Sgt

Question 1

14 division lock up

Answer 1

14 division in traffic services adults only

Question 2

Custody suffering a diabetic reaction. Will exhibit behaviour…. and what to do??

Answer 2

Exhibit behaviour such as confusion unsteadiness profuse perspiration or other unusual behavior.

He given a soft drink orange juice chocolate bar or candy.

Afterwards transported to the nearest hospital

Question 3

Custody suffering a diabetic reaction. Will exhibit behaviour…. and what to do??

Answer 3

Exhibit behaviour such as confusion, unsteadiness, profuse perspiration or other unusual behavior.

He given a soft drink orange juice chocolate bar or candy.

Afterwards transported to the nearest hospital

Question 4

This is a test one

Answer 4

here a Forfeiture Order is required shall ensure
 at the time the charges are laid, the original applicable Forfeiture Order and 1 copy, (both shall be left blank) are
included in the crown envelope
 a copy of the applicable property reports are appended to each Forfeiture Order and placed inside the crown
envelope
 the forfeiture section on the back of the crown envelope is completed in full
 the crown prosecutor is made aware that a Forfeiture Order form is in the crown envelope prior to the trial and
sentencing of the accused
- The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that Crown Prosecutors are made aware of their obligation
under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized prior to sentencing, if applicable to the case.
Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a drop box
located in the Detective Sergeant’s office at the courthouse.
At the conclusion of the sentencing, if forfeiture of the property is not granted, shall ensure the Property Disposition Inquiry
(PDI) application on the TPS Network is updated, indicating the disposition of all property.
Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall
 give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the
current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used
 serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least 3 business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date
of the Hearing on the
 person from whom the property was seized, or
 lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or
 the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been
served with a “Notice of Hearing”
 if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was
issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least 2 days prior to the Hearing date
 a copy of the original crown envelope, containing
 a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable
 a copy of the original TPS 143
 a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining
 the location of the search
 the date and time of the search
 the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if
known
 the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending
 the reason the property needs to be held
 appear before the Justice at the court with
 a copy of the TPS 141
 the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,
 a TPS 143, in duplicate
 a copy of the original Form 5.2

Question 5

Affiant means a

Answer 5

a police officer who swears to an affidavit, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a
Justice.

Question 6

Abandoned Property means a thing over which a person

Answer 6

surrendered any possessory right or privacy right and which

may or may not relate to a crime and/or crime scene and which potentially has some evidentiary value.

Question 7

Case Manager means a

Answer 7

police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for trial. A case manager is assigned for
each Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) and designated in accordance with established unit policy.

Question 8

Common Informant the purposes of court disclosure means a

Answer 8

divisional warrant officer, or an on-duty designate, or a court
officer who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties.
 Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a
Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)
and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held
for a show cause hearing.

Question 9

Continued Detention means the.

In relation to property

Answer 9

detention of property beyond the initial 3 (90 days) months from the date of seizure.

Bicycles are 30

Question 10

Forfeiture means seizure of private property because

 it

Answer 10

was illegally obtained, or
 it is an illegal substance, or
 the legal basis for possession has ended.
Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the
Public Prosecution Service o

Question 11

Forfeiture Order means an Order

Answer 11

prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the
Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

Question 12

Found Property means any property

Answer 12

which was located by a member or a citizen and turned over to a member, and the
item (at the time) has no apparent evidentiary value.

Question 13

Informational Material means

Answer 13

information obtained from a thing that is seized.

Question 14

Justice means a

Answer 14

Justice of the Peace or a Provincial Court Judge

Source: S. 2 CC

Question 15

Peace Officer – Report to ______ for the purposes of filing a Report to _____ means a

Answer 15

Report to Justice

for the purposes of filing a Report to

Justice

means a police officer, or a court officer who
is a sworn peace officer

Question 16

Seized Property means a thing, including

Answer 16

including informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a
warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent.

Question 17

Surrendered Property means any

Answer 17

article, document, informational material and/or thing whose possession has been
voluntarily given to a member and the item (at that time) may or may not have

Question 18

90 day places in exam

Answer 18

When an informal resolution has been achieved shall prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Commander
When required to facilitate a local resolution

collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain 
integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special 
Investigations Unit (SIU)

Constables who are absent from work due to parental leave, family care leave, long–term disability, central sick bank,
suspension, or an off–duty injury will not be considered on active service. Such absences will not be considered as time
served in the rank for reclassification purposes. Such constables will continue to be reconsidered for reclassification every
90 days and will not be eligible for reclassification until they have completed at least 1 year of active service in the
rank/classification.

Officers will be evaluated by one supervisor who has supervised the officer for a minimum period of 90 days. Where
possible, the same appraiser should assess the officer throughout the 1–year appraisal period. The next level supervisor
shall advise which officers a supervisor will be responsible for appraising. Prior to commencing an appraisal, the assigned
appraiser shall review the officer’s appraisal from the previous year to ensure performance issues have been addressed.
However, this review shall not influence the year–end rating of the current appraisal.
The appraisal form shall remain in an officer’s unit personnel file for 5 years. At the end of the 5–year period, the Unit
Commander shall ensure that the appropriate appraisal form is forwarded to People Strategy & Performance – Employee
Records.

prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Commander
When required to facilitate a local resolution shall

Question 19

The following divisions have been designated as lock–ups:
Lock–up Prisoners Divisions Served

11 Male adults
Male young persons when _____is full
With the approval of Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre
(Duty Senior Officer) authorizes]

These Div bring their custodies male adult to 11 for lock up; _____, ____ and _____

13 Male young persons* All Divisions (1st Backup facility only when _____ Division is full and Duty
Senior Officer authorizes)

14 Male adults ____ and ____ _____

23 Male adults ____ and _____

32 Male adults _____, _____ and _____

33 _______ _______ persons* All Divisions (primary lock–up for male young persons )

41 Male adults _____, ___ and _____

51 Male adults ______, _____, _____, and ______
52 _______ ______ _____

55 All ________ (see item e below) All Divisions

Answer 19

11 Male adults 11, 12 and 13

Male young persons* All Divisions [2nd Backup facility only when both 33 and 13 Divisions
are full and Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre
(Duty Senior Officer) authorizes]

13 Male young persons lock up. All Divisions (1st Backup facility only when 33 Division is full and Duty
Senior Officer authorizes)

14 Male adults 14 and Traffic Services

23 Male adults 22 and 23

32 Male adults 31, 32 and 33

33 Male young persons* All Divisions (primary lock–up for male young persons )

41 Male adults 41, 42 and 43

51 Male adults 51, 53, 54, and 55

52 Male adults 52

55 All females (see item e below) All Divisions

Question 20

• Non-binary people should be housed in a manner that they feel will maximize their safety, which may include an
  ______ cell, or being held in an ______ _____, or in _____ or ______ lock-ups as per an individual’s assessment of
  what would best meet their needs

Answer 20

individual

interview room,

male

female

Question 21

If there are specific overriding health and safety concerns I cannot be resolved rendering an accommodation impossible and a prisoner cannot be accommodated The members shall indicate the reasons in the memo book and ensure that the information regarding a trans person’s gender identity history is shared on a ______

Answer 21

Need to know basis page 29

Question 22

Where the police vehicle has no screen, the person shall be placed in the ________ rear seat. If an escort is available, the escort
shall occupy the ______ rear seat.
 allow one (_____) prisoner per vehicle (wagons excepted), when possible, comply with Appendix E when transporting
trans person
 permit only those ______ _____ involved in the ______ inside the vehicle with an arrested person
 ensure ______ and ______ (e.g. witnesses) are not transported in the same police vehicle
 prior to departure, advise the ______ ______ of the ______, the gender identity and age of the
person, and the odometer reading
 advise the communications operator of the ______ ______ upon arrival

Answer 22

the left rear seat.

(1)

police officers involved in the investigation inside the vehicle with an arrested person
 ensure prisoners and civilians (e.g. witnesses) are not transported in the same police vehicle
 prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the
person, and the odometer reading
 advise the communications operator of the odometer reading upon arrival
When requested by another member to transport a person in custody to a police station sh

-

Question 23

In order to address the specific needs of a trans person each case must be assessed individually. To that end the ___________shall determine the best course of action in order to respect and dignity of the person being logged

Answer 23

officer in charge

Question 24

In relation to a criminal code release

Officers holding the rank of _______/______ or higher rank are designated as officers in charge, And designated by the ______ of _______. A letter on the services letterhead indicating such authorization is available when requested in court

Answer 24

sergeant/detective

chief of police.

Question 25

Police officer; Where a person is to be charged with  an indictable offence falling within the absolute jurisdiction of a Provincial Court Judge a dual procedure offence; or  a summary conviction offence Shall

Answer 25

consider the issue of public interest, as well as attendance in court, and  if these terms are met, compel the person's appearance in court in the following manner  issue a Form 9 as directed in Appendix A or  proceed by way of a Criminal Summons in compliance with Procedure 01–09  when releasing a person on an Form 9 or proceeding by way of a Criminal Summons, ensure they have been served with a TPS 493 (what you need to know)  if these terms are not met, arrest and bring the person before the officer in charge in compliance with Procedures 01–01 and 01–03

Question 26

Duties of the officer in charge when releasing someone for a sexual assault criminal harassment or domestic related Charge shall Ensure

Answer 26

When releasing an accused from the station on sexual assault, criminal harassment, or a domestic–related charge shall ensure  the victim is immediately notified of all release conditions and the next court date of the accused  the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9–1–1 in emergency situations, and to contact Victim Services for safety planning information, as appropriate  the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of the Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program  a TPS 483 (victim notification) is completed  notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are  added as supplementary information to the original eReport  made in the  memorandum book or case book  TPS 483  a copy of the release documents and the TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder on the division’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X Drive) [?] the TPS 483 and the original copy of

Question 27

Bail Hearings and Detention Orders Case Manager If an accused person is presently before the courts shall

Answer 27

 ensure the case manager at the unit managing the outstanding charge is notified of the new arrest, court date and location  ensure compliance with Procedure 02–01, as appropriate  ensure the items contained in the brief include a notation of the previous charge, court date and form of release  if the accused person is currently before the courts in another jurisdiction, notify the agency managing the case via CPIC of the date, time and location of the bail hearings for the new charges  ensure compliance with Procedure 05–11 for any breach of bail or non–compliance with conditional release If there is an outstanding warrant for the accused person in another jurisdiction, and the agency managing the charges indicates they will return the accused to that jurisdiction shall  ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 02–01  include a TPS 178 and a copy of the warrant in the Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) When seeking a detention order shall ensure  compliance with Procedure 12–01

Question 28

Case Manager When notified that bail has been granted to the accused shall

Answer 28

ensure that the conditions of release are communicated personally to the victim as soon as possible - Bail conditions shall be communicated personally to the victim as close as possible to the time bail is granted and not delayed until the time the accused person is actually released. It is not sufficient to simply leave a message or letter outlining the release conditions at the victim’s address. The conditions contained on the release documents shall be reported to the victim. However, actual copies of the release documents are not to be given to the victim by the police. ensure the victim is notified of the next court date  ensure the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9-1-1 in emergency situations, and is referred to Victim Services Toronto for safety planning information  ensure the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program  ensure the victim is advised of the option of registering with the Ministry of the Attorney General Victim Support Line for release notification from a detention facility, if applicable  monitor all court appearances of the accused person for potential variances to the original bail conditions  if bail variances have been granted to the accused person, notify the victim as soon as possible of these changes Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim shall ensure  that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are  added as supplementary information to the original eReport  made in the  memorandum book or case book  TPS 483, if applicable  the Officer in Charge is notified of all results related to victim notification

Question 29

Release conditions must be directly related to one of the grounds

Answer 29

Primary, secondary or tertiary outlined an SS515(10). 

Question 30

Where in the opinion of the Case manager victim is believed to be a heightened risk due to release of the accused shall

Answer 30

the top Section of a TPS483 Is completed and inserted in the crown brief The outside of the crown brief is marked “ victim notification” to alert court services that the victim notification is required should be accused be granted bail

Question 31

Organize crime enforcement bail and parole is the…….

Answer 31

Only facility to be designated for the purposes of having an accused person report to the police the unit is open between 0900 and 2100 hours Monday through Friday. Except on stat holidays

Question 32

Officer in Charge | When informed that an arrested person should be held for a bail hearing shall ensure

Answer 32

 the crown envelope is completed in compliance with Procedure 12–01  that the brief clearly outlines that bail is being opposed or that conditions of release are appropriate to the circumstances  compliance with Procedure 01–03  consideration has been given to opposing bail whenever the safety of the victim, the victim’s dependents, witnesses, or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the crime demands it - The Officer in Charge has final decision to recommend the opposition of bail.

Question 33

Officer in Charge Upon receipt of a TPS 483 (victim notification) and release documents via e-mail from Court Services for sexual assault, criminal harassment, a domestic-related case, or any other case as requested by the case manager shall

Answer 33

 ensure the police officer notifying the victim reviews the eReports prior to victim notification  ensure compliance with item 6 Although the Officer in Charge may delegate the task of notifying the victim to another police officer, the accountability for this obligation remains with the Officer in Charge. This is not a shared accountability.  advise the police officer making the notification to notify the on–duty Officer in Charge of the results Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim by the case manager, other police officer or themselves shall ensure that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are  added as supplementary information to the original eReport  made in the  memorandum book or case book  TPS 483, if applicable  forward a copy of the release documents and the completed TPS 483 to the detective sergeant  ensure the release documents and the completed TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder in the Unit’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X drive) Upon receipt of release documents from Court Services indicating bail conditions for an accused person regarding a case not identified in item 11 shall forward the documents to the detective sergeant. Officer in Charge – Central Lock–up

Question 34

Oic; Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim by the case manager, other police officer or themselves Shall

Answer 34

ensure that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are  added as supplementary information to the original eReport  made in the  memorandum book or case book  TPS 483, if applicable  forward a copy of the release documents and the completed TPS 483 to the detective sergeant  ensure the release documents and the completed TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder in the Unit’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X drive) Upon receipt of release documents from Court Services indicating bail conditions for an accused person regarding a case not identified in item 11 shall forward the documents to the detective sergeant.

Question 35

And arrest warrant is a written order signed by. (Name the three)

Answer 35

Signed by a judge, justice of the peace or corner. Page 35 Which directs peace officers within the territorial jurisdiction to apprehend the person named or describe there in

Question 36

Bail hearings and Detention orders. Detective sergeant shall Upon receipt of a completed TPS 483 and a release document from the officer in charge shall

Answer 36

Review the completed documents Ensure the original documents or forward to the appropriate case manager P35

Question 37

Officer in Charge central lock ups regarding bail hearings and Detention orders

Answer 37

Shall ensure the crown envelope is completed in compliance with procedure 1201 Compliance with Procedure 01-03 Accused person is fingerprinted prior to transport a Court The completed crown’s envelope crown’s calendar arrive at court for the first appearance

Question 38

Officer and Charge regarding bail hearings and Detention orders. When you take receipt of forfeited items from the accused shall.

Answer 38

Items such as license registration certificate authorization or other document enabling the acquisition or possession of a firearm or a weapon or travel documents including passport from the accused person Surrendering items as part of the bill condition shall comply with procedures 05-21, 09-01, 09-03 Notify the case manager that he accused person has complied with the applicable bail conditions

Question 39

Officer in Charge When releasing an accused from the station on sexual assault, criminal harassment, or a domestic–related charge shall ensure

Answer 39

the victim is immediately notified of all release conditions and the next court date of the accused  the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9–1–1 in emergency situations, and to contact Victim Services for safety planning information, as appropriate  the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of the Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program  a TPS 483 is completed  notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are  added as supplementary information to the original eReport  made in the  memorandum book or case book  TPS 483 a copy of the release documents and the TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder on the division’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X drive

Question 40

Warrant in the first instance. Outline the six bullet points of the public interest where advising a justice in application for a warrant in the first

Answer 40

1) accused has fled, 2) The accuses is evading capture, 3) Danger to the public, 4) danger to the victim and or witnesses, 5) Nature and or seriousness of the offence, 6) all attempt to locate a Suspect have been exhausted

Question 41

Person arrested on Warrant the first must be presented to the court for a bail hearing unless

Answer 41

The warrant was endorsed by the issue justice authorizing the release of the arrested person by an officer in charge

Question 42

Bench warrant. P36 What form is is

Answer 42

A bench warrant is a form 7 issued by justice having jurisdiction when the accused has failed to attend court When directed by summons appearance notice promise to appear reconnaissance entered before an officer in charge, judicial interim release or When directed by the record to return on a subsequent date

Question 43

When a person is arrested Pursuant to a Superior Court bench warrant Who is notified and how

Answer 43

The Superior Court Liaison Detective fourth with by telephone voicemail or TPSE fax of the following information Name of the accused date of birth charge date of issue a bench warrant

Question 44

5.2 for drugs. How many days

Answer 44

14 for federal offences 28 for everything else. Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall  file the original signed Form 5.2 at the court, attached to the original Information, if applicable  place 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within 14 days for Federal cases and 28 days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable  send 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable  e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) and the Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS - The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.  comply with Appendix A

Question 45

Surety warrants page 37

Answer 45

Surety excepts responsibility for a good conductAnd appearance at court of the accused. A surety warrant is issue when the person who is acting a suretyAppears before a justice and requests relief The original information shall be brought to the sitting court house where the accused is.

Question 46

Material witness warrants; describe

Answer 46

Material witness warrants are issued by a Justice for the apprehension of a witness who is evading service of a subpoena or has not appeared in court after being served a subpoena (s. 698 and 705 CC). No charge is laid as a result of the warrant being issued. Following an arrest, a bail hearing must be held to determine if the witness should be released until required to appear and give evidence. A person arrested solely for a material witness warrant shall not be fingerprinted.

Question 47

Immigration warrants. Define them p37

Answer 47

Under section A55(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA), a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a permanent resident or a foreign national whom the officer has reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an admissibility hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA. When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons such as receipt of a pre–removal risk assessment (PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre (CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest on the CBSA’s behalf.

Question 48

Family responsibility arrest warrants 37 | Fix this

Answer 48

The family responsibility office FRO is a centralized enforcement program mandate to force child and spousal court orders. I’ll be half of support recipients in the Family Court to ensure child and spousal support payments are made. Including conducting a default hearing under section 41 of the family responsibility and support arrears enforcement act FRSAEA If a support payer fails to attend an FRSAEA Default hearing Courtney issue a warrant for his arrest. The warrant directs officers to take the name person to court so that a justice can issue an undertaking under form 131 Directing the person to attend court at a later date When the support payer is arrested on this type of warrant the person may be taken to the Family Court if the court is not sitting brought before a justice of the peace as soon as possible

Question 49

FRO. WITH RESPECT TO ARREST warrants / arrest warrants

Answer 49

Family responsibility office. FRO

Question 50

The only Facility in Ontario for treatment and control of contagious virulent or infectious disease

Answer 50

The west park healthcare centre located at 82 buttonwood age (12 Div)

Question 51

Medical Orders Define them Hint; MOH…….

Answer 51

Medical Orders When a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease, the ______~______and _______~_______gives the Medical Officer of Health (MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a **_____~_____ to compel the named person to be detained for treatment. The order is specific to the named person, a named hospital and the police service in the jurisdiction where the application is made. Unless otherwise specified in the order, the effective radius for medical orders is restricted to the jurisdiction of the applicant MOH. The West Park Healthcare Centre, located at 82 Buttonwood Avenue (in 12 Division), is the only medical facility in Ontario for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease. 02-19 Report to a Justice *Health Protection and Promotion Act ** Court Order

Question 52

Civil warrants there are two types

Answer 52

Small claims court warrants and Civil Court warrants

Question 53

Reports a Justice. What section of the controlled drugs and substances act requires a 5.2 to be completed for drug seizures

Answer 53

Section 13

Question 54

CDSA

Answer 54

Controlled drugs and substances act

Question 55

Report to a Justice The management of all property seized by members of the Toronto Police Service (Service) is an integral part in the administration of justice. A Report to a Justice (Form 5.2) is required by the Criminal Code (CC) every time property is seized by a peace officer with or without warrant. Section _____ of the Controlled Drugs and Substances Act (CDSA) requires that a Form 5.2 be completed for drug seizures. Under the Provincial Offences Act (POA), a Return to a Search Warrant (TPS ______) is required for property seized under the authority of a search warrant, or when property is seized in a warrantless search during the performance of an officer’s duties under a Provincial Offences Statute, and where no procedure for dealing with the seized thing is otherwise provided by law. A Form 5.2 is an official document, presented during a hearing to a Justice, indicating the results of a search conducted (with or without warrant) and/or property seized. The Justice will determine the disposition of property seized and will hear requests for an Order for Continued Detention.

Answer 55

13 130

Question 56

A 5.2 is what an________

Answer 56

An official document presented during a hearing to s justice indicating the results of a search conducted with or without warrant and or property seized. the justice will determine the disposition of property see it I will hear request for an order of continued attention

Question 57

SS117.02, 117.03, 117.04 of the code is for what

Answer 57

In relation to 5.2 and seizing firearms weapons and ammunition

Question 58

The police officer may elect to manage seized property in the following manner

Answer 58

 return the property to the lawful owner, if no charges have been laid and there is no dispute as to who is lawfully entitled to possession of the thing seized  hold for further investigation, where charges are pending or no charges laid and includes abandoned property  continued detention of seized property where charges are laid and the seized property is required for further investigation, preliminary inquiry, trial or other proceeding The police officer shall consult with a crown attorney for direction on the return of property which was seized as evidence, prior to returning any property to the lawful owner.

Question 59

A Police Officer Shall consult with _______ For direction on the return of property which was seized as evidence prior to returning and property to the lawful owner

Answer 59

Crown attorney

Question 60

Retention found property. Police officers are advised that found property is governed by the___________

Answer 60

Police services act

Question 61

What are the timelines for found property Bikes__________ All other general property_____

Answer 61

Bikes; 30 consecutive days | Other 90 Consecutive days

Question 62

Members who may file a Report to a Justice (Form 5.2) When a search warrant had been executed, the officer completing the Form 5.2 and attending a Report to a Justice Hearing may include:

Answer 62

 affiant of the search warrant  case manager  exhibits officer  seizing officer.

Question 63

Who do you contact when seizing cash in relation to proceeds of crime

Answer 63

Organize crime enforcement unit - financial crimes - Asset forfeiture.

Question 64

Officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who have large seizures at major crime scenes shall

Answer 64

submit an exhibit list to the case manager listing all property seized. The case manager shall ensure that a Form 5.2 is subsequently completed and filed in court.

Question 65

Continued Detention Order Once seized property has  been entered as an exhibit at a preliminary inquiry, trial or other legal proceeding or  where charges are laid

Answer 65

an Order for Continued Detention is no longer required. The detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed 3 months from the date of seizure. When further detention of the seized property is required beyond the 3 month period, a TPS 143 shall be completed. The cumulative period of detention shall not exceed 1 year from the date of the seizure. All applications for the continued detention of seized property shall be made before a Justice in the court location where the search warrant was issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed. In circumstances where it is necessary to detain property beyond 1 year, an application for continued detention shall be made before a Superior Court Justice. Such applications will be made through the Office of the Crown Attorney. Legal Services (LSV) is available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager on this process.

Question 66

A member (in member heading) p40 After seizing property with or without a warrant the police officer seizing the property shall

Answer 66

Complete the applicable 5.2 | Place the paperwork in the crown envelope.

Question 67

The property has been seized as a result of the execution of a search warrant and;

Answer 67

Charge laid or No charges later Charges are pending Whenever possible the police officer who obtained the search warrant and the officer signing the 5.2 with a Warrant Shall be the same person. The Report to a justice hearing shall be made meet before a justice in the same court location or the search warrant was issued

Question 68

Officers may use a common informant to file the 5.2 when property has been seized without a warrant and

Answer 68

He accused is held for a show cause hearing Excuse is released on the form nine or form 10 Charges are laid and or proceeding by way of criminal summons Charges are pending 

Question 69

There is no requirement to complete a form 5.2 when abandon property is seized without warrant and

Answer 69

No rest is made or charges lead or There are no charges pending

Question 70

In the case of a Telewarrant the 5.2 shall we filed where

Answer 70

In the same jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed

Question 71

When attending a Report to a Justice Hearing shall

Answer 71

 comply with Procedure 04–21  complete an crown envelope in compliance with Procedure 12–01. Mark in red on the front ‘Report to a Justice’ and insert a copy of  the search warrant and appendices  the synopsis from the eReport outlining  the location of the search  the date and time of the search and seizure  the accused name, a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect, if known and a list of charges pending  the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending  the disposition of property seized, including the reason any property is required to be held  when a search warrant was executed, complete a Form 5.2 with warrant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith  when property is seized without warrant, complete a Form 5.2 without warrant or Form 5.2 without Warrant – Common Informant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith  make 2 copies of the Form 5.2 and note at the top of each form which is the original and which are the copies When appearing before a Justice, in addition to the above items listed in the crown envelope, may be asked to produce  the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable  a copy of the original Information to Obtain a Search Warrant (Information), if applicable  the seized property when directed by a Justice Where it is not feasible to transport the seized property to the courthouse shall photograph or videotape the evidence.  Drugs and dangerous materials shall not be taken to court.  The Information, or a copy thereof, shall not be filed with the Court or placed in the crown envelope

Question 72

When attending a Report to a Justice Hearing shall

Answer 72

 comply with Procedure 04–21  complete an crown envelope in compliance with Procedure 12–01. Mark in red on the front ‘Report to a Justice’ and insert a copy of  the search warrant and appendices  the synopsis from the eReport outlining  the location of the search  the date and time of the search and seizure  the accused name, a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect, if known and a list of charges pending  the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending  the disposition of property seized, including the reason any property is required to be held  when a search warrant was executed, complete a Form 5.2 with warrant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith  when property is seized without warrant, complete a Form 5.2 without warrant or Form 5.2 without Warrant – Common Informant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith  make 2 copies of the Form 5.2 and note at the top of each form which is the original and which are the copies When appearing before a Justice, in addition to the above items listed in the crown envelope, may be asked to produce  the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable  a copy of the original Information to Obtain a Search Warrant (Information), if applicable  the seized property when directed by a Justice Where it is not feasible to transport the seized property to the courthouse shall photograph or videotape the evidence.  Drugs and dangerous materials shall not be taken to court.  The Information, or a copy thereof, shall not be filed with the Court or placed in the crown envelope Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall  file the original signed Form 5.2 at the court, attached to the original Information, if applicable  place 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within 14 days for Federal cases and 28 days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable  send 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable  e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) and the Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS - The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.  comply with Appendix A

Question 73

The less lethal shotgun should not be used

Answer 73

on children, pregnant women or the elderly, except in situations where other use of force options would have the potential to cause greater injury

Question 74

Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall  ________ the original signed Form 5.2 at the court, attached to the ______ _______, if applicable  place ____ copy of the ______ Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within _____ days for Federal cases and _____ days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable  send _____ copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable  e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the ___________and the Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS - The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the ______(same as after the…. This is the acronym). Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.  comply with Appendix A After seizing property under the authority of the POA shall comply with applicable items 2 to 9, substituting TPS 130 for the Form 5.2, as applicable.

Answer 74

 file original Information, 1 copy of the 14 and 28 days 1 copy Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) PVEMU.

Question 75

If a Justice refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall  request that the ______ be given on record  notify the _______ _______by e-mail of the refusal, and request that the seizing officer attend in person to file the Form 5.2  complete a TPS 649 outlining the date and time, court location, name of the Justice and the circumstances, and submit to the Unit Commander through the next level supervisor

Answer 75

reasons | the case manager

Question 76

When property has been seized as a result of a multi–jurisdictional and/or joint forces operation shall ensure a Form ______ is completed and filed before a Judge.

