Set III Flashcards

1
Q

What effect does the lack of self-awareness by a journeyman have on a patient

A

It can limit the journeyman’s ability to be accepting of a patient.

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2
Q

Define empathy.

A

Acknowledging how a patient feels without actually feeling the same way.

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3
Q

When establishing a therapeutic alliance initially, how will the patient view the interviewer?

A

The patient will view the interviewer as the authority figure.

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4
Q

Why is it important for the patient to view the interviewer as an ally instead of a person who is in a position of authority? Give two reasons.

A

If the interviewer remains in a position of authority, the patient will become increasingly dependent upon the interviewer and expect the interviewer to solve the patient’s problems for him or her and the patient may continue to avoid taking responsibility for his or her life. Secondly, this will help the patient to understand that we are working as a team, in unison, and for a common goal. It will also help the patient understand that he or she must take an active role in the process of improving his or her situation or emotional health.

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5
Q

What interviewing skills are considered critical?

A

Being self-aware, capable of conveying acceptance, being observant, and possessing empathy are critical characteristics.

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6
Q

What is verbal following?

A

Responding verbally to what is being said without changing the subject.

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7
Q

What words are considered most effective when using open-ended questions?

A

Who, what, where, when, or how.

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8
Q

What words are often associated with close-ended questions?

A

Is, are, do, or did.

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9
Q

What are the benefits of using reflection in an interview?

hint: 3 things

A

It focuses attention on current feelings, encourages the patient to talk, and provides feedback to the patient on how the interviewer sees the situation affecting the patient emotionally.

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10
Q

What is the benefit of self-disclosure to a patient in an interview?

A

It communicates to the patient that you have a clear understanding of what he or she is going through because, perhaps, you have been through something similar. Self-disclosure also validates your empathy.

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11
Q

How do some patients mask their status as a self-referral?

A

In the fact that his or her spouse or supervisor is highly recommending he or she seeks assistance.

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12
Q

What information can be gained by reviewing the patient’s Outpatient Record?

A

Psychiatric treatment, chronic medical conditions, or injuries that may be related to the patient’s visit. Medications. Recent or current medication usage can contribute to or mask the patient’s presenting complaint.

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13
Q

When should you avoid soliciting information from a self-referred patient’s family?

A

If the patient is self-referred, cooperative, cognizant, and a good historian.

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14
Q

What are some instances when a self-referred patient’s commander or first sergeant can be contacted without the consent of the patient?

A

Suicidal and homicidal ideation, threats or gestures; threats to national security, or inability to perform PRP responsibilities.

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15
Q

What are some examples of patients who report to the clinic as non-voluntary referrals?

A

CDEs, an allegation of family maltreatment and any substance abuse incident will generally initiate a mandatory referral.

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16
Q

Why might family members be uncooperative as a resource of the non-voluntary referral?

A

Despite sometimes being victims of abuse themselves for fear of reprisal by the alleged offender, fear of getting the referred member in trouble, or fear of losing their livelihood if the sponsor is prosecuted or removed from the military.

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17
Q

Many of our relationships are formed or centered on which individuals?

A

Parents, siblings, peers, and coworkers.

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18
Q

What is the benefit of knowing your patient’s educational level?

A

Allows you to better communicate and suggest treatment options for the patient.

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19
Q

In which area of the substance use history would you ask about how often the patient is/was using a substance?

A

Frequency.

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20
Q

What is the benefit of taking what a patient reveals regarding his or her use history and paring it with progression?

A

It will give you an idea of increased tolerance and or a progression to a more powerful substance.

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21
Q

What is the primary purpose of conducting a MSE?

hint: gathering objective data which may be helpful in these 4 things.

A

Gather objective data which may be helpful in determining etiology, diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis.

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22
Q

What subtle behavioral changes in a patient’s response may indicate that you have touched on an area of importance to the patient?

A

Such things as a change in voice pitch, change in eye contact, tears, heavy sighs, overt swallowing or other physical responses, and hesitancy to answer particular questions, may all be indicators that you have touched on an area of importance to the patient.

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23
Q

What does using statements in a matter-of-fact manner accomplish when documenting the MSE?

A

It eliminates embellishment and personal emotions that are often inserted into an observation.

