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SFA MODULE 10 (MUSCOLOSKELETAL) Flashcards

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1
Q

The elbow is ____________ to the wrist.

Distal

Lateral

ventral

Proximal

A

Proximal

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2
Q

Which of the following can be found in cartilage but not bone tissue:

Lacunae

Protein fibers

Blood vessels

Chondroitin

A

chondroitin

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3
Q

These cells are located in bone tissue:

Chondroblasts

Osteocytes

Fibroblasts

Carbonates

A

osteocytes

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4
Q

The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphyses is termed:

Periosteum

Perichondrium

Endosteum

Articular cartilage

A

Periosteum

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5
Q

Which of the following bones is considered a seasmoid bone:

Sternum

Ethmoid

Femur

Patella

A

patella

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6
Q

these two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:

Osteoclasts & collagen

Mineralized salts & osteocytes

Mineralized salts & collagen

Collagen & elastic fibers

A

Mineralized salts & collagen

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7
Q

A fracture in teh shaft of a long bone would be a break in the:

Epiphysis

Diaphysis

Metaphysis

Epiphyseal plate

A

Diaphysis

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8
Q

These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:

Haversian canals

Canaliculi

Perforating canals

Osteocytes

A

Haversian canals

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9
Q

The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:

Osteoclasts

Chondrocytes

Osteocytes

Fibroblasts

A

Osteocytes

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10
Q

“Articulations” refers to:

Broken bones

The study of individual bones

Bone growth and remodeling

Joints

A

Joints

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11
Q

Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that covers bones at the joints?

Adipose

Cartilage

Epithelial

Muscle

A

Cartilage

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12
Q

Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the body?

Abduction

Eversion

Flexion

Pronation

A

Flexion

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13
Q

If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?

Inward

Outward

Upward

Downward

A

Outward

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14
Q

A patient has a fracture in which the radius in bent but not displaced, and the skin is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following?

Closed, greenstick

Complex, comminuted

Simple, pathologic

Open, spiral

A

Closed, greenstick

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15
Q

Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?

Calcaneus

Femur

Symphysis pubis

Tibia

A

Femur

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16
Q

The surgeon directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an x-ray study of the calcaneus. The procedure will be performed on which of the following structuers?

Heel

Lower leg

Thight

Pelvis

A

Heel

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17
Q

The surgery of excision arthroplasty of the base of the proximal phalynx for a hallux valgus is named after:

Mayo

McBride

Steinder

Keller

A

Keller

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18
Q

One of the following is a disease caused by Osteoclast dysfunction:

Osteoporosis

Rickets

Renal osteodystrophy

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Osteoporosis

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19
Q

In congenial dislocation of the hip, the clinical sign of Crown IV which shows that the hip:

Will not dislocate on its own

Less than 50% chance of dislocating

50 to 75% chance of dislocating

100% chance of dislocating

A

100% chance of dislocating

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20
Q

Osteochondritis known as Sever’s disease involves:

Talus

Lunate

Tarsal navecular

Calcaneus

A

Calcaneus

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21
Q

A small boy who was brought to the emergency department by his parents is found to have spiral fracture of the femur, with a variety of ecchymoses. Most likely cause of injury includes:

Automobile hit & run

Fall from tree

Child abuse

Fall from cycle

A

Child abuse

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22
Q

Lachman’s test is meant for:

Anterior cruciate ligament

Posterior cruciate ligament

Medial meniscus

Medial collateral ligament

A

ACL

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23
Q

The contracture of muscles leading to deformity of hand & wrist following tight bandaging is describedby:

Dupuytren

Volkmann

Waston-Jones

Watterson

A

Volkmann

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24
Q

Commonest donor site for autologous bone graft is:

