SET 6: PHARMACOLOGY & ANESTHESIOLOGY Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

The principal route of drug excretion is via the:

a. Saliva
b. Sweat
c. Urine
d. Feces

A

C. Urine

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2
Q

When two drugs having similar effects are administered in combination, and the resulting response is the sum of the individual actions of each drug when given alone, then this result is referred to as:

a. An additive effect
b. A synergistic response
c. An antagonistic effect
d. Cumulative action

A

A. An additive effect

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3
Q

Part of the prescription which shows how to take the medicine:

a. Superscription
b. Subscription
c. Inscription
d. Transcription

A

d. Transcription

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4
Q

Tranexamic acid is an:

a. Antihistamine
b. Analgesic
c. Antifungal
d. Antihemorrhagic

A

d. Antihemorrhagic

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5
Q

The local anesthetics that we used in dentistry are most effective when the tissues are _______

a. Acidic
b. Neutral in pH
c. Alkaline
d. Inflamed

A

c. Alkaline

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6
Q

Acetylcholine can cause any of the following effects, except:

a. Salivation
b. Muscular contraction
c. Bronchiolar smooth muscle contraction
d. Mydriasis

A

d. Mydriasis

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7
Q

Naloxone is a drug given in the case of an opioid overdose. The mechanism of action of this particular drug is to displace an opioid drug from its U-opioid receptor, thereby decreasing its effects on the CNS. This drug is an example of a/an:

a. Partial agonist
b. Non- competitive antagonist
c. Competitive antagonist
d. Agonist

A

c. Competitive antagonist

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8
Q

Maximum safe dose of 2% lidocaine with or without epinephrine

a. 7 mg/kg
b. 6 mg/kg
c. 3.5 mg/kg
d. 2 mg/kg

A

a. 7 mg/kg

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9
Q

How many mg of epinephrine is in each carpule of 1.8cc of 2 percent lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine?

a. 0.036mg
b. 0.18mg
c. 0.018mg
d. 0.2mg

A

c. 0.018mg

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10
Q

The preganglionic neurons use this type of neurotransmitter:

a. Epinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Dopamine

A

b. Acetylcholine

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11
Q

Strychnine is a highly poisonous drug in humans. Which of the following is not true regarding strychnine?

a. It is a neurotoxin and a stimulant drug causing stimulation of the motor neurons possibly leading to opisthotonos
b. It is a common drug used as a pesticide
c. Most animals are susceptible and dogs are the most frequently poisoned
d. It produces chronic type of toxicity to animals and humans

A

d. It produces chronic type of toxicity to animals and humans

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12
Q

Which of the following groups of drugs is not indicated for patients who have glaucoma?

a. Adrenergic blocking
b. Cholinergic
c. Anticholinergic
d. None of these

A

c. Anticholinergic

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13
Q

The average time for the onset of drug effect after intramuscular administration is approximately:

a. Immediately
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes

A

b. 5 minutes

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14
Q

Gauge 25 needle has which of the following inner diameter

a. 0.25mm
b. 0.20mm
c. 0.15mm

A

a. 0.25mm

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15
Q

The branch of medical science that deals with the biochemical and physiologic effects and mechanism of drugs:

a. Pharmacognosy
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Posology

A

b. Pharmacodynamics

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16
Q

Penicillin is the agent of choice in dental infections because:

a. Most dental infections are caused by gram-positive organisms
b. The allergy potential is low
c. Penicillin is bacteriostatic
d. Most dental infections are caused by gram-negative organisms

A

a. Most dental infections are caused by gram-positive organisms

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17
Q

Paralysis produced can be reversed by an antidote when using _________

a. Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
b. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
c. Both of these
d. None of the above

A

b. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

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18
Q

In therapeutic doses, atropine may have all of the following actions, except:

a. It blocks the effects of acetylcholine
b. It decreases gastrointestinal motility
c. It blocks secretions
d. It blocks autonomic ganglia

