Set 200 Decks Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
What must your erosion control
plan adhere to?
A
2003 EPA Construction General
Permit (or local standards,
whichever is more stringent)
2
Q
What is a Phase I
Environmental Site
Assessment?
A
A report prepared for a real estate holding that identifies potential or existing environmental contamination liabilities
3
Q
How is a Phase II
Environmental Site
Assessment more in depth?
A
A further investigation that collects original samples of soil, groundwater, or building materials to analyze for quantitative
4
Q
What are the types of
sensitive sites to avoid
building on?
A
-Prime farmland
-Flood plain
-Endangered species habitat
-Land within 50’ (15 meters) of
wetlands
-Land within 100’ (30 meters) of a
water body
5
Q
Who defines Prime
Farmland?
A
The U.S. Department of
Agriculture
6
Q
What is the building
requirement for projects in
places without legally
adopted flood hazard map?
A
Cannot build on a floodplain
subject to a 1% or greater
chance of flooding in any
given year
7
Q
Define Development Footprint
A
The total land area of a project site covered by buildings, streets, parking areas, and other typically impermeable surfaces constructed as part of the project
8
Q
What are the requirements for
surrounding density?
A
Locate on a site whose surrounding existing density within 1/4 mile (400-meter) radius of the project boundary meets either the 'separate residential and nonresidential densities' or 'combined density' values.
9
Q
What are the minimum
surrounding density
requirements?
A
0.5 Non residential density (FAR) and 7 Residential density (DU/acre) -OR-22,000 SF / acre of buildable land combined density
10
Q
What are the requirements for
diverse uses?
A
0.5 Non residential density (FAR) and 7 Residential density (DU/acre) -OR-22,000 SF / acre of buildable land combined density
11
Q
What are the five use
categories for diverse uses?
A
-Food retail
-Community-serving retail
-Services
-Civic and community
facilities
-Community anchor uses
(BD&C and ID&C only)
12
Q
What are the distances for
Access to Quality Transit?
A
1/4 mile (400-meter) walking distance of existing or planned bus, streetcar, or rideshare stops, or within a 1/2-mile (800-meter) walking distance of existing or planned bus rapid transit stops, light or heavy rail stations, commuter rail stations or ferry terminals.
13
Q
Where is Access to Quality
Transit measured from?
A
A functional entry - a building opening designed to be used by pedestrians and open during regular business hours. It does not include any door exclusively designated as an emergency exit, or a garage door not designed as a pedestrian entrance.
14
Q
How many bike racks are
required for a commercial
building?
A
Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 5% of all regular building occupants (no fewer than 4 spaces per building).
15
Q
How many bike racks are
required for residential
project?
A
At least one for the first 100
FTE and one additional for
every 150 regular building
occupants thereafter.
16
Q
How many shower and
changing facilities are
required for a commercial
project?
A
Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 30% of all regular building occupants.
17
Q
How do you calculate an FTE?
A
An 8-hour occupant has an FTE value of 1.0; a part-time occupant has a FTE value based on work hours per day divided by 8
18
Q
How many preferred
parking spaces are required
for Green Vehicles?
A
Provide preferred parking
for green vehicles for 5% of
the total vehicle parking
capacity of the site.
19
Q
How many EVSE stations must
be installed for Green Vehicles?
A
2% of all parking spaces
(preferred parking spaces may
not be counted).
20
Q
How is preferred parking
defined?
A
The parking spots closest to the main entrance of a building (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons). For employee parking, it refers to the spots that are closest to the entrance used by employees
21
Q
For previously developed or
graded sites, how much
habitat needs to be
restored?
A
30% (including the building
footprint) of all portions of
the site
22
Q
What is an example of a
monoculture planting, which
would not help with
restoring/protecting habitat?
A
Turf grass
23
Q
What areas can be excluded
from the vegetation and soil
requirements to
restore/protect habitat?
A
Vegetated landscape areas
that are constructed to
accommodate rainwater
infiltration.
24
Q
For school projects what
areas can be excluded from
soil restoration criteria to
restore/protect habitat?
A
Athletic fields
25
What amount of financial
support can be provided to
restore/protect habitat?
$0.40 / SF ($4 / m2)
26
What are the distance
limitations when providing
financial support to
protect/restore habitat?