Answer 76

The Form 5.3

Question 77

A form 5.3 is not contained in ______ forms

Answer 77

Tps Officers must refer to the criminal code for appropriate wording

Question 78

If a 5.2 is not completed a person custody shall not be

Answer 78

Held from being transported to court

Question 79

Case manager when in receipt of an email notice from common informant Indicating the justice has refused to sign at 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall ensure

Answer 79

The seizing officer attends a report to justice hearing as soon as possible The common informant submits the TPS 649 to the unit Commander indicating a date time call location name of the justice and circumstances

Question 80

The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that __________ _______ are made aware of their obligation under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized prior to _________, if applicable to the case. Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a drop box located in the ______ _______’s office at the courthouse.

Answer 80

Crown Prosecutors Sentencing Detective sergeant’s

Question 81

Where a Forfeiture Order is required shall ensure (This is in the report to justice section)  at the time the charges are laid, the original applicable _________ ______ and _______ copy, (both shall be left blank) are included in the crown envelope  a copy of the applicable _________ reports are appended to each Forfeiture Order and placed inside the crown envelope  the forfeiture section on the back of the crown envelope is completed in full  the crown prosecutor is made aware that a Forfeiture Order form is in the crown envelope prior to the trial and sentencing of the accused

Answer 81

Forfeiture Order and 1 copy, ( property

Question 82

Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall

Answer 82

 give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used  serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least 3 business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date of the Hearing on the  person from whom the property was seized, or  lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or  the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been served with a “Notice of Hearing”  if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least 2 days prior to the Hearing date  a copy of the original crown envelope, containing  a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable  a copy of the original TPS 143  a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining  the location of the search  the date and time of the search  the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if known  the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending  the reason the property needs to be held  appear before the Justice at the court with  a copy of the TPS 141  the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,  a TPS 143, in duplicate  a copy of the original Form 5.2 and appendices, if applicable

Question 83

When you’re seeking an order of continued detention beyond the 12 months shell. This is in relation to report to justice and a 5.2

Answer 83

Consult with the office of the crown’s attorney prior to making an application before Superior Court, Justice Legal services available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager

Question 84

Member When anonymously reporting information pertaining to an act of misconduct by another member, may report the information by way of the dedicated telephone line at 416–343–7090. Unless authorized to do so, shall not disclose any information received from anonymous reporting that might identify or tend to identify a person who made the disclosure. Upon receiving a request for disclosure of information contained in a TPS 909 shall immediately direct the request to the attention of the _______ _______ – ______ ______.

Answer 84

Unit Commander – Legal Services.

Question 85

After an order for continued Detention beyond 12 months has been signed by a justice shall

Answer 85

Email the information on the order for continued attention of property seized to PVEMUUsing the form 5.2 email template to report to justice PPB/TPS

Question 86

Officer in Charge or Designate | The Officer in Charge or designate shall When reviewing 5.2 paperwork

Answer 86

 ensure that all required paperwork is complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer and/or the supervisor  ensure that all required paperwork is in the crown envelope and available for disclosure in accordance with this Procedure and Procedure 12–08  review all Form 5.2 and appendices prepared by officers under their direction  review and approve or deny all requests from officers for permission to present a Form 5.2 personally to a Justice, taking into consideration the exigencies of the Service

Question 87

Detective Sergeant (Crown Liaison) – Court Services. Shall regarding signed Forfeiture orders

Answer 87

Detective Sergeant (Crown Liaison) – Court Services  The Crown Liaison in each court location shall ensure  a TPS drop box is available for crown prosecutors to place the signed Forfeiture Orders  all received Forfeiture Orders are forwarded to the Unit Commander – PVEMU prior to the completion of their tour of duty Definitions

Question 88

Definitions For the purposes of this Procedure, the following definitions will apply: (These are for review not too solve)

Answer 88

Definitions For the purposes of this Procedure, the following definitions will apply: Abandoned Property means a thing over which a person has surrendered any possessory right or privacy right and which may or may not relate to a crime and/or crime scene and which potentially has some evidentiary value. Affiant means a police officer who swears to an affidavit, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a Justice. Case Manager means a police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for trial. A case manager is assigned for each Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) and designated in accordance with established unit policy. Common Informant the purposes of court disclosure means a divisional warrant officer, or an on-duty designate, or a court officer who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties.  Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only) and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held for a show cause hearing. Continued Detention means the detention of property beyond the initial 3 months from the date of seizure. Exhibits Officer means a police officer delegated to seize all property, commonly used when a search warrant is executed. Forfeiture means seizure of private property because  it was illegally obtained, or  it is an illegal substance, or  the legal basis for possession has ended. Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

Question 89

Can abandon property have evidentiary value

Answer 89

Yes. Pg43

Question 90

Who can be an affiant

Answer 90

A police officer. Who swears to the affidavit, common use from requesting a search warrant before adjusters

Question 91

Case manager

Answer 91

A police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for trial case manager assigned for each confidential crown’s envelope and designated in accordance with establishing unit policy

Question 92

Common informant

Answer 92

Divisional warrant officer, or an on duty designate, or a court officer who is a sworn peace officer during a lawful execution of their duties Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only) and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held for a show cause hearing.

Question 93

Continue detention in relation to property

Answer 93

Means of detention of property beyond the three months from the date of seizure

Question 94

Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a _______ to authorize the disposal of seized property by the Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

Answer 94

Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

Question 95

Forfeiture means seizure of private property because  it was ________ ______, or  it is an ______ ______, or  the ______ basis for possession has ended.

Answer 95

Forfeiture means seizure of private property because  it was illegally obtained, or  it is an illegal substance, or  the legal basis for possession has ended.

Question 96

Found Property

Answer 96

Found Property means any property which was located by a member or a citizen and turned over to a member, and the item (at the time) has no apparent evidentiary value.

Question 97

Informational Material means

Answer 97

thing that is seized.

Question 98

Justice means a _______ of the _____ or a Provincial Court Judge (Source: S. 2 CC).

Answer 98

Justice of the Peace Provincial Court Judge

Question 99

Peace Officer – Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means a police officer, or a court officer who is a sworn peace officer. Property means any article and/or document found by, seized by, surrendered to, or intended to be surrendered to a Service member. Seized Property means a thing, including informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent. Seizing Officer means a peace officer who has seized property, either with or without a search warrant, and includes a court officer during the lawful execution of their duties. Surrendered Property means any article, document, informational material and/or thing whose possession has been voluntarily given to a member and the item (at that time) may or may not have

Answer 99

Ff

Question 100

Information material

Answer 100

Information means information obtained from a thing that is seized

Question 101

Seizedproperty

Answer 101

Means a thing including a Informational Material see you from a person or a place with her without a warrant by a peace officer without that person is concerned

Question 102

Seizing officer

Answer 102

Is a peace officer who m has seized property either with or without a search warrant and includes a court officer during the lawful execution of their duties

Question 103

Divisional Detective attendance mandatory for what type of Death occurrences.

Answer 103

 death of a child under 5  sudden unexpected death of a child  unnatural sudden death  sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

Question 104

Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for death investigations

Answer 104

 attempt suicide  unable to confirm/establish identity of the deceased person  unable to determine next of kin  unable to notify next of kin in person  request by another police service to notify next of kin

Question 105

Death of a child under five who must attend

Answer 105

Supervisor divisional detective attendance is mandatory. * Also with a sudden unexpected death of a child * Unexpected Sudden death * Sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident were the only witness or person present at the time of the death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner past or present

Question 106

Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for This is in relation to death investigations 

Answer 106

 attempt suicide  unable to confirm/establish identity of the deceased person  unable to determine next of kin  unable to notify next of kin in person  request by another police service to notify next of kin

Question 107

When will the paramedic not transport

Answer 107

Not transfer individuals pronounced or obviously dead. Only transport away from public view the body removal services is not readily available

Question 108

Officers must remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play in every circumstances during a death investigation when

Answer 108

A sudden unexpected death Or the person present at the time of death or finding of the body is a partner and particularly a partner with whole may have had an intimate relationship with recent or remote

Question 109

Officer; the chief Coroner will be notified and requested to attend when

Answer 109

In all cases of a unnatural Sudden death The corner is responsible for pronouncing death in the absence of another qualify medical practitioner and will authorize removal of the body

Question 110

After pronouncement of death by the by the corner nobody should not be touched or moved without the direction of the corner however

Answer 110

It may be possible to allow the family early access and Movement of the body following the initial discussion with a corner regarding the circumstances of death

Question 111

Identification of the Deceased The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

Answer 111

 homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences  cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer  cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called  when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the identification.

Question 112

Homicide suspect a homicide or other related criminal offenses. This question is in relation to the morgue

Answer 112

The Investigator heading an investigation or a police officer designated by the investigator shall attend the morgue and be physically present

Question 113

If an inquest is likely to be called what shall the investigator heading an investigation or a please officer Designated by Investigator do

Answer 113

Attend the morgue

Question 114

If the identification of a deceased cannot be determined who shall be notified

Answer 114

The missing persons unit and the global email address

Question 115

What does the medical director of the facility determine

Answer 115

The medical Director of facility determines who is admitted during a post Mordom them examination I am a grant only those who have an essential need to be present Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the post mortem examination room is determined by the Medical Director of the Facility and will be granted only to those who have an essential need to be present, including: officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who are directly related to the case being autopsied and have a need for photographs and evidence collection  a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons. Access will be granted only to officers who have an operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to be present. Attendance should be restricted to the external examination period only unless there is a pertinent, reasonable need to be present through the entire post mortem examination. An office has been set–up exclusively for officers to await the examination results.

Question 116

f the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons. Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the post mortem examination room is determined by the Medical Director of the Facility and will be granted only to those who have an essential need to be present, including

Answer 116

officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who are directly related to the case being autopsied and have a need for photographs and evidence collection  a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons. Access will be granted only to officers who have an operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to be present.

Question 117

Attendance should be restricted to the _________ examination period only unless there is a

Answer 117

External. pertinent, reasonable need to be present through the entire post mortem examination. An office has been set–up exclusively for officers to await the examination results.

Question 118

First Police Officer | The first police officer to arrive at the scene (of a death investigation) shall be responsible for

Answer 118

offender management (if applicable), preservation of the evidence and the crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator. When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall attend the scene promptly. Upon arrival at the scene shall  designate a line of approach to the victim that allows for the least contamination possible  take charge of the scene until the arrival of a supervisory officer  in the absence of a doctor or Paramedics personnel  assess the vital signs and responsiveness of the victim  administer first–aid if signs of life are present while using the universal precautions as detailed in Procedure 08–07  ensure the victim receives immediate medical attention  request additional assistance as required  request the attendance of a supervisory officer  pending the arrival of a supervisory officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks  advise Paramedics and Toronto Fire Services (TFS) personnel of medical and suicide attempt details  if the body has been moved, make note of the original position and any items moved to gain access to the body  ensure the communications operator is advised of the details of the incident  conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check  determine whether any of the individuals involved in the occurrence own, possess or have access to a firearm, ammunition, firearms certificate, registration certificate, permit, licence or authorization and comply with Procedure 05–21  Officer and public safety is compromised when firearms are left in a deceased’s dwelling and may come into the possession of an unlicensed person and/or person untrained to properly handle firearms.  ensure a police officer accompanies the victim to hospital Additional Police Officers

Question 119

CFRO

Answer 119

Canadian firearms registry online

Question 120

If a body has a moved make a note of

Answer 120

Original position and any items moved to gain access

Question 121

On the scene of a sudden death Officer shall inquire if

Answer 121

The disease was in possession of firearms and ammunition firearms certificate registration certificate permit license or authorized and an authorization and comply with procedure 05-21

Question 122

When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall

Answer 122

attend the scene promptly  in the absence of a supervisory officer take direction from the first police officer Police Officers

Question 123

Police Officers Upon discovering  the death of a child under 5 years of age  the sudden unexpected death of a child  a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found human remains  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstances  shall __________ the death as _______ and comply with Procedure 05–01.

Answer 123

 shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

Question 124

Police officers Upon discovering a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall  remain _______ for the possibility of foul play  request the attendance of a _____ officer and a divisional ______

Answer 124

vigilant for supervisory officer and a divisional detective

Question 125

When investigating a sudden death in the emergency department of a hospital shall ensure, as part of the investigation that hospital staff and other caregivers have not __________ _______ with or _______ the body in such a way as to compromise the evidence and the investigation.

Answer 125

intentionally interfered altered

Question 126

Police officer | When investigating an unnatural sudden death shall

Answer 126

 request the attendance of a supervisory officer and a divisional detective  request the attendance and confirmation of notification of the Coroner  leave the body undisturbed when death has been pronounced or where death appears obvious due to decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of cranial or visceral contents, or a grossly charred body ``` Police Officers Upon discovering ( this Is just extra read) ```  the death of a child under 5 years of age  the sudden unexpected death of a child  a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found human remains  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstances  shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

Question 127

If a properly completed consent form relating to organ donation is located. This is in the death notification section

Answer 127

Notify the corner, paramedics, and hospital personnel

Question 128

Death investigations. When can a SOCO be assigned to examine crime scenes

Answer 128

At the discretion of the officer in charge at FIS

Question 129

A SOCO. Shall not be assigned to the death involving

Answer 129

* A sudden unexpected death of a child * of a child under five years of age * A suspicious death or suspected homicide

Question 130

Death investigation; If an active criminal record, outstanding criminal warrants, or the identification of the deceased is in question.

Answer 130

Request FIS TO finger print and photograph the deceased

Question 131

The marine unit is notified and their attendance requested when investigating a A death resulting from a

Answer 131

Scuba diving accident

Question 132

When a deceased is found in the bathtub record in the memo book

Answer 132

the approximate depth and temperature (e.g. hot, cold or room temperature) of any water present in the bathtub  the position of the body (e.g. supine, prone or some other position)  which end of the bathtub the head was positioned  whether the body is wet or dry, including the hair  whether the head is submerged at least up to and including mouth and nose  whether the fingers and/or feet show signs of prolonged immersion  whether there is evidence of froth in the mouth or nose  whether the water stopper is engaged  whether there is evidence to suggest that the deceased may have fallen into the bathtub. - A finding of drowning is rarely based on definitive autopsy findings. Information from the initial responder is therefore often critical in these cases in determining the cause and manner of death.

Question 133

When responding to a rail–related attempt suicide or death on TTC property shall

Answer 133

 ensure the electrical power is turned off before approaching the track level  comply with Procedure 10–10  make every effort to restore subway service as soon as practicable Undue subway delays cause safety concerns and a tremendous inconvenience to the TTC and the public.

Question 134

Before moving a body from a TTC track level shall When investigating a death on TTC property, upon the direction of the Coroner shall

Answer 134

 obtain a stretcher from under the platform, place the body and any dismembered parts on the stretcher and remove from public view only after  the Coroner has authorized the removal of the body, and  the scene has been photographed, and  a supervisor or detective has been consulted and authorized the removal of the body  if the body must be moved prior to the scene being photographed, outline the position of the body Unless otherwise directed, there is no requirement to await the arrival of a detective prior to removing the body. All subway platforms have rooms available, out of public view, where the body may be removed at the Coroner’s direction. This permits the TTC a timely return to service and protects the sensibilities of the public. These rooms also allow for temporary storage of the remains until such time as body removal services are available.

Question 135

Regarding deaths on TTC property track level. Is there a requirement to await the arrival of a detective prior to removing the body

Answer 135

No. P48

Question 136

When investigating an attempt suicide/suicide by apparent gas poisoning (natural gas, carbon monoxide, etc.) shall

Answer 136

 ensure that no person in the immediate area uses any item which may cause unintentional ignition, such as an open flame, cigarette, electric switch, doorbell, cellular telephone or portable radio, etc.  if it is safe to do so turn off the source of the gas  remove the victim to fresh air  conduct a search of the location for other persons and remove them to safety When there are concerns that a hazard continues to exist shall  evacuate all persons in compliance with Procedure 10–09  request assistance to evaluate the hazard  not remain in the area - The TFS, local utilities, and the Ministry of the Environment are equipped to remove such hazards.  consider the notification and attendance of the Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) in compliance with Procedure 10–08

Question 137

Where concerns exist re gas leak

Answer 137

When there are concerns that a hazard continues to exist shall  evacuate all persons in compliance with Procedure 10–09  request assistance to evaluate the hazard  not remain in the area - The TFS, local utilities, and the Ministry of the Environment are equipped to remove such hazards.  consider the notification and attendance of the Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) in compliance with Procedure 10–08

Question 138

EDU

Answer 138

Explosive disposal unit In the Emergency management in public order unit

Question 139

Medication cell not be placed in ________with the body

Answer 139

The body bag

Question 140

Death investigations Medications should not be taken to Forensic Pathology Units or hospital–based pathology units,

Answer 140

unless specifically requested by the pathologist, and only following a case–by–case consideration. Medications shall not be placed in the body bag or otherwise sent with the body.

Question 141

Death invitations comply with Procedures 02–19 and 09–04 when seizing illicit drugs/substances, prescription and controlled substances pursuant to the ( there acts) 02-19 is 5.2 etc 09-04 is controlled drug and substances Procedures

Answer 141

Coroners Act, Controlled Drugs and Substances Act or the Food and Drugs Act, as applicable

Question 142

Police officer When investigating an attempted suicide or death by gunshot shall

Answer 142

 comply with Procedure 05–21  if the firearm must be moved for safety reasons, ensure detailed notes are completed regarding the condition of the firearm, including the position of the action, safety, and any ammunition  when seizing any firearm, ensure the firearm is rendered safe and the firearm, ammunition and any ejected ammunition components are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–03

Question 143

When investigating a death attributed to consumer products shall notify

Answer 143

Health Canada, consumer product safety

Question 144

Health Canada, consumer product safety When are they notified This is in the death investor section

Answer 144

When is death is attributed to consumer products

Question 145

When the apparent cause of death is from hanging

Answer 145

shall remove the person in such a manner as to preserve the knot, whenever possible.

Question 146

When the death is apparently caused by jumping or being thrown from a height shall

Answer 146

 search the area for articles of clothing, property or identification which may have fallen from the body  search the area for body parts, if applicable  search the location from which the person jumped

Question 147

When do you not search pockets or clothing of the deceased person for drugs or drug-related paraphernalia

Answer 147

In the cases of homicides are criminally suspicious deaths. P50

Question 148

Police officer; When the Coroner has ordered an autopsy shall

Answer 148

 except in cases of homicides and criminally suspicious deaths, search the pockets and clothing of the deceased for any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia  if any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia are located, ensure the items are seized in accordance with Procedures 02–19, 04–21, and 09–04, as applicable - These items create a high-risk situation for all involved and must never accompany the body sent for post-mortem examination, except in cases of homicides and criminally-suspicious deaths.  remain with the body until the removal service has attended  record in the memorandum book the  presence or absence of any valuables, including jewellery  exact position of the jewellery on the body  details of the removal of the body  maintain continuity by accompanying the body to the morgue or applying a TPS 214 to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue - Bodies should always be transported and stored in the supine (face up) position pending post mortem examination to avoid introducing artefacts which may obscure post mortem findings.

Question 149

How should bodies be transported to the morgue and why Meaning position of the body

Answer 149

In the supine method to prevent introducing artefacts which mayaffect Post Morton finding

Question 150

Drugs and drug paraphernalia should be removed from the body before

Answer 150

Being sent to the postmortem examination these items create a high risk situation for all involved. Except in cases of homicide and criminally suspicious deaths where they remain

Question 151

If it deceased is a former member of the Canadian forces and destitute

Answer 151

Can apply to the Last Post Fund for burial

Question 152

If the deceased is destitute can apply to what for burial

Answer 152

Toronto Social Services

Question 153

When the next of kin is present at the location of a natural sudden death Re valuables and offering support

Answer 153

shall search the deceased and list valuables and personal effects in the memorandum book  shall give all valuables and personal effects to the next of kin, requesting that they sign the memorandum book in receipt  shall offer the next of kin the use of Victim Services Toronto in compliance with Procedure 04–31  where there are concerns about the well–being of the next of kin, in addition to offering the use of Victim Services Toronto, should consider contacting other family members, neighbours, friends, or clergy to assist  where no autopsy has been ordered, shall ensure the well–being of the next of kin prior to leaving the scene, including assistance in contacting a funeral service  if the deceased is obviously destitute, should advise the next of kin they may apply to Toronto Social Services for burial or to the Last Post Fund if the deceased is a former member of the Canadian Forces

Question 154

A Firearms Interest Police (FIP) entry is auto–generated and uploaded to CPIC from the eReport entry. What does the fip Report do;

Answer 154

The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms licence who has committed, or threatened to commit, an act of violence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process or subsequent review by a Chief Firearms Officer.

Question 155

When assigned to attend a post mortem examination shall obtain the results and add the _________ information to the original eReport. Supervisory Officer

Answer 155

supplementary

Question 156

When notified have an attempted suicide a supervisor shall Assess the situation and if ______necessary

Answer 156

Attendance the sceen

Question 157

Supervisor when Notified of a sudden death shall

Answer 157

Attend the scene promptly

Question 158

SupervisorWhen When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall

Answer 158

 take charge of the scene  provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene  ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital  request/assign further assistance, as required  ensure the attendance of  a divisional detective  the Coroner  a FIS investigator  ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital  advise the Officer in Charge of all pertinent information  ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary - Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a constable.

Question 159

Supervisor; When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall

Answer 159

 take charge of the scene  provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene  ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital  request/assign further assistance, as required  ensure the attendance of  a divisional detective  the Coroner  a FIS investigator  ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital  advise the Officer in Charge of all pertinent information  ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary - Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a constable.

Question 160

When dealing with  the death of a child under 5 years of age  the sudden unexpected death of a child  a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found human remains  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstances shall

Answer 160

treat the death as suspicious and ensure compliance with Procedure 05–01. When notified of a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall  remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play  ensure the attendance of a divisional detective

Question 161

Supervisor When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall  take _______ of the scene  provide _______ and direction to the police officers at the scene  ensure a _____ ______ accompanies the body to the hospital  request/assign further assistance, as required  ensure the attendance of  a _______ \______  the Coroner  a FIS investigator  advise the _______ in ______ of all pertinent information  ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary - Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a constable.

Answer 161

charge  assistance a police officer a divisional detective Officer in Charge

Question 162

When notified of an unnatural seven deaths who shall attend

Answer 162

Supervisory and Officer and Division Detective p51

Question 163

Who confers with a corner and obtains the corners warrant when investigating an unnatural sudden death

Answer 163

Divisional detective

Question 164

Detective – Division The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the scene, the thoroughness of the investigation, and that the appropriate notifications are made. (Unnatural Sudden Death)

Answer 164

When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall  attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation  ensure the attendance of FIS personnel, as required  ensure that valuables seized for safekeeping are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–01  provide direction concerning the return of valuables to the next of kin  confer with the attending Coroner and obtain a copy of the Coroner's warrant;  provide the following information to the Coroner before leaving the scene  original eReport number;  identification of deceased and method of confirmation, if known;  name, address, phone number and relationship of next of kin, if known; and  name, badge number and a contact phone number of assigned investigator - It is imperative that the Coroner is provided with a contact number of the assigned investigator in the event that additional information is required from the Service prior to the autopsy being conducted.  ensure identification of the deceased person is confirmed, if possible  add supplementary information to the original eReport listing  method of identification confirmation; and  name, address and phone number of the person making the identification

Question 165

What is a Division Detective do at the scene of an unnaturally sudden death

Answer 165

The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the scene, the thoroughness of the investigation, and that the appropriate notifications are made. When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall  attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation  ensure the attendance of FIS personnel, as required  ensure that valuables seized for safekeeping are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–01  provide direction concerning the return of valuables to the next of kin  confer with the attending Coroner and obtain a copy of the Coroner's warrant;  provide the following information to the Coroner before leaving the scene  original eReport number;  identification of deceased and method of confirmation, if known;  name, address, phone number and relationship of next of kin, if known; and  name, badge number and a contact phone number of assigned investigator - It is imperative that the Coroner is provided with a contact number of the assigned investigator in the event that additional information is required from the Service prior to the autopsy being conducted.  ensure identification of the deceased person is confirmed, if possible  add supplementary information to the original eReport listing  method of identification confirmation; and  name, address and phone number of the person making the identification when the Coroner has ordered an autopsy, ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the Post Mortem Examination  applicable eReports  Preliminary Police Report - The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner has ordered an autopsy.  maintain continuity by ensuring  a TPS 214 is applied to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue, or  a police officer accompanies the body to the morgue  ensure an officer attends and obtains the results of the Post Mortem Examination then adds the supplementary information to the original eReport  consider and exercise, where applicable, all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits  notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when firearms are or may be a factor  notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons - The MPU is available as a resource in all unidentified human remains investigations that will provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support. The MPU will also ensure all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons

Question 166

What is a Preliminary Police Report. In relation the death investigations

Answer 166

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner has ordered an autopsy. Oic; When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall ensure  detective personnel are assigned and attend the scene  a copy of the completed eReport and Preliminary Police Report are forwarded by TPS eFax to the Office of the Chief Coroner as soon as practicable, and prior to the post mortem examination  if involving a foreign national, notify Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section - Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from which they emigrated. Unnatural sudden death and And a Child under 5

Question 167

Who do you Notify if firearms may be a factor add an unnatural sudden death

Answer 167

Guns and gangs

Question 168

Who will ensure all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

Answer 168

The MPU

Question 169

The ______ is available as a resource in all unidentified human remains investigations that will provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support. The _____ will also ensure all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

Answer 169

The MPU

Question 170

When notified of a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or a present a divisional detective shall

Answer 170

attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation  conduct a thorough investigation, remaining vigilant for the possibility of foul play  determine if there is a history of prior domestic violence, intimate relationship dysfunction, or anything else to arouse suspicion  consult with the Coroner and the FIS investigator  if suspicious circumstances exist, consult with a member of the On–Call Homicide Team prior to leaving the scene When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin shall consult with Records Management Services (RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action. When the deceased cannot be readily identified shall

Question 171

When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin a divisional detective shall

Answer 171

Records Management Services | (RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action.