A

d. It blocks autonomic ganglia

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19
Q

This is a drug that is used for patients with high lipid profile

a. Atorvastatin
b. Sulfonylureas
c. Metformin
d. Bismuth subsalicylate

A

a. Atorvastatin

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20
Q

Lower premolars are innervated by:

a. Inferior alveolar nerve
b. Mental nerve
c. Mylohyoid nerve
d. Nasopalatine nerve

A

a. Inferior alveolar nerve

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21
Q

COX-2 Inhibitor

a. Valdecoxib
b. Ketoconazole
c. Clorazepate
d. Captopril

A

a. Valdecoxib

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22
Q

It is considered as the safest type of local anesthesia

a. Lidocaine
b. Articaine
c. Procaine
d. Mepivacaine

A

a. Lidocaine

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23
Q

Correct statements about procaine include all of the following, except one. Which is it?

a. It has an ester linkage
b. It is relatively long-acting
c. It interferes with sodium influx during deposition
d. Its metabolic product can inhibit the action of sulfonamide

A

b. It is relatively long-acting

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24
Q

Quinine, an anti-malarial drug, causes all of the following, except one. Which is it?

a. Analgesia
b. Local anesthesia
c. Local destruction of tissue
d. Hypertension

A

d. Hypertension

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25
A Beta-Adrenergic blocking agent: a. Phenoxybenzamine b. Propanolol c. Phentolamine d. Isoprenaline
b. Propanolol
26
The antibiotic that is known to have anti-collagenolytic effect a. Tetracycline b. Macrolides c. Lincosamides d. Penicillin
a. Tetracycline
27
Fried’s rule formula: a. [Weight in lbs x adult dose]/150 b. [Age in month/150] x Adult dose c. [BSA x adult dose]/1.73 d. [Age in years x adult dose]/[Age in years +12]
b. [Age in month/150] x Adult dose
28
Spironolactone is a __________ a. Potassium-sparing diuretic b. Loop diuretic c. Osmotic diuretic d. Thiazide diuretic
a. Potassium-sparing diuretic
29
It is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose a. Toxicity index b. Mortality index c. Therapeutic index d. Morbidity index
c. Therapeutic index
30
The following adverse effects can occur due to systemic absorption of lidocaine, except one. Which is it? a. Convulsions b. Depresses respiration c. Decreased cardiac activity d. Increased gastric motility
d. Increased gastric motility
31
Which of the following would LIKELY appear with atropine overdosage? a. Dryness of mouth and throat b. Pallor of face and neck c. Constricted pupils d. None of the above
a. Dryness of mouth and throat
32
Morphine produces bradycardia by: a. Inhibition of myocardial conduction b. Inhibition of the cardiovascular center c. Peripheral vasodilation d. Stimulation of the vagal center
d. Stimulation of the vagal center
33
Peptic ulcer is effectively controlled: a. With glucocorticoids b. If the vagal supply of the stomach is interrupted c. With salicylates d. With anticholinesterase
b. If the vagal supply of the stomach is interrupted
34
Which of the following BEST represents the reason that nitroglycerin is effective in treating anginal pain? a. causes general vascular dilation b. possesses central analgesic actions c. produces specific coronary vasodilation d. increases the efficiency of the myocardium e. has a negative chronotropic action on the heart
c. produces specific coronary vasodilation
35
Pain that has no organic basis and is fixed upon some portion of the anatomy is referred to as: a. Intractable pain b. Referred pain c. Psychogenic pain d. Phantom pain
d. Phantom pain
36
Generics act of 1988 a. RA 9165 b. RA 6675 c. RA 6657 d. RA 9615
b. RA 6675
37
The main function of diuretics in controlling edema is by excretion of: a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Chloride d. Sodium
d. Sodium
38
Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of an acute allergic reaction? a. Urticaria b. Skin erythema c. Bronchoconstriction d. Itching e. All of the above
e. All of the above
39
Toxic reaction of local anesthesia is least likely to occur in: a. Increased vasoconstrictor b. High anesthetic volume c. Decreased vasoconstrictor d. Rapid administration of anesthesia