Fibula

Rib

Greater trochanter

Iliac crest

A

Iliac crest

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25
The activity of __________ results in producing new bones matrix, while that of __________ can remove bone matrix. Osteocytes, osteoblasts Osteoblasts, osteocytes Osteoclasts, osteocytes Osteoclasts, osteoblasts
Osteoblasts, osteocytes
26
The component bones of the pectoral girdle include: Ilium and pubis Clavicle and scapula Scapula and humerus radius and ulna
Clavicle and scapula
27
Among the prominent bone markings of the scapula are the: Supraspinous fossa, patellar fossa, iliac fossa Superior border, medial angle, inferior Coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine Olecranon process, coronoid process, styloid process
Coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine
28
The two proximal carpals that articulate with the radius in making the wrist joints are the: Scaphoid and lunate Triangular and scaphoid Triangular and pisiform Lunate and pisiform
Scaphoid and lunate
29
Among the prominent bone markings of the tibia are the: Interochanteric line, interochanteric crest, patellar surface Anterior crest, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus Lateral malleolus, anterior crest, interosseous crest Medical malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest
Medical malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest
30
Which is not part of the appendicular skeleton? Vertebral column Patella Clavicle Acromion
Vertebral column
31
A patient is performing the movement of flexion of the hip joint when she does this: Moves the limb away from the midline in the coronal plane Moves the limb posteriorly in the paramedian plane Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plan Moves the limb towards the median sagittal plane
Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plan
32
Inversion of the foot is a movement when the sole faces? Downwards & posteriorly Medially Laterally Downwards & laterally
Medially
33
Comes from a donor (cadaver). Bone-bank bone is collected from people who have agreed to donate their organs after they die. This graft does not have bone-growing cells or proteins, yet it is readily available and eliminates the need to harvest bone from your hip. Osteogenesis Disc Autograft Allograft
Allograft
34
Comes from man-made plastic, ceramic, or bioresorbable compounds. Often called cages, this graft material is packed with shavings of living bone tissue taken from your spine during surgery. Osteogenesis Autograft Allograft Bone graft substitute
Bone graft substitute
35
Following a total knee replacement, this can be a risk associated with the surgery. Deep vein thrombosis Fracture Loss of motion All of the above
All of the above
36
Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout? A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels Severe Hypercalcemia Mild trauma to the toes Development of a tophus
A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
37
What are the two types of bone tissue?
Compact and Cancellous
38
Describe a Colles’ fracture.
The distal radius is broken
39
What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
40
What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
the osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
41
Which statement applies to menisci?
they prevent excessive movement of joints
42
osteoporosis is predisposed by
sedentary lifestyle, long-term intake of glucocorticoids, calcium deficit
43
What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
Increased with weight bearing and acitivity
44
What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
45
Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because:
replacement of cartilage misalign the joints
46
Which factors delay healing of bone fractures? 1. Lack of movement of the bone 2. Prolonged inflammation and ischemia 3. Presence of osteomyelitis 4. Close approximation of bone ends
prolonged inflammation and ischemia
47
Bones classified as “irregular” would include:
the mandible bone
48
The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:
severe ischemia and tissue necrosis
49
A dislocation is:
separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact
50
Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
Bursae
51
The type of compound fracture in which there are multiple fracture lines and bone fragments is referred to as a/an:
comminuted fracture
52
A sprain is a tear in a:
ligament
53
Immovable joints are called:
synarthroses
54
The most common type of joint, which are freely movable, are called:
Diarthroses
55
Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:
nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia
56
How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
Red, Warm, Swollen, and tender to touch
57
Which of the following cells produce new bone?
Osteoblasts
58
What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
59
Rickets results from:
a deficit of vitamin D and phosphate
60
What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
61
Paget’s disease often leads to which of the following?
Cardiovascular disease
62
During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:
is the structure into which granulation tissue grows
63
What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?
specific trigger points for pain presentation
64
When a fracture is healing, the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:
serves as a splint across the fracture site
65
Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
open skin and tissue at the site of the fracture
66
What is a sign of a dislocation?
deformity of the joint
67
Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
pain upon weight-bearing activity at the joint
68
What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
compression fractures of the vertebrae

SFA Questions (14 decks)

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