Financial support must be provided to a
nationally or locally recognized land trust
or conservation organization within the same EPA Level III ecoregion or the project’s state (or within 100 miles of the project [160 kilometers] for projects outside the U.S.). For U.S. projects, the land trust must be accredited by the Land Trust Alliance.
27
What should be included in
a sustainable landscape
plan?
```
List of all plant species, noting
whether or not they are
native/adapted; info about
invasive species and pests
those plants may harbor; best
maintenance practices for the
chosen plants, and site maps
showing boudaries for the
protected habitat areas
```
28
What are the IESNA lighting
| zones?
```
LZ0 - Wilderness; LZ1 - Dark
(parks, rural areas); LZ2 - Low
(residential, light industrial);
LZ3 - Medium (commercial,
industrial, high density
residential); LZ4 - High (metro
areas)
```
29
When an organization/agency
is providing space for shared
use to students, what should
be included?
Auditorium, Gym, Cafeteria,
One or more classrooms,
Swimming Pool, or Playing
Field
30
What slope is important for
| heat island effect - roof?
2:12 slope; > means steeped
slope and requires an initial
SRI of 39 or greater; 2:12
31
What causes skyglow?
```
Stray light from unshielded light
sources and light reflecting off
surfaces that then enter the
atmosphere and illuminate and
reflect off dust, debris, and
water vapor.
```
32
For Schools to achieve Site
Master Plan, how many other
credits must be met?
```
At least 4 of 6 of these credits:
-LT Credit High Priority Site
-SS Credit Site Development - Protect or
Restore Habitat
-SS Credit Open Space
-SS Credit Rainwater Management
-SS Credit Heat Island Reduction
-SS Credit Light Pollution Reduction
```
33
What is the default gender
ratio for indoor water use
reduction calculations?
1 to 1; i.e. 50/50 male to
| female
34
What fixtures and fittings
must be included in the
indoor water use reduction
calculations?
Water closets, urinals,
lavatory faucets, showers,
kitchen sink faucets, and prerinse spray valves
35
What is the discount parking
| rate for Green Vehicles?
20% discount
36
When can wetlands count
| as open space?
```
Wetlands or naturally
designed ponds may count
as open space and the side
slope gradients average 1:4
(vertical: horizontal) or less
and are vegetated.
```
37
What are the benefits of
| commissioning?
```
Reduced Energy Use, Lower
Operating Costs, Reduced
Contractor Callbacks, Better
Building Documentation,
Improved Occupant
Productivity, and Verification
that Systems perform with
Owner' Project Requirements
```
38
What documents get created
during fundamental
commissioning and
verification?
Cx report
Current facility requirements
Operations and maintenance
plan
39
What energy-related
systems must be
commissioned?
```
-Mechanical, including HVAC&R
equipment and controls
-Electrical lighting and
daylighting controls
-Plumbing, including domestic
hot water systems
-Renewable energy systems
```
40
What do the Owner's Project
Requirements typically
include?
```
Owner and User
Requirements, Environmental
and Sustainability Goals,
Energy Efficiency Goals,
Indoor Environmental Quality
Requirements, Equipment and
System Expectations,
Building Occupant and O&M
Personnel Requirements.
```
41
What should the Basis of
| Design include?
Primary Design
Assumptions, Standards, &
Narrative Descriptions
42
Process Energy is
considered to include, but is
not limited to what?
```
Miscellaneous Equipment,
Computers, Elevators,
Escalators, Kitchen Cooking
& Refrigeration Equipment,
Laundry Washing & Drying,
Lighting Exempt from Power
Allowance (e.g., Medical
Equipment), and other (e.g.,
Waterfall or Fountain Pumps)
```
43
```
Regulated or (non-process)
Energy includes?
```
```
Lighting (interior, parking
garage, surface parking, façade,
or building grounds) HVAC,
service water heating for
domestic or space heating
purposes.
```
44
What generates both electrical
power and thermal energy from
a single fuel source?
Combined Heat and Power
| (CHP) or Cogeneration
45
```
What device is used to
regulate humidity and
temperature, making
building systems more
energy efficient?
```
An economizer
46
What refrigerant management
procedure governs reducing
annual leakage of CFC-based
refrigerants to 5% or less?
EPA Clean Air Act, Title VI,
| Rule 608
47
```
What are the three (3)
compliance path options
described in Optimize Energy
Performance (EA
Prerequisite 2)?