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24
Q

Define the term mood as it pertains to a patient’s emotions.

A

A patient’s internal emotional tone.

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25
Q

Define the term affect as it pertains to a patient’s emotions.

A

The observable external expression of the patient’s internal emotional tone.

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26
Q

What does an inappropriate mood often signify?

A

Often a sign of emotional illness or more serious psychological problem.

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27
Q

What are the primary types of affect?

A

Appropriate, inappropriate, flat, blunted, labile.

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28
Q

Define the term cognitive.

A

Mental awareness or fully informed.

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29
Q

“Can you tell me where you attended school?” would be an example of testing what kind of memory?

A

Remote memory.

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30
Q

If a patient cannot accomplish a serial 7 or 3 task, what might this indicate?

A

A learning deficit, or organic brain disease.

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31
Q

Describe the term thought process as it applies to a patient.

A

The patient’s ability to interpret and mentally organize the flow of conversation or events occurring around him or her.

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32
Q

What are good measures of insight?

A

A patient’s degree of understanding and capacity to understand what is causing his or her distress or illness.

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33
Q

What is one of the best indicators of a patient’s judgment?

A

Past decisions he or she has made in dealing with situations and problems of everyday life.

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34
Q

What are the most common types of perceptual disturbance?

A

Hallucinations and illusions.

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35
Q

What is generally true of a patient who has a specific suicide plan?

A

The more specific the plan the higher the risk for suicide.

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36
Q

Define motivational interviewing.

A

MI is a patient-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence.

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37
Q

In the autonomy component of MI, what position does this method call on the clinician to take with regard to a client’s decision to change his or her current behavior?

A

Respect the patient’s right for self-determination, regardless of whether or not the clinician agrees with the decisions of the patient.

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38
Q

What four principles guide the application of motivational interviewing?

hint: the symbols

A

Express empathy, develop discrepancy, roll with resistance, and support self-efficacy.

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39
Q

Explain the term self-efficacy as it pertains to motivational interviewing?

A

Refers to a patient’s belief in his or her ability to resolve problems and make positive changes.

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40
Q

What establishes the criteria used to determine appropriate DETOXIFICATION SERVICES?

A

Acute intoxication and/or withdrawal potential.

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41
Q

In addition to the questions ascertaining the appropriate detoxification services, what else should the counselor continually assess?

A

Safety of the patient.

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42
Q

Which dimension forms the basis for treatment recommendations?

A

All six dimensions.

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43
Q

During which dimension does the counselor assess factors within the patient’s environment that could impact his or her ability to be successful?

A

Dimension 6, Recovery environment.

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44
Q

Who identifies and categorizes beneficiaries who are eligible to receive care?

A

USHBP.

45
Q

What is supplemental care?

A

This is non-elective specialized inpatient and/or outpatient treatment, procedures, consultation, diagnostic tests, supplies, or equipment in a non-military medical facility while one is an inpatient or outpatient of a military facility.

46
Q

What does appropriateness imply in regards to providing services at your medical facility?

A

There must be compatibility or congruence between the patient, diagnosis, and the provider.

47
Q

What are some examples of services not widely available in the military treatment community?

A

Sleep study, sex therapy, or biofeedback.

48
Q

Whose expertise can you usually rely on to provide administrative support for admitting a patient?

A

The A&D clerk.

49
Q

Which areas are considered the minimum information that you, as the Mental Health Journeyman or the mental health care provider, must complete on the AF Form 560?

A

This form has several blocks that are circled to include block number 2 (Name), 7 (Date of Admission), 22 (Inpatient Unit), 33 (Primary Admission Diagnosis), 34 (Secondary Admission Diagnosis), 37 (Admitting Provider).

50
Q

During an admission to a medical facility, what items should you be alert for when searching a patient’s personal effects?

A

Weapons, illegal drugs, alcohol, and prescription drugs.

51
Q

What is the clinical purpose of the consent for treatment?

A

To enlist the patient’s faith and confidence in the anticipated outcome of treatment.

52
Q

What should you do if a patient refuses to sign the consent for treatment?

A

Simply document on the form the patient’s refusal to sign.

53
Q

What is the procedure regarding correcting errors in documentation?