Question 172

When the deceased cannot be readily identified shall  request that _______ fingerprint and photograph the deceased  consider the use of the _____ ______ _______ to complete a reconstructed image for a media release  request that the _______ have a dentist complete an OPC 105  ensure the OPC 105 is scanned and attached to the original eReport  ensure the eReport number is forwarded to RMS – Operations (RMS – Ops) for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristics file  consider contacting ______ regarding the completion of Interpol Disaster Victim Identification forms and the gathering of samples for DNA analysis and comparison  continue efforts to locate and notify the next of kin  ensure identification is made by a ______, a ____~____ or a _______who knows the deceased in the presence of a morgue official

Answer 172

FIS fingerprint and photograph the deceased FIS Forensic Artist  request that the Coroner contacting FIS relative, a close friend or a person

Question 173

When will the dentist complete an OPC105 form

Answer 173

When is deceased cannot be Identified. The request is from a corner to a dentist for this information. Page 52

Question 174

If an Unnatural Sudden Death involves a foreign national the officer in charge shell

Answer 174

Notify intelligence services strategic assessment and analysis section

Question 175

Landed immigrant are considered _______ as they remain citizens of the country from which they immigrated

Answer 175

Foreign nationals

Question 176

Major Case Manager – Detective Operations – Homicide Shall When designated as the Major Case Manager shall

Answer 176

undertake the functions and responsibilities directed by the Ontario Major Case Management Manual  comply with Procedure 05–01 Compassionate Messages

Question 177

Police Officer When it is necessary to notify next of kin shall complete the Next of Kin Information screen page. When assigned to notify a next of kin of a death shall

Answer 177

 ensure the victim has been properly identified  deliver the message in person or if unable to deliver the message in person, consult with a supervisory officer  make every effort to contact the next of kin and deliver the information  make every effort to leave the next of kin in the company of a support person or where appropriate, request the assistance of Victim Services Toronto When delivering a compassionate message on behalf of the investigating officer, obtain the necessary information from the original eReport, including  as much information as possible concerning the deceased such as how, when and where the death occurred

Question 178

If Police officer’s attempts to reach a relative/next of kin are unsuccessful shall

Answer 178

 notify a supervisory officer  add supplementary information to the original eReport  send the relevant information and the original eReport number by V–mail to the Prime handle - RMS – Ops will create and post a BOLO.  if the deceased person is or appears to be of Aboriginal ancestry contact the Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Aboriginal Peacekeeping section by telephone or by e–mail at “Aboriginal Peacekeeping” for assistance in locating next of kin - Additional assistance can be obtained from members of First Nations across Canada or from social agencies dealing with Aboriginal issues. The web link to social agencies within the City of Toronto is available on the CPEU – Aboriginal Peacekeeping webpage on the Internet.  add supplementary information to the original eReport, including the Sudden Death Detail page

Question 179

if the deceased person is or appears to be of Aboriginal ancestry contact the

Answer 179

Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Aboriginal Peacekeeping section by telephone or by e–mail at “Aboriginal Peacekeeping” for assistance in locating next of kin - Additional assistance can be obtained from members of First Nations across Canada or from social agencies dealing with Aboriginal issues. The web link to social agencies within the City of Toronto is available on the CPEU – Aboriginal Peacekeeping webpage on the Internet.

Question 180

Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of

Answer 180

bringing a Form 5.2 before a Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only) and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held for a show cause hearing.

Question 181

Divisional detective when the Coroner has ordered an autopsy, ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the Post Mortem Examination

Answer 181

 applicable eReports  Preliminary Police Report - The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner has ordered an autopsy.  maintain continuity by ensuring  a TPS 214 is applied to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue, or  a police officer accompanies the body to the morgue  ensure an officer attends and obtains the results of the Post Mortem Examination then adds the supplementary information to the original eReport  consider and exercise, where applicable, all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits  notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when firearms are or may be a factor  notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons - The MPU is available as a resource in all unidentified human remains investigations that will provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support. The MPU will also ensure all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

Question 182

Family Responsibility Arrest Warrants | This is just to read

Answer 182

Family Responsibility Arrest Warrants The Family Responsibility Office (FRO) centralized enforcement program mandated to enforce child and spousal court orders in the Province of Ontario. Staff from the FRO may commence and conduct proceedings on behalf of support recipients in the family court to ensure child and spousal support payments are made, including conducting a Default Hearing under s.41 of the Family Responsibility and Support Arrears Enforcement Act (FRSAEA). If a support payor fails to attend a FRSAEA Default Hearing, the court may issue a warrant for arrest (Form 32B) under s. 41(7) of the FRSAEA. The warrant of arrest directs officers to take the named person to court so that a Justice can issue an undertaking to appear (Form 131) to the person, directing them to attend a later court date. When a support payor is arrested on this type of warrant, the person may be taken to the family court, or if the court is not sitting, brought before a Justice of the Peace as soon as possible to be dealt with according to law The FRO Warrant unit may be contacted to assist in determining the appropriate court return date to be noted on the undertaking to appear or recognizance. Staff from the FRO can be reached via phone at 416-240-2443 (police only), and members should leave a detailed voicemail message when contacting the FRO outside of regular business hours.

Question 183

(FRO)

Answer 183

Family Responsibility Office

Question 184

MOH

Answer 184

medical officer of health the MOH

Question 185

Civil Warrants

Answer 185

There are two (2) types of civil warrants for arrest; namely, Small Claims Court warrants and Civil Court warrants. Members executing a civil warrant shall also comply with Procedure 02–14.

Question 186

Medical Orders

Answer 186

Medical Orders When a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease, the Health Protection and Promotion Act gives the Medical Officer of Health (MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment. The order is specific to the named person, a named hospital and the police service in the jurisdiction where the application is made. Unless otherwise specified in the order, the effective radius for medical orders is restricted to the jurisdiction of the applicant MOH. The West Park Healthcare Centre, located at 82 Buttonwood Avenue (in 12 Division), is the only medical facility in Ontario for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease.

Question 187

Bench Warrants – Fail to Appear or Additional Charge Being Laid If a "Fail to Appear" or

Answer 187

Bench Warrants – Fail to Appear or Additional Charge Being Laid If a "Fail to Appear" or additional charge is laid in relation to the execution of a bench warrant issued by the Superior Court of Justice (Superior Court), the new charge will be heard in the Ontario Court of Justice (OCJ). However, the individual must appear at the Superior Court on the bench warrant before any other court appearances for new or additional charges. In circumstances where the Superior Court is not sitting, a remand to the next sitting date of the Superior Court shall be sought at the bail hearing. Members shall make a prominent notation on the confidential crown envelope (crown envelope) to ensure that the person is not released until appearances have been made in both courts. A TPS 178 shall be completed and given to a court officer at the OCJ. Case managers shall advise the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue by telephone or TPS eFax of the execution of a Superior Court bench warrant at the time of processing. When a Superior Court bench warrant is issued, the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue shall advise the warrant officer in the division in which the original charges were laid. In the case of a person appearing on Toronto Police Service (Service) charges but also wanted on a warrant held by another jurisdiction, a TPS 178 shall be completed and given to a court officer at the Superior Court.

Question 188

Case Manager When property has been seized as a result of a multi–jurisdictional and/or joint forces operation shall ensure a Form;

Answer 188

Form 5.3 is completed and filed before a Judge.  The Form 5.3 is not contained in TPS Forms. Officers shall refer to the CC for the appropriate wording.

Question 189

The Case Manager shall  ensure compliance with Procedures 02–18, 04–21, Chapter 9 and 12–01  ensure compliance with items 1 to 10  comply with Procedure 12–08 for disclosure matters  not hold a person in custody from being transported to court due to the Form 5.2 not being completed The Case Manager shall ensure all required paperwork  is complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer and/or the supervisor  is in the crown envelope and available for disclosure in accordance with this Procedure and Procedure 12–08 When in receipt of an e-mail notice from a common informant indicating that a Justice has refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall ensure  the seizing officer attends a Report to a Ju

Answer 189

The Case Manager shall  ensure compliance with Procedures 02–18, 04–21, Chapter 9 and 12–01  ensure compliance with items 1 to 10  comply with Procedure 12–08 for disclosure matters  not hold a person in custody from being transported to court due to the Form 5.2 not being completed The Case Manager shall ensure all required paperwork  is complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer and/or the supervisor  is in the crown envelope and available for disclosure in accordance with this Procedure and Procedure 12–08 When in receipt of an e-mail notice from a common informant indicating that a Justice has refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall ensure  the seizing officer attends a Report to a Ju

Question 190

(OIPRD) What does it stand for

Answer 190

Office of the Independent Police Review Director

Question 191

OIPRD Liaison Officer – Chief of Police Designate The OIPRD Liaison Officer will assume all the duties and powers of the _________ in matters respecting an incident under investigation. The OIPRD Liaison Officer will coordinate the Service’s response to the OIPRD. The Chief of Police’s OIPRD Liaison Officer must be a Senior Officer.

Answer 191

Chief of Police in matters respecting an incident

Question 192

The Chief of Police has authorized the _______ – Professional Standards (PRS) – Complaints Administration as the OIPRD Liaison Officer. No member shall communicate directly or indirectly with any person from the OIPRD unless directed by the OIPRD Liaison Officer.

Answer 192

Inspector – Professional Standards

Question 193

All complaints shall be investigated on the merit and substance of the evidence and shall not involve an inquiry into the ________ of the complainant for the sole purpose of _______ the complainant’s credibility. Complainants shall not be dissuaded from making a complaint, nor shall they be made to feel that there may be any type of retribution for filing a complaint.

Answer 193

background undermining

Question 194

Chief of police Liason must be a

Answer 194

Senior officer

Question 195

Delivery of a Complaint Any member of the public may make an external complaint. A complaint shall be made on an OIPRD form which can be obtained at any Service facility or at the OIPRD website. The OIPRD form can be submitted

Answer 195

electronically, or  by mail, or  by TPS eFax, or  in person (or agent), or  by delivering the OIPRD form to any Service facility. Complaints about a police officer from another police service and third party complaints will also be accepted in the above manner.

Question 196

Local Resolution A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within 30 days of the complainant reporting to the police and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

Answer 196

*dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms or ``` *failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Ontario Human Rights Code (Human Rights Code), or ```  using profane language, or  acting in a disorderly manner, or  neglect of duty, or  failing to work in accordance with orders, or  failing to make a report or record entry, or  conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or  contravening any provision of the Police Services Act (PSA) or its Regulations of a less serious nature. Local resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.

Question 197

Local resolutions are or are not placed in offices personnel file

Answer 197

Not

Question 198

Customer Service Resolution | A customer service resolution in relation to uniform external complaints is;

Answer 198

an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days of the date of notice to PRS, and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:  dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or  failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Human Rights Code, or  using profane language, or  acting in a disorderly manner, or  neglect of duty, or  failing to work in accordance with orders, or  failing to make a report or record entry, or  conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or  contravening any provision of the PSA or its Regulations of a less serious nature. Customer service resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form. No record of a customer service resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file. Informal Resolution

Question 199

The categories of a external complaint Resolution

Answer 199

Local Resolution A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within 30 days of the complainant reporting to the police Customer Service Resolution A customer service resolution is an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days of the date of notice to PRS Informal Resolution An informal resolution is an agreement between all parties after a complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD and involves conduct that is deemed less serious. There are two types of informal resolutions: a) Informal resolution occurs during the investigation When a complaint is lodged directly with the OIPRD, the substance and nature of the complaint is not initially established by police. The investigating supervisor may then resolve the complaint by way of an Informal Resolution Agreement (004-0307 OIPRD). An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required. b) Informal resolution occurs after the investigation is completed After an investigation, when a completed Investigative Report (004-0309 OIPRD) has been forwarded to the OIPRD, the OIPRD may suggest that an informal resolution is an option; which may or may not involve unit level discipline. Informal Resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form. No record of an informal resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.

Question 200

Unit Complaint Coordinator The investigating supervisor shall review the Unit Complaint Co–ordinator (UCC) e-mail daily for notice of new complaints, if applicable. When required to investigate an OIPRD conduct complaint shall initially establish the substance and nature of the complaint. When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint may be resolved by an informal resolution

Answer 200

 may utilize the following options  discuss the matter with the complainant, and/or  discuss the matter with the respondent officer, and/or  facilitate a discussion between the respondent officer and the complainant, and/or  facilitate an apology from the respondent officer, and/or  refer the matter to mediation, if the complainant, respondent officer and Director of OIPRD consent  shall record the particulars of the complaint and actions taken in the memorandum book An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required when facilitating an informal resolution.

Question 201

An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required when facilitating an ________ ______.

Answer 201

informal resolution.

Question 202

With regard to death notifications if a detective is unable to located next of kin you can reach out to. The——— for assistance

Answer 202

Victim Services Toronto can assist by providing contact with these agencies.  contact the office of the Public Trustee for assistance where no next of kin can be located

Question 203

Child means any person under the age

Answer 203

Child means any person under the age of 18 years. | [Source: Child, Youth & Family Services Act, ss. 3(1)].

Question 204

Homicide Investigation means an investigation led by Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is:

Answer 204

``` :  obvious or suspected foul play,  the cause of death cannot be explained,  found human remains,  any other suspicious circumstance. ```

Question 205

Intimate Relationship includes;

Answer 205

Intimate Relationship includes current or former relationships between opposite sex and same sex partners and include persons who:  are legally married to one another;  were previously married to one another;  are not married, but are currently in a family–type relationship;  are not married, but were formerly in a family–type relationship;  have a child in common regardless of whether such persons have been married or lived together at one time, or;  are (or have ever been) involved in a dating relationship.

Question 206

Major Case Manager have to have completed what course

Answer 206

Major Case Manager shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent as defined by the Ontario Police College, and; shall have the resources to manage investigations through the minister–approved software, currently known as PowerCase. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 207

Major Case Manager means the investigator responsible for the effective governance and management of _______ ______ ________ ______ investigation and possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the functions of ________ _______ Management.

Answer 207

of every threshold major case Major Case

Question 208

Major Case Manager had to be resources to manage investigations through the minister–approved software, currently known as _______ ______. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Answer 208

PowerCase

Question 209

Arrest Authority Section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC) provides authorities for arrest without warrant by any person. In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in s. 494 CC, a peace officer is given additional authorities under ss. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC. A peace officer may arrest any person who

Answer 209

495(1) a) has committed an indictable offence, or a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds has committed or is about to commit an indictable offence b) the officer finds committing a criminal offence c) on reasonable grounds, the officer believes is wanted on a warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction where the person is found, or 524(2) and 525(6) d) has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release e) has committed an indictable offence while on release for a criminal offence Oic 31(1) f) is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds is about to commit a breach of the peace

Question 210

524(2) and 525(6) d) has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a

Answer 210

524(2) and 525(6) d) has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release e) has committed an indictable offence while on release for a criminal offence

Question 211

For the purposes of a Human Trafficking investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations – ______ ______ – _____ ______ Enforcement Team.

Answer 211

– Sex Crimes – Human Trafficking Enforcement Team.

Question 212

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from ________ ________. ________

Answer 212

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations - Organized Crime Enforcement. .

Question 213

In Death investigations Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the ______ \_____ ______ in every threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario _____ ______ ______ Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Answer 213

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 214

Sudden Death means an

Answer 214

unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other than violence.

Question 215

Unnatural Sudden Death means the ________ death of a person by ______, _______, _____ or _______ circumstances, and includes found human remains, in whole or in part. 04-05 Missing Persons

Answer 215

the unexpected suicide, homicide, accident or suspicious

Question 216

Suicide means

Answer 216

intentionally caused by the person's own actions.

Question 217

Sudden Death means an

Answer 217

an unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other than violence.

Question 218

Natural Causes means a death due to

Answer 218

explainable medical causes including old age or disease.

Question 219

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every

Answer 219

threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual] Sudden Death means an unexpect

Question 220

Rationale Missing person occurrences are a high-risk area of policing, and must be given appropriate levels of priority and resources from the outset. Each missing person occurrence reported to the Toronto Police Service (Service) shall/will be treated as an _________, given the potential that _________ may be uncovered at a later date.

Answer 220

investigation, criminality

Question 221

Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level _____ and ____ searches with missing Person  Supervisory Officer ________ mandatory for all missing person investigations

Answer 221

Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for all missing person investigations

Question 222

A missing person is a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:  The persons whereabouts are ______ and, - the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or - it is reasonable in the circumstances to _______ for the person’s safety because of the circumstances surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.  A member of a _______ ______ is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so.

Answer 222

unknown and, fear police force is

Question 223

All reports of missing persons are accepted at the time that they are made and given full consideration and attention regardless of:

Answer 223

 where the missing person resides;  where the reportee resides;  the reportee’s relationship to the missing person;  the length of time the person has been missing; or  the missing person’s age, sex, race, citizenship, ethnic origin, religion, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, belief, social standing, disability or lifestyle.

Question 224

Missing Persons Act The Missing Persons Act came into effect on ______ 1, _______. This legislation will assist police officers investigating missing person occurrences by providing them with the ability, in certain circumstances, to:

Answer 224

July 1, 2019. :  obtain a court order for a person or entity to produce records that would assist in locating a missing person;  obtain a search warrant to allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person; and  make an urgent demand for records without judicial authorization.

Question 225

The missing persons unit is Responsible for occurrences of persons

Answer 225

Missing in the city of TorontoOr on the way to or from the city of Toronto. This includes both newly reported and historic cases Of missing persons any and Unidentified human remains

Question 226

The missing person unit is responsible to enter all relevant information onto the

Answer 226

National Centre for missing persons and unidentified remains website.NCMPUR (NCMPUR) means the national centre created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing persons and unidentified remains. The Toronto Police Service supports the centre and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of missing persons and unidentified remains.

Question 227

NCMPUR. Is the web site for missing persons

Answer 227

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)

Question 228

Missing person unit is designated by the chief to coordinate Management and Report on the use of urgent demands for records outlined in section ____ of the missing persons act

Answer 228

8

Question 229

Missing persons where it has yet to be determined whether foul play involved And the individual remains on accounted for ______ days after being reported missing shall be deemed

Answer 229

30 days A major case pursuant to the Ontario Major Case Management Manual

Question 230

There are three levels of investigative response to missing person cases it is determined with information collected on the

Answer 230

TPS260 & TPS260A. These forms are investigative aid that will be used to assist responding officers and supervisors and the officer in charge assessing the level of risk.

Question 231

In order to utilize a missing persons DNA as an investigative tool

Answer 231

Written consent from the missing persons family is required

Question 232

Divisional resource checklist

Answer 232

Divisional unit Commander Shall ensure that a list of local resources is created and maintained to exist a missing person services Such as community centre pools arenas libraries churches schools shopping malls transportation facilities hotels motels hostels and withdraw management centres formally known as detoxification centres social service agencies drop in centre is hospital’s private security agency’s operating in the division

Question 233

Level two and three searches shall be conducted using the

Answer 233

Incident management system as defined in chapter 10 appendix A

Question 234

Before an Amber alert is initiated the the following guidelines must be met

Answer 234

The investigator believes the child is under 18 The investigator believe the child is in danger There is descriptive information about one or more of the following The child, Abductor, vehicle And believe that an immediate Broadcrest alert will help in locating the child

Question 235

Toronto Resident Reported Missing to another Jurisdiction When information is received from another police agency that a City of Toronto resident has been reported missing in another jurisdiction, the Detective Sergeant of the division where the missing person resides shall ensure

Answer 235

 a Service lead investigator is assigned to the occurrence;  an investigation is undertaken in cooperation with the agency that received the report;  once the other agency has cleared the investigative leads within their jurisdiction, the Service will take responsibility for the investigation;  CPIC entries are updated as required to indicate the investigation is now the responsibility of the Service; and  compliance with all relevant direction contained in this Procedure.

Question 236

If a missing person is under 16 years of age And circumstances warrant

Answer 236

The police officer shall advise the parent, guardian, or the approved agency that has custody of the child that they (meaning them not us) may apply to a justice of the peace for an apprehension warrant under the child youth and family services act.CYFSA

Question 237

When in receipt of a Child Apprehension Warrant, officers shall

Answer 237

scan and attach the warrant to the original eReport and notify RMS – Ops to ensure the warrant is entered onto CPIC International Investigations

Question 238

When investigating any missing person case that is international in nature where there is an immediate concern for public safety, or high risk travelling, officers shall notify

Answer 238

Intelligence Services - Security Section (INT – Security) at 8-3500 immediately. Police officers investigating any other cases that are international in scope shall contact the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons for assistance.

Question 239

Police Officer The first police officer shall be responsible for conducting the initial investigation, preserving evidence, completing all necessary reports and notifying a supervisory officer of all pertinent facts. When investigating a report of a missing person shall 

Answer 239

comply with the applicable Reporting section of this Procedure  interview the last person to see the missing person, where possible  comply with Procedure 04–09 if the services of an interpreter are required  determine if any information has been recorded on a TPS 261 by the reportee, and obtain a copy where possible  obtain a complete and accurate description of the person, including clothing, medical conditions, identification and possible destinations  complete the TPS 261, as required  obtain dental information for the missing person, if available  obtain a photograph of the missing person, if available, and transmit electronically to relevant units and agencies, both internal and external  search the home and the immediate area thoroughly  if permission to search the home or adjoining property is not granted notify a supervisor and add the details to the original eReport  provide the description and all other pertinent information to the Communications Operator to relay to the field  phone RMS - Ops as required and provide all pertinent information to ensure that a new missing person eReport is generated - When reporting officers call RMS - Ops to create the missing person eReport, RMS – Ops staff will ensure that the missing person is entered on CPIC immediately.  ensure the information is provided to surrounding police services, if appropriate  complete a 300m radius search of the place last seen, if known - Always consider the nature of the area to be searched (e.g. ground, urbanized, ravine or water). When searching in highly urbanized areas, searchers should consider the third dimension, upwards through the building layers.

Question 240

Missing persons. What form is used when canvassing the neighbours which has suggested questions on it

Answer 240

TPS 233A

Question 241

What level of search there’s a command post start

Answer 241

Command posts are established starting at a level 2 search

Question 242

Supervisory and Officer and a missing person level one. What forms do they ensure are completed

Answer 242

Ensure the TPS260 and the TPS261 have been completed Complete the required 260 a 

Question 243

Level one search police officer Shall contact communication services and request at all pertinent information including telephone numbers and contact information of the officer in charge is forwarded to

Answer 243

Toronto Paramedics Toronto fire department The TTC

Question 244

Level 2 search Supervisory Officer The first supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response.

Answer 244

When commencing a Level 2 search and investigative response shall  ensure compliance with item 1  comply with item 2  attend the scene and establish a command post at a location other than the place last seen or the missing person’s home notify the Officer in Charge  ensure relatives of the missing person are interviewed  consider the nature of the area to be searched (e.g. ground, urbanized, ravine, water)  ensure Communications Services is notified, and the description and all other pertinent information is broadcast  assign adequate personnel to conduct the search  assign search areas by using the TPS 230 and the divisional search maps  document all assignments on a TPS 231  consider obtaining the assistance from such support units as  Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO)  Emergency Management & Public Order – Mounted  Specialized Emergency Response – Marine  Specialized Emergency Response – Police Dog Services  external police services  York or Durham Regional Police Air Support Units [only when authorized by the Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) or other senior officer]  Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Auxiliary Program  community organizations  when practical, consider having someone familiar with the missing person accompany a patrolling police officer  conduct on–going consultation with the Officer in Charge/Search Manager where circumstances may ensure evidence is collected and preserved in compliance with Procedure 04–21  warrant escalation to a Level 3 search

Question 245

Divisional investigator level 2 search shall

Answer 245

Divisional Investigator The divisional investigator is responsible for conducting a timely and thorough investigation of missing person occurrences. In addition to conducting the investigation, shall  attend the scene, as required  ensure that photo, dental, fingerprint and/or footprint information of the missing person have been requested and obtained, if available  ensure that a personal item for DNA analysis, as outlined in Appendix A is  requested from the family of the missing person;  seized in compliance with Procedure 04–21, if available  obtain a family reference DNA sample from a member of the missing persons family in compliance with Procedure 04–21  ensure the required RCMP Form A01 and Form A02 are completed, as required and attached to the original eReport  if it is determined that a judicial authorization (production order/search warrant) is required to  produce records that may assist in locating the missing person; or  allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person, shall  make the required application in compliance with Procedure 02-17  consider communicating the relevant information on social media in compliance with Procedure 17–13  consider requesting assistance from the media in compliance with Procedure 17–01  consider using a poster or bulletin to assist in locating the missing person by contacting Corporate Communications  notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons  ensure all investigative efforts are recorded in the original eReport  scan and attach all memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport In exigent circumstances, when it is determined that an urgent demand for records is required shall  consult with the MPU  complete the Form 5 - MPA, as required  complete the Form 6 – MPA, as required  send a copy of the completed Form 5 – MPA and Form 6 – MPA to the Officer in Charge of the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons - Submission of the completed Form 6 – MPA is required simultaneously with the Form 5 – MPA.  provide notice to any person whose information was produced pursuant to an urgent demand, which includes  description of the information the officer accessed; and contact information for the requesting officer The notice may be provided verbally or in writing. If the notice is provided verbally, the officer shall provide a written copy of the notice upon the person’s request.

Question 246

Officer in Charge The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the Detective Sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. When becoming involved in a Level 2 search and investigation shall

Answer 246

 ensure a supervisory officer takes charge of the investigation in compliance with item 6  ensure detectives are assigned to the investigation, where applicable  ensure adequate and appropriate resources are obtained to conduct the search  notify the  Unit Commander, if available  Duty Inspector, via TPOC  ensure the applicable eReports, TPS 260, TPS260A and a TPS 261 have been completed as required, and all pertinent information has been entered onto CPIC  ensure all memorandum notes and hardcopy files have been scanned and attached to the original eReport  ensure Communications Services has been contacted and all pertinent information, including the telephone number and contact information of the Officer in Charge has been forwarded to  Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics)  Toronto Fire Services (TFS)  Toronto Transit Commission (TTC)  ensure that a media relations officer is appointed, or where appropriate, request the assistance of Corporate Communications to handle all media enquiries  ensure the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR), as required  consider the use of the Service’s Pushpin technology where there is an immediate need to make photographs of the person available If information is to be posted on Pushpin shall ensure  the TPOC is contacted for assistance with posting missing persons bulletins to Pushpin outside of regular business hours  it is posted in the Service Wide area of the application  Communications Services is notified immediately, so an alert may be broadcast notifying all members regarding the Pushpin posting Upon being advised of a missing person under 16 years of age shall ensure  compliance with item 1  all members involved in the search are notified that the search level has been escalated  the school principal is contacted, as soon as practicable  In cases where foul play is suspected shall ensure a Major Case Manager is assigned to conduct the investigation in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual.

Question 247

Level 2; Divisional Investigator The divisional investigator is responsible for conducting a timely and thorough investigation of missing person occurrences. In addition to conducting the investigation, shall

Answer 247

 attend the scene, as required  ensure that photo, dental, fingerprint and/or footprint information of the missing person have been requested and obtained, if available  ensure that a personal item for DNA analysis, as outlined in Appendix A is  requested from the family of the missing person;  seized in compliance with Procedure 04–21, if available  obtain a family reference DNA sample from a member of the missing persons family in compliance with Procedure 04–21  ensure the required RCMP Form A01 and Form A02 are completed, as required and attached to the original eReport  if it is determined that a judicial authorization (production order/search warrant) is required to  produce records that may assist in locating the missing person; or  allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person, shall  make the required application in compliance with Procedure 02-17  consider communicating the relevant information on social media in compliance with Procedure 17–13  consider requesting assistance from the media in compliance with Procedure 17–01  consider using a poster or bulletin to assist in locating the missing person by contacting Corporate Communications  notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons  ensure all investigative efforts are recorded in the original eReport  scan and attach all memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport In exigent circumstances, when it is determined that an urgent demand for records is required shall  consult with the MPU  complete the Form 5 - MPA, as required  complete the Form 6 – MPA, as required  send a copy of the completed Form 5 – MPA and Form 6 – MPA to the Officer in Charge of the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons - Submission of the completed Form 6 – MPA is required simultaneously with the Form 5 – MPA.  provide notice to any person whose information was produced pursuant to an urgent demand, which includes  description of the information the officer accessed; and contact information for the requesting officer The notice may be provided verbally or in writing. If the notice is provided verbally, the officer shall provide a written copy of the notice upon the person’s request.

Question 248

Duty Inspector with regard to a level 3 search of missing person

Answer 248

The Duty Inspector is responsible for ensuring that sufficient resources are made available, the applicable Deputy Chief of Police is advised and determine, after consultation, whether to escalate or de–escalate physical search operations. Upon being notified by the Officer in Charge of the requirement for a Level 3 search and investigative response shall  ensure compliance with this Procedure  notify the respective Deputy Chief of Police, as soon as practicable  appoint an Incident Commander from the division  ensure at least one police officer involved in the original search is available for consultation, if required  be responsible for arranging facilities and equipment necessary to conduct a Level 3 search  notify the on–call Search Manager  request TPOC to contact CPEU – Auxiliary Program to begin the call–out of auxiliary members where appropriate  maintain liaison with the Search Manager After consultation, shall determine whether to escalate or de–escalate physical search operations.

Question 249

Search Manager – Emergency Management & Public Order When detail to a level 3 search The Search Manager is responsible for co–ordinating the search for the missing person. Upon being notified by the Duty Inspector of the implementation of a Level 3 search and investigative response shall

Answer 249

ensure a Command Post is established and attend the Command Post when required  maintain liaison with the Incident Commander  co–ordinate the Level 3 search aspect of the incident  implement unit-specific policies regarding Level 3 searches

Question 250

Regarding level 3 searches Emergency Management & Public Order provides search management support. The overall responsibility for the search and its investigation remains with the

Answer 250

Division

Question 251

Detective Sergeant during level 3 search after 30 days have passed

Answer 251

When the missing person is not located within 30 days of being reported missing and there is no new evidence, explanation or circumstances indicating that the occurrence should not be cancelled shall ensure  the status of the original eReport remains open  request is made to have the missing person's dentist complete a RCMP 1667 - At the discretion of the Detective Sergeant, the RCMP 1667 may be completed before the 30–day period has passed.  supplementary information is added to the original eReport for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristic File and submit with the RCMP 1667  an investigative chronology is created and maintained  regular investigative follow–up until the missing person is located or a sufficient conclusion is established  the occurrence is re-assigned when the lead investigator leaves the unit  in cases where foul play is suspected, an electronic ViCLAS Report/eBooklet is completed in accordance with Procedure 05-19  the requirements of the Ontario Major Case Management Manual are met pursuant to the use of the Ministry approved software (PowerCase)

Question 252

What is a RCMP 1667 form and when it is used

Answer 252

After 30 days during a level 3 search request is made to have the missing person's dentist complete a RCMP 1667 - At the discretion of the Detective Sergeant, the RCMP 1667 may be completed before the 30–day period has passed.  supplementary information is added to the original eReport for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristic File and submit with the RCMP 1667

Question 253

Amber alert definition

Answer 253

AMBER Alert means a co–operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Transportation to provide early notification to the public where a person under 18 years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstances lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person, and/or the abductor, and/or the abductor’s vehicle to believe an immediate broadcast alert will help in locating the person. An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended.

Question 254

How long is an Amber alert activated for

Answer 254

An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended.

Question 255

Divisional Search Box means a

Answer 255

a portable storage box containing the necessary items essential to the supervisory officer at the scene of a Level 2 or Level 3 search. These items shall be determined by Procedure 04–05 and established practice, and should be located where it is easily accessible by the Officer in Charge.

Question 256

Level 2 Missing Person Search means the level of search when a missing person is: 

Answer 256

``` :  under 16 years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves;  mentally challenged;  over 65 years of age or infirm, or;  there is evidence of foul play. Level 3 Missing Person Search means th ```

Question 257

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations .

Answer 257

- For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations – Organized Crime Enforcement.

Question 258

Missing Person – means a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:

Answer 258

The persons whereabouts are unknown and,  the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or  it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s safety because of the circumstances surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.

Question 259

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) means

Answer 259

the national centre created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing persons and unidentified remains. The Toronto Police Service supports the centre and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of missing persons and unidentified remains.

Question 260

NCMPUR

Answer 260

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)

Question 261

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) means the

Answer 261

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) means the national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non–parental abduction.

Question 262

NMCO

Answer 262

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) means the

Question 263

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a

Answer 263

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or any other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of fourteen whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.

Question 264

A Parental Abduction the child is under what age

Answer 264

fourteen whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a

Question 265

Place Last Seen means a

Answer 265

Place Last Seen means a point where the missing person was actually seen by a witness.

Question 266

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the

Answer 266

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 267

Search Manager means the

Answer 267

Search Manager means the police officer in charge of Emergency Management & Public Order – Search Management Team.

Question 268

Unit means | This was in the missing Persons section but has a broad description

Answer 268

Unit means a section of the Service as designated by the Board, such as a field headquarter, division, bureau or squad.

Question 269

FRSAEA what is it

Answer 269

family responsibility and support arrears enforcement act FRSAEA

Question 270

When making an arrest

Answer 270

When making an arrest shall  identify themselves as a police officer  inform the person that they are under arrest  inform the person of the reason for the arrest  take physical control of the person  inform the person of the Right to Counsel, including the existence and availability of duty counsel and free legal advice (Legal Aid)  ensure that the person understands the Right to Counsel  search the person in compliance with Procedure 01–02  place the person in handcuffs in accordance with training and utilize the double lock mechanism where possible  when handcuffs are not used, be prepared to justify this decision - Keeping in mind officer and public safety, officers may use discretion when determining whether to handcuff an individual as it may not be practical or necessary in all circumstances (e.g. due to a person’s medical condition, age, disability, pregnancy, or frailty).  allow reasonable access to a telephone as soon as practicable  ensure that, when an arrested person has the care, charge or custody of another person who, because of age, physical or medical condition, is unable to care for themselves, every effort is made to obtain interim care for the dependent person

Question 271

Search Incident to Arrest The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Langlois, 1990) As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for

Answer 271

Search Incident to Arrest The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Langlois, 1990) As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for  weapons  anything that could cause injury (including drugs and alcohol)  anything that could assist in a person’s escape  evidence

Question 272

Search Authorities | A police officer may search a person

Answer 272

``` Search Authorities A police officer may search a person  with a person’s consent  when authorized by statute  after an arrest has been made (common law – incident to an arrest) Consent Search ```

Question 273

When conducting a consent search of a person shall

Answer 273

ask for the consent of the person and explain the nature of the search  inform the person that they have a right to refuse consent  inform the person of potential consequences of the search, including the possibility that anything seized may be used as evidence  immediately stop searching the person if consent is withdrawn, unless evidence has been disclosed that would permit continuation pursuant to lawful authorities

Question 274

Search Incident to Arrest The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an _________ fashion. (_______ v. ______, 1990)

Answer 274

abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Langlois, 1990)

Question 275

Search Authorities A police officer may search a person (3 points)

Answer 275

``` Search Authorities A police officer may search a person  with a person’s consent  when authorized by statute  after an arrest has been made (common law – incident to an arrest) Consent Search ```

Question 276

Immigration Warrants Under section A55(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA), a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a permanent resident or a foreign national whom the officer has

Answer 276

reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an admissibility hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA. When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons such as receipt of a pre–removal risk assessment (PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre (CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest on the CBSA’s behalf.

Question 277

IRPA

Answer 277

Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA),

Question 278

(CBSA)

Answer 278

Canada Border Services Agency

Question 279

Reporting Use of Force | Ontario Regulation 926/90 compels members to submit a Use of Force Report to the Chief of Police when a member

Answer 279

Ontario Regulation 926/90 compels members to submit a Use of Force Report to the Chief of Police when a member  uses physical force on another person that results in an injury that requires medical attention  draws a handgun in the presence of a member of the public, excluding a member of the police force while on duty  discharges a firearm  points a firearm regardless if the firearm is a handgun or a long gun  uses a weapon other than a firearm on another person For the purpose of reporting a use of force incident, the definition of a weapon includes a police dog or police horse that comes into direct physical contact with a person. Additionally, officers are required to submit a Use of Force Report and a TPS 584 to the Chief of Police when the officer uses a CEW  as a “demonstrated force presence”  in drive stun mode or full deployment, whether intentionally or otherwise. Use of force reports are collected and used to identify individual and group training requirements, or Service use of force governance requirements.

Question 280

Confidential Source – Level 2 means

Answer 280

Confidential Source – Level 2 means  a source under the age of 18 (young person), or  a source whose information could be considered:  multi–jurisdictional;  may affect national security;  involves organized crime;  is beyond the resources or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;  at the discretion of the Controller. Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a Handler – Level 2. Controller – Source m

Question 281

Confidential Source – Level 2 means  a source under the age of _____ (young person), or  a source whose information could be considered:  ________–_______;  may affect ________ security;  involves ________ crime;  is beyond the _________ or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;  at the discretion of the _________. Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a Handler –

Answer 281

of 18 (young person), or  multi–jurisdictional;  may affect national security;  involves organized crime; abilities of the officers involved; Controller.

Question 282

When assigned to a Service vehicle that is equipped with an ICCS shall, at the beginning of the shift, check if the ICCS is functioning properly by activating the system and creating a brief recording to ensure that:

Answer 282

 both cameras are capable of recording video  the wireless microphones are capable of remotely activating the system and recording audio  the fixed rear microphone is capable of recording audio  the camera lens and the windshield are free of debris that may obscure the camera  the camera is locked in position facing the front of the Service vehicle

Question 283

Designated Operator

Answer 283

The member designated to operate the audio/video equipment in the cells

Question 284

The member designated to operate the audio/video equipment. | After the person has been lodged in a cell shall

Answer 284

The member designated to operate the audio/video equipment. After the person has been lodged in a cell shall  monitor the person  notify the Officer in Charge in the event of any emergency incident involving the person including, but not limited to  sickness and medical treatment any injury or attempt suicide  any assault, aggressive or bizarre behaviour  any event which is likely to result in a complaint or SIU investigation  any change in condition of persons in custody  ensure the DAMS units are operating properly  immediately notify the Officer in Charge if the equipment malfunctions Officer in Charge

Question 285

ensure the CYAC is notified of a sudden unexpected death of a child under ______

Answer 285

ensure the CYAC is notified of a sudden unexpected death of a child under 16

Question 286

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) The CYAC is a section of ______|______ that promotes the protection of victims; provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing support. The CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include ____(**four points)

Answer 286

Sex Crimes physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority  physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult  sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office  occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended.

Question 287

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) The CYAC is a section of ______|____ that promotes the protection of victims; provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing support. The CYAC will investigate child ______ and ______ abuse cases that include  _______ ________, _______ abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of _____ and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority  physical assaults when the victim is under the age of ______ years and the suspect is a known adult  sexual offences when the victim is under the age of ______ years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office  occurrences entitled _____ in ____ of _______ or Child Left Unattended. Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases. When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section. Victim Interview

Answer 287

Sex Crimes sexual and physical  physical assaults, emotional, age of 16  physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult 18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not  occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended. Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases. When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section. Victim Interview

Question 288

Victim Interview related to sexual assault; Only an accredited _______ _____ investigator shall conduct detailed interviews with the victim. Interviews shall be conducted in a private and victim appropriate environment that provides for the safety and security of the victim. The investigator may wish to delay the interview based on careful consideration of the condition of the victim and the information and evidence that is already available. Where operationally possible every effort should be made to provide an interviewer of the victim’s preferred gender. Sexual Assault Care C

Answer 288

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC) Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the oncall SACC nurse. - There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between

Question 289

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC) | Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact

Answer 289

the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the on call SACC nurse. - There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between 2000hrs Friday evening and Monday 0730hrs, they are fully mobile, providing service to the 7 emergency departments in Toronto – Mount Sinai, Toronto General Hospital, Toronto Western Hospital, Michael Garron Hospital, St. Joseph’s Health Centre, Sunnybrook Health Sciences Centre and St. Michael’s Hospital. The SACC nurse can be reached by telephone and will arrange to see the victim at the above noted hospitals. Women’s College SACC operates under the “Acute Mandate” and shall be contacted for all sexual assault victims where the offence occurred within the previous 12 days.

Question 290

Under section A55(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA), a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a _________ _______ or a ________ _____ whom the officer has reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an admissibility hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA. When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons such as receipt of a pre–removal risk assessment (PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre (CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest on the CBSA’s behalf.

Answer 290

a permanent resident or a foreign national

Question 291

FRSAEA

Answer 291

family responsibility and support arrears enforcement act

Question 292

Regulated Interactions Toronto police service Board Policy entitled Regulated Interactions with the Community and the Collection of Identifying Information (TPSB Policy). This Procedure only applies to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a face-to-face encounter, to identify themself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected, only if that attempt is done for the purpose of

Answer 292

 inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or  inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or  gathering information for intelligence purposes. Notwithstanding the above, this Procedure does not apply to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual when [?] investigating an offence the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed;  the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer (e.g. during a traffic stop or trespass investigation);  the individual is under arrest or is being detained;  the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;  the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or  the individual is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officer’s duties.

Question 293

Regulated interactions | interactions With the public are governed by

Answer 293

Ontario regulations 58/ 16 Meet under the police services act entitled collection of identifying information in certain circumstances prohibition and duties And toronto Police Service board policy entitled Regulated interactions with the community and the collection of identifying information

Question 294

Regulated interactions the procedure applies when a police officer is asking an individual face-to-face to identify themselves.

Answer 294

inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or  inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; a and/or  gathering information for intelligence purposes. .

Question 295

Regulated Interactions the Procedure does not apply to a police officer to collect information when

Answer 295

investigating an offence the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed;  the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer (e.g. during a traffic stop or trespass investigation);  the individual is under arrest or is being detained;  the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;  the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or  the individual is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officer’s duties.

Question 296

**Regulated Interactions a Police** A police officer’s exercise of discretion and all interactions between a police officer and an individual must be

Answer 296

lawful, ethical, and bias-free; and conducted in a professional manner with effective communication which respects and upholds the rights and freedoms of all individuals. This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure compliance with  the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against arbitrary detention and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;  O. Reg. 58/16;  the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;  the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part II of the MFIPPA; and TPSB Policy and other associated Service governance.

Question 297

Regulated Interactions This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure compliance with 

Answer 297

 the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against arbitrary detention and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;  O. Reg. 58/16;  the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;  the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part II of the MFIPPA; and TPSB Policy and other associated Service governance.

Question 298

Ontario regulation 58/ 16

Answer 298

In relation to regulated interactions

Question 299

Regulated interaction A police officer shall not attempt to collect identifying information about an individual from the individual if 

Answer 299

 any part of the reason for the attempted collection is that the police officer perceives the individual to be within a particular racialized group unless, These points are unless;;;;;  the police officer is seeking a particular individual,  being within the racialized group forms part of the description of the particular individual or is evident from a visual representation of the particular individual, and  the police officer has additional information, in addition to information about the particular individual being in a racialized group, that may help to identify the individual or narrow the description of the individual;  Additional information may include, but is not limited to the following:

Question 300

A police officer shall not attempt to collect identifying information about an individual from the individual if

Answer 300

any part of the reason for the attempted collection is that the police officer perceives the individual to be within a particular racialized group unless,  the police officer is seeking a particular individual,  being within the racialized group forms part of the description of the particular individual or is evident from a visual representation of the particular individual, and  the police officer has additional information, in addition to information about the particular individual being in a racialized group, that may help to identify the individual or narrow the description of the individual;

Question 301

For the purpose of this Procedure only, as stipulated in O. Reg. 58/16, a Regulated Interaction is done in an arbitrary way unless the police officer has a reason that they can articulate that complies with all of the following

Answer 301

The reason includes details about the individual that cause the police officer to reasonably suspect that identifying the individual may contribute to or assist with  inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or  inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or  gathering information for intelligence purposes. This is when you can’t;; The reason does not include either of the following:  that the individual has declined to answer a question from the police officer which the individual is not legally required to answer; or  that the individual has attempted or is attempting to discontinue interaction with the police officer in circumstances in which the individual has the legal right to do so.  The reason is not only that the individual is present in a high crime location.

Question 302

Procedure A police officer’s exercise of discretion and all interactions between a police officer and an individual must be lawful, ethical, and bias-free; and conducted in a professional manner with effective communication which respects and upholds the rights and freedoms of all individuals. This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure compliance with

Answer 302

 the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against arbitrary detention and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;  O. Reg. 58/16;  the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;  the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part II of the MFIPPA; and TPSB Policy and other associated Service governance.

Question 303

Procedure A police officer’s exercise of discretion and all interactions between a police officer and an individual must be lawful, ethical, and bias-free; and conducted in a professional manner with effective communication which respects and upholds the rights and freedoms of all individuals. This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure compliance with  the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. ______ protection against arbitrary detention and the S. _____ right to equal treatment under the law;  O. Reg. 58/16;  the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. ______ freedom from discrimination based on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;  the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part II of the MFIPPA; and

Answer 303

the S. 9 S. 15 S. 1

Question 304

(MFIPPA)

Answer 304

the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act

Question 305

What section of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) protection against arbitrary detention

Answer 305

generally and, in particular, the S. 9

Question 306

What section of the Canadian charter of rights and freedoms speaks to the right to equal treatment under the law

Answer 306

and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;

Question 307

Human rights code of Ontario HRC. What section speaks to freedom from discrimination based on race place of origin age colour ethnic origin gender identity or gender expression

Answer 307

S.1

Question 308

The municipal freedom of information and protection of privacy act MFIPPA When is this referred to in the study package

Answer 308

Is referred to in regulated interactions

Question 309

MFIPPA

Answer 309

The municipal freedom of information and protection of privacy act MFIPPA

Question 310

Regulated interaction Information is collected in an arbitrary way if

Answer 310

Information only consist of sex with the individual approximate age or both. And the reason for the attempted collection is it the police officer perceive the individual to be within a particular racialized group

Question 311

For the purpose of this Procedure only, as stipulated in O. Reg. 58/16, a Regulated Interaction is done in an arbitrary way unless the police officer has a reason that they can articulate that complies with all of the following 

Answer 311

 The reason includes details about the individual that cause the police officer to reasonably suspect that identifying the individual may contribute to or assist with  inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or  inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or  gathering information for intelligence purposes.  The reason does not include either of the following:  that the individual has declined to answer a question from the police officer which the individual is not legally required to answer; or  that the individual has attempted or is attempting to discontinue interaction with the police officer in circumstances in which the individual has the legal right to do so.  The reason is not only that the individual is present in a high crime location.

Question 312

Permission Required for Access to Restricted Regulated Interaction Reports & Historical Contact Data As of January 1, 2017, all Historical Contact Data shall be classified as restricted. Access to any Regulated Interaction Report collected in accordance with this Procedure shall be restricted 5 years after the date it was submitted to the Service’s records management system. Prior to accessing restricted Regulated Interaction Reports or Historical Contact Data, members will require the approval of the Chief, or designate acting in the absence of the Chief. Members seeking approval to access the restricted records shall submit a request to their Unit Commander to seek the approval of the Chief, or designate acting in the absence of the Chief. The Chief has appointed the designate as follows  a

Answer 312

 a Deputy Chief, or  in exigent circumstances only, the Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations. A member may only submit a request for access to a restricted record  for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation involving  preservation of life and/or preventing bodily harm or death  homicides and attempts,

Question 313

As of January ______all historical data Shall be classified as restricted This is relation to regulated interactions

Answer 313

January 1 2017 Historical Contact Data means all Person Investigated Card (Form 172), Field Information Report (Form 208), Community Inquiry Report (Form 306), and Community Safety Note (Street Check) records submitted into the Service’s records management systems prior to January 1, 2017, and may include any such submitted record whether or not it would have been categorized as a Regulated Interaction Report had it been submitted on or after January 1, 2017.

Question 314

Access to any regulated interaction report collected Shall be restricted for how long

Answer 314

Five years after the date it was submitted to the services record management system. P70

Question 315

Who’s approval do you need when requesting access to a regulated interaction report or historical contact data

Answer 315

The chief has appointed the following; the deputy chief or in exigent circumstances only the staff superintendent of detective operations

Question 316

A member may only submit a request for access to a restricted record

Answer 316

for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation involving  preservation of life and/or preventing bodily harm or death  homicides and attempts, [?] sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching),  occurrences involving abductions and attempts,  missing person occurrences, where circumstances indicate a strong possibility of foul play,  occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains,  criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim,  occurrences involving a firearm or discharge of a firearm, and/or  gang related investigations;  in connection with legal proceedings or anticipated legal proceedings  including instances where crown advice is that it is relevant to R. v. Stinchcombe, (1991) and other disclosure obligations;  for the purpose of dealing with a complaint under Part V of the PSA or for the purpose of an investigation or inquiry under clause 25 (1)(a) of the PSA;  in order to prepare the annual report described in subsection 14 (1) or the report required under section 15 of O. Reg. 58/16;  for the purpose of complying with a legal requirement; or  for the purpose of evaluating a police officer’s performance.

Question 317

. No member of the Service shall use any Historical Contact Data or Regulated Interaction Report as a basis for classifying an individual as “________ to ____”.

Answer 317

“known to police”.

Question 318

Supervisory Officer | When assigned to duties which involve supervising police officers who conduct Regulated Interactions shall

Answer 318

Supervisory Officer When assigned to duties which involve supervising police officers who conduct Regulated Interactions shall  monitor and evaluate the quality of any Regulated Interactions conducted by police officers under their supervision  ensure police officers under their supervision can articulate the reason for any Regulated Interaction they initiate  not use the number of times or the number of individuals from whom a police officer attempts to collect identifying information to evaluate work performance

Question 319

Supervisor;Upon becoming aware of a Regulated Interaction Report returned by a Supervisory Officer – GO Review shall

Answer 319

Upon becoming aware of a Regulated Interaction Report returned by a Supervisory Officer – GO Review shall  review the report as required  ensure the submitting police officers amends and resubmits the report as required, forthwith  if applicable, provide guidance or instruction targeted at correcting the deficiency  if applicable, ensure the police officer receives additional training  if applicable, initiate the appropriate complaint/discipline process in compliance with 13–03 and/or 13–11  if applicable, ensure access to the Regulated Interaction Report is, or has been, restricted by a Supervisory Officer – Go Review

Question 320

Who can permit access to a restricted regulated interaction

Answer 320

The chief or a Designate acting an absence of the chief. Those Designates are; Deputy chief or in exigent circumstances only the staff superintendent of detective operations

Question 321

Regulated interactions The controller must submit a report to the unit commander of the toronto Police College Every

Answer 321

Three months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to the regulated interaction reports Controller – Regulated Interactions means the member of the Service, designated by the Chief of Police, who assesses procedural compliance of Regulated Interaction Reports, once they have been approved or restricted by a Supervisory Officer. The Controller – Regulated Interaction Reports is also responsible for:  fulfilling the role of subject matter resource for Supervisory Officers;  preparing a report to the Unit Commander of the Toronto Police College every three months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to Regulated Interaction Reports; and  monitoring and reporting on any changes or amendments to legislation or Service Governance which may be relevant to training specific to Regulated Interactions.

Question 322

Regulated Interactions Historical contact data means

Answer 322

A person investigated card a 172, 208, Community inquiry report form 306, and community safety note street check. These are records submitted into the services record management system prior to January 1, 2017. And may include such submitted record whether or not it would have been categorized as a regulated interaction report had it been submitted on or after January 1, 2017

Question 323

Regulated Interaction means an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a face-to-face encounter, to identify himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,  only if that attempt is done for the purpose of, - inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or - inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or - gathering information for intelligence purposes; but does not include an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence (these attempts are lawful) the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed; and does not include an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual if, - the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer; - the individual is under arrest or is being detained; - the police officer is engaged in a covert operation; - the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or - the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the police officer’s duties.

Answer 323

Regulated Interaction means an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a face-to-face encounter, to identify himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,  only if that attempt is done for the purpose of, - inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or - inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or - gathering information for intelligence purposes;  but does not include an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed; and does not include an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual if, - the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer; - the individual is under arrest or is being detained; - the police officer is engaged in a covert operation; - the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or - the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the police officer’s duties.

Question 324

Death in police custody. Supervision;

Answer 324

Supervisory Officer mandatory attendance Officer in Charge mandatory notification Unit commander mandatory notification

Question 325

Death Police Custody The SIU and homicide will conduct _______ Homicide provides what to the corner during investigations of deaths in police custody

Answer 325

Parallel investigations investigative support

Question 326

Death Police Custody Police officer Shall **** three points

Answer 326

Protect the scene and all evidence Immediately request the attendance of a supervisor officer Notify the officer in charge

Question 327

Death Police Custody Police officer from FIS shall when on scene

Answer 327

When attending the scene of a death in police custody wait until the arrival of the SIU forensics investigator I SIU and FIS run parallel forensics investigations. Therefore FIS shall wait for SIU before commencing with evidence collection

Question 328

Death Police Custody, Supervisory and Officer or Shall

Answer 328

Attend immediately and take charge of the scene Request the attendance of An investigator from homicide An investigator from FIS The corner Ensure compliance with Procedure 0402 and 1316 Ensure the officer in charge has been notified Notify the officer in charge at the TPOC

Question 329

Death in Police Custody TPOC When notified of a death in police custody shall notify

Answer 329

Chiefs SIU on call designated authority and the appropriate deputy chief of police

Question 330

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority means a member of the

Answer 330

cadre of on-call Toronto Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the Chief.

Question 331

The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident,

Answer 331

 the official was on duty; or  the official was off-duty but - engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest of a person or otherwise exercised the powers of a police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed person, as the case may be, whether or not the official intended to exercise such powers or identified him or herself as a person who may exercise such powers, or - the incident involved equipment or other property issued to the official in relation to his or her duties. Subject Official – SIU Investigations means, in respect of an incident referred to in SIUA ss. 15 (1), an official whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to

Question 332

Crime and Disorder Management Intelligence led policing consists of a number of components including

Answer 332

crime management, disorder resolution, problem oriented policing, targeted policing and directed patrol. Community Policing is an operational philosophy requiring local police–community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order, and enforce the law. Ontario Regulation 3/99, Adequacy & Effectiveness of Police Services (O.Reg. 3/99) made under the Police Services Act sets out standards for crime prevention, law enforcement, victim assistance, public order maintenance, emergency response and administration and infrastructure. The Policing Standards Manual contains guidelines to assist police services boards, chiefs of police and municipalities with the implementation of the requirements of O.Reg. 3/99. Police services must comply with the legislative requirements of O.Reg. 3/99. The adoption of any or all of the Guidelines contained in the Policing Standards Manual is at the discretion of the Chief of Police. This Procedure addresses the Community Patrol, Crime Prevention, Crime, Call and Disorder Analysis, and Problem–Oriented Policing sections of O.Reg. 3/99 and the Policing Standards Manual.

Question 333

Senior management team SMT Is; who is in it.?

Answer 333

Include the chief of police, command officers, staff superintendents and directors, And any other member as determined by the chief of police

Question 334

Define debriefing

Answer 334

Means the process by which a person in custody will be asked if they wish to provide information on other crimes including but not limited to the divisional crime problems establish as priorities

Question 335

Appendix A guidelines for divisional crime management

Answer 335

Unit Commanders must designate a divisional crime manager at a minimum a detective sergeant The crime management team consists of representatives from all sectors of the unit including the unit Commander and representation from the local community Police liaison committee CPLC The divisional crime management team must meet at a minimum quarterly at the first of the year to establish the crime priorities and strategies for the unit (This is on p77…take a peek when reviewing this. Too much for card) Guidelines for Divisional Crime Management Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03–0001 Replaces: R.O. 2016.02.08-0158 There are four key steps in establishing the Crime Management Process at the divisional level. Their purpose is to ensure a high level of integration, co–ordination and focus of divisional resources: 1. Long–term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division Unit Commanders must designate a divisional Crime Manager. Depending on the unit size, this person should be at a minimum, the Detective Sergeant in charge of the Detective Office. In those divisions where there is only one Detective Sergeant, efforts should be made to divest them of administrative duties, so that they can adequately perform their role as Crime Managers. The divisional Crime Manager will chair the divisional Crime Management Team, which will include representatives from all sections of the unit, including the Unit Commander and representation from the local Community Police Liaison Committee (CPLC). The divisional Crime Management Team must meet, at a minimum, quarterly starting at the first of the year to establish the crime priorities and strategies for the unit. Divisional strategies will be based on Service priorities and identified crime management problems. Evolving local or neighbourhood problems and other strategies approved by the Chief and Command may be added. The Crime Manager will be responsible for the internal and external communication of divisional crime management strategies and results. The measurement process should include a frequent survey of officers on crime management issues to assist in setting divisional priorities. The divisional Crime Analyst will provide the Profile Sheet and appropriate additional data to the Crime Management Team who will review, measure and evaluate strategies. Special information (i.e. suspect information, problem areas, etc.), will be catalogued and regularly provided to all members of the division by the divisional Crime Analyst. The Unit Commander will establish a mechanism to facilitate community input and provide feedback on results to the community on crime related issues. 2. Short–term/daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react as required Principal members of the Crime Management Team will meet regularly. Ongoing monitoring of divisional strategies, priorities, tactics and making mid–course corrections. Implementation of short–term decisions and tactical deployment plans. Internal and external communication of short–term strategies and results. Project co–ordination and integration. Validation and prioritization of concerns. Local intelligence information on crime, active criminals and public disorder to be co–ordinated through the divisional Crime Analyst/Crime Management Team. 3. Integrated Role for Divisional CPLCs Divisional CPLCs will be partners involved in the crime management process and will assist the problem identification, problem solving and evaluation systems. The measurement process will include surveys of the community. 4. Targeted Debriefing of All Prisoners Where practicable, persons in custody will be debriefed as to information they may provide on any of the crime problems set as a divisional priority.