```
```
Option 1. Whole Building
Energy Simulation, Option
2. Prescriptive Compliance
Path: ASHRAE 50%
Advanced Energy Design
Guide Option 3. Prescriptive
Compliance Path: Advanced
Buildings Core Performance
Guide
```
48
What are the six (6)
components of ASHRAE
90.1?
Building envelope, HVAC,
Service Water Heating,
Power, Lighting, Other
Equipment
49
What four fundamental
strategies can increase energy
performance?
Orientation, Site Energy
Sources, Efficient Envelope,
Energy Recovery Systems
50
What are the thresholds for
renewable energy production
credit?
LEED BD+C (except Core and
Shell): 1%, 5%, 10%
LEED BD+C: Core and Shell:
1%, 3%, 5%
51
What are the eligible types
of systems for Renewable
Energy Production?
Photovoltaic systems, Wind
energy systems, Solar
thermal systems, Biofuelbased electrical systems,
Geothermal heating or
electric systems, Lowimpact hydroelectric power
systems, Wave & tidal
power systems
52
What biofuel systems are NOT
eligible for Renewable Energy
Production?
```
Combustion of municipal
solid waste, Forestry biomass
waste other than mill residue,
Coated Wood, or Treated
Wood.
```
53
What are the two (2) Options
for Enhanced Refrigerant
Management?
Option 1. No refrigerants or
Low-Impact Refrigerants
Option 2. Calculation of
Refrigeration Impact
54
What types of equipment
are NOT subject to the
Fundamental Refrigerant
Management requirements?
```
Small HVAC units (less than
0.5 lbs [225 grams] of
refrigerant), standard
refrigerators, small water
coolers.
```
55
What is the duration and % a
project must engage in to earn
points under Green Power and
Carbon Offsets?
```
5-year contract AND 50%
provision of the project's
energy from green power,
carbon offsets, or renewable
energy certificates
```
56
What are the two (2) Options
to determine electricity use
for Green Power and Carbon
Offsets?
```
Option 1. Use the calculated
energy consumption results
from EA Prerequisite Minimum
Energy Performance or Option
2. Estimate electricity use using
CBECS database
```
57
RECs can be used to
mitigate what type(s) of
emissions for Green Power
and Carbon Offsets?
Scope 2, electricity use
58
Carbon offsets can be used to
mitigate what type(s) of
emissions for Green Power
and Carbon Offsets?
Scope 1 or Scope 2
| emissions.
59
What are the three (3) basic
methods for ventilating
buildings?
```
Mechanical Ventilation (active
ventilation), Natural Ventilation
(passive ventilation), MixedMode Ventilation (both
mechanical & natural
ventilation)
```
60
```
What is the distance ALL
naturally ventilated spaces
must be in proximity to an
operable wall or roof
opening to the outdoors?
```
25' feet
61
What is the typical permitted
distance for Environmental
Tobacco Smoke (ETS) Control
(IEQ Prerequisite 2)?
25' feet
62
```
What is the maximum background
noise level allowed for HVAC
equipment in classrooms required
for Minimum Acoustical
Performance (IEQ Prerequisite 3)?
```
45 dBA
63
What acoustic issues need
to considered for Acoustic
Performance?
```
HVAC background noise
Sound transmission
Reverberation time
Sound reinforcement and
masking systems
```
64
```
At what % must an outdoor air
delivery monitoring system
generate an alarm for
insufficient airflow values or
carbon dioxide?
```
10% variation from design
| values
65
```
What is considered a densely
occupied space when
monitoring CO2
concentrations for
mechanically ventilated
spaces?
```
25 people or more per 1,000
| square feet
66
```
For increased ventilation
what % must mechanically
ventilated spaces increase
outdoor air ventilation rates
required by ASHRAE 62.1?
```
30% above rates required by
| ASHRAE 62.1
67
What filtration media is required
| for Enhanced IAQ strategies?
MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard
| EN 779-2002)
68
How does a project confirm
natural ventilation is an
effective strategy?
Follow the CIBSE flow diagram.
69
What is required for
Construction IAQ
Management Plan?