A

Draw a single line through any errors and annotate with initials, date, and time the item was deleted.

54
Q

What purpose does the DD Form 2005 serve?

A

It serves as evidence that, as prescribed by the Privacy Act, the individual was informed of the purpose and uses of the information collected and was advised of his or her rights and obligations with respect to supplying the data.

55
Q

What should you do if a patient refuses to sign the DD Form 2005?

A

Note the refusal on the DD Form 2005 and sign it.

56
Q

What is the purpose of the HIPAA?

A

To improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage, improve access to long-term care services and coverage, and to simplify the administration of healthcare.

57
Q

How much information should you release if you receive an authorized request for information?

A

Only enough information to accomplish the purpose for which it’s requested is furnished. Do not volunteer additional information than is requested.

58
Q

What information must an OSI agent provide to review a record?

A

File number, identity of the investigation (OSI case file number) for which the record is being examined, certificate of requirement, (a certification by the examiner that the examination is required as part of the official examination), identification of material and a receipt.

59
Q

What is considered sensitive medical information?

A

Information that may affect the patient’s morale, character, medical progress, or psychological well being.

60
Q

What is a goal and objective?

A

The goal can be defined as the ultimate achievement or accomplishment and the objectives is how you plan on reaching that point.

61
Q

Who does the mental health clinic usually have its goals in tandem with?

A

The MTF

62
Q

Why is it important to adhere to patients’ rights?

A

Patients’ rights are important because the health professional is in a position of enormous power; whereas patients may be coerced into accepting a form of treatment they would not have chosen if more information were available.

63
Q

Treatment plans are doomed for failure unless a patient does what?

A

Becomes a vested stakeholder in the outcome.

64
Q

What criteria encompass the DISEASE MODEL of addiction?

A

Loss of control over the use of the substance and continued use despite negative consequences.

65
Q

Define addiction.

A

Compulsive need for and use of a habit-forming substance characterized by tolerance and by well-defined physiological symptoms upon withdrawal.

66
Q

Define disease.

A

A condition of the living animal or plant body or of its parts that impairs.

67
Q

What fundamental tenet is at the heart of the disease model?

A

Alcohol and drug dependence are physical illnesses.

68
Q

What are the four phases of alcoholism?

hint: s/p/cr/ch

A

Symptomatic Phase, Prodromal Phase, Crucial Phase, Chronic Phase.

69
Q

Why does the military population tend to be more motivated toward receiving treatment for alcoholism than the average civilian?

A

The leverage of commanders, supervisors, and peers.

70
Q

What venues can you use for advertising the substance abuse program on base?

A

Base paper, base cable channel, marquees, pamphlets, fliers, awareness seminars, etc

71
Q

What is the premise behind the biopsychosocial model of addiction?

hint: The biopsychosocial model of addiction simply ties many of the other models into one; selecting the best methods from each and adopting them.

A

To link various biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors with each of them “weighted” in the sense that each area is considered to be equally responsible for the individual’s addiction.

72
Q

What is the main obstacle in the biopscychosocial model of addiction?

A

The patient’s willingness or unwillingness to change.

73
Q

What is the most abused amphetamine?

A

Methamphetamine.

74
Q

Deaths related to PCP are often related to what event?

A

An accident or suicide rather than from the drug itself.

75
Q

What is the allure of crack cocaine?

A

The intense immediate high, which lasts from 30 seconds to 11/2 minutes, coming down after 10 minutes.

76
Q

What drug’s intoxicating effects emulate alcohol?

A

Sedatives, hypnotics, or anxiolytics.

77
Q

What well-established complication of the heart is the result of chronic alcohol abuse?

A

Cardiomyopathy, a degenerative disease of the heart

78
Q

at effect does alcohol have on the alcohol abusers lungs?

A

Alcohol causes an increase in the fluid accumulation in the lungs and can lead to chronic lung infections.

79
Q

Identify the chemically dependent family roles.

A

Hero, caretaker, scapegoat, joker/mascot, lost child.

80
Q

What two core beliefs do alcoholics have?

A

I am not an alcoholic. I can control my drinking.

81
Q

What two core beliefs does the family of an alcoholic maintain?