Question 336

The duties of a police officer are set out in subsection 42(1) of the Police Services Act (PSA). These are

Answer 336

The duties of a police officer are set out in subsection 42(1) of the Police Services Act (PSA). These are a) preserving the peace b) preventing crimes and other offences and providing assistance and encouragement to other persons in their prevention c) assisting victims of crime d) apprehending criminals and other offenders and others who may lawfully be taken into custody e) laying charges and participating in prosecutions f) executing warrants that are to be executed by police officers and performing related duties g) performing lawful duties that the chief of police assigns H) Enforcing municipal by-laws

Question 337

Source management Supervision Supervisory Officer notification mandatory

Answer 337

 when considering whether to establish a relationship with a source  prior to any meeting with a source  after any communication or meeting with a source  upon becoming aware that the safety of a source may have been compromised  Covert Operations – Source Management notification mandatory  prior to using any source information obtained from a person who is a first time source  prior to using any source information obtained from a source, under 18 years of age Procedure All officers shall consider the following primary concerns when e

Question 338

When a source is under 18 years of age who do you contact

Answer 338

Covert operations service management notification is mandatory

Question 339

all crown letters issued on behalf of a source shall only be provided by the _______~______ – Intelligence Services (INT). See Appendix B

Answer 339

The unit commander of intelligence services  caution shall be used when dealing with sources who are  facing criminal charges  subject to any stage of an immigration inquiry  subject to a parole or probation order

Question 340

What shall officers consider primary concerns when establishing a relationship with a source

Answer 340

Public safety Officer safety Safety of the source Administration of justice The integrity of service Corporate liability

Question 341

Supervisory notification is mandatory in relation to source Management when

Answer 341

When considering whether to establish a relationship with a source Prior to any meeting with the source Any communication or meeting with the source. Supervisor) When notified by an officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s identity having been revealed shall  ensure that the Controller and the Unit Commander are notified forthwith  notify the detective sergeant

Question 342

Source management Covert Operations – Source Management notification mandatory

Answer 342

 prior to using any source information obtained from a person who is a first time source  prior to using any source information obtained from a source, under 18 years of age Procedure

Question 343

Supervisory Office When notified by an officer of an intended meeting with a source shall

Answer 343

Carefully consider the primary concerns Which are Procedure All officers shall consider the following primary concerns when establishing a relationship with a source  public safety  officer safety  safety of the source  the administration of justice  the integrity of the Service  corporate liability When notified by an officer of an intended meeting with a source shall  carefully consider the primary concerns  determine whether to permit  the continuation of a relationship with a source  the meeting with the source to occur  ensure the officer complies with all responsibilities set out in this Procedure make the following entries in the memorandum book or case book, if applicable  the date, time and location of the intended meeting  the primary and secondary officers’ names and badge numbers  when assigned, the Confidential Source Number

Question 344

Source management Detective Sergeant When a source is used shall  ensure that the officer and supervisory officer comply with all the requirements set out in this Procedure  ensure reports submitted are accurately completed  sign and submit the reports in a secure fashion to the Unit Commander forthwith When notified by a supervisory officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s identity having been revealed shall ensure the _______ and _____~______ are notified forthwith.

Answer 344

Controller and the Unit Commander are notified forthwith

Question 345

Source management Detective Sgt Shall when a source is used

Answer 345

Ensure that the officer and supervisor comply with all the requirements are on this procedure Ensure report submitted or accurately completed Sign and submit reports in a secure fashion to the unit commander forth with

Question 346

Source management definition of an agent

Answer 346

means a person who acts on behalf of the police and under their direction, which may result in them becoming a material and compellable witness. The identity of the agent is subject to disclosure

Question 347

Controller – Source means the_____~_____– Intelligence Services – Covert Operations who ensures the effective

Answer 347

Detective Sergeant control, accountability and evaluation of the source, continually assessing the risks and managing all information provided by the source. The Controller – Source is responsible for the Source Management Program of the Toronto Police Service.

Question 348

Who is a Controller Source

Answer 348

Means detective a Sergeant at intelligence services covert operations

Question 349

Confidential Source – Level 2 means

Answer 349

Confidential Source – Level 2 means  a source under the age of 18 (young person), or  a source whose information could be considered:  multi–jurisdictional;  may affect national security;  involves organized crime;  is beyond the resources or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;  at the discretion of the Controller. Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a Handler – Level 2.

Question 350

What a source is under the age of 18 what level source handles it

Answer 350

Source handler level 2

Question 351

If a sources information is considered multi jurisdictional, surface level necessary

Answer 351

2

Question 352

If a sources information may affect national security.

Answer 352

Handled by a level 2 source handler

Question 353

If a source of information involves organize crime

Answer 353

Shall be handled by a level 2 source handler

Question 354

Who provides a crown letter source Crown Letter – Source means a document provided to the crown attorney by

Answer 354

``` Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS) on behalf of a source seeking consideration for that source’s assistance to the police. ``` All crown letters issued on behalf of a source shall only be provided by the Unit Commander – Intelligence Services. See Procedure 04–35, Appendix B.

Question 355

Handler means a police officer who has received information from a source and who has been so designated by the __________or designate. A handler, on behalf of the Toronto Police Service, is responsible for the:

Answer 355

Controller  development of a source  integrity of any contact  acquisition and dissemination of information received from the source. There are 2 levels of handlers: Handler – Level 1 and Handler –2 Handler – Level 1 means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who can handle level 1 sources only. Handler – Level 2 means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who has been accredited and designated by the Controller or designate. A handler – level 2 can manage agents, and level 1 and level 2 sources. For the purposes of agents, a handler – level 2 is also responsible for:  the management of agents on behalf of the Service  considering the primary concerns  the acquisition and dissemination of information from that agent.

Question 356

Handler – Level 2 means any

Answer 356

police officer from the Toronto Police Service who has been accredited and designated by the Controller or designate. A handler – level 2 can manage agents, and level 1 and level 2 sources. For the purposes of agents, a handler – level 2 is also responsible for:  the management of agents on behalf of the Service  considering the primary concerns  the acquisition and dissemination of information from that agent.

Question 357

If the source requests advice regarding taxation for money received from this Service, they shall be advised that

Answer 357

financial awards from the Service are considered taxable income, however since the source is not a Service employee, T4 slips will not be issued.

Question 358

caution shall be used when dealing with sources who are | 

Answer 358

 facing criminal charges  subject to any stage of an immigration inquiry  subject to a parole or probation order

Question 359

Notification of Homicides

Answer 359

Supervisor; attendance mandatory Divisional detective attendance mandatory Officer in Charge notification mandatory Unit Commander; notification mandatory

Question 360

When an autopsy is ordered as a result of an apparent suicide or accident where the only witness is or has been an intimate partner, past or present, the autopsy will be performed by a

Answer 360

Regional Coroner’s pathologist who currently performs homicide autopsies. The autopsy will be conducted as if the death had taken place under suspicious circumstances. Officers are reminded t

Question 361

As set out in their mandate, Detective Operations – Homicide (Homicide) shall 

Answer 361

 lead the investigation of all homicides that occur within the City of Toronto;  lead the investigation of all criminal acts which result in serious bodily harm or life threatening injury to a police officer while on duty;  support field officers with the investigation of suspicious deaths;  lead the investigation of deaths in police custody that are not related to the discharge of a Service firearm; and  provide investigative support to the Coroner in the investigation of deaths in police custody.

Question 362

Every sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age shall be treated as suspicious and a member of the On–Call Team – Homicide Squad (On–Call Homicide Team) shall be consulted by the attending _____ detective. Officers are reminded not to reach premature conclusions regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough investigation has been completed.

Answer 362

Divisional The Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC), a sub-unit of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes, shall be notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16 in any division City-Wide. The attending divisional detective shall consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting formal interviews of caregivers. CYAC investigators are available from 0730 to 2200 hours to investigate child abuse cases. An on–call child abuse investigator can be reached after hours through the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC).

Question 363

What is a subunit of detective operations a Sex Crimes

Answer 363

The child and youth advocacy centre CYAC

Question 364

Who investigates the sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16 in any division citywide

Answer 364

The child and youth advocacy centre CYAC. Which is a subunit of sex crimes

Question 365

CYAC investigators are available from

Answer 365

0730-2200 To investigate child abuse cases and on-call child investigator can be reached through TPOC

Question 366

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC) The PDRC is composed of two sections based on the nature and circumstances of the death: PDRC – Child Welfare and PDRC – Medical. PDRC – Child Welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family was receiving, or had received, the services of a Children’s Aid Society (CAS) or Indigenous child wellbeing society within _______ months of the death. The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare organizations across the province; and is chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner for the Province of Ontario.

Answer 366

12

Question 367

The paediatric death review committee the PDRc

Answer 367

Includes police officers, crown’s attorneys, senior staff from the office of the chief corner and representatives from child welfare organizations across the province and is shared by the chief regional corner for the province of Ontario They review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child or their family receiving or had received the service Of children’s aid CAS or indigenous child well-being society within 12 months of death

Question 368

First police officer Upon arrival at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall (This is too long to memorize. This is here to review and read over)

Answer 368

 designate a line of approach to the body that allows for the least contamination possible  take charge of the scene until relieved by a supervisory officer  if the deceased has been removed, note the original position of the body and any items moved to gain access to the body  request additional assistance, as required ```  request the attendance of  a supervisory officer  a divisional detective  an investigator from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS)  the Coroner ```  pending the arrival of a supervisory officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks  ensure nothing at the scene is touched or used, including the telephones and bathrooms  ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details  obtain the name, address and telephone number of every person present at the scene or sufficient information, including descriptions, to assist in locating these persons at a later time  remove all persons to an area away from the immediate scene  encourage all persons present to remain available for questioning  preserve the integrity of evidence of witnesses by ensuring they don’t discuss their observations with each other  ensure only personnel involved in the investigation are permitted to enter the crime scene  comply with Procedure 13–17 by making notations in the memorandum book, including such information as  sketching a diagram of the scene  the position of the body and any weapons  blood stains  items of evidence  room furnishings (indoor scene) or weather conditions (outdoor scene)  physical characteristics of the scene  conversations with witnesses  any other information pertinent to the investigation  conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC check and Canadian Firearms Registry On-line (CFRO) check Upon discovering  the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age, a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found human remains  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstance shall treat the death as suspicious.

Question 369

CFRO

Answer 369

Canadian firearms registry online

Question 370

First police officer on scene of a suspicious death or homicide Shall request the attendance of who

Answer 370

Supervisory and Officer a Division Detective And investigator from FIS And the corner

Question 371

Upon discovering  the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age, a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include

Answer 371

 an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found human remains  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstance shall treat the death as suspicious.

Question 372

The investigative questionnaire for sudden unexpected deaths in infants was developed by

Answer 372

The office of the chief corner and is completed by the corner except for the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by the police

Question 373

If a suspect is present at a homicide note the condition of the suspect in the memorandum book particularly

Answer 373

Clothing Marks of violence Manner of speaking movements and general behaviour refrain from unauthorized questioning of the suspect

Question 374

What is a Preliminary Police Report

Answer 374

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner has ordered an autopsy And a Death of a child under 5 and forwarded to the Coroner office prior to the post mortem exam

Question 375

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the ________ of the _____ ________ and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the _______ has ordered an autopsy Or a Child under ______

Answer 375

Office of the Chief Coroner Coroner 5

Question 376

When performing a door-to-door canvas Police officers Shall carry a sufficient quantity of the TPS____and TPS______

Answer 376

TPS233 and tPS234 Complete the TPS233 for every premise attended Leave a TPS234 at every residence where there is no answer

Question 377

When is a TPS233 and a TPS234 years

Answer 377

When performing a door-to-door canvas

Question 378

A SOCO shall not be assigned to death investigations involving

Answer 378

 the sudden, unexpected death of a child  the death of a child under 5 years of age  a suspicious death or suspected homicide.

Question 379

Supervisory Officer The first supervisory officer to arrive at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. When advised of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall (Too much to remember. This is review to read)

Answer 379

attend the scene promptly  ensure sufficient personnel are dispatched to the scene  take charge of all uniformed police officers  provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene  ensure the attendance of  a divisional detective  the Coroner  an investigator from FIS - A Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) shall not be deployed to examine any scene where there is a sudden unexpected death of a child or where the death of any person is of a suspicious nature or a suspected homicide.  notify the Officer in Charge  ensure a member of the On–Call Homicide Team is notified  ensure only essential personnel are allowed to enter/remain at the scene ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details  ensure a police officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue  ensure the TPS 243 (major crime Scene log) is used by officers assigned to guard the entry to the scene  ensure personnel are detailed to  search the area for suspects, weapons or other evidence  commence a systematic, door–to–door canvass at the earliest opportunity  ensure the results of all searches and canvassing are submitted to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective  complete and submit a TPS 466, along with the eReport number to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective prior to reporting off duty  scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport

Question 380

Supervisory Officer The first supervisory officer to arrive at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. When advised of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall  attend the scene ______  ensure sufficient ______ are dispatched to the scene  take charge of all _______ police officers  provide assistance and direction to the ______ officers at the scene  ensure the attendance of  a divisional ______  the _____  an investigator from ______ - A Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) shall not be deployed to examine any scene where there is a sudden unexpected death of a _______ or where the death of any person is of a suspicious nature or a suspected homicide.  notify the _____ in _____  ensure a member of the On–_________ team is notified  ensure only essential personnel are allowed to enter/remain at the scene ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details  ensure a ______ officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue  ensure the TPS ______ is used by officers assigned to guard the entry to the scene  ensure personnel are detailed to  search the area for suspects, weapons or other evidence  commence a systematic, door–to–door canvass at the earliest opportunity  ensure the results of all searches and canvassing are submitted to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective  complete and submit a TPS 466, along with the eReport number to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective prior to reporting off duty  scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport

Answer 380

promptly personnel uniformed detective Coroner FIS -child Officer in Charge On–Call Homicide Team is notified  only essential personnel are allowed to enter/remain at the scene ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details  ensure a police officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue  ensure the TPS 243 is used by officers assigned to guard the entry to the scene  ensure personnel are detailed to  search the area for suspects, weapons or other evidence  commence a systematic, door–to–door canvass at the earliest opportunity  ensure the results of all searches and canvassing are submitted to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective  complete and submit a TPS 466, along with the eReport number to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective prior to reporting off duty  scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport

Question 381

When is the CYAC notify.

Answer 381

When the death of a child under 16 Child youth advocacy centre

Question 382

The divisional detective shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the crime scene and that the appropriate notifications are made. Upon being notified of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall

Answer 382

 attend the scene promptly  advise the communication operator upon arrival  take charge of the scene investigation until relieved by the attending Detective Operations – Homicide or FIS investigator  consult with a member of the On–Call Homicide Team prior to leaving the scene - The On–Call Homicide officer will determine whether a Homicide investigator shall attend the scene.  ensure a police officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue  ensure the Officer in Charge is notified  follow the instructions of the attending Homicide investigator as it pertains to the completion of the applicable eReports  add supplementary information to the original eReport  complete the memorandum book, TPS 303 and TPS 466, as applicable  scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport If a Homicide investigator is not attending the scene shall  lead the overall investigation  consult with the Coroner prior to leaving the scene When investigating the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age shall  treat the death as suspicious  interview the caregiver at the time of death, using the questions listed in Appendix A as a guide to the type of information that should be obtained  consult with a member of the On– Call Homicide Team and the Coroner prior to leaving the scene  if the child is under 16 years of age, consult with a CYAC investigator prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting formal interviews of caregivers  ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post mortem examination  applicable eReports  Preliminary Police Report (for a death of a child under 5 years of age) The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReports, for a death of a child under 5 years of age. Following the post mortem examination, a Preliminary Autopsy Findings Report will be completed by the Pathologist and forwarded to the investigator.  scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport When investigating the death of an infant (less than 1 year of age) shall, in addition to item 22,  use Appendix B, as applicable, as a reference to record at–scene information in the memorandum book  complete Appendix B if the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide and forward to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post mortem examination - The Investigation Questionnaire for Sudden Unexpected Deaths in Infants in Appendix B was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and is completed by the Coroner, except where the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by police.

Question 383

The officer in Charge Shall ensure the following reports are completed, as applicable, and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post mortem examination

Answer 383

 applicable eReports  Preliminary Police Report (for a death of a child under 5 years of age)  Appendix B (for confirmed homicide of an infant)

Question 384

Infant means a child less than

Answer 384

1 year of age.

Question 385

Intimate Relationship includes current or former relationships between opposite sex and same sex partners and include

Answer 385

persons who:  are legally married to one another;  were previously married to one another;  are not married, but are currently in a family–type relationship;  are not married, but were formerly in a family–type relationship;  have a child in common regardless of whether such persons have been married or lived together at one time; or,  are (or have ever been) involved in a dating relationship.

Question 386

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) means the sudden death of an infant under one (_____) year of age, which remains unexplained after a thorough investigation which must include a….;

Answer 386

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) means the sudden death of an infant under one (1) year of age, which remains unexplained after a thorough investigation which must include a complete autopsy, examination of the death scene, a police investigation and a review of the child’s clinical history.

Question 387

Sudden Unexplained Death means the death investigation of a child due to

Answer 387

SID  accidental injury  non–accidental injury due to neglect or abuse, or  a previously undiagnosed natural disease process and may include - negative autopsy but evidence of an old healed fracture which has not been adequately explained by the investigation - negative autopsy but a previous history of child abuse - negative autopsy but some positive toxicology, which although not considered to be a cause of death cannot be explained (e.g. blood alcohol of 30mg in a five month old child) Where there is significant concern regarding any part of the death investigation, the cause of death should be classified as a SUD.

Question 388

SMT

Answer 388

Senior management team

Question 389

ODARA

Answer 389

Ontario domestic assault risk assessment. ODARA

Question 390

The goal of the service in relation to domestic

Answer 390

To reduce the incidence of domestic violence and homicides in the community through education and enforcement. To thoroughly investigate all domestic violence and domestic incident and bring offenders to justice wherever possible. Enhance the safety of victims for prompt action including referrals to community partners. Build effective partnership with community support agency is to ensure a victim focussed response

Question 391

If RPG exists in a Domestic the laying of Charge will not be determined with regard to;

Answer 391

marital status of the parties  disposition of previous calls for police service  victim’s unwillingness to attend court ``` likelihood of obtaining a conviction  denials of violence despite contrary evidence  fear of reprisals by the accused  occupation of the victim/accused  immigration status of the parties. ```

Question 392

In addition to investigating a domestic and taking action in relation to any new criminal offence, prompt enforcement action shall be taken in all cases in which there is any breach of

Answer 392

In addition to investigating and taking action in relation to any new criminal offence, prompt enforcement action shall be taken in all cases in which there is any breach of  a Bail condition  a Probation Order, Parole or Conditional Sentence  a Recognizance to Keep the Peace (S. 810)  a Restraining Order (Family Law Act and Children’s Law Reform Act)  an Exclusive Possession Order (Family Law Act)  the Trespass to Property Act  any other court order. Domestic violence investigators (DVI) shall take the lead role in all domestic violence investigations except in the following circumstances where

Question 393

Peace Officer – Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means a ______ officer, or a ________ officer who is a _______ ______ officer.

Answer 393

a police officer, or a court officer who | is a sworn peace officer.

Question 394

(PPSC)

Answer 394

Public Prosecution Service of Canada

Question 395

The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

Answer 395

 homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences  cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer  cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called  when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the identification.

Question 396

Case Manager When assigned a case involving abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall 

Answer 396

 wherever possible, obtain an electronically recorded statement from the victim in compliance with Procedures 04– 32 and 12–08 - The Crown and the Victim Witness Assistance Program at the court location should be advised of any known medical, physical or mental conditions of the victim so appropriate arrangements can be made for any required court appearances.  ensure all reasonable inquires have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearm Acquisition Certificates (FAC), etc. and that such items are surrendered before release to ensure the safety of the victim  consider opposing bail or the use of bail conditions to ensure the safety of the victim in compliance with the applicable procedures in Chapter 1  consider highlighting ss. 718.2(a) Criminal Code (aggravating circumstances) in the confidential crown envelope (e.g. blind victim, Alzheimer’s patient, dementia or special circumstances) so the Crown may consider seeking stiffer sentencing upon conviction  encourage the victim to complete a Victim Impact Statement at the appropriate stage of the court process  whenever possible, ensure the victim is notified of any known court dates with a follow–up call on the day prior to the court appearance  consider use of the Special Interest Persons category on CPIC for victims who are believed to be at risk of additional abuse Officer in Charge

Question 397

Form 47 MHA means an Order for _______ issued by the _______ who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within ______ hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffer deterioration.

Answer 397

Examination Physician 72 hours

Question 398

Form ______ MHA means an Order for Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffer deterioration

Answer 398

47 Good for 30 days

Question 399

Hold up squads mandate

Answer 399

Financial institutions Armored cars Retail businesses Home invasions Committed with firearms or offence of weapons Money deposit And carjackings committed with firearms or offensive weapons

Question 400

The robbery procedure was This procedure was developed to meet the Police Services Act, O. Reg. 3/99, Adequacy and Effectiveness of police Services to ensure

Answer 400

a) The safety of responding officers b) The protection of the public c) A thorough investigation, and d) The collection and preservation of evidence in the approved manner. Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies  Officer in Charge notification mandatory for all robberies  Detective notification mandatory for all robberies  Hold-up (HUS) notification mandatory for all robberies within their mandate Procedure HUS shall be contacted immediately in all instances of robbery involving  financial institutions  armoured cars  retail business  home invasions committed with firearms or offensive weapons  money deposits and  carjacking’s committed with firearms or offensive weapons The Unit Commander – HUS may, upon conclusion of the preliminary investigation, at their discretion, take charge of any robbery investigation.

Question 401

Supervision regarding a robbery

Answer 401

Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies  Officer in Charge notification mandatory for all robberies  Detective notification mandatory for all robberies  Hold-up (HUS) notification mandatory for all robberies within their mandate

Question 402

Robbery Divisional Detective The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring the HUS and FIS/SOCO are notified to attend and take charge of the investigation until the arrival of the HUS.

Answer 402

When attending at the scene shall  advise the communications operator upon arrival and  ensure the HUS is notified to attend, if required  ensure FIS is notified and either FIS or divisional SOCO attend the scene, as required  take charge of the investigation until the arrival of HUS officers  consult with the attending supervisory officer regarding GPS tracking information obtained, as applicable  ensure compliance with Procedure 17–01, as appropriate Officer in Charge – Division

Question 403

Global positioning system GPS tracking device in reference to holdups. Used primarily by who

Answer 403

The pharmaceutical and financial Industries

Question 404

When on Scene of a robbery Detective – Detective Operations – Hold-Up Shall

Answer 404

shall take charge of the investigation and seize all surveillance recordings. When attending the scene shall, in addition to complying with unit specific policies  take charge of the investigation  seize and hand–deliver any hold–up note to FIS – Documents  seize or make arrangements for seizure and pick up all surveillance recordings  consult with the attending supervisory officer and/or divisional investigator regarding GPS tracking information obtained, as applicable

Question 405

 Supervisory Officer attendance / notification with regard to a domestic

Answer 405

 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory - all domestic violence calls - when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service - when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory  Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI) or Officer in Charge notification mandatory when attending or investigating domestic violence and a supervisor is unable to attend  Divisional Investigative office mandatory notification where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has left the scene

Question 406

The goal of the Service is with regards to domestic is;

Answer 406

 reduce the incidence of domestic violence and homicide in the community through education and enforcement  thoroughly investigate all domestic violence and domestic incidents, and bring offenders to justice wherever possible  enhance the safety of victims through prompt action including referrals to other community partners  build effective partnerships with community support agencies to ensure a victim focussed response. Supervision

Question 407

Domestic violence. If assistance is not obtain or not available with a Division the incident took place

Answer 407

Division receiving the report will thoroughly investigate the allegation

Question 408

Charges Police officers shall fully document their response to every domestic violence and domestic incident call, regardless of whether a criminal offence has been committed or a charge laid/an arrest made. Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist, and the decision to lay charges shall not be influenced by factors such as

Answer 408

marital status of the parties  disposition of previous calls for police service  victim’s unwillingness to attend court ``` likelihood of obtaining a conviction  denials of violence despite contrary evidence  fear of reprisals by the accused  occupation of the victim/accused  immigration status of the parties. ```

Question 409

Domestic violence investigators (DVI) shall take the lead role in all domestic violence investigations except in the following circumstances where

Answer 409

 the incident involves an allegation of sexual assault, a DVI shall be designated as the lead investigator, but shall work in consultation with an accredited sexual assault investigator  the incident involves death, the investigation shall be assigned to Detective Operations – Homicide  cases involving criteria offences as defined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, the investigation shall be assigned to an accredited Major Case Manager  the incident involves a young person; a DVI shall be designated as the lead investigator, but shall work in consultation with an officer assigned to youth investigations.

Question 410

Domestic violence In addition to investigating and taking action in relation to any new criminal offence, prompt enforcement action shall be taken in all cases in which there is any breach of

Answer 410

 a Bail condition  a Probation Order, Parole or Conditional Sentence  a Recognizance to Keep the Peace (S. 810)  a Restraining Order (Family Law Act and Children’s Law Reform Act)  an Exclusive Possession Order (Family Law Act)  the Trespass to Property Act  any other court order.

Question 411

DVRM/ODARA In relation to a domestic

Answer 411

Domestic violence risk management-Ontario domestic assault risk assessment This is a report that she will be completed for all domestic violence occurrences

Question 412

Significance of Waypoint health centre

Answer 412

Only an accredited DVI, who has received the ODARA training and received a certificate from Waypoint Health Center shall complete the DVRM/ODARA

Question 413

Where are domestic violence investigators DVI trained to complete the Ontario domestic assault risk assessment report

Answer 413

Waypoint health centre

Question 414

The DVRM/ODARA must be completed and in the crown brief for the ______ ______

Answer 414

Bail hearing Domestic Violence Risk Management – Ontario Domestic Assault Risk Assessment (DVRM

Question 415

DVRM

Answer 415

Domestic Violence Risk Management – Ontario Domestic Assault Risk Assessment

Question 416

Domestic violence situations within the City of Toronto where the suspect/accused is a member of this Service will be initially investigated by the

Answer 416

responding division in compliance with this Procedure. The Unit Commander / Duty Senior Officer shall notify Professional Standards (PRS) who will assume the role of case manager. Divisional personnel shall assist PRS, as required. Professional Standards is designated as the Service liaison with other police services regarding Service member–involved domestic violence occurrences outside the City of Toronto, and shall be responsible for submitting a TPS 901 in compliance with Procedures 13–02 and 13–03.

Question 417

Domestic violence occurrences involving members outside of Canada shall be treated as

Answer 417

Allegations of discreditable conduct

Question 418

Supervisory and Officers a Shall attend/be notified at domestics when

Answer 418

Shall attend domestic involving violence Attend domestic incident whenever possible, if cannot must be notified

Question 419

Supervisor Shall; With a suspect/Accused or victim in a domestic is a member of this service Shall

Answer 419

Attend the scene Advise the officer in charge of the circumstances Document all the circumstances your memo book including no arrest was made etc Conduct a preliminary investigation Into a conduct complain Insure the victim and dependence are offered the assistance of EFAP, victim services Toronto, and other community agencies I’m sure the suspect/accused is informed of the assistance of EFAP Advised the victim they will be contacted by PRS 

Question 420

supervisor domestic violence When the suspect/accused is a member of another police service shall

Answer 420

 attend the scene  advise the Officer in Charge of the circumstances  document all the circumstances in the memorandum book, including if no arrest was made, why no arrest was made/charge laid, when applicable  ensure that the victim and dependents are offered the assistance of Victim Services Toronto and other community agencies

Question 421

Domestic violence investigator Shall on the top border of the crown envelope he’s clearly marked

Answer 421

“Domestic”

Question 422

Domestic violence investigator Shall

Answer 422

When investigating breaches of restraining orders issued under the family law act and children’s reform act ensure A DVRM/ODARA is completed The top right hand corner of the information is Marked DV The box entitled incident type section of the crown envelope has been checked off All charges are clearly noted in the crown envelope as Domestic in origin and the top border of the crown envelope is boldly marked in red

Question 423

There are four key steps in establishing the Crime Management Process at the divisional level. Their purpose is to ensure a high level of integration, co–ordination and focus of divisional resources:

Answer 423

1. Long–term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division Unit Commanders must designate a divisional Crime Manager. Depending on the unit size, 2. Short–term/daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react as required Principal members of the Crime Management Team will meet regularly. 3. Integrated Role for Divisional CPLCs Divisional CPLCs will be partners involved in the crime management process and will assist the problem identification, problem solving and evaluation systems. 4. Targeted Debriefing of All Prisoners Where practicable, persons in custody will be debriefed as to information they may provide on any of the crime problems set as a divisional priority.

Question 424

Please restrict your advice to the victim about the services Victim Services Toronto “_____” provide and refrain from committing to what they will provide. The decision remains with Victim Services Toronto.

Answer 424

“can”

Question 425

When possible with a domestic investigators in a domestic should ensure the have the victim photographed a second time within ______-______hours after the initial incident

Answer 425

When possible with a domestic investigators in a domestic should ensure the have the victim photographed a second time within 48-72 hours after the initial incident

Question 426

Detectives when instigating a domestic Shall consult with ———to assist the victim in a developing a personal safety plan.

Answer 426

Sex Crimes behavioural assessment section to assist the victim in developing

Question 427

Domestic violence investigator show notify Guns and gangs when

Answer 427

Fire arms are or may be a factor

Question 428

FIP

Answer 428

Firearms interest police. Domestic violence investigators shell conduct one of these and a CPIC check

Question 429

SIP. What does it stand for and what is it for

Answer 429

Special interest police A SIP It’s on CPIC After completing a 227

Question 430

when in receipt of a domestic incident report there no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge for domestic violence investigator Shall

Answer 430

Review all the circumstances including the responses to the risk factor questions Generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be available to the office of the chief Provincial firearms officer

Question 431

Domestic violence investigator When in receipt of a Domestic Violence report and the suspect has not been arrested shall

Answer 431

 ensure a further investigation is promptly conducted  lay charges where reasonable grounds exist and submit a TPS 227 with the eReport number  where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has not been arrested/charged within 24 hours of the offence, consider obtaining a warrant in compliance with Procedure 02–01  complete a Warrant Application Supplementary via eReport and enter the suspect’s information onto CPIC in the “WANT” category indicating that an arrest warrant is pending, if applicable The entry will be removed from CPIC after two business days if the warrant is not received.  if no charges are laid, add supplementary information to the original eReport explaining the reasons for such a decision

Question 432

Domestic violence Unit Commander Upon receipt of a TPS 649 requesting application into Witness Assistance and Relocation Program (WARP) shall

Answer 432

 review and endorse the request where appropriate  ensure the TPS 649 is sealed and hand delivered to the Unit Commander – Intelligence Services in compliance with Procedure 04–37

Question 433

Domestic violence Officer in Charge and Shall where is safety concerns for officers attending an address ensure a TPS

Answer 433

228 has been completed in compliance with procedure and added to the special address system

Question 434

Bona Fide Reasons means (In the domestic violence section page 96) In dictionary means genuine or real. What you’re looking for here is “a victim or…….

Answer 434

Bona Fide Reasons means  a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the Provincial Witness Protection Program;  a Crown Attorney is requesting information for disclosure purposes;  the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;  investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to ascertain the immigration status of a victim or witness.

Question 435

Child in need of protection means a child

Answer 435

Can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in S125(1)Of the child youth and family services at

Question 436

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

Answer 436

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:  homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;  sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching); ```  trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in section 24(1) Criminal Code; ```  occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;  missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;  occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;  criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,  any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 437

Victim witness assistance program. VWAP

Answer 437

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) means the program operated by the (Ontario) Ministry of the Attorney General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible. Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded. 05-05 Sexual Assault

Question 438

Victim Quick Response Program

Answer 438

Victim Quick Response Program means a program administered by Victim Services Toronto that provides quick financial assistance to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, domestic violence, sexual assault and hate crime in the immediate aftermath of a crime. Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP)

Question 439

During a sexual assault investigation the divisional sexual assault investigator or in their absence of a divisional investigator Shall Conduct a __________ _________ regarding a sex assault and only Contacts us sex crimes once

Answer 439

Once they have conducted a Preliminary InvestigationInvestigation

Question 440

OMCMM

Answer 440

Ontario Major Case Management Manual

Question 441

Ontario regulations 354/04 Major case management meaning of the police service at defines what offences has major cases

Answer 441

Sexual assaults including sexual interference and attempted sexual salts sexual exploitation and invitation of sexual touching as major cases. The Ontario major case management manual the OMCMM Directs that primary investigator be assigned to manage a major all case documents Hardcopy electronic shall be collected and manage in accordance with the filing system sit out in the OMCMM

Question 442

Who Is notified during occurrences involving human trafficking for the purpose of exploiting Persons or facilitating the Exploitation for a sexual and or forced labour purpose

Answer 442

Human Trafficking Enforcement team HTET shall be notified

Question 443

Who investigates sexual assaults when the victim is under 16 years of age

Answer 443

A child sexual abuse investigator

Question 444

Who investigates incidents involving child pornography or child luring

Answer 444

The child exploitation section CES shall be notified And assume control over the investigation

Question 445

Notification and Assignment of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes Sex Crimes shall be notified of any sexual assault where, it is determined:

Answer 445

:  the offender is unknown  there is ongoing risk to the community  the occurrence involves an offence under s. 272 or 273 of the CC (sexual assault with a weapon, sexual assault causing bodily harm, wounds, maims, disfigures or endangers life)  there are multiple victims or multiple suspects  the occurrence involves multiple sexual acts, the use of restraints, bondage or wearing of a disguise by the offender  the offender records the offence in any manner  the offender removes or keeps any personal item from the victim  the offender uses scripting by having the victim engage in prompted dialogue  the offender uses a con or ruse, including dating services and the internet, to lure the victim *the sexual assault is linked to another sexual assault occurrence  to be a criminal offence, by an unknown offender, where sexual assault appears to have been the motive

Question 446

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) The CYAC is a section of Sex Crimes that promotes the protection of victims; provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing support. The CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include 

Answer 446

 physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority  physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult  sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office  occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended. Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases. When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section.

Question 447

Physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is an adult who investigates

Answer 447

The child and youth advocacy centre CYAC

Question 448

Who investigates sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate a Sex Crimes

Answer 448

The child and youth advocacy Center, CYAC

Question 449

What is the CYAC

Answer 449

A section of sex crimes that promotes the protection of victims provides advocacy treatment and ongoing support

Question 450

Who investigate physical assaults emotional abuse or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect is a caregiver parent or person in a position of trust or authority

Answer 450

The CYAC. The child and youth advocacy centre

Question 451

Sexual assault care centres SACC

Answer 451

The Scarborough Hospital (Birchmount Campus) 3030 Birchmount Rd. 12 years and older SickKids Hospital 555 University Ave. under 18 years Women's College Hospital 76 Grenville St. 14 years and older T rillium Health Centre – Mississauga Hwy 10/Queensway any age Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator shall attend t

Question 452

IOPLA. You made this acronym under the incident management organization chart

Answer 452

Investigative chief operations chief planning chief logistics chief administrative and financial chief

Question 453

Supervisory Officer | When assigning officers to community patrol activities shall

Answer 453

Supervisory Officer When assigning officers to community patrol activities shall  promote and implement crime management initiatives to respond to identified crime, public disorder and road safety problems, including repeat calls for service and repeat victimization  use crime analysis for identifying areas or issues requiring directed patrol, targeted enforcement, problem–oriented policing, or community–based crime prevention initiatives  where possible, work with municipalities, school boards, businesses, community organizations and members of the public to address crime, public disorder and road safety problems  assist in developing appropriate strategies, based on the analysis of crime, calls for service, public order, criminal intelligence and road safety  encourage officers to document the intelligence information on crimes, active criminals and disorder issues in the applicable eReports  ensure patrol officers are provided with relevant information in order to undertake the type of activity to which they have been assigned  ensure appropriate measurements of each activity are recorded by each officer assigned  ensure the use of directed patrol, targeted enforcement and other initiatives to respond to high crime or high occurrence locations and serial occurrences  notify the Officer in Charge when crime management initiatives are utilized  ensure both local and Service–wide crime prevention initiatives are brought to the attention of all relevant members  encourage officers to provide crime prevention information or referral to the community wherever possible during the course of duty

Question 454

NCMPUR

Answer 454

National Centre for missing persons and unidentified remains website.NCMPUR

Question 455

Supervisory and Officer Sexual assault. If the suspect/accused victim is a member of this service shall

Answer 455

Attend the scene Advising officer in charge of the circumstances Notify sex crimes

Question 456

Define a major case manager

Answer 456

And investigator responsible for the effective governance and management I have every threshold major case investigation. Has successfully completed the major case management course or equivalent and can manage Investigations through the ministry approve software known as power case

Question 457

Major case manager did a human trafficking investigation shall be from what unit

Answer 457

Sex Crimes Human Trafficking Enforcement team

Question 458

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator

Answer 458

from Detective Operations | – Organized Crime Enforcement.

Question 459

Sexual assault Care Center, SACC. Means what

Answer 459

Means a Medical Care Center, Designated for the treatment and examination of victims of sexual assault

Question 460

What does VICLAS Mean and what is the acronym stand for

Answer 460

Violent crime linkage analysis system ``` ) means the national database operated by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada. ```

Question 461

Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with

Answer 461

the “Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co– ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;  the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;  the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children under 5 years of age; and  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O

Question 462

The CYAC is staffed by the services designated child-abuse investigators. Who do they work in collaboration with

Answer 462

The CYAC is staffed by the Service’s designated child abuse investigators, working in collaboration with members of the Catholic Children’s Aid Society, the Children’s Aid Society of Toronto, the SickKids Hospital’s Suspected Child Abuse and Neglect (SCAN) Program, Safe–T Program, Halton Trauma Center, and Boost Child Abuse Prevention and Intervention. The CYAC shall be notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16. The attending Divisional Detective shall consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting a formal interview of caregivers. An on-call child abuse investigator can be reached after hours through the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC).

Question 463

Who will investigate occurrences in titled Charlie need a protection or child left on attended

Answer 463

The CYAC Children’s youth and advocacy centre

Question 464

Who investigates physical assaults on a victim if under the age of 16 and the suspect is a known-adult

Answer 464

CYAC will investigate

Question 465

Who investigates sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years and the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate a Sex Crimes

Answer 465

CYAC

Question 466

Who investigates physical assaults emotional abuse or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect as a caregiver parrot or a person in the position of authority

Answer 466

CYAC

Question 467

The CYAC will investigate | 

Answer 467

The CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include  physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority  physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult  sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office  occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended. Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases. When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section.

Question 468

Who is notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16

Answer 468

The attending detective show consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and or conducting a formal interview of caregivers

Question 469

If abuse is disclose at school And reported immediately by school personnel to the Children’s Aid Society can an investigation take place on school premises before notifying the parents

Answer 469

Yes. Cyac

Question 470

Investigations on School Premises If it is determined by the Team that it is in the best interest of the child, investigations may take place on school premises, without first notifying* the parents and in their absence when

Answer 470

the abuse is disclosed at school and reported immediately by school personnel to the Children’s Aid Society (CAS)  the abuse is disclosed outside the school and the Team wishes to interview the child at school  the abuse disclosure involves school personnel as an alleged offender  the abuse disclosure involves another child (student) as an alleged offender  subsequent to the initial investigation, police or child care protection workers need access to the child at school or child care setting as a continuation of this process. * The parents shall be informed of any interview conducted Without prior notification as soon as reasonably possible

Question 471

Child abuse If the alleged offender is a school employee, consideration must be given by the Unit Commander or designate of the investigating unit as soon as practicable of notifying the respective

Answer 471

Director of Education or designate, responsible individual or body. School officials shall be advised not to interview or advise the alleged offender prior to the police interview.

Question 472

Where the abuse took place/investigates/child abuse cases

Answer 472

Where Abuse Took Place Where Child Resides Unit Responsible For Investigation Where; Inside the City of Toronto Resides ;Inside the City of Toronto Division where the incident occurred Where; Inside the City of Toronto Readies; Outside the City of Toronto Division where the incident occurred Where; Outside the City of Toronto Resides; Inside the City of Toronto Division; Initial investigation by division receiving the complaint and forward the information to the police service concerned

Question 473

CYFSA

Answer 473

Child youth and family services act. Page 103 in relation to child abuse

Question 474

VYSA

Answer 474

Is the volunteer youth services agreement Speaks to children who are 16 or 17 years old who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible for this Protection Services for 16 and 17 Year olds On, 2018 January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18 years. ``` Children who are 16 or 17 years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new Voluntary Youth Services Agreement (VYSA), see Appendix C. ```

Question 475

Child abuse sex assault | prepubertal under 12 In relation to the sexual assault examination kit SAEK

Answer 475

Within 72 hours advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for a medical evaluation to gather potential forensics evidence After 72 hours contact scan to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

Question 476

Child abuse sex assault | Pubertal adolescents 12-18 In relation to the sexual assault examination kit SAEK

Answer 476

Within 12 days advise a victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for medical evaluation to gather potential forensics evidence After 12 days contact scan to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

Question 477

SCAN (Child abuse)

Answer 477

Suspected child abuse and neglect For children under 18

Question 478

SAEK

Answer 478

Sexual assault examination kit

Question 479

Prior to attending SickKids ER or SCAN and investigator shall notify who

Answer 479

Notify the SCAN on-call clinician through the switchboard The on-call SCAN member will collaborate with the investigator to determine if immediate transportation to sick kids ER or SCAN is required The phone consultation will facilitate planning next steps and determine if the victim ought to be interviewed before or after the medical exam With the note of timelines to collect evidence in mind the collaboration will enhance efficiencies of the investigation and reduce wait times of officers upon arrival at sick kids ER or SCAN

Question 480

In cases of child sexual assault request to victim post pone________Whenever possible until after the medical examination

Answer 480

Voiding. If voiding is necessary avoid wiping the general area or save the tissue for the sexual assault kit

Question 481

CFRO In the firearms section

Answer 481

Canadian firearms registry online

Question 482

The Chief firearms officer

Answer 482

Is the office responsible for screening FIP reports. Firearm interest police

Question 483

Officer in Charge The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon receiving notification of a case of suspected child physical or sexual abuse, or circumstances where child abuse cannot be ruled out, shall

Answer 483

 contact the CYAC to request a designated investigator  ensure the eReport number is  distributed in accordance with unit policy  provided to the divisional detective office where the offence took place, if applicable. At the time of booking a prisoner and before considering release, shall ensure  all reasonable inquiries have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearms Acquisition Certificate, etc.  such items are surrendered before release to enhance the safety of the victim

Question 484

Child abuse. Officer in charge Shall at the time of booking a prisoner in before considering release

Answer 484

All REASONABLE inquiries have been made into possession of an accused of weapons firearms ammunition explosives authorizations licenses permits certificates and FAC Such items are surrender before released to enhance the safety of the victim

Question 485

Child abuse Child means

Answer 485

Means a person younger than 18

Question 486

Child abuse; Define child abuse

Answer 486

Child Abuse no person having charge of a child shall  inflict abuse (physical, sexual or sexual exploitation) on the child; or by failing to care and provide for or supervise and protect the child adequately, - permit the child to suffer abuse or - permit the child to suffer from a mental, emotional or development condition that, if not remedied, could serioiusly impair the child's development. [Source: Child, Youth and Family Services Act ss.136 (1)(2)] Child in Need of Protection means a child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

Question 487

Child abuse Section Define Child in need a protection

Answer 487

He’s a child that could be apprehended as being a need a protection as defined in section 125 of the child youth and family services are

Question 488

Child Physical Abuse where the circumstances could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or render the child in need of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act, and where the alleged abuser (whether adult or child) has responsibility for the care of the child victim. Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an abuser and includes all of the following:

Answer 488

 physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under 18 years of age and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority;  abductions when the victim is under the age of 16 years of age;  occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended  homicides when the victim is under the age of 18 years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in a position of trust or authority  physical offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years and there are clear developmental differences between the victim and the suspect.

Question 489

When are abduction and the victim is under the age of 16 years of age. What definition is that in

Answer 489

Child physical abuse Page 106

Question 490

Child Sexual Abuse means the use of a child by an adult for sexual purposes, whether or not consent is alleged to have been given, which could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or could place a child in need of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act. Child sexual abuse can include:

Answer 490