a. Increased vasoconstrictor
40
Petit mal epilepsy is best treated with: a. Trimethadione b. Sodium bromide c. Phenobarbitone d. Reserpine
a. Trimethadione
41
The most common cause of a high plasma level of local anesthetics following a dental injection is: a. Inadequate hepatic function b. Inadequate renal function c. Depositing in an excessive concentration d. Intravascular injection
d. Intravascular injection
42
All are laxatives except one. Which is the exception? a. Psyllium b. Lactulose c. Bisacodyl d. Loperamide e. Sorbitol
d. Loperamide
43
The infraorbital nerve branches inside the maxilla into which nerves? a. Lateral nasal, superior labial and inferior palpebral b. Anterior superior and middle superior alveolar c. Interior palpebral and lateral nasal d. Posterior superior and middle superior alveolar
b. Anterior superior and middle superior alveolar
44
It is the prototype of beta-adrenergic blockers a. Metoprolol b. Bisoprolol c. Atenolol d. Propanolol
d. Propanolol
45
Median effective dose: a. Minimum amount of drug to have the desired effect b. Maximum amount of drug given without lethal effects c. Dose required to kill half the members of a tested population d. Dose of drug required to produce a response in 50% of the population
d. Dose of drug required to produce a response in 50% of the population
46
Vitamin H is also known as: a. Nicotinamide b. Biotin c. Pyridoxine d. Pantothenic acid
b. Biotin
47
Antipsychotic drugs are known to interfere with the action of: a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Prostaglandins
b. Dopamine
48
A patient receiving propanolol has an acute asthmatic attack while undergoing dental treatment. The MOST useful agent for management of the condition would be a. Morphine b. Phentolamine c. Aminophylline d. Norepinephrine
c. Aminophylline
49
Sulfonamide specifically inhibit which of the following processes? a. Conversion of folic acid into folinic acid b. Synthesis of folic acid c. Synthesis of DNA d. Conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to dihydrofolic acid
b. Synthesis of folic acid
50
Thick viscous liquid containing large amount of sugar: a. Spirit b. Tincture c. Suspension d. Syrup e. Elixir
d. Syrup
51
Atropine is DESIRABLE for preanesthetic medication because it a. Prevents vomiting b. Obtunds the cough reflex c. Reduces glandular secretion in the airway d. Increases secretions of the gastrointestinal tract e. Decreases the physiologic dead space of the airway
c. Reduces glandular secretion in the airway
52
The antibacterial agent capable of producing severe abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea and fever a. Vancomycin b. Clindamycin c. Gentamicin d. Penicillin
b. Clindamycin
53
When anesthetic solution is deposited in close proximity to small nerve terminal nerve branches, the technique is referred to as: a. Infiltration b. Field block c. Topical d. Nerve block
a. Infiltration
54
The following drugs are useful for treating Tuberculosis, except: a. Rifampicin b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Erythromycin
d. Erythromycin
55
The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 uses which criteria for inclusion of a drug into one of the five schedules? a. Potential for abuse b. Medical usefulness c. Degree to which it produces physiological dependence d. Degree to which it produces physical dependence e. All of the above
e. All of the above
56
Metformin, tolbutamide and chlorpropamide are considered to be in what drug classification? a. Anti-diabetic b. Antifungal c. Antihypertensive d. ACE inhibitors
a. Anti-diabetic
57
Part of prescription which gives the instruction to the pharmacist a. Superscription b. Inscription c. Subscription d. Transcription
c. Subscription
58
Alkalization of tubular urine slows the rate of excretion of a. Water b. Chlorides c. Weak acids d. Weak bases
d. Weak bases
59
Buffering the local anesthesia with _____ can minimize the typical burning sensation during administration of the local anesthesia a. NaCl b. H202 c. H20 d. NaHCO3
d. NaHCO3
60
This is the recommended needle gauge for dental injections presenting a high risk for positive aspiration. a. Gauge 23 b. Gauge 25 c. Gauge 27 d. Gauge 30
b. Gauge 25
61