```
Meet or exceed SMACNA
guidelines
Protect absorptive materials
stored on-site
Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on
operating air-handlers
Prohibit smoking in the
building and within 25' (7.5
meters) of entrances
```
70
What are the five (5) areas
SMACNA standards for
recommended IAQ Control
Measures?
```
HVAC protection
Source control
Pathway interruption
Housekeeping
Scheduling
```
71
What are the two (2) Options
for Indoor Air Quality
Assessment?
Option 1. Flush-out, Option
| 2. Air testing
72
What are the two (2)
building flush-out paths a
project can consider for IAQ
Assessment?
```
14,000 Cubic Feet of
Outdoor Air per SF of Floor
Area @ 60°F & 60% relative
humidity OR 3,500 Cubic
Feet of Outdoor Air per SF
of Floor Area @ Minimum
Rate of .30 (cfm) until
reaching 14,000 Cubic Feet
per SF
```
73
At what height must air samples
be collected at for IAQ
Assessment?
3 to 6 feet (900 to 1,800 mm)
above floor to represent the
breathing zone
74
What are the general emissions
evaluation standards
associated with low-emitting
adhesives and sealants?
```
California Department of Public
Health (CDPH) Standard Method
v1.1-2010 and German AgBB
Testing and Evaluation Scheme
(2010)
```
75
```
How long must permanent
entryway systems be in the
primary direction of travel
for Enhanced IAQ
Strategies?
```
10' (3 meters) in the primary
direction of travel at
regularly used exterior
entrances.
76
```
What MERV rating must
mechanically ventilated
buildings design HVAC
systems to filter supply air
prior to occupancy?
```
MERV 13 (F7) or higher
77
What types of rooms would
require negative air pressure,
self-closing doors, and deckto-deck partitions or hard-lid
ceilings for interior crosscontamination prevention?
Garages
Houskeeping and laundry
areas
Copying and printing rooms
78
What % of the building
occupants must have
individual lighting controls
for Interior Lighting?
At least 90% of individual
occupant spaces and 100% of
shared multi-occupant spaces
79
How many modes must lighting
| systems be able to operate in?
3: On, off, and mid-level
80
What % of the building
occupants must have individual
comfort controls for Thermal
Comfort?
At least 50% of individual
occupant spaces and 100% for
all shared multi-occupant
spaces
81
What are the six (6) primary
comfort factors associated
with ASHRAE 55?
```
Option 1. ASHRAE Standard
55-10
OR
Option 2. IOS and CEN
Standards
```
82
What are the six (6) primary
comfort factors associated
with ASHRAE 55?
Metabolic Rate, Clothing
Insulation, Air Temperature,
Radiant Temperature, Air
Speed, Humidity
83
What are the three (3) options
to achieve IEQ Credit
Daylight?
```
Option 1. Simulation: Spatial
daylight autonomy and annual
sunlight exposure
Option 2. Simulation: I
luminance calculations
Option 3. Measurement
```
84
```
What % of regularly
occupied floor area must
achieve daylight
illumination for IEQ Credit
Daylight?
```
75% = 1 Point
85
What are the four kinds of
| views?
-Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in
different directions at least 90 degrees apart
-Views that include at least two of the following:
(1) flora, fauna, or sky; (2) movement; and (3)
objects at least 25 feet (7.5 meters) from the
exterior of the glazing
-Unobstructed views located within the distance
of three times the head height of the vision
glazing
-Views with a view factor of 3 or greater
86
```
What % of regularly occupied
floor area must have direct line
of sight to the outdoors via
vision glazing for IEQ Credit
Views?
```
75% = 1 Point
87
Views into the interior atria
may be used to meet what
percent of the required area
for Quality Views?
30%
88
What dBA must background
noise from HVAC equipment
be reduced to for Minimum
Acoustic Performance?
40dBA
89
What dBA must background
noise from HVAC equipment
be reduced to for Minimum
Acoustic Performance?
2 pts
90
```
What is the maximum
number of points a project
can earn for IN Credit
Innovation for the
innovation option?
```
2 pts
91
What is the maximum number
of points a project can earn for
Pilot Credits?
4 Points
92
What is required for LEED
Accredited Professional
credit?
One LEED AP with a specialty
| appropriate for the project
93
What is the maximum number
of points a project can earn
for Regional Priority credits?
4 Points
94
At a minimum, projects must
provide dedicated area for
collection and storage of what
five (5) materials?
