Aeromonas: A. String test B. Quellung test C. CAMP test D. Growth on CIN agar

A. String test

Which of the following organisms exhibit satellite phenomenon? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Haemophilus influenzae

Small coccobacilli that resemble fine grains of sand: A. Brucella B. Moraxella C. Bordatella D. Francisella

A. Brucella

Young colonies are small and shiny and resemble drops of mercury: A. Brucella B. Moraxella C. Bordatella D. Francisella

C. Bordatella

Diagnosis of botulism: A. Elek test B. Culture C. Demonstration of toxin D. Gram staining

C. Demonstration of toxin

What toxin is produced by Clostridium tetani? A. Enterotoxin B. Tetanospasmin C. Exotoxin A D. Clostridium toxin

B. Tetanospasmin

Causative agent of a gastrointestinal disease that causes bowel necrosis and inflammation in low-birth-weight infants: A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium perfringes C. Clostridium botulinum D. Clostridium difficile

B. Clostridium perfringes

Causative agent of donovanosis: A. Klebsiella granulomatis B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Treponema pallidum D. Yersinia pestis

A. Klebsiella granulomatis

This organism has a predilection to the gallbladder: A. Salmonella typhi B. Salmonella choleraesuis C. Salmonella enteritidis D. Salmonella typhimurium

A. Salmonella typhi

This organism multiplies in the Peyer's patches: A. Salmonella typhi B. Salmonella choleraesuis C. Salmonella enteritidis D. Salmonella typhimurium

A. Salmonella typhi

What organism is associated with complicated UTI? A. Proteus mirabilis B. Proteus vulgaris C. Escherichia coli D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A. Proteus mirabilis

This pigment is the key to identification of Serratia marcesens: A. Prodigiosin B. Staphyloxanthin C. Pyocyanin D. Violacein

A. Prodigiosin

AL, 25 years old, male, came in due to complaints of abdominal cramps and fever for the past 4 days. He said that he developed watery stools that eventually became bloody stools since yesterday. What is the most likely organism that will be isolated? A. Shigella dysenteriae B. Escherichia coli C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D.Salmonella typhi

A. Shigella dysenteriae

This serotype is associated with cholera pandemics: A.Vibrio cholerae 01 B. Vibrio cholerae 0139 C. Vibrio cholerae 01 biotype El Tor D. Vibrio cholerae 01/0139

C. Vibrio cholerae 01 biotype El Tor

What is being released during cell lysis in your string test? A. DNA B. RNA C. Capsule D. Lipopolysaccharide

A. DNA

This is the causative agent of Hansen disease: A. Mycobacterium africanum B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Mycobacterium microti D. Mycobacterium bovis

B. Mycobacterium leprae

Specimen/s stored at refrigerator temperature if there is delay: 1. Urine 2. Viral specimens 3. Sputum 4. Serum for serology A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

C. 1,2, AND 3

Specimen requisition: 1. Patient's name 2. Date of collection 3. Source 4. Doctor A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

D. 4 ONLY

Rejection of unacceptable specimens: 1. Improperly stored specimen 2. Transport time less than 2 hours Improperly labelled specimen 4. Fixation with formalin A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

A. 1 AND 3

Common direct fungal stain/s: КОН 2. Gram stain 3. Calcofluor white 4. Auramine rhodamine A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

A. 1 AND 3

Present in gram positive bacteria: 1.Outer membrane 2.Inner membrane 3. Periplasmic space 4.Techoic acids A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

B. 2 AND 4

DNA virus/es with linear DNA: 1. Parvovirus 2. Hepadnavirus 3.HPV 4. Papillomavirus A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

A. 1 AND 3

Can establish latency: 1. EBV 2. HSV-1 3. VZV 4. HSV-6 A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

D. 4 ONLY

RNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm: A 1. Influenza virus 2. Reovirus 3. Retrovirus 4. RotaVirus A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

A. 1 AND 3

Staining methods for Pneumocystis jirovecii: 1. Lactophenol cotton blue 2. Giemsa 3. Hand E 4. Calcofluor white A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

B. 2 AND 4

Toxin/s of Staphylococcal food poisoning: 1.Enterotoxin D 2. Enterotoxin C 3. Enteroxin A 4. Enterotoxin B A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

A. 1 AND 3

Complication/s of Streptococcal infection: 1. Strep throat 2. Glomerulonephritis 3. Impetigo 4. Rheumatic fever A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

B. 2 AND 4

Causes bacterial meningitis: 1.Neisseria meningitis 2.Streptococcus pneumoniae 3. Hemophilus influenzae 4. Klebsiella pneumonia A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

C. 1,2, AND 3

Factor/s that limit sterilization, disinfection, or decontamination: 1. Exposure time 2. Organic load 3. Presence of biofilm 4. Presence of cell wall A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

C. 1,2, AND 3

Approach to identification of Clostridium tetani: 1. Rods with terminal spores 2. Gram-negative, spore-forming bacilli Swarming colonies 4. Gram-positive, nonspore-forming bacilli A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

A. 1 AND 3

This/These finding/s is/are seen in tertiary syphilis: 1. Neurosyphilis 2. Rashes on the palms and soles of the feet 3. Gummas 4.Saber shin A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

A. 1 AND 3

This/These agar media is/are found to work best for recovery of Bordatella pertussis: D 1. Stainer-Scholte 2. Bordet-Gengou 3. Modified Jones-Kendrick charcoal 4. Regan-Lowe A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

D. 4 ONLY

Risk factors associated with coagulase-negative Staphylococci: 1.Prosthetic device implants 2.Catheterization 3.Immunosuppressive therapy 4.Needle stick injury A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

C. 1,2, AND 3

This virulence factor is not present in any other Streptococci Lancefield groups: 1. Streptolysin O 2. Streptolysin S 3. Hyaluronidase 4. M protein A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

D. 4 ONLY

Approach to identification of Listeria monocytogenes: 1.Tumbling motility on nutrient broth 2.Umbrella pattern on semisolid media at room temperature 3.Cold enrichment 4.CAMP negative A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

C. 1,2, AND 3

Factor/s needed for growth of Haemophilus spp. on culture media: 1.Hemin 2.X factor 3.NAD 4.Blood A. 1 AND 3 B. 2 AND 4 C. 1,2, AND 3 D. 4 ONLY E. AOTC

C. 1,2, AND 3

Set 1 Flashcards

(82 cards)