``` :  incest;  acts of exposure;  sexual touching;  sexual intercourse;  sexual molestation;  inappropriate sexual language;  sexual harassment;  exhibitionism;  exploitation of child for pornography or prostitution. ```

Question 491

For the purpose of a kidnapping investigation the major case manager shall be from

Answer 491

Organized crime enforcement

Question 492

Team (child abuse investigation)

Answer 492

Mean a designated child-abuse investigator and a children’s aid Society specialist who will conduct interviews together and communicate every stage the investigation

Question 493

Hate bias crime | Supervisor Notification?

Answer 493

Supervisory officer notification mandatory when dispatch to the scene of a Hate bias crime

Question 494

Hate bias crime and hate propaganda will be reported as

Answer 494

For the purposes of this procedure, hate/bias crimes and hate propaganda will be reported as separate offences. Where the procedure indicates a ‘hate/bias crime’, offences under the ‘Hate Propaganda’ sections of the CC shall be substituted where appropriate. A police officer shall be dispatched to every report of hate/bias crime or hate propaganda. The Service is committed to the investigation of hate/bias crime and to assuming a leadership role in the co-ordination of a strong police and community response. In addition, the Service is committed to working closely with all segments of the community to provide education programs on hate/bias crime and hate propaganda. The investigation of hate/bias crime is the responsibility of the divisional detective office but Intelligence Services – Hate Crime (INT – Hate Crime) will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions for these crimes. It will also maintain an information base of hate/bias occurrences and arrests to assist divisional analysts and investigators. Intelligence Division – Hate Crime will also assist in developing public education programs in partnership with other members of the Service and the community. Intelligence Services – Hate Crime will be the central focus for the dissemination of information and support to divisional hate crime investigation co–ordinators, other police services, government agencies and the community. Supervisory Officer

Question 495

Who will provide assistance when divisional detectives are investigating hate crime

Answer 495

Intel-hate Crime Will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions of these crimes

Question 496

Supervisor‘a notification status and what to do At a hate crime

Answer 496

Attends the scene whenever possible Assign sufficient police officers to ensure a thorough investigation is conducted Ensure all evidence is dealt with in a compliance procedure 04210430 and 0901 Request assistance of investigators from the divisional detective office Forensic services, intel- hate crime and victim services Toronto Ensure the victim and the community that the service will fully investigate the occurrence and assist the community in taking measures to prevent any repetition

Question 497

Hate. Crimes Detective Shall

Answer 497

Ensure the divisional coordinator is advised of significant, aspects of investigation Ensure the relevant E reports are provided to the divisional coordinator and Intel hate crimes Where applicable consider an exercise all powers of search and seizure without warrant related to weapons and firearms permit etc. Play the fire arms are or maybe a factor notify guns and gangs

Question 498

Or firearms may be a factor in a investigation

Answer 498

Notify guns and gangs

Question 499

Hate crimes Officer in Charge Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall ensure

Answer 499

 detective personnel attend the scene as required  in cases involving bodily harm or major property damage, the Unit Commander and INT – Hate Crime, are notified promptly  compliance with Procedures 17–01 and 17–08, if applicable  the relevant eReport numbers are provided to the divisional detective sergeant  the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR), as required

Question 500

Hate Crimes Detective Sergeant

Answer 500

Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall  review the circumstances to determine if further action is required  ensure the eReport number is provided to  INT – Hate Crime  the divisional co–ordinator to permit referral of the involved persons to community based agencies If further investigation is not warranted or a charge is not supported shall  add supplementary information to the original eReport detailing the reasons for the decision  ensure the victim and INT – Hate Crime are advised of the decision If further investigation is warranted shall  assign the appropriate resources to the investigation including assistance from INT – Hate Crime  ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01 In all cases where a charge is supported shall ensure  the investigation is completed in compliance with the applicable Service Governance  evidence is submitted for expert examination, if necessary  compliance with Procedure 17–04, if applicable the victim is informed of developments in the investigation  at the conclusion of any court proceeding  supplementary information is added to the original eReport, indicating the disposition of the case  INT – Hate Crime is advised of the disposition When an arrest has been made in a hate/bias crime case involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour; and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence shall contact the BAS for advice, referral or an assessment of risk, if appropriate.

Question 501

Detective Sergeant When an arrest has been made in a hate crime involve a stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential virus violence Shall contact the

Answer 501

BAS. Behavioural assessment section for advice and referral on the assessment of risk if appropriate Oh 109

Question 502

BAS. Related to hate crimes

Answer 502

BAS. Behavioural assessment section for advice and referral on the assessment of risk if appropriate

Question 503

Divisional hate crime investigator coordinator When designated by the unit Commander or Shall

Answer 503

Consult and liaison with other divisions and Intel a crime Track all hate crimes cases to ensure proper application of increased sentencing section 718.2 cc Follow up on hate crime occurrences to ensure victims are provided access to appropriate police and community-based resources Provide information and training to divisional personnel on hate crime matters Maintain a unit specific file on hate crime occurrences

Question 504

Unit ommander regarding hate crimes shall

Answer 504

Appoint a Division hate Crimes instigator - coordinator Upon being advised of a hate crime Shall ensure Liaison his maintain and assistance sought from Intelligence hate crime Victim services Toronto as applicable Community partnership and engagement unit Outside agencies as applicable When applicable meet with the victim and they affect the community to address any concerns

Question 505

Define hate bias crime

Answer 505

Means a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by hate bias or prejudice based on the victims race national or ethnic origin language colour religion sex age mental or physical disability sexual orientation or gender identity or expression or on any other similar factor

Question 506

Define hate propaganda

Answer 506

means any communication that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability. Hate propaganda offences are found in s. 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code. Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of hatred require the permission of the Attorney General to proceed with prosecution. Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the Attorney General.