Paper, Corrugated
Cardboard, Glass, Plastics,
and Metals
95
```
What do calculations need
to be done by for
Construction and
Demolition Waste
Management?
```
Weight or Volume
96
```
What are the minimum %
thresholds for debris to be
recycled or salvaged for
Construction and
Demolition Waste
Management?
```
50% = 1 Point; 75% = 2
| Points
97
What is required for a project
team to establish for
Construction and Demolition
Waste Management Planning?
Waste diversion goals
98
Who is NOT required to
have a Chain of Custody
documentation for FSCcertified wood?
End User
99
What international
alternative compliance path
is available for material
ingredient optimization?
REACH Optimization
100
For Innovation credit when
pursuing Option 1 Innovation
what must the team identify?
```
Intent of proposed
innovation credit, proposed
requirement(s) for
compliance, proposed
submittals, and strategies
used to meet requirement(s)
```
101
What is a BAS?
Building Automation System (BAS), it uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize, and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.
102
What is WaterSense?
WaterSense is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.
103
At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed at for breathing zone requirements?
Between 3 and 6 feet above the floor.
104
When can certification be revoked?
Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance with any applicable MPR. If such a circumstance occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.
105
What is Technical Release (TR) 55?
An approach to hydrology in which watersheds are modeled to calculate storm runoff volume, peak rate of discharge, hydrographs, and storage volumes, developed by the former USDA Soil Conservation Service
106
What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
```
Site conditions
Massing and orientation
Basic envelope attributes
Lighting levels
Thermal comfort ranges
Plug and process load needs
```
107
What water-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
Interior water demand
Outdoor water demand
Process water demand
Supply sources
108
How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building aspect for Integrative Design?
At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the six aspects.
109
What tool is used to benchmark building performance for Integrative Design?
EPA's Target Finder
110
What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?
- LEED ND Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED ND Pilot, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Project
- LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
- LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Neighborhood Development
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
- LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
111
What percent of a building must be maintained for historic building reuse?
There is no minimum requirement. The historic designation must be maintained however.
112
When renovating an abandoned or blighted building what percent of the building must be maintained?
At least 50% by surface area of the existing structure, enclosure, and interior structural elements.
113
What is the minimum percent reuse required for building and material reuse?
At least 25% from off site or on site as a percentage of the surface area.
114
What are the six impact categories of a life-cycle assessment?
- Global warming potential (greenhouse gases)
- Depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer
- Acidification of land and water sources
- Eutrophication
- Formation of tropospheric ozone
- Depletion of nonrenewable energy resources
115
When conducting a whole-building life-cycle assessment what are the min/max reductions of the impact categories?
A minimum of 10% in at least 3 impact categories (of which one must be GHG emissions) and do not exceed any impact category by more than 5% compared to a baseline building.
116
For a whole-building life-cycle assessment what is the service life of the baseline building?
60 years
117
What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?
Products and materials that are extracted, manufactured, and purchased within 100 miles (160 km) of the project value are valued at 200% of their cost.
118
What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?
At least 20 different permanently installed products sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers
119
What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?
Use products that comply with the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products.
120
What are the three types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?
Product-specific declaration: 1/4 of a product
Industry-wide (generic) EPD: 1/2 of a product
Product-specific Type III EPD: 1 product
121
How many qualifying products must be sourced for exemplary peformance for product disclosure?
At least 40 qualifying products
122
A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?
Each of the three types of EPDs require at least a cradle-to-gate scope.
123
Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what percent of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?
30%
124
All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?
ISO standards 14025, 14040, 14044, and EN 15804 or ISO 21930
125
What are the acceptable corporate sustainability reporting (CSR) frameworks?
- Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Sustainability Report
- Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
- U.N. Global Compact: Communication of Progress
- ISO 26000: 2010 Guidance on Social Responsibility
126
What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?
- Extended producer responsibility
- Bio-based materials
- Wood products
- Materials reuse
- Recycled content
127
What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?
GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark
Cradle to Cradle Certified
REACH Optimization (International Alternative Compliance Path)
128
What Cradle-to-Cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Gold: 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v2 Platinum: 150% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Silver: 100% of cost
- Cradle to Cradle v3 Gold or Platinum: 150% of cost
129
What information must be inventoried for a site assessment?
