SFA ROLES TEST BANK Flashcards by Laura Cybulski

If a SFA places the operative patient’s well-being above all other factors, then the SFA is said to have a strong:

Ethical sense

Surgical conscience *

Moral judgment

Set of values

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Libel refers to

Written information *

Spoken information

Both A & B

Neither A or B

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Which of the following is not a form of intentional misconduct?

Slander

Libel

Negligence

Invasion of privacy

Negligence

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Unlawful physical harm is called:

Battery

Wrongful discharge

Defamation

Libel

Battery

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The legal doctrine that mandates every professional to carry out his or her duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the:

Doctrine of reasonable man

Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

Doctrine of respondeat superior

Doctrine of informed consent

Doctrine of reasonable man

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The Latin phrase “aeger primo” refers to:

Patient first

Do no harm

Breathe

It speaks for itself

patient first

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__________ means understanding your own world views and those of the patient, while avoiding stereotyping and assumptions.

Universality

Culture competence

Monoculturalism

None of the above

culture competence

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The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA):

Gives patients the right to have elective surgery

Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

Gives the patient the right to sue their surgeon

Allows patients to see any physician they chose

privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

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Which of the following is not a tort?

Invasion of privacy

Defamation

Assault

All of the above

all of the above

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Which of the following refers to a civil wrong committed against a person or property, not including a breach of contract?

Tort

Negligence

Malpractice

Assault and battery

Tort

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A system of principles and beliefs intended to govern the behavior of those entrusted with providing care to the sick is commonly referred to as:

Bioethics

Administrative law

Civil law

Code of ethics

Code of Ethics

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______________ techniques are used to resolve disputes in a rational way without anger or resentment.

Peaceful dispute resolution

Assimilation

Arguing

None of the above

peaceful dispute resolution

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Grace F. signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier she does not fully understand what she has signed. This could constitute a liability case for?

Assault and battery

Lack of accountability

Improper documentation

Invasion of privacy

Lack of accountability

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Which of the following ethical principles refers to “do no harm”

Veracity

Nonmaleficene

Beneficence

Fidelity

Nonmaleficence

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____________ is defined as the threat of touching in an injurious way.

Negligence

Assault

Malpractice

Battery

assault

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Which of the following describes the legal doctrine of respondeat superior?

The things speaks for itself

The matter will be settled by precedent

Let the master answer

The matter will be settled by justice

Let the Master Answer

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The principles of personal liability is a legal rule which:

Holds the hospital responsible for negligence of the staff

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

Prevents malpractice suits against individual hospital employees

Applies only when the SFA is employed outside of a hospital environment

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Ethics is defined as:

Legal obligation that one person owes another person

Moral obligation that one person owes another person

Laws

What the patient requests

moral obligation that one person owes another person

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SFA Programs are accredited by:

CAAHEP

ARC-STSA

NBSTSA

ASA

CAAHEP

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Granting of implied or informed permission by a patient for someone else to perform an action is called:

Indemnity

Tort

Consent

Protocol

Consent

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A durable power of attorney made for healthcare decisions is called a:

Respondent superior

Health-care proxy

Res ipsa loquitur

Hippocratic oath

Health Care Proxy

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When you pass the CSFA exam, the certification is described as:

Formal process by which qualified individuals are listed in a registry

Legal right granted by a government agency which complies with a statute that authorizes the activities of the profession

Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

Perform according to the facility guidelines

Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

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A failure to exercise that degree of skill ordinarily employed under similar circumstances by members of their profession in good standing in the same community or locality is the legal definition of:

Default

Negligence

Abandonment

Assault

Negligence

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The Patient’s Bill of Rights entitles the patient to all of the following EXCEPT:

Considerate and respectful care

Refusal of all treatment

Experimental treatment without consent

Confidentiality

Experimental treatment without consent

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Name the legal doctrine which applies to a SFA when he/she is acting under the direction and control of a physician or hospital who may be responsible for his/her negligence. Res ipsa loquitur Health Amendments Act Respondeat superior Primum non nocere

Respondeat Superior

Which of the following is an affirmative defense that alleges that the plaintiff is mutually responsible for an injury through a lack of care in combination with negligence of the healthcare provider? Comparative negligence Malevolence Malfeasance Contributory negligence

contributory negligence

If a Kelly clamp is left in a patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, which of the following legal charges can be filed? Primum non nocere Res ipsa loquitur Foreseeability Intentional tort

Res ipsa loquitor

The principles of personal liability is a legal rule which: Holds the hospital responsible for negligence of the staff Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts Prevents malpractice suits against individual hospital employees Applies only when the SFA is employed outside of a hospital environment