Nystatin may be used to treat oral infections due to ______ a. Herpesvirus b. Candida albicans c. Treponema pallidum d. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
b. Candida albicans
62
Allergic reactions to local anesthesia maybe due to: a. Slow detoxification b. Antigen-antibody reaction c. Slow elimination d. Rapid absorption
b. Antigen-antibody reaction
63
Which of the following may be useful in infiltration technique of local anesthesia in a patient allergic to both amide and ester derivatives? a. Bupivacaine b. Diphenhydramine c. Nitrous oxide d. Phenylephrine
b. Diphenhydramine
64
Pediatric drug dosage formula that uses weight in lbs a. Clarks b. Bakers c. Youngs d. Ivan
a. Clarks
65
Mandibular blocking technique that is used for patients with limited mouth opening a. True mandibular blocking b. Closed mouth mandibular blocking c. Classic mandibular block d. Gow-gates
b. Closed mouth mandibular blocking
66
Aside from the action of xanthines as a central nervous system stimulant, what other properties does it have? a. Analgesic b. Antihistamine c. Antidiuretic d. Diuretic
d. Diuretic
67
A two-year old boy contracts an infection that requires antibiotic therapy. With this information alone, which drug below wouldn't you use? a. Penicillin b. Erythromycin c. Tetracycline d. Cephalothin
c. Tetracycline
68
The majority of drugs penetrate biomembranes by ______ through membrane phospholipids. a. Active transport b. Facilitated diffusion c. Filtration d. Simple diffusion
d. Simple diffusion
69
Among the following which is usually the first vaccine given to infants: a. BCG vaccine b. Polio vaccine c. DPT vaccine d. TAB vaccine
a. BCG vaccine
70
Patients known to have cardiovascular diseases should be given limited numbers of epinephrine-containing local anesthesia. Which of the following is the maximum dose of local anesthesia for this type of patient? a. 1 cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine b. 1 cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:50,000 epinephrine c. 2 cartridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:50,000 of epinephrine d. 2 cartridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:200,000 of epinephrine
b. 1 cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:50,000 epinephrine
71
Which may act as an indirect-acting adrenergic agent? a. Noradrenaline b. Epinephrine c. Dopamine d. Ephedrine
d. Ephedrine
72
A patient taking digitalis probably has: a. Angina pectoris b. Petit mal seizure c. Congestive heart failure d. Asthma
c. Congestive heart failure
73
This is the only local anesthesia which increases the pressor activity of epinephrine and norepinephrine a. Lidocaine b. Procaine c. Cocaine d. Mepivacaine
c. Cocaine
74
Each of the following methods can be used to control pain, except one. Which is it? a. Cortical depression b. Blocking the sensory pathway c. Psychosomatic method d. Autonomic nervous system depression
d. Autonomic nervous system depression
75
The main function of diuretics in controlling edema is by excretion of: a. Potassium b. Chloride c. Hydrogen d. Sodium
d. Sodium
76
Which is classified as a 2nd generation cephalosporin? a. Cefazolin b. Cefalexin c. Cefotaxime d. Cefuroxime
d. Cefuroxime
77
Which route of drug administration will there be the greatest bioavailability and most rapid onset of pharmacological effect? a. Oral administration b. Subcutaneous injection c. Intravenous injection d. Intramuscular injection
c. Intravenous injection
78
The most potent inhalation anesthetic: a. Halothane b. Enflurane c. Methoxyflurane d. Isoflurane
a. Halothane
79
Which of the following is the initial treatment of syncope in a dental office? a. administer 100% oxygen b. administer aromatic spirits of ammonia c. position the head lower than the feet d. position the patient's head upright and slightly tilt it
c. position the head lower than the feet
80
An action of two drugs greater than the sum of the effects of each used alone: a. Additive b. Potentiation c. Synergistic d. Antagonistic
c. Synergistic
81
pKa is defined as the pH in which a molecule is 50% ionized form and 50% unionized form. If the lidocaine has a pka of 7.8 and it is placed in a solution with a pH of 7.8, >50% will be ionized and <50% will be unionized. a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. The first statement is true, the second is false d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