- Topography
- Hydrology
- Climate
- Vegetation
- Soils
- Human use
- Human health effects
130
What should be used to estimate the water storage capacity of a site during a site assessment?
Urban Hydrology for Small Watersheds Technical Release 55 (TR-55) or local equivalent for projects outside the U.S.
131
What is a three-year aged SR (or SRI)?
A solar reflectance or solar reflectance index rating that is measured after three years of weather exposure
132
What should be used to designate a site as prime farmland and identify its soil classification?
Natural Resources Conservation Service (or local equivalent)
133
What reduction is required for demand response?
At least 10% of the estimated peak electricity demand
134
What types of demand response programs are acceptable?
Semi-automated and automated (not manual)
135
What is load shedding?
An intentional action by a utility to reduce the load on the system. Load shedding is usually conducted during emergency periods, such as capacity shortages, system instability, or voltage control.
136
What is the contract period for demand response?
A minimum of one year with the intention of multiyear renewal
137
What are the three options for high priority sites?
Option 1. Historic district
Option 2. Priority designation
Option 3. Brownfield remediation
138
What type of location must a historic district project be located in for High-Priority Site?
On an infill location
139
What are the priority designations for High-Priority Site?
- Site listed by the EPA National Priorities List
- Federal Empowerment Zone site
- Federal Enterprise Community site
- Federal Renewal Community site
- Department of the Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund Qualified Low-Income Community
- Site in a U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Qualified Census Tract or Difficult Development Area
- Local equivalent program administered at the national level for projects outside the U.S.
140
What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail, or ferry)?
72 weekday, 40 weekend
141
What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with commuter rail or ferry service only?
24 weekday, 6 weekend
142
When can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit?
When they are sited, funded, and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete within 24 months of that date.
143
What must a bicycle network connect to?
At least one of the following:
- at least 10 diverse uses
- a school or employment center, if the project total floor area is 50% or more residential
- a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal
144
How close does a functional entry or bicycle storage need to be to a bicycle network?
Within 200-yards (180-meters) walking or bicycling distance
145
What is the maximum distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, school/employment center, quality transit) must be?
Within a 3-mile (4,800 meter) bicycling distance of the project boundary.
146
Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?
Within 100 feet (30 meters) walking distance of any main entrance.
147
Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?
Within 100 feet (30 meters) walkin distance of any functional entry.
148
What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
1. Do not exceed the minimum local code requirements
| 2. A percent reduction from a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)
149
When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
When a project earns EITHER LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses or LT Credit Access to Quality Transit
150
How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
5% of the total parking spaces AFTER reductions are made from the base ratios.
151
What percent of Open Space must be vegetated?
25% minimum
152
How much outdoor space must be provided for Open Space?
30% of the total site area (including the building footprint) or greater.
153
What must outdoor space be to qualify for Open Space?
Physically accessible
154
What types of outdoor spaces qualify for Open Space?
- paving or turf that accommodates outdoor social activities
- paving or turf that encourages physical activity
- year-round garden space
- community gardens
- preserved or created habitat
155
When can a vegetated roof count towards vegetation for Open Space?
When a project has a density of 1.5 FAR
156
How much rainfall must be managed for a project with a zero-lot-line with a minimum density of 1.5 FAR?
85th Percentile
157
What are some ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?
LID and green infrastructure
158
For a project with open space what minimum rainfall must be managed?
95th Percentile
159
When managing rainwater using natural land cover condtions what must be done?
Manage on site the annual increase in runoff volume from the natural land cover condition to the postdeveloped condition.
160
When managing a percentile of rainfall events what minimum amount of historical rainfall data is required?
10 years worth
161
What percent of runoff must be managed for the 95th percentile rainfall event?
100%
162
What minimum percent of parking spaces must be placed under cover for Heat Island Reduction Option 2. Parking Under Cover?
75%
163
Shade and architectural devices used for Heat Island Reduction must have at least what three-year aged solar reflectance?
0.28. If the three-year aged value information is not available use materials with an initial SR of at least 0.33
164
How is the total vehicle parking spaces calculated for Heat Island Reduction?
The number of parking spaces in the LEED project boundary (includes motorcycle parking). Do not count bicycle parking spaces.
165
Any roof used to shade covered parking for Heat Island Reduction must meet what requirements?