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

The subcutaneous layer can be described as: Being composed of loose connective tissue and adipose tissue Containing blood vessels that supply the skin Functioning as a heat insulator or helping to conserve body heat All of the above

all of the above

The prefix pertaining to fingernail is: Odont- Olfact- Onych- Ompal-

Onych

Epidermis is distinguished by being ___________, whereas dermis is distinguished by being ____________. The innermost layer of the skin; under the epidermis Composed of largely fibrous connective tissue; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue The outermost layer of the skin; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue Composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous connective tissue

Composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous connective tissue

An autograft involves covering an injured area of skin with: Skin from a person other than the patient A skin substitute, such as an artificial membrance Skin from a skin bank Skin from an uninjured region of the patient's body

Skin from an uninjured region of the patient's body

The most common skin cancer: Primary melanoma Actinic keratosis Basal cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma

Basal cell carcinoma

Place the following layers of the abdominal wall in order from laparotomy closure: Subcutaneous tissue Muscle Peritoneum Extraperitoneal fat Transversalis fascia Skin Deep fasica 4, 3, 7, 2, 5, 1, and 6 3, 7, 2, 5, 4 1, and 6 3, 4, 5, 2, 7, 1, and 6 4, 3, 5, 2, 7, 1, and 6

3, 4, 5, 2, 7, 1, and 6

Which is NOT a characteristic of the epidermis? Highly vascular Contains melanin and keratin Distinctly stratified Gives rise to sebaceous and sweat glands

Highly vascular

Body heat is lost by radiation by: Heat moving from the body into cooler objects in contact with its surface Moving into cooler air that is continually circulating over the skin Heat rays escaping to cooler surroundings Water changing from a liquid state to a gaseous state

Heat rays escaping to cooler surroundings

Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as: Hidradenitis Colitis Rhinitis Fasciitis

Hidradenitis

The lines of cleavage of Langer's lines are: Finger prints The direction of the rows of collagen fibers in the dermis The direction of bone indentations Skin creases over joints

The direction of the rows of collagen fibers in the dermis

The force of integumentary injuries that results from the skin remaining stationary while the underlying tissues shift is known as: Pressure Shearing Friction Maceration

Shearing

The function of skin includes: Synthesizing antibodies Producing adipose tissue Regulating body temperature Synthesizing digestive enzymes

Regulating body temperature

When closing skin in surgery, this type of needle is preferred: Taper Cutting Blunt Spatula

Cutting

The ways in which the skin promotes loss of excess body heat is/are: Dilation of dermal blood vessels Activation of eccrine sweat glands to release more sweat to skin surface Loss of heat by radiation, conduction, and convection All of the above

all of the above

Dense unsightly connective tissue or excessive scar formation that often is removed surgically is known as (a): Proud flesh Granuloma Keloid Pterygium

keloid

A common pathogen typically associated with decubitus ulcers is Staphylococcus: Proteus Epidermidis Pyogenes Aureus

aureus

A type of wound in which the alimentary, oropharyngeal, respiratory, or genitourinary regions are entered is classified as: Clean contaminated Clean Contaminated Infected

Clean contaminated

The splitting open or gaping of a wound is called: Evisceration Dehiscence Herniation Eventration

Dehiscence

The space caused by the separation of wound edges which have not been closely approximated by sutures is called: Dehisced space Palmar space Dead space Intervillous space

Dead space

Delayed wound healing may be related to: Blood type Gender Ethnicity Age

age

Which of the following organisms normally found on the skin can cause wound infections? Bacillus botulinum Staphylococcus aureus Diplococcus pneumoniae Candida albicans

Staphylococcus aureus

The protrusion of bowel through the separated edges of an abdominal wound closure is called: Dehiscence Evisceration Wound disruption Secondary suture line

Evisceration

During healing by first intention, the first five days are the ___________ phase; up to the fourteenth day is the ______________ phase; and from the fourteenth day until wound is fully healed is the _________ phase. Fibroplasia (healing), maturation, inflammatory (lag) Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation Maturation, inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing) Fibroplasia (healing), inflammatory (lag), maturation

Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation

An adult male is injured in an automobile accident at 2a.m. An exploratory laparotomy for possible perforated bowel is initiated at 5a.m. Which of the following is the BEST wound classification in this scenario? Clean Clean contaminated Contaminated Dirty and infected

