SF 4 Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

What analytical process is used to achieve integrated defense?

A

ID risk management

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2
Q

The first step and risk analysis is asset

A

Criticality assessment

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3
Q

Who must review the installation entry procedures for legal sufficiency?

A

Staff judge advocate

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4
Q

Through which agency will the base defense operation center up channel covered wagon reportable incidents?

A

Installation command post

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5
Q

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapon

A

Accident

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6
Q

What does the color code yellow indicate when calling in a lace report?

A

Greater than 33% available

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7
Q

Personnel assigned the priority II priority category should be evacuated with and how many hours?

A

4

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8
Q

Personals onto the priority III routine category should be evacuated with and how many hours?

A

24

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9
Q

We must approve each installation localized integrated defense plan?

A

Installation commander

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10
Q

Who determines what post are not staffed during funding or personal shortages?

A

Defense force commander

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11
Q

How many days are the majority of security forces unit take codes capable of existing without support?

A

Five

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12
Q

Which type of attack me involve an insider threat?

A

Penetration

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13
Q

Which agency is the need for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

A

Department of state

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14
Q

Which agency is the lead for domestic terrorism within US?

A

Department of justice

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15
Q

What type of supporters do not actually commit violent acts but assist the terrorists by providing money, intelligence, legal, or medical services?

A

Active supporters

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16
Q

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists or operationally active and use large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

A

Significant

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17
Q

What terrorist threat level factor focuses on the attack method used by the group and other measures enhancing it’s effectiveness, such as a state sponsorship and ingenious use of technology?

A

Operational capability

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18
Q

What threat level is considered a peacetime threat and increases in frequency and transitions to a wartime threat before the beginning of open hostilities or a rise in hostilities?

A

Threat level I

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19
Q

What threat level consists of gorilla forces, unconventional warfare forces, or small tactical units?

A

Threat level II

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20
Q

What does artifact is achieved good lighting, intrusion detection systems, early warning systems, and closed – circuit television?

A

Detect

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21
Q

What desired effect is achieved through threat and effects based planning that integrate all friendly forces into a single, comprehensive plan, and ensuring friendly forces are trained and qualified on arming and use of force?

A

Defend

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22
Q

How many random antiterrorist measures choosing from higher force protection conditions are required daily?

A

At least three

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23
Q

How long has the US military been called upon to defeat insurgencies?

A

More than two centuries

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24
Q

What most units to develop about the area of responsibility to include religious customs, nuances of local leaders, local culture, And terrain?

A

Common operating picture

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25
What will insurgents resort to if they cannot persuade locals to help or refrain from hindering them?
Coercion
26
Joint doctrine defines a non-governmental organization as a
Private self-governing, not-for-profit organization
27
What type of agency is created by formal agreement between two or more governments?
Intergovernmental organization
28
Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization in the world?
United Nations
29
To avoid adverse affect on operations, commanders should address also sovereignty issues through the chain of command to the US
Ambassador
30
Ariel ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports debarkation are all examples of key
Sovereignty issues
31
If countries do not use the English alphabet, combatant command wide standard for spelling names should be set by the
Non-DOD agencies
32
Who primarily uses alternate funding positions?
Crew-served weapons operator
33
What illusion does the grounds looking upward method of range determination give to the observer?
Greater distance
34
Based on the terrain, vegetation, and visibility, leaders establish in route rally points every 100 to
400 meters
35
Which organization normally assigns graphic control measures?
Base defense operation center
36
What type of fire control measures to security forces flight leaders or subordinate leaders use as a means to control their defenders?
Direct
37
What is the most common means of giving fire commands?
Visual signals
38
What is your first course of action when Colton an assault?
Immediately return fire and take a covered position
39
Machine gun or's fire a groups of five or more targets when in the
Primary sector from farthest to closest
40
Which target indicator is among the most difficult for the enemy to avoid?
Contrast with the background
41
When marking targets, the most effective means of delivering accurate far is
Aiming point
42
The level of performance for the AN/PVS – 14 depends upon the level of
Light
43
On the AN/PVS – 14 night vision device, what component enables the operator to see as many readings in the Manatt killer?
Compass
44
How should pre-combat inspections be tapered?
Specific unit in mission requirements
45
When should security forces perform checks of their individual issued items?
Daily
46
Intent or deployment situations, what movement technique do you use when speed is required and you cannot use the Rushing technique?
High crawl
47
Selection of team movement techniques is based on
Likelihood of the enemy contact in need for speed
48
Which fire team movement is the primary formation used by a fire team?
Wedge
49
When is the bounding overwatch movement technique used?
When any contact is expected
50
During bounding over watch the bounding team should not move more than how many meters forward of the over watching team?
150
51
Which movement technique do you use one speed is important in contact with an adversary is not likely?
Traveling
52
What are the two types of ambushes?
Point and area
53
What are the most common types of reconnaissance patrols?
Area, route, and zone
54
What type of reconnaissance patrols involves a directive effort to obtain detailed information on all route, obstacles , terrain, and enemy forces within a defined sector?
Zone
55
To perform transition to a handgun drill with a three point tech sling, you must first place the rifle on
Safe
56
How do you perform a hand and arm signal for attention?
Extend the arm sideways, slightly above the horizontal; palm to the front; waive the arm to and from the head several times
57
How do you performed a hand and arm signal for line formation?
Extend the arms parallel to the ground
58
When processing captive, detainees, and prisoners at collection points, which is not one of the principles of stress?
Release
59
What convoy movement formation can only be used on multilane roads?
Staggered
60
What convoy movement formation can be used to block third-party traffic and assist in changing lanes?
Offset
61
Where will Driver's position themselves during a short halt?
Remain in the vehicle
62
Who signals for roll out after a long halt and movement commences?
Convoy commander
63
You can find the sheet name of a map in the
Center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin
64
What train feature is a stretched out rude in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers?
Valley
65
What terrain feature is a low point in the ground or a sinkhole?
Depression
66
What terrain feature is a short, continuous loop in line higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge?
Spur
67
Contour lines are the most common method of showing
Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
68
What does an index contour line show when going from a lower to upper contour line?
Increase in elevation
69
To plot a grid coordinate on a topographical map, you read it from
Left to right; bottom to top
70
How close will a six-digit refined grid coordinates get you to the point you want to identify?
100 meters
71
An azimuth is defined as a
Horizontal angle measure to clockwise from the north baseline
72
What is the center of the protractor circle from where all directions are measured called?
Index Mark
73
Which method let you locate an unknown point Using at least to known positions on the ground?
Intersection
74
Which method lets you locate your position on a map by converting a grid azimuth to a back azimuth of at least two's well-defined locations pinpointed on the map
Resection
75
The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
A ruler
76
What is the first step and navigating using terrain association?
Orient your map
77
What direction is always the first to shadow Mark when using the shadow tip method?
West
78
The defense advance to global positioning system receiver provides the user position,
Velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities.
79
What is the Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver’s (DAGR) primary function?
Navigate through terrain using stored waypoint position information.
80
Which Defense Advanced Global Positioning System Receiver (DAGR) mode reduces power usage but does not track satellites?
Standby