1. Three year aged SRI of at least 32
- 2. Or a vegetated roof
- 3. Or covered by energy generation systems
166
What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?
Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 (nits) during nighttime hours and 2000 cd/m2 (nits) during daytime hours.
167
What exterior lighting is exempted from uplight and light tresspass requirements?
Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 (nits) during nighttime hours and 2000 cd/m2 (nits) during daytime hours.
168
How many conditions are there where the lighting boundarycan be different than the property boundary?
There are 3 conditions. The exceptions are not listed here due to their length (see the reference guide).
169
When using the calculation method for light pollution reduction how far apart can the calculation points be?
No more than 5 feet (1.5 meters) apart.
170
If the BUG rating method is used to meet the Uplight requirements does the method have to be used to mee the Light Tresspass requirements?
No. Project teams can use the BUG method or calculation method for Uplight, and use the same or different method for Light Tresspass.
171
What is a BUG rating?
A luminaire classification system that classifies luminaires in terms of backlight (B), uplight (U), and glare (G) (taken from IES/IDA Model Lighting Ordinance). BUG ratings supersede the former cutoff ratings.
172
What optional systems can be submetered for Water Metering?
Two or more of the following:
- Irrigation
- Indoor plumbing fixtures and fittings
- Domestic hot water
- Boilers
- Reclaimed water
- Other process water
173
What percent of water distribution must be submetered for irrigation, indoor plumbing fixtures, domestic hot water, or other process water?
80% must be submetered
174
What frequency must metered data be compiled for Building-Level-Water Metering?
Monthly and annual summaries
175
How long must a project commit to sharing metering data with USGBC and when must the sharing begin?
A five-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first
176
What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?
Using EPA's WaterSense Water Budget Tool
177
What minimum percent reduction of outdoor water use is required from a calculated baseline?
30% reduction from the calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month
178
How can reductions be achieved for WE Prerequisite Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
1. Plant species selection
AND
2. Irrigation efficiency
Alternative water sources CANNOT be used for the prerequisite
179
What areas are excluded from outdoor water use reduction calculations?
Nonvegetated surfaces (permeable and impermeable pavement) are excluded. Athletic fields, food gardens, and playgrounds can be included or excluded at the project teams' discretion.
180
What percent reduction is required for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
50% from the calculated baseline for the site's peak watering month.
181
How can reductions be achieved beyond 30% be achieved for outdoor water use reduction?
Any combination of efficiency, alternative water sources, and smart scheduling technologies
182
What reduction is automatically earned when installing smart irrigation controls for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
15% from the baseline
183
What indoor water use reduction percent earns exemplary performance?
55%
184
What must be conducted for Cooling Tower Water Use?
A one-time potable water analysis measuring at least the required five control parameters
185
What minimum number of cooling tower cycles would earn a project 2 points?
A 10-cycle minimum.
186
Any individual energy end use that represents ____ percent of the total annual consumption of the building must have an advanced energy meter?
10%
187
How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?
36 months
188
What energy sources must be metered in a building?
- Electricity
- Natural gas, fuel oil, other fossil fuels
- Biofuels
- District chilled water, steam, and hot water
189
How often must advanced meters be able to report data?
Hourly, daily, monthly, and annually
190
What three components are part of monitoring-based commissioning (MBCx)?
Permanent energy monitoring systems, real-time energy analysis, and ongoing commissioning
191
Does building envelope commissioning have to be completed for Fundamental Commissioning?
No. It must be documented in the OPR and BOD. It is not required unless the project team pursues EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning, Option 2.
192
What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Management?
Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least three material streams
193
When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Management what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?
2.5 lbs / SF (12.2 kg / m2) of waste for the building's floor area
194
What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?
Alternative daily cover (ACD) and land-clearing debris.
195
What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?
Choose two of these three: Batteries, mercury-containing lamps, or electronic waste
196
What two simulations are required for Daylighting, Option 1 Simulation?
sDA and ASE
197
What is the threshold for an sDA simulation?
300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year
198
What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?
1,000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year
199
When do the daylight simulations for Option 2 Simulation: Illuminance calculations occur?
9 AM on the first equinox (March 21 or September 21) and 3 PM on the second equinox
200
At what height should daylight measurements be taken?
30 inches (750 mm) above the finished floor for the default workplane height