Question 507

Hate propaganda offences are found in what section of the criminal code and require the permission of her to proceed

Answer 507

318 and 319 of the code Attorney general to proceed with prosecution

Question 508

Firearms Supervision attendance is when using the authority of what section of cc

Answer 508

Mandatory when using the authority of SS117.02(1) or 117.04(2) cc Of the criminal code for it to search for firearms offence of weapons ammunition or explosive substances

Question 509

IGGTF

Answer 509

Integrated guns and gangs task force Primarily focussing on illegal firearms drugs in Crimes of Violence

Question 510

IGGTF -FEU

Answer 510

Integrated guns and gangs task force-Firearm enforcement unit Mandate to identify and take enforcement action against persons involved in the illegal movement of firearms ammunition explosives. Include smuggling Trafficking and the possession of crime guns

Question 511

FIAU

Answer 511

– Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) will streamline firearm investigations and ensure that there is a standard process for investigation and accountability. FIAU screens all firearms, ammunition and casings seized by the Service. FIAU will designate if firearms are criminal or non-criminal. Firearms deemed to be criminal will be examined, which includes verifying, forensic testing, test firing and Integrated Ballistics Identification System (IBIS) testing. Examiners also provide expert testimony in court. All firearms, ammunition, projectiles and casings brought into the custody of the Service will be screened through the Detective at FIAU or their designate. Members of FIAU are available to assist wit

Question 512

I’ll firearms and ammunition seized during an investigation

Answer 512

Will either be seized by guns and gangs if they attend the scene/division Submitted by investigating officers to the DLMS Seized on scene by forensics. FIS And forward it to FIAU for testing and further investigation as required

Question 513

Who attends homicides other than homicide which involve a firearm

Answer 513

Guns and gangs

Question 514

Officers should familiarize themselves with part III Of the criminal code in order to utilize all available powers of search and seizure with him without warrant relative to

Answer 514

``` firearms  firearm authorizations  firearm permits  firearm licences  prohibited devices  prohibited weapons  restricted weapons  explosive substances  ammunition. ```

Question 515

FEU FIAU

Answer 515

Firearm enforcement unit Firearm investigation and analysis unit

Question 516

FATE

Answer 516

Firearms tracing and enforcement unit Officially the provincial firearms tracing enforcement unit Page 111

Question 517

CISO

Answer 517

Criminal intelligence services Ontario Copies of trace requests are forwarded to this unit by firearms investigation and firearms investigation and Analysis unit FIAU and the provincial firearms tracing and enforcement FATE

Question 518

All submissions to the centre of forensic sciences are now made through the

Answer 518

CFS evidence web submission system

Question 519

Divisional unit investigator when investigating a firearm shall

Answer 519

Ensure a tps 296 has been completed and submitted and; When assigned to an investigation regarding a firearms offence shall  comply with items 1 through 12  commence show cause proceedings in compliance with Procedure 01–15, where appropriate  ensure TPS 296 has been completed and submitted  whenever possible, consult with the victim when determining required bail conditions, particularly with domestic violence/stalking cases  when notified that the courts have ordered the return of a firearm to an offender, ensure the victim is advised, where possible  where the release of information to the victim or the general public is warranted comply with Procedure 17–04  notify the victim, FIAU and the original police officer on the status of any hearing  when a suspect is arrested for offences relating to weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives or a prohibited device, ensure IGGTF has been contacted for advice and assistance in the investigation  for the purposes of criminal prosecutions, ensure that all firearms being submitted for testing are submitted through FIAU (Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) will streamline firearm investigations and ensure that there is a standard process for investigation and accountability. FIAU screens all firearms, ammunition and casings seized by the Service.

Question 520

Firearms Divisional investigator Shall notify  notify FIAU via e–

Answer 520

Members of FIAU will prepare and submit all submissions to the CFS.  notify FIAU via e–mail (Firearm.Analysis@torontopolice.on.ca) of any preliminary hearings or trial dates to allow reasonable time for them to conduct the testing of unmodified firearms for classification and operational purposes in relation to all court proceedings. - The FIAU investigator will forward the firearms reports and certificate of analysis to the respective case manager ONLY upon request.  determine if the offender is a Public Agent as defined within the Firearms Act section of the CC  if the offender is a Public Agent, consider restricting access to firearms at the respective ‘Public Service Agency’ and notify FEU

Question 521

Officer and Charge at TPOC Upon being notified of a call for service related to confirm shooting shall

Answer 521

Notify Intel The public safety response team. PSRT Integrated guns and gangs task force Victim services toronto has been notified or during off hours notify the on-call victim services personnel

Question 522

Officer in Charge Upon receipt of an eReport and TPS 403 relating to an illegally possessed firearm coming into police custody shall ensure

Answer 522

prints/and or DNA testing is required the submitting officer has selected the applicable box on TPS 403  the submitting officer has included TPS 240 with the firearm  compliance with Procedure 09–03 regarding the submission of the firearm to the Property & Video Evidence Management Unit  ensure the eReport number is recorded on the TPS 403 and any other property reports  ensure TPS 403 including mandatory synopsis and TPS 405 are scanned into the related eReport  IGGTF has been notified Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre Upon being notified of a call for service relating to a confirmed shooting shall ensure notification of  Intelligence Services  Public Safety Response Team  Integrated Gang and Gun Task Force  Victim Services Toronto has been notified, or during non-office hours, notify the on-call Victim Services personnel Definitions

Question 523

llegally Possessed Firearm means any firearm that

Answer 523

Force, responsible for investigations into incidents of firearms trafficking and smuggling. Illegally Possessed Firearm means any firearm that  is not legally registered in Canada, or  has been reported stolen, or  is being unlawfully possessed, or  is used in a crime, or  is suspected to have been used in a crime.

Question 524

FEU

Answer 524

Firearms enforcement unit. A section of g&g responsible for investigations into firearms Trafficking and smuggling

Question 525

At the scene ofOf an elderly abuse call supervisor shall

Answer 525

Attendance is mandatory whenever possible to provide guidance and assistance during the investigation In the absence of the supervisor at the officer in charge shall be notified

Question 526

All complaints of abuse of the elderly or vulnerable adult shall be attended by police officers in_____

Answer 526

In person. This includes retirement homes long-term care homes residential care facilities or any other institutional settings

Question 527

Case Manager | When assigned a case involving abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall

Answer 527

Case Manager When assigned a case involving abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall  wherever possible, obtain an electronically recorded statement from the victim in compliance with Procedures 04– 32 and 12–08 - The Crown and the Victim Witness Assistance Program at the court location should be advised of any known medical, physical or mental conditions of the victim so appropriate arrangements can be made for any required court appearances.  ensure all reasonable inquires have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearm Acquisition Certificates (FAC), etc. and that such items are surrendered before release to ensure the safety of the victim  consider opposing bail or the use of bail conditions to ensure the safety of the victim in compliance with the applicable procedures in Chapter 1  consider highlighting ss. 718.2(a) Criminal Code (aggravating circumstances) in the confidential crown envelope (e.g. blind victim, Alzheimer’s patient, dementia or special circumstances) so the Crown may consider seeking stiffer sentencing upon conviction  encourage the victim to complete a Victim Impact Statement at the appropriate stage of the court process  whenever possible, ensure the victim is notified of any known court dates with a follow–up call on the day prior to the court appearance  consider use of the Special Interest Persons category on CPIC for victims who are believed to be at risk of additional abuse

Question 528

Elderly abuse. Case manager Shall When the victim is blind Alzheimer’s patient dementia or special circumstances

Answer 528

Consider highlighting 718.2 of the criminal code So the crown may consider seeking stiffer sentencing upon conviction

Question 529

Case manager elderly and vulnerable adult section Whenever possible ensure that victim has notified of any court dates when

Answer 529

whenever possible, ensure the victim is notified of any known court dates with a follow–up call on the day prior to the court appearance

Question 530

Vulnerable Adult means any adult

Answer 530

Vulnerable Adult means any adult who by nature of a physical, emotional or psychological condition is dependent on other persons for care and assistance in day–to–day living.

Question 531

Child of Abductions under 18 | What are one of the most challenging task at hand when determining whether it’s an actual abduction

Answer 531

If it’s a runaway, a lost child, an abandon child, or a fictitious report to cover up a death or family crisis

Question 532

A child that has been abducted by a stranger is clearly a ‘child in need of protection’ as defined in the Child, Youth and Family Services Act. Police officers have the authority, on reasonable and probable grounds, to;

Answer 532

, to enter and search any premise without warrant, using force if necessary, to locate a child in need of protection whose health and safety is at substantial risk. A warrant must be obtained if there is no substantial risk to the child’s health and safety.

Question 533

Child in need of protection is defined in what act

Answer 533

The child youth and family services act. Please officers have authority on reasonable problem grounds the Internet search any premise without warrant using force if necessary To locate a child in need of protection whose health and safety is a substantial risk

Question 534

Child abductions supervision

Answer 534

Supervisory and Officer attendance mandatory Divisional detective attendance mandatory when notify the possible adduction of the person is under 18 Supervisory Office and divisional Detective notification mandatory Officer and Charge mandatory notification when the person is under the age of 18

Question 535

Members will familiarize themselves with the relevant law when undertaking investigations in Child abductions. What are the sections and brief description

Answer 535

280 Abduction of a person under 16 Non–Parental s. 281 Abduction of person under 14 Non–Parental s. 282 Abduction in Contravention of Custody Order Parental s. 283 Abduction Parental Members will familiarize themselves with the relevant law when undertaking investigations in

Question 536

Abduction of a person under 16. Non-parental what section of the code

Answer 536

280

Question 537

Abduction of person under 14 non-Parental what section of the code

Answer 537

281

Question 538

Abduction and contravention of custody order what section of the code

Answer 538

282

Question 539

Abduction Parental what section of the code

Answer 539

283

Question 540

Child adoptions the initial gathering of information is crucial officers are to use what forms

Answer 540

233a And 233

Question 541

Nothing should we assume that everything shall be verified and what cases

Answer 541

Child of duction Page 115

Question 542

Child of abductions police officer Shall on scene Police Officer The first police officer shall be responsible for conducting the initial investigation, preserving evidence, completing all necessary reports and notifying a supervisory officer of all pertinent facts. Upon receiving a complaint of a possible abduction involving a person under the age of 18 shall promptly attend the scene

Answer 542

 conduct a thorough preliminary investigation, ensuring all pertinent information is obtained using, the TPS 233A as a guideline  commence an investigation in compliance with Procedure 04–05  request the attendance of a supervisory officer, divisional detective and additional assistance, as required  when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction, notify Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes)  where possible, locate and preserve the scene where the person was last observed  search the home and immediate area thoroughly  where possible, locate and preserve any locations where the person normally plays or visits (comfort zones such as playgrounds, places regularly visited, etc.)  conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and CFRO check on all witnesses and immediate family ```  locate and interview  the immediate family  other relatives  any witnesses  any non–family caregiver ```  complete the applicable eReports forthwith, selecting Yes for the BOLO option - Records Management Services – Operations (RMS – Ops) will create and post a BOLO.  scan and attach all memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport  check CPIC transaction history to ensure the necessary particulars have been properly entered - The window of opportunity established between the time of last sighting and the time the disappearance was noted is critical to any subsequent canvass of the area.  offer the complainant/victim’s family the opportunity of having a person of their choice or a member of Victim Services for support, for both stranger and known offender abductions  obtain photographs of both the missing person and any suspects  obtain and review a copy of any Custody Orders, Restraining Orders and/or any other court orders, where applicable  ensure that any Children’s Law Reform Act (CLRA) Order of Apprehension is immediately entered on CPIC Once it has been determined that the child has been located and is safe shall complete the Located/Found section of the Missing Persons details page. - Upon receiving and transcribing the person located/found update, RMS – Ops will cancel the BOLO and the missing person from CPIC.

Question 543

Supervisory Officer The supervisory officer shall be responsible for what when dispatched to the scene of a child abduction

Answer 543

be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. Upon being notified of a possible abduction involving a person under the age of 18 shall  attend the scene promptly and take charge of all uniform police officers  notify the Officer in Charge  ensure a divisional detective is notified and requested to attend  ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05  organize a thorough search of the area utilizing all available resources  ensure officers assigned to canvass are instructed to canvass every residence and business in their assigned area  note each address visited  interview each occupant where possible, using the questions in the TPS 233A as a guideline, recording the result on a separate TPS 233  leave a TPS 234 in the door or mail box where there is no answer to the canvass  request permission to search the premises  ensure all police officers scan and attach their memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport  ensure Sex Crimes has been notified when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction  ensure the on–call Search Manager – EM&PO is notified - Emergency Management & Public Order should be consulted in circumstances requiring a Level 2 or Level 3 search under Procedure 04–05.  ensure that Custody Orders, Restraining Orders and/or any other court order in effect are obtained and reviewed  add supplementary information to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

Question 544

Divisional Detective The divisional detective shall promptly attend the scene, notify Sex Crimes, conduct a thorough and timely investigation and request activation of the AMBER Alert when appropriate. Upon being notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18 shall attend the scene promptly

Answer 544

 ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05  ensure the immediate family and other relatives are interviewed  ensure the school principal or other care givers are notified and interviewed, as appropriate  ensure witnesses are isolated from each other and interviewed, in compliance with Procedure 04–32 where possible  in the case of a non–parental or stranger involved abduction, notify Sex Crimes to ensure the investigation is conducted in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual  in a case of a stranger involved abduction, contact the on–call Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services (INT) The INT can assist by providing expertise relating to telephone intercepts and other investigative aids and technology.  in the case of an apparent parental child abduction, ensure a thorough investigation is conducted to establish an intent to deprive the custodial parent of their rights to the child - Custody disputes may involve allegations of parental child abduction. Where no ‘intent to deprive’ is established, the matter must be documented and both parents should be referred to Family Court for resolution of the custody dispute. Should there be grounds to believe there was intent to deprive the custodial parent of the rights to the child and there is no evidence of a custody order in effect, proceedings may only commence with the consent of the Attorney General.  ensure the first police officer completes the applicable eReport forthwith so that a BOLO can be posted  where the incident meets the criteria for initiating an AMBER Alert, ensure a request has been made through the Officer in Charge  ensure the Officer in Charge is updated on a regular basis  for each suspect and suspect vehicle, ensure a TPS 227 is completed and submitted in compliance with the instructions on the form  ensure pertinent information is disseminated to other police services, government agencies and where appropriate, community organizations in compliance with Procedure 17–04  if practicable, consult with the Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force prior to making any attempts at recovering the abducted person and/or apprehending the suspect  ensure a ViCLAS report is completed in compliance with Procedure 05–19  ensure compliance with Procedures 05–06 and the Child Abuse Protocol, where applicable  notify Corporate Communications regarding the issuance of a news release in compliance with Procedure 17–01  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken ensure all police officers scan and attach their memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport  ensure charges are laid or warrants obtained where reasonable grounds exist  ensure the relevant information is entered on the RCMP Missing Child Registry, where applicable

Question 545

Division of detective Shall regarding child abductions

Answer 545

Divisional Detective The divisional detective shall promptly attend the scene, notify Sex Crimes, conduct a thorough and timely investigation and request activation of the AMBER Alert when appropriate. Upon being notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18 shall attend the scene promptly  ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05  ensure the immediate family and other relatives are interviewed  ensure the school principal or other care givers are notified and interviewed, as appropriate  ensure witnesses are isolated from each other and interviewed, in compliance with Procedure 04–32 where possible  in the case of a non–parental or stranger involved abduction, notify Sex Crimes to ensure the investigation is conducted in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual  in a case of a stranger involved abduction, contact the on–call Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services (INT) The INT can assist by providing expertise relating to telephone intercepts and other investigative aids and technology.  in the case of an apparent parental child abduction, ensure a thorough investigation is conducted to establish an intent to deprive the custodial parent of their rights to the child - Custody disputes may involve allegations of parental child abduction. Where no ‘intent to deprive’ is established, the matter must be documented and both parents should be referred to Family Court for resolution of the custody dispute. - Should there be grounds to believe there was intent to deprive the custodial parent of the rights to the child and there is no evidence of a custody order in effect, proceedings may only commence with the consent of the Attorney General.  ensure the first police officer completes the applicable eReport forthwith so that a BOLO can be posted  where the incident meets the criteria for initiating an AMBER Alert, ensure a request has been made through the Officer in Charge  ensure the Officer in Charge is updated on a regular basis  for each suspect and suspect vehicle, ensure a TPS 227 is completed and submitted in compliance with the instructions on the form  ensure pertinent information is disseminated to other police services, government agencies and where appropriate, community organizations in compliance with Procedure 17–04  if practicable, consult with the Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force prior to making any attempts at recovering the abducted person and/or apprehending the suspect  ensure a ViCLAS report is completed in compliance with Procedure 05–19  ensure compliance with Procedures 05–06 and the Child Abuse Protocol, where applicable  notify Corporate Communications regarding the issuance of a news release in compliance with Procedure 17–01  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken ensure all police officers scan and attach their memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport  ensure charges are laid or warrants obtained where reasonable grounds exist  ensure the relevant information is entered on the RCMP Missing Child Registry, where applicable

Question 546

VICLAS

Answer 546

Violent crime linkage Analysis system

Question 547

Officer in Charge shall ensure an Child Abductions

Answer 547

appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the Detective Sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon being notified of a possible child abduction shall  ensure a supervisory officer and a divisional detective attend the scene  ensure Sex Crimes has been notified when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction  ensure the on–call Search Manager – EM&PO is notified  notify - the Unit Commander - the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) - all divisional personnel  ensure Communications Services broadcast all pertinent information  ensure Corporate Communications is notified regarding the issuance of a news release in compliance with Procedure 17–01  ensure the investigating officer disseminates all pertinent information to other police services, government agencies and community organizations where appropriate, in compliance with Procedure 17–04  ensure the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR)

Question 548

Who ultimately will approve the initiation of an Amber alert

Answer 548

The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) will contact the Chief of Police, or designate. The Chief of Police or designate will make the final decision if an AMBER Alert will be initiated. If approved, the Duty Senior Officer will initiate the Alert through the TPOC.  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detail

Question 549

Detective Sergeant The Detective Sergeant is responsible for ensuring an appropriate investigative response. Upon being notified of a possible child abduction shall

Answer 549

 in the case of a non–parental child abduction, ensure a Major Case Manager is assigned to lead and conduct the investigation in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual  ensure Sex Crimes has been notified when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction  ensure the on–call Search Manager – EM&PO is notified  co–ordinate the divisional response in conjunction with the case manager  ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05  ensure that a divisional detective attends the scene  assign additional divisional investigative personnel, as required  ensure the assistance of the INT, Sex Crimes or Detective Operations – Homicide is requested, where appropriate  ensure that a file is maintained in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual consisting of the applicable reports, a photo of the abducted child, press clippings and all other documents deemed relevant  ensure that measures are taken to contact agencies outside of Canada, where appropriate  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

Question 550

Child of abductions. Detective Sergeant will call the on-call search manager of which unit is required

Answer 550

EMPO Emergency management and public order

Question 551

Child abductions what does the investigator a Sex Crimes do When notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18

Answer 551

Immediately the liaison with the on-call homicide investigator’s I’m sure supplemental information is added on the report detailing all actually taken

Question 552

Child of duction what is the DS of Intel do

Answer 552

Would be notified of a possible stranger child of duction Shall consult with the investigating officer an offer such support as required

Question 553

the inspector will fax a request for activation of an Ontario Amber alert where

Answer 553

To the duty officer 0PP GHQ requesting the activation

Question 554

AMBER Alert means a co–operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Transportation to provide early notification to the public where a person under

Answer 554

18 years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstances lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive information about the abducted person, and/or the abductor, and/or the abductor’s vehicle to believe an immediate broadcast alert will help in locating the person. An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended.

Question 555

Parental abduction means

Answer 555

The unlawful removal of a child by a parent or guardian or any other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of 14 whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court the intent to deprive a parent guardian or person have a lawful care or charge of the person

Question 556

Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) Missing Child Registry means the

Answer 556

the national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non–parental abduction.

Question 557

Child abductions search management team means

Answer 557

Team from emergency management and public order EMPO.

Question 558

Child of abductions search manager is

Answer 558

A police officer of the EMPO

Question 559

Window of opportunity with child abductions means

Answer 559

The interval between the time the missing person was last seen and the time they were believed to be missing

Question 560

Emotionally disturbed person’s supervision

Answer 560

Supervisory and Officer attendance mandatory when EDP is armed or might be Notify a hook if I had a psychiatric facility for more than an hour Officer and Charge notification mandatory for MCIT notification

Question 561

Section 16 of the MHA is;

Answer 561

Justice of the peace order of an examination a form 2

Question 562

Section 17 of the MHA is;

Answer 562

Police officers powers of arrest Reasonable grounds to believe a person is acting in a disorderly manner and is reasonable cause to believe that manner and has reasonable cause to believe that the person, (a) has threatened or attempted or is threatening or attempting to cause bodily harm to himself or herself; (b) has behaved or is behaving violently towards another person or has caused or is causing another person to fear bodily harm from him or her; or (c) has shown or is showing a lack of competence to care for himself or herself, and in addition the police officer is of the opinion that the person is apparently suffering from mental disorder of a nature or quality that likely will result in,  serious bodily harm to the person;  serious bodily harm to another person; or  serious physical impairment of the person,

Question 563

Section 33 of the mental health at directs

Answer 563

I Police Officer Shall remain at the psychiatric facility until the facility has retained custody of the person

Question 564

Community referral police access line

Answer 564

Community-based mental health and justice services police only access line Providing police officers assistance when; an individual 16 or older is believed to be emotionally disturbed and a significant risk of involvement with the criminal justice system Who has not been apprehended under the MHA 24 hours a day seven days a week for police officers only Can assist short term residential beds Referral to the mental health and just as prevention program Information and referral to other community mental health services

Question 565

Emotionally disturbed person’s supervisor Shall

Answer 565

When information is received the EDP may be armed with a weapon attend ASAP

Question 566

CPEU

Answer 566

Community partnership and engagement unit

Question 567

Officer in Charge Upon becoming aware that a call for service involves a suspected EDP that is armed or may be armed with a weapon, shall ensure

Answer 567

 a supervisory officer has been notified and attends the scene as soon as possible

Question 568

Community treatment order a CTO

Answer 568

Is an order with conditions issued by a physician to a person which involves that person with psychiatric treatment in the community that is less restrictive than being detained in a facility

Question 569

Emotionally disturbed person’s definition of disorderly

Answer 569

Miss behaviour that appears to the police to be To some extent irrational although not unruly

Question 570

Divisional mental health liaison officer

Answer 570

Is the police officer responsible for coordinating all mental health issues within the division usually the community response officer

Question 571

Form 1 emotionally disturbed person’s is

Answer 571

Application by physician for psychiatric assessment signed by a doctor within 7 days of examining the person given any person authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. A form 1 is valid for seven 7 from and including the day it was side 

Question 572

Form 2 Emotionally disturbed person what is it

Answer 572

Means a justice of the peace order for examination directing police officers to take the person in custody to an Appropriate Psychiatric facility were physician can order the person detained for examination. A Form 2 is valid for seven days from and including the day it was signed

Question 573

Form 9 mental health act with emotionally disturbed person’s is

Answer 573

Means an order for return for an elopee issued by a psychiatric facility Which authorized as a police officer to return the person without their consent to a psychiatric facility. A form nine is valid for a period of 1 month after the person is absent without leave

Question 574

EDP’s Length of time forms are good for; Form 1, 2 and 9??

Answer 574

1—7 days 2—7 days 9—1 month

Question 575

Perform 47MHA

Answer 575

Is an order for examination issued by a physician who issued the person of community treatment order CTO and Has reasonable cost to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions of the CTO The CTO subject or substitute decision maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffered deterioration Valid for 30 days

Question 576

Person in crisis

Answer 576

Is a person who suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help demonstrating that or they are in touch with reality. Once a person crisis receive the help needed they are often rapidly return to normalcy

Question 577

SVC

Answer 577

Service vehicle collision

Question 578

SRLD401

Answer 578

Service vehicle collision which is reportable under the HTA shall be recorded on this form. Only reportable collisions. The SRLD401 shall be completed using the Versadex built-in electronic eMVA xForm and Quickscene diagramming applications.

Question 579

When is the ICC video reviewed by a supervisor. (Along with Order times)

Answer 579

After a service vehicle collision Is required for Court request from PVEMU

Question 580

Supervisor; When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and investigative integrity and submit to the Officer in Charge prior to reporting off duty. When detailed to attend a reportable or non-reportable SVC that has occurred outside the City of Toronto shall

Answer 580

 promptly attend the scene to provide assistance and conduct an internal investigation  notify the involved member’s Officer in Charge of any recent updates to the SVC  liaise with the investigating officer and/or supervisory officer on scene  obtain a copy of the collision report from the investigating officer  complete a TPS 559 for each Service vehicle involved, include the circumstances of the SVC and complete the Supervisor’s Determination section  ensure the damage is recorded on the appropriate Vehicle Damage Report in the unit file  send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith  comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable

Question 581

SupervisorWhen Service vehicle collision what phone number is completed for each service vehicle involved

Answer 581

559

Question 582

Supervisor; When criminal or provincial charges are warranted in a svc against the involved member shall

Answer 582

 if immediate action is not required, consult with the involved member’s Unit Commander prior to laying a charge  if immediate action is required, take appropriate action, then advise the involved member’s Unit Commander as soon as practicable  initiate the applicable charge  when a conduct issue is identified shall comply with the applicable procedures contained in Chapter 13

Question 583

Officer in Charge | When notified of a SVC which has occurred

Answer 583

Officer in Charge When notified of a SVC which has occurred  within the divisional boundaries, or  outside the boundary of the members’ division and inside the City of Toronto, or  when detailed by the Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) shall ensure that a supervisory officer is assigned to attend the scene and conduct an internal investigation, if applicable. When notified of a SVC which has occurred outside of the City of Toronto shall notify the Officer in Charge – TPOC. When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and systemic integrity and ensure  the collision is investigated in compliance with this Procedure and Procedures 04–21, 07–01, 13–16 and 15–17, as applicable  if the Service vehicle is equipped with an ICCS video, the ICCS video has been reviewed and  if the SIU mandate has been or may be invoked, comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable  a copy of the ICCS video evidence is requested from PVEMU by e–mail; indicating date, time and fleet number, as soon as practicable  a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport has been sent to FLT  if concurring with the report submit - the original to TSV Unit Commander (Designate) – SVC Review The Service has a legal requirement to forward all SLRD401s to the Ministry of Transportation within 10 days of the vehicle collision.

Question 584

TSV unit commander review regarding Police Service collisions Shall

Answer 584

Review the report to comply with procedures If concurring with the report sign and email the TPS559 along with SLRD401 and other documents to professional standards Analysis and Assessment and the unit commander of the involved officer If not concurrent with the report Return to the supervisor who investigator the collision

Question 585

Unit commander Involved member of a service vehicle collision When I receipt of a SVCR that has been reviewed by TSV Shall

Answer 585

Review to ensure compliance with procedures Ensure the appropriate action is taken which may include Consideration for repetitive behavior Recommendation for driving assessment and or driver development training Initiating criminal provincial charges Commencing an internal complaint in compliance with the applicable procedures. Ensure a copy of the SRLD401 has been sent a FLT Ensure repairs are made to the service vehicle in a timely manner Review the SVCR for completeness accuracy and systematic integrity If concurring with the report email a copy of the 559 and SRLD401 four All not at fault property damage only yes SVRC two professional standards analysis and assessment. The originals retained on unit file and copy on members file per retention schedule All other collisions including at fault collisions personal injury collisions and pursuit related collisions to the involve member staff sergeant or director If not concurring with the report and or errors omissions are identified and sure corrections are made in a timely matter once corrected forward to the TSV unit commander SVC review 

Question 586

Duty senior officer regarding service vehicle collision shall

Answer 586

When notified of a SVC which is a current outside of the city toronto Shall Determine whether a supervisor officer should attend the same Notify the OIC TPOC of the determination

Question 587

Driving assessment definition. This is in the service vehicle collision portion

Answer 587

Means a practical on the road driving assessment conducted by the divisional traffic Sergeant or traffic Sergeant as applicable

Question 588

Service vehicle collision Section define intentional contact

Answer 588

Toronto police service vehicle operated by a member intentionally comes in contact with another vehicle person or object that’s using a vehicle as a tool to stop a threat

Question 589

Service vehicle collision Service vehicle define it

Answer 589

Vehicle vessel aircraft or bicycle owned by the service used to perform duties On behalf of the service. Includes leased owned or rented or loaned to the service A trailer told by a service vehicle also

Question 590

SVCRC

Answer 590

Service vehicle collision reduction committee. Committee consisting of the unit Commander and a Designate from PRS Traffic services And the college

Question 591

SVCR

Answer 591

Service vehicle collision reduction program. Managed by professional standards Monitors trend analysis problem identification quality assurance and training issues

Question 592

SVCR

Answer 592

It’s a Report consisting of A SVCR401. Copy of the traffic officers memo book and notes and field notes Witness statements if applicable A copy of the evolved members memo book notes or 649 A TPS559

Question 593

What’s a tps559 this is a todo card

Answer 593

Todo

Question 594

(EFAP) for those members and their families who experience personal problems relating to health, marriage, family, lifestyle, retirement, legal issues, finances, gambling, substance abuse, psychological/emotional disorders, work, or critical incident stress. Procedure The EFAP provider for the Service, Shepell∙fgi, is contracted to provide assistance to  active members (full-time, part-time and temporary), their spouse/partner and dependents  retirees, their spouse/partner  auxiliary members (critical incident stress only)

Answer 594

health, marriage, family, lifestyle, retirement, legal issues, finances, gambling, substance abuse, psychological/emotional disorders, work, or critical incident stress.

Question 595

Procedure | The EFAP provider for the Service, _________is contracted to provide assistance to

Answer 595

Shepell∙fgi, cost is borne by the employer  active members (full-time, part-time and temporary), their spouse/partner and dependents  retirees, their spouse/partner  auxiliary members (critical incident stress only)  lifeguards (critical incident stress only)

Question 596

EFAP committee

Answer 596

Comprised of representatives of the chief, the SOO, the TPA, the EFAP provider and representatives of other service supports units such as human resources psychological services chaplaincy and college

Question 597

When can the EFAP provider break confidentiality

Answer 597

When Records are subpoenaed by a court of law Suspicion that a child is or maybe I need a protection from current or potential physical abuse sexual emotional neglect When there’s a need to intervene to prevent serious harm to an individual or others Or there’s a need to report a health professional where there is a reason to believe that they are not working in accordance with the standards of regulated health professionals act

Question 598

The EFAP provider is required to report non-identifying statistics to who

Answer 598

The EFAP committee For the purposes of continuous monitoring of the program program enhancements and re-design program awareness and identification of emerging issues and trends overtime

Question 599

Supervisor upon becoming aware Supervisor | Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall

Answer 599

 advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider  permit the member the opportunity to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements  follow–up as necessary with the member for support and encouragement  refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident Unit Commander

Question 600

To do

Answer 600

Ask the group Re “see often 5 for example. Like on page 129

Question 601

Unit Commander | Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall in relation to efap

Answer 601

Unit Commander Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall  comply with item 5  ensure all reasonable steps have been taken to support the member in accessing support and treatment, as necessary  confer with the member and offer ongoing support, if appropriate  refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident When dealing with EFAP issues in general shall make every effort to encourage the use of and proactively promote the positive benefits of the EFAP and provide the Necessary information to the members and our families to make contact as soon as possible

Question 602

CIRT

Answer 602

Critical incident response team | Our service members who are trained and trauma response measures.

Question 603

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to: (For review)

Answer 603

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to:  liaise with - the EFAP provider and its CIRT, - the Toronto Police Operations Centre, Officer in Charge and/or unit commander, and the CIRT/Peer Support Volunteers (PSVs), and; - work with CIRT/PSVs, the EFAP provider, and/or Psychological Services to co–ordinate defusing and debriefing sessions.

Question 604

Supervision re traumatic

Answer 604

Supervision  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory  when involved in a traumatic critical incident  upon becoming aware that another member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident, or is showing signs and symptoms of critical incident stress  firearm discharge (officer involved shooting) Procedure

Question 605

PSV

Answer 605

Peer support volunteer

Question 606

Factors that may impact the assessment of a member when informed in a traumatic incident include, but are not limited to the

Answer 606

``` nature of the event  member’s Service experience  member’s life experience  member’s involvement in previous traumatic critical incidents, and  member’s behaviour. ```

Question 607

Defusing Session means an immediate informal meeting attended by an individual or a group of members involved in a traumatic critical incident to assess the need for further assistance prior to the end of shift. The defusing session takes place immediately after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident in a secure location where disruptions can be eliminated and lasts for approximately __________. Two Peer Support Volunteers normally lead these meetings with Employee Family Assistance Program support if necessary. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the discussion is voluntary.