82
Name of the drug which indicates its composition and biochemical structure: a. Code name b. Trade name c. Chemical name d. Generic name
c. Chemical name
83
The most common side effect of organic nitrites for relief of angina is: a. Postural hypotension b. Headache c. Dizziness d. Rashes
b. Headache
84
A patient with grave’s disease requires extensive periodontal surgery. What is the most likely local anesthetic indicated? a. Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine 1:100,000 b. Lidocaine 2% without vasoconstrictor c. Propoxycaine 2% without vasoconstrictor d. Mepivacaine 3% without vasoconstrictor
d. Mepivacaine 3% without vasoconstrictor
85
The term bioavailability of a drug refers to: a. The movement of a drug into the body tissues over time b. The dissolution of a drug in the GI tract c. The measurement of the rate and amount of therapeutically active drug that reaches the systemic circulation d. The relationship between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and the systemic absorption of the drug e. The amount of drug destroyed by the liver prior to systemic absorption from the GI tract
c. The measurement of the rate and amount of therapeutically active drug that reaches the systemic circulation
86
Penicillinase-resistant penicillin a. Piperacillin b. Amoxicillin c. Methicillin d. Penicillin G
c. Methicillin
87
Beta-adrenergic agonist does not produce which of the following effects? a. Increased peripheral resistance b. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle c. Increased cardiac output d. Glycogenolysis
a. Increased peripheral resistance
88
Route of administration that is used for drugs that are poorly absorbed and unstable in the GI tract: a. Oral b. Insufflation c. Parenteral d. Topical
c. Parenteral
89
Which of the following vitamins is synthesized by intestinal flora? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin K
90
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is administered topically? a. Carbenicillin b. Dicloxacillin c. Polymyxin B d. Penicillin G
c. Polymyxin B
91
Which is not useful as an anti-inflammatory drug? a. Ibuprofen b. Acetaminophen c. Naproxen d. Indomethacin e. Mefenamic acid
b. Acetaminophen
92
Neostigmine can be used to treat myasthenia gravis because: a. It is an irreversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase b. It is a reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase c. It possesses a curare-like action at the neuromuscular junction d. None of the above
b. It is a reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase
93
Local anesthesia that is commonly associated with methemoglobinemia a. Piperocaine b. Procaine c. Prilocaine d. Benzocaine
c. Prilocaine
94
The antibiotic used for tuberculosis that is commonly associated with hepatotoxicity. a. Rifampin b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Ethambutol
b. Isoniazid
95
These are the nerves responsible for transmitting fast sharp pain a. A-Beta fibers b. A-Delta fiber c. C Fibers d. B fibers
b. A-Delta fiber
96
Carrier-mediated mechanism along the concentration gradient: a. Simple diffusion b. Pinocytosis c. Filtration d. Facilitated diffusion
d. Facilitated diffusion
97
A plastic, reusable, dental aspirating syringe is available that is both autoclavable and chemically sterilizable. a. Breech-loading, Metallic, Cartridge-Type, Aspirating b. Breech-loading, Metallic, Plastic-Type, Aspirating c. Breech-loading, Metallic, Cartridge-Type, Self-Aspirating d. Pressure syringe
b. Breech-loading, Metallic, Plastic-Type, Aspirating
98
It is contraindicated to extract a tooth while there is an acute infection. The presence of the acute infection will lead to lesser effectiveness of the local anesthesia. a. The first statement is true, the second is false b. The first statement is false, the second is true c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false
b. The first statement is false, the second is true
99
Constriction of the pupil is produced by: a. Hyoscine b. Atropine c. Physostigmine d. None of the above
c. Physostigmine
100
Which of the following is not an action of aspirin? a. Analgesic b. Obtundent c. Antipyretic d. Anti-inflammatory
b. Obtundent