Contaminated

There are many factors that influence surgical wound healing. Select the response below that reflects a factor with high influence over wound healing and is within the control of the surgical team. Use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine at the incision site Antibiotic sensitivity studies conducted on wound culture results Antimicrobial prophylaxis The patient's nutritional status

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

Fibroblasts multiple rapidly, bridging wound edges and restoring of body structures during the __________ phase of first intention wound healing. Lag Hemostatic Maturation Healing

Healing

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. what was the wound classification at the time of his emergency surgery? Clean wound, classification I Clean/contaminated wound, classification II Contaminated wound, classification III Infected wound, classification IV

Contaminated wound, classification III

Wound classification is assigned when: Incision is made Procedure is complete Drain is placed Cavity is entered

Procedure is complete

Between which of the following postoperative days can dehiscence typically occur? First and third Fifth and tenth Twelfth and fifteenth Seventeenth and twentieth

Fifth and tenth

Which of the following techniques demonstrate a proven benefit in the prevention of postoperative wound infections? Administering appropriate antibiotics within 1 hour of incision time Maintaining suitable antibiotic coverage from 48-72 hours postoperatively Irrigating the wound with normal saline Irrigating the wound with sterile water 1 and 3 1 and 4 2 and 3 2 and 4

1 and 3

The three phases of wound healing include all of the following EXCEPT: Inflammatory phase Fibroplastic phase Chronic phase Remodeling phase

Chronic phase

wound that is known to be infected at the time of surgery and is left open to be closed at a later date is categorized as: First intention Granulation Delayed primary closure Second intention

Delayed primary closure

The most common cause of delayed wound healing in the operative patient is: Wound infection Adhesions Tissue loss Dehiscence

Wound infection

A 48-year-old tetraplegic with chronic sacral wound is scheduled for wound debridement. What is the purpose of doing a wound debridement on a chronic wound? The debridement will stimulate circulation and promote healing The debridement will prevent the growth of parasitic maggots The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection Debridement creates a nidus that nourishes and supports healing

The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection

Which statement concerning healing by second intention is FALSE? Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially Scar tissue formation is excessive Healing is delayed Granulation tissue fills in the wound defect

Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially

Which of the following heals the quickest after injury? Bone Epithelium Muscle Tendon

Epithelium

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout. The patient's fever has subsided, and the drainage is clear. The surgeon will schedule the patient to return to the OR in 3 days for: One more final debridement and washout Packing with antibiotic-impregnated gauze before final closure Sutured closure of the peritoneum and muscle fascia layer and secondary closure with granulation of the subcutaneous and skin layers Delayed primary sutured closure

Delayed primary sutured closure

After tissue injury, the initial vascular and cellular response is the: Inflammatory phase Phagocytic phase Injury phase Epithelial phase

Inflammatory phase

When a tissue defect decreases in size by wound contraction, it is designated as healing by: Primary intention Secondary intention Tertiary intention Delayed intention

Secondary intention

Which can affect wound healing: Diabetes Nutritional status of patient Anemia Location of incision Age of patient Uremia 2, 3, 4, and 5 All but 4 1, 2, 5, and 6 All of the above

All of the above

What cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of collagen and elastin? Proteoglycans Ground substance Fibroblasts Collagenases and elastinases

Fibroblasts

A patient recently operated on for a ruptured appendix had a temperature of 103° F and returned to the OR for a debridement and washout of purulent drainage from his wound on postoperative day 3. What was the wound classification at the time of his debridement and washout surgery? Clean wound, classification I Clean/contaminated wound, classification II Contaminated wound, classification III Infected wound, Classification IV

Infected wound, Classification IV

Which of the following are the MOST important considerations when preventing wound infection in the surgical patient? Pathogen transmittal Portal of entry into the susceptible host Anesthetic options for the patient's operative process Invasion of the susceptible host 1, 2, and 3 1, 2, and 4 1, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 4

1, 2, and 4

Delayed primary closure would be the most appropriate would closure technique for which of the following procedures? Removal of perforated appendix Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer Repair of an incisional hernia 12 weeks after an elective left colectomy Repair of would dehiscence 1 week after elective left colectomy

Removal of perforated appendix

Serosanguineous drainage means: Purulent Green-tinged Blood-tingued Hemorrhage

Blood-tingued

Wounds in which there is significant bacterial contamination, foreign bodies, or extensive tissue trauma are generally closed by which intention? Delayed primary Primary union Lag Granulation

Delayed primary

Which of the following would affect normal wound healing? Penicillin allergy Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) Adhesions Latex allergy

Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

SFA ROLES TEST BANK Flashcards

(75 cards)