A

There is no alcoholic in the family. We shouldn’t talk about the drinking.

82
Q

What does the term standardized mean as it relates to psychological test measurement?

A

First, it means that the test directions and questions used to evoke patient responses are always presented in the same manner. Second, it means that a norming or comparison group has been pre-tested so scores obtained by a patient are compared to the norm group.

83
Q

What does the term objectivity mean as it relates to psychological test measurement?

A

The administration, scoring, and interpretation of test scores are not dependent on the subjective judgment of the test examiner.

84
Q

What is the purpose of maintaining uniform testing procedures?

A

To reduce the possible error factors and make the test scores more reliable.

85
Q

Name two reasons why you should be familiar with the testing material and administer the test with ease and professionalism?

A

First, your attention should not be so focused on the procedures that you miss behavior exhibited by the patient. Second, any inept behavior exhibited by you may cause the patient to doubt your ability to evaluate him or her objectively, which may increase the anxiety level of the patient.

86
Q

Which testing format is the least convenient for psychologists and why?

A

Temporal format. They must search through the whole report to find behaviors that corroborate test scores.

87
Q

What test responses are considered spoiled items?

A

Those that are invalid through an error in administration or some interruption or distraction during testing.

88
Q

For what age group is the BAI suitable for administration?

A

17 years old and older

89
Q

What should you do if a patient leaves items blank or provides multiple answers for an item?

A

Either clarify the items with the patient or consult a provider.

90
Q

How long should the administration of a BDI last?

A

5 to 10 minutes.

91
Q

What is the scoring process for a BDI?

A

Add together the scores as they are numbered on the inventory; write in subtotals and total at the bottom of the page where it is specified.

92
Q

What is the MCMI-III designed to diagnose?

A

Personality disorders and clinical syndromes.

93
Q

What should you do if a patient doesn’t understand a word on the inventory?

A

Permit the patient to research the word in a dictionary. Providing your own definition may influence the patient’s response.

94
Q

What is the primary purpose of the MMPI–II?

A

To search for psychological abnormalities.

95
Q

What is indicated if the “F” scale is high and both the “L” and “K” scales are low?

A

The individual may have chosen “sick” responses.

96
Q

What does the term psychasthenia mean?

A

The weakening of ones mental control over thoughts and actions.

97
Q

What is the general length of time for administering the MMPI–II?

A

60 to 90 minutes.

98
Q

For what purpose is the SILS commonly used in a clinical setting?

A

To provide a quick objective estimate of a patient’s general intelligence.

99
Q

What are the six major scores of the SILS?

A

Vocabulary, abstraction, combined total, conceptual quotient, abstraction quotient, estimated WAIS-III score

100
Q

What are the seven verbal scale subtests of the WAIS-III?

A

Vocabulary, similarities, arithmetic, digit span, information, comprehension, letter-number sequencing.

101
Q

What are the seven performance scale subtests of the WAIS-III?

A

Picture completion, digit symbol-coding, block design, matrix reasoning, picture arrangement, symbol search, object assembly.

102
Q

What is the average administration time for the WAIS-III?

A

65 to 95 minutes.

103
Q

What is the purpose of the SUAT?

A

To increase effectiveness, standardization, and efficiency in the ADAPT assessment process for patient initial entry into the ADAPT program.

104
Q

How is the SUAT unlike traditional mental health intake interviews?

A

The SUAT immediately provides a personalized clinical feedback report focused on harm reduction of alcohol use and misuse.

105
Q

What is the AUDIT designed to identify?

A

It is used to identify dangerous and harmful or excessive patterns of alcohol consumption.

106
Q

What action is required if a patient’s score is above 8 on the AUDIT?

A

The interviewer should clarify the extent of the patient’s substance use.

107
Q

What three items are considered in interpretation of the OQ–45.2?

A

Patient’s answers to certain critical items, the total score, and the subscale scores.

108
Q

What is a high total score indicative of on the OQ–45.2?

A

Patient is admitting to a large number of symptoms of distress (anxiety, depression, somatic complaints, and stress) as well as difficulties in interpersonal relationships, social role (such as work or school), and in their general quality of life.

109
Q

What is the total score range for the OQ–45.2?

A

0 to180.