Answer 607

15 to 30 minutes.

Question 608

Attendance is mandatory but active participation in discussions Are voluntary. This is related to what

Answer 608

defusing and debriefing sessions EFAP Street traumatic incidents

Question 609

Members may be referred to a qualified medical practitioner for continued professional assistance. When it is determined, within the established guidelines, that a member requires professional assistance, the cost of such services is borne by the ___________ as a ________ _______ _______ _________ (______) claim.

Answer 609

employer as a Workplace Safety Insurance Board (WSIB) claim.

Question 610

Post Incident Firearms Exposure Session | Review

Answer 610

Post incident firearms exposure sessions are individual sessions involving firearm exercises undertaken with a qualified firearms instructor. These sessions do NOT consist of a qualification standard. Rather, post incident firearms exposure sessions consist of a course of fire intended to be educational, to provide reassurance, and to promote officers’ confidence with their firearm. Post incident firearms exposure sessions at the Toronto Police College are mandatory for officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty and officers determined by their unit commander to be directly impacted by the incident. However, any officer involved in a shooting incident may request to participate in a post incident firearms exposure session. Post incident firearms exposure sessions do not apply to the discharge of a firearm for the purpose of dispatching an animal, unless circumstances suggest otherwise. The training cadre attached to Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF) is comprised of qualified firearms instructors. Therefore, ETF officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty, or are determined by their unit commander to be directly impacted by a shooting incident, have the option of attending a post incident firearms exposure session with a qualified firearms instructor at the ETF or at the Toronto Police College. Unit commanders should consult with the supervisor, the officer in charge, the Armament Officer – Toronto Police College – Armament Section, and a Service Psychologist, as required, when determining officers directly impacted by an officer– involved shooting incident. Member

Question 611

Post Incident Firearms exposure, sessions

Answer 611

Individual sessions with a qualified firearms instructor Not consist of a qualification standard Course of fire intended to educate and provide reassurance and promote officer confidence with his firearm Mandatory for officers takes place at the college Any officer involved in a shooting me a request to participate Not applicable to the dispatching of an animal unless circumstances suggest otherwise 

Question 612

Members When involved in a traumatic critical incident shall

Answer 612

Immediately report the incident to a supervisor Seek medical attention if necessary Attend diffusing and briefing sessions As directed by the supervisor officer in charge of the unit Commander or the CIRT/PSV or their designate

Question 613

Members; When involved in an officer–involved shooting incident shall

Answer 613

 comply with item 1  attend a post incident firearms exposure session as directed by the Unit Commander  Any officer involved in a shooting incident may request to participate in a post incident firearms exposure session.

Question 614

Upon becoming aware that another member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and symptoms of critical incident stress shall

Answer 614

immediately notify a supervisor |  refrain from making any diagnosis

Question 615

Supervisor Upon becoming aware that a member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and symptoms of critical incident stress shall  immediately notify the Officer in Charge of the affected member’s unit or civilian equivalent  ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03

Answer 615

Supervisor Upon becoming aware that a member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and symptoms of critical incident stress shall  immediately notify the Officer in Charge of the affected member’s unit or civilian equivalent  ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03 The wording for the Injured on Duty Report under the section “Nature and Area of Injury(ies)” shall be: “Traumatic Critical Incident”.  participate in the assessment of the incident with the officer in charge to determine the appropriate level of support for the member  provide support and ongoing encouragement to assist the member

Question 616

When a supervisor is filling out an injured on duty reports for members involved in a Trumatic incident the wording on the report Shall indicate

Answer 616

Traumatic critical incident

Question 617

Officer in Charge / Civilian Equivalent Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall This is really for review. Too much to memorize

Answer 617

consult with the Officer in Charge – TPOC to determine the appropriate level of response  advise the Unit Commander when it is determined in consultation with the TPOC that the CIRT/PSV is required to attend  comply with Procedures 08–03 and 15–03, where applicable When involved in an assessment of a traumatic critical incident shall record all factors considered and actions taken in their memorandum book. Members not assigned a memorandum book shall make a written record of all factors considered and actions taken. When consulted regarding an officer–involved shooting incident shall make a record of the consultation and actions taken in their memorandum book. Members not assigned a memorandum book shall make a written record of the consultation and actions taken. When a member is involved in a traumatic critical incident and the CIRT/PSV is not immediately consulted shall ensure the member is  advised that immediate support from the Service’s EFAP provider is available  provided a copy of the Critical Incident Stress Handout (Appendix A)  made aware of all the services available to them Upon becoming aware that a member has been directed to attend a mandatory defusing session, debriefing session, or post incident firearms exposure session shall ensure that the member complies with such direction.

Question 618

Unit Commander Upon becoming aware that a traumatic critical incident has taken place shall ensure the TPOC is immediately consulted any time a member requests immediate support

Answer 618

 when a member’s life has been imperilled  when assessment of the traumatic critical incident deems this to be the appropriate level of support  when the Unit Commander and/or Officer in Charge is uncertain about the appropriate level of support  an appropriate response and support for the affected member has been developed in consultation with the member’s supervisor, the officer in charge and the TPOC if required  where appropriate, the use of the guidelines in Appendix B, or other reasonable measures are considered, when determining the nature of the support and assistance to be offered to the affected member and their immediate family  the member’s family is notified of the particulars, if necessary  immediate support from EFAP provider is made available  a copy of the Critical Incident Stress Handout is made available  the well–being of the affected member, their family and co–workers is a priority  all reporting requirements are met Upon becoming aware that a member has been directed to attend mandatory defusing or debriefing sessions shall ensure that the member complies with such direction.

Question 619

Unit Commander Shall Upon becoming aware that a member has discharged a firearm in the line of duty shall

Answer 619

 ensure the member participates in a post incident firearms exposure session at the Toronto Police College with a qualified firearms instructor prior to returning to full duties  determine in consultation with the Officer in Charge, the supervisor, the Armament Officer, and a Service Psychologist, as required, if there are any other officers involved that may have been impacted by the incident  ensure any officers impacted by the incident attend the Toronto Police College for a post incident firearms exposure session with a qualified firearms instructor prior to returning to full duties Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre

Question 620

Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall respond to the unit’s request in consultation with the unit commander or the officer in charge of the involved unit. If assessment of the incident has determined that the CIRT must be activated, the TPOC shall

Answer 620

 immediately notify  the on–call CIRT/PSV using the on-call roster at the TPOC  the EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator, during business hours  the Duty Senior Officer – TPOC  an on–call member of the Senior Officers Organization and/or Toronto Police Association, whichever is appropriate

Question 621

Who contacts the on–call CIRT/PSV upon being aware of a traumatic incident

Answer 621

Officer in Charge TPOC

Question 622

Definitions | Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority

Answer 622

. means a member of the cadre of on-call Toronto Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the Chief.

Question 623

CIRT Z members are not….

Answer 623

Councillors

Question 624

Debriefing Session means a

Answer 624

scheduled formal meeting specifically set up for members directly involved in the traumatic critical incident to discuss reactions to the traumatic event in confidence with a qualified mental health professional. The debriefing session takes place a few days after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident, in a secure location where disruptions can be eliminated and can last up to 2.5 hours. The Employee Family Assistance Program Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator will work with the Officer in Charge, CIRT Peer Support Volunteer and/or the qualified mental health professional to schedule the session. Attendance is mandatory for the members directly involved but active participation in the discussion is voluntary. Debriefing sessions may be conducted by a mental health professional assisted by members of the CIRT and are not operational debriefings.

Question 625

Debriefing Session

Answer 625

Can last up to 2.5 In confidence with a qualified medical health professional Can take Place a few days after the conclusion of the Traumatic critical incident 

Question 626

Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) means a Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek professional treatment, if required.

Answer 626

a Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek professional treatment, if required.

Question 627

Family Notification and Liaison who should notify them in the event of a critical incident

Answer 627

A Person Who is close to the member. A partner or mediate supervisor subject to logistics exigencies and approval of the unit Commander or Designate

Question 628

Family Notification and Liaison

Answer 628

Consider one person has the information contact at the scene or hospital to write up-to-date information to the notification member. The chief of police should contact the family only after the initial notification has been completed One member from the effected members unit should be dedicated to liaison with the family for the initial critical period.  This person should have a cell phone and be on 24 hour call with the family to provide assistance and support. A back up person should be designated to assist. The unit liaison should meet with the family and determine the immediate needs. Further meetings can take place as required. The liaison may consult with Psychological Services and/or the EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator as necessary. Address any safety concerns of the family.

Question 629

Any member may ______–_____ as a victim of critical incident stress. Refer such member to the EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator or CIRT/Peer Support Volunteer for support/assistance.

Answer 629

self–identify

Question 630

Critical incident general info

Answer 630

Consider requesting a special budget project number for expenses Ensure all evidence of the traumatic critical incident is removed from the home unit as soon as possible Ensure supervisors or admin staff complete the necessary WSIB or IOD paperwork Contact the senior officers organization and/or Toronto police association for assistance and appropriate and necessary

Question 631

Members When voluntarily seeking help for a substance abuse problem shall

Answer 631

When voluntarily seeking help for a substance abuse problem shall  seek assistance from one or more of, but not limited to  Wellness – Medical Advisory Services (MAS),  peers,  referral agents,  supervisors,  the Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP), or  community-based services  make every effort to resolve the problem

Question 632

When on a leave of absence for a period longer than _______ consecutive days shall, unless otherwise directed by the Chief of Police, return to their Unit Commander all of their Service issued use of force equipment. -

Answer 632

When on a leave of absence for a period longer than 90 consecutive days shall, unless otherwise directed by the Chief of Police, return to their Unit Commander all of their Service issued use of force equipment. -

Question 633

The surrender of Service issued uniform and equipment is an administrative function. Members shall continue to comply with the Police Services Act and all Service Governance. A member is an employee of the Service until resignation, retirement, termination or death. - In the event that a member knows in advance that they will be taking an extended medical leave for a period longer than ________ consecutive days, the member shall advise their Unit Commander and return their use of force equipment directly to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section.

Answer 633

90.

Question 634

Supervisor Upon becoming aware of a member who exhibits work performance concerns that may be related to substance abuse shall

Answer 634

 determine if there are any immediate fitness for duty or safety concerns  discuss performance concerns and expectations with the member  encourage the member to seek assistance, where appropriate  advise the member of options available for assistance including MAS and EFAP  follow up, if required, to provide the member with proper support and encouragement to resolve the problem  provide heightened performance monitoring and management

Question 635

Supervisor When receipt of a TPS649 and or a MED 1 containing recommendations from MAS

Answer 635

Ensure compliance with the restrictions Ensure the duties assigned to the member comply with the direction contained within Report any deviation by the member to the Officer and Charge General Unit Commanders on a TPS649

Question 636

Officer in Charge or Designate; When it is determined that there are fitness for duty or safety concerns shall

Answer 636

ensure the member is given immediate medical treatment, if required  immediately notify the Unit Commander of the circumstances on a TPS 649 When observing that a member is unfit for duty shall  ensure the member is given immediate medical treatment, if required  commence an immediate investigation  initiate the appropriate action depending on the circumstances (e.g. documentation, charges, suspension, etc.)  comply with Procedures 08–02, 08–03, or 08–04, if applicable  comply with the applicable procedures in Chapter 13 When in receipt of a TPS 649 and/or a MED 1 containing recommendations from MAS shall  follow up with the member to ensure compliance  give a copy to the member’s immediate supervisor When directed to retrieve Service issued uniform and equipment which a member has surrendered and/or returned shall  store memorandum books in compliance with Procedure 13–17, when applicable  forward the eToken, when applicable  via internal mail to the attention of “Token Administration, 5th Floor, IOSS” for Units within Headquarters, or  retain token in the spare pool for reconfiguration and use by another member for Units outside of Headquarters  return to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section all Service issued use of force equipment, when applicable  deliver any applicable Service issued uniform and equipment to Fleet and Materials Management (FLT)

Question 637

Where does e Members a token get mailed to when I’m fit for duty

Answer 637

Token administration fifth floor IOSS Or retain the token in the spare pool for reconfiguration and used by another member for unit outside of headquarters

Question 638

Healthcare professional defined

Answer 638

A member of a college regulated out of that regulated health professional Zack

Question 639

Definition of a medical advisor

Answer 639

He’s a licensed qualified medical practitioner engaged by the toronto police

Question 640

Definition of sickness

Answer 640

Means an illness or injury that is not work related but which prevents and number from working or completing a tour of duty

Question 641

OHSA

Answer 641

Occupational health and safety act Legislators at workers are providing a safe workplace. Requires employers to assess the risk of workplace violence that may arise in the nature of the workplace. The assessment shall take into account Circumstances I would be common in similar places Circumstances Specific to the Workplace And other prescribe element

Question 642

Workplace violence. Supervision

Answer 642

Supervisory Officer tennis mandatory Supervisor officer officer in charge and your commander notification mandatory for all

Question 643

Supervisor Upon identifying a risk of workplace violence shall comply with Procedure 08–09. Upon becoming aware of, or ought reasonably to be aware of

Answer 643

workplace violence or threat of workplace violence, including domestic violence  violence which may occur in the workplace, and would likely expose any member to physical injury shall - take every reasonable precaution necessary for the protection of the members - maintain confidentiality - report any incident of workplace violence to the Officer in Charge - commence an investigation - speak to the member initiating the complaint in private - when gathering evidence comply with Procedure 04–21, if applicable - when there is a domestic violence incident comply with Procedure 05–04, if applicable - when injuries are sustained in the workplace by a member provide medical assistance and comply with Procedure 08–03, if applicable - if an arrest is made, comply with Procedure 01–01 - when a member requires counselling, including counselling which is gender and culturally specific, comply with Procedure 08–01 - when involved in an incident where the SIU mandate may be invoked comply with Procedure 13–16 - investigate all situations of work refusal, if required

Question 644

A police officer cannot refuse to work when the work is a normal condition of the workers employment or when they refused to work would

Answer 644

Directly in danger of life health or safety of another person

Question 645

Domestic Violence means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including:

Answer 645

assault;  murder;  sexual assault;  threatening;  harassment;  intimidation;  unlawful interference with personal liberty;  any other criminal offence;  offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.; but does not include child abuse investigations.

Question 646

worker Definition

Answer 646

Means any person who performs work or supply services for monetary compensation and includes a contractor or a volunteer such as an exhibit remember

Question 647

Workplace harassment Reasonable precautions necessary for the protection of the member may include

Answer 647

Reassignment to reasonable alternative duties

Question 648

Is a courthouse considered a workplace

Answer 648

Yes

Question 649

Fentanyl | Fentanyl is a

Answer 649

powerful synthetic opioid that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. The potency and toxicity of fentanyl varies significantly, as it is sometimes combined with other powdered illicit narcotics and cutting agents. As it can be skin permeable, proper handling of suspected fentanyl and fentanyl analogues is essential to minimizing health risks to involved members.

Question 650

What is Narcan

Answer 650

That is the brand that makes the naloxone spray kits Each kit contains two doses Of naloxone 4mg/0.1ml

Question 651

Naloxone must be stored between

Answer 651

15°C and 25°C Brief excursions are permitted between 4°C to 40°C. NALOXONE cannot be frozen and must be protected from sunlight

Question 652

In order for Designate and Members to be able to administer naloxone the service did what

Answer 652

Obtain a medical delegation from a physician which stipulates but all members being issued NALOXONE SHALL maintain a current standard first aid certificate

Question 653

The Naloxone Tracking Form text template shall be used to track

Answer 653

Naloxone use. Any member that attends an opioid-related overdose shall complete this text template in the related eReport forthwith, regardless of whether Naloxone was administered or not.

Question 654

In the event your NALOXONE kit needs replacing du to expose to temperature or sunlight

Answer 654

obtain a replacement Naloxone kit, as soon as practicable by completing a TPS 587 and emailing the form to Fleet and Material Management (FLT) – Hanna, in the event a kit is  lost  damaged, including as a result of exposure to heat or cold  used  expired

Question 655

n cases where the SIU mandate is invoked, the SIU shall collect all evidence. Members shall ensure that all Naloxone spray applicators, both used and unused, are

Answer 655

properly protected and preserved at the scene, and released to the SIU in compliance with Procedure 13–16. In the event that Naloxone is used on an on-duty Service member shall also comply with Procedure 08–03

Question 656

Remember shell complete first aid training at least every

Answer 656

36 months

Question 657

When directed to retrieve a member’s Naloxone kit, because their Standard First Aid Certification has expired, shall return the kit to the FLT – Hanna. When in receipt of a Naloxone kit that has been damaged, used or expired shall

Answer 657

mark the kit with “X”  return the spoiled Naloxone kit to FLT – Hanna  ensure used kits are safely and properly disposed of  Used kits can be disposed of by returning to FLT – Hanna or can be disposed of at any local pharmacy

Question 658

When A naloxone kit has been damaged users expired what do you do

Answer 658

Marked with an X and send to Hana or act drug store

Question 659

How long does it take for continuous exposure and unvented space with multiple smokers are actively smoking to show secondhand absorption of marijuana

Answer 659

4 hours

Question 660

MAS

Answer 660

Medical advisory services

Question 661

Factors that may impact a member’s fitness for duty include

Answer 661

illness, injury, fatigue, mental stress, alcohol and drug

Question 662

THC is responsible for the way the ______ and ______ responds to cannabis

Answer 662

Brain and body

Question 663

Testing In accordance with Standards of Conduct 1.26, when there are reasonable grounds to investigate a member for using alcohol or drugs in a manner prejudicial to duty, the member shall be afforded the opportunity to take the

Answer 663

``` appropriate test (intoxilizer, drug recognition evaluation, or other recognized screening method). ``` The Service reserves the right to undertake appropriate post-incident drug testing for cannabis, when applicable. Supervisor When approached by a member who voluntarily seeks help for an issue, where work performance or safety is not affected, shall

Question 664

Supervisor When approached by a member who voluntarily seeks help for an issue, where work performance or safety is not affected, shall

Answer 664

advise the member of options available for assistance, including the CIRT/PSV program, the EFAP, consultation visits at Psychological Services, MAS, Volunteer Chaplains, benefits coverage for psychological treatment provided in the community, and community partner wellness resources, such as Toronto Beyond the Blue  follow up, if required, to provide the member with appropriate support and encouragement to resolve the problem When it is apparent an illness/injury is affecting a member’s performance of duty shall comply with Procedure 08–02.

Question 665

Unit Commander | When advised that there are fitness for duty concerns for a member shall

Answer 665

confer with the member  if it is apparent that an illness/injury is affecting a member’s performance of duty shall also comply with Procedure 08–02  if it is apparent that psychological stress or distress is affecting a member’s performance of duty shall also comply with Procedure 08–14  if it is apparent that alcohol or drugs are affecting a member’s performance of duty shall also comply with Procedure 08–05  advise the member of options available for assistance including MAS, EFAP, and community partner wellness resources, such as Toronto Beyond the Blue  ensure a TPS 649 is forwarded to the Unit Commander – Wellness requesting a fitness for duty assessment, including all relevant facts and history regarding the member (e.g. sick record, performance records, etc.)  ensure a mandatory fitness for duty evaluation is arranged, if applicable  ensure the member attends for an assessment as determined by the Medical Advisor or designate  follow up to ensure that the member complies with ongoing recommendations by the Medical Advisor or designate  follow up, if required, to ensure the member receives proper support and encouragement to resolve the problem  ensure that heightened performance monitoring and management is provided When learning that a member refuses to cooperate with a mandatory fitness for duty evaluation shall take the appropriate disciplinary action. .

Question 666

When propriety is being held From a custody line personal gender-affirming prosthetics (including

Answer 666

breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs) from a trans or gender-diverse person in a separate property bag, in compliance with Procedure 01-02 Appendix C. ConsiderPlacing gender affirming prosthetic devices/items in non-see-through bags.

Question 667

When cannabis is being held for a person in custody for safety reasons Shall

Answer 667

Please cannabis in a separate property bag and seal the bag in the presence of the OIC or designated supervisor Officer on camera in the in the Booking Hall It is not necessary to weigh legally possess cannabis prior to placing it in a property bag

Question 668

In relation to prisoners property place all medication in

Answer 668

A separate property bag and make the appropriate entries and the Arrest booking hall Management screen for each type of medication ensuring to include the E report number This bag does not get sealed when going to court

Question 669

When the person Custody just transfer to court a correctional facility or medical facility shell

Answer 669

 insert the person’s medication into a property bag and note the property bag number on the Prisoner Medication Record  insert Prisoner Medication Record in the property bag  ensure the prescribed medication and the Prisoner Medication Record accompanies the prisoner

Question 670

The Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC), a sub-unit of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes, shall be notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of _______ in any division City-Wide. The attending divisional detective shall consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting formal interviews of caregivers. CYAC investigators are available from 0730 to 2200 hours to investigate child abuse cases. An on–call child abuse investigator can be reached after hours through the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC).

Answer 670

16

Question 671

(PDRC)

Answer 671

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC) he PDRC is composed of two sections based on the nature and circumstances of the death: PDRC – Child Welfare and PDRC – Medical. PDRC – Child Welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family was receiving, or had received, the services of a Children’s Aid Society (CAS) or Indigenous child wellbeing society within 12 months of the death. The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare organizations across the province; and is chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner for the Province of Ontario. PDRC – Medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by the relevant Regional Supervising Coroner. The PDRC – Medical panel includes pediatric experts, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the Office of the Chief Coroner; and is also chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner for the province of Ontario. Identification of the Deceased

Question 672

The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes

Answer 672

The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare organizations across the province; and is chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner for the Province of Ontario. PDRC – Medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by the relevant Regional Supervising Coroner. The PDRC – Medical panel includes pediatric experts, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the Office of the Chief Coroner; and is also chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner for the province of Ontario. Identification of the Deceased

Question 673

Every sudden unexpected death of a child or the death of a child under 5 years of age must be actively investigated as

Answer 673

suspicious, and premature conclusions should not be made regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough investigation has been completed. Officers shall comply with the applicable sections of Procedure 05–01 when conducting such investigations.

Question 674

Identification of the Deceased The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

Answer 674

homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences  cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer  cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called  when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the identification. If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons.

Question 675

Informal resolution occurs during the investigation | When

Answer 675

``` a complaint is lodged directly with the OIPRD, the substance and nature of the complaint is not initially established by police. The investigating supervisor may then resolve the complaint by way of an Informal Resolution Agreement (004-0307 OIPRD). An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required. ```

Question 676

Supervisory Officer | When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall

Answer 676

 take charge of the scene  provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene  ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital  request/assign further assistance, as required  ensure the attendance of  a divisional detective  the Coroner  a FIS investigator  ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital  advise the Officer in Charge of all pertinent information  ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary - Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a constable.

Question 677

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for

Answer 677

suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide  sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies all domestic violence calls - when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service - when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service Sexual assault Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory at scene of a complaint of abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult Child abductions EDP is armed or may be armed with a weapon Supervisory Officer and Traffic Services Officer attendance mandatory collisions involving a Service Vehicle any incident of workplace violence for any incident of workplace harassment Naloxone is administered  a member is critically injured Emergency Incident Response  determined by the first member on scene or by Communications Services  when responding to a Level 2 or 3 Incident Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when attending a bomb or explosion call Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon confirming a situation requires the attendance of the ETF upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place SIU INVESTIGATIONS Use of force when firearm is discharged when less lethal shotgun is discharged when a CEW has been used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Development Pursuit Supervisor attendance mandatory to monitor when a pursuit is initiated suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide  sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies * *all domestic violence calls - when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service - when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service SEXUAL ASSAULTS Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse

Question 678

Appropriate Property bag numbers including separate property bag number is for cash Shall be recorded on

Answer 678

The arresting booking, cell management screen.

Question 679

A bag containing medication for prisoners being transported to court Shall

Answer 679

Remain open So it may be accessed should have the medication need to be a dispersed Give the person a detachable seal from the property bags

Question 680

OIC Prior to a person being transported to a lock–up, criminal court or detention centre shall ensure

Answer 680

 necessary medical attention is given to the person  the necessary eReports are completed for a first court appearance in compliance with Procedure 12–01  compliance with Procedure 01–15, if applicable  the Officer in Charge of the destination lock–up is advised when a person is to be transported to the lock–up the officer advises the transporting officers and the Officer in Charge of the receiving facility of any known issues regarding the health and safety of the person, including  known or suspected suicidal tendencies  violent tendencies, and/or  a serious medical condition  injuries  assistive devices  safety concerns  emotional disturbance, any known mental illness or developmental disability  medication, or whether any medication has been administered  impairment due to alcohol or drugs  sufficient police escort is provided  the person's property is handled in compliance with Procedure 09–06  prescribed medication and a Medication Report accompanies the prisoner

Question 681

Officer in Charge / Designated Supervisory Officer When property of a person in custody is held for safety reasons or seized for evidence shall examine the property and accompanying reports

Answer 681

ensure all reports are complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer  ensure the eReport number is included on all Property Reports  sign the completed reports  ensure property bags are properly sealed and the appropriate sections of the property bags are completed  where property is not returned to the prisoner or will not accompany the prisoner to court, ensure the property and the applicable Property Report, TPS 407, if applicable, and TPS 405 are recorded and stored through the DLMS  ensure that all property is stored in a secure location, which is inaccessible to the prisoner

Question 682

When a person is released or transferred from police custody Shall ensure that the original prisoner medication record is

Answer 682

forwarded to the unit where the arrest occurred or applicable

Question 683

Assistive/Prosthetic Device means a device used to

Answer 683

device used to replace, compensate for, or improve the functional abilities of people with disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity. Assistive device includes a broad range of items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs.

Question 684

Cannabis means  any part of a cannabis plant, including the phytocannabinoids produced by or found in such a plant, regardless of whether that part has been processed or not, other than a part of the plant referred to in Schedule 2 [of the Cannabis Act];  any substance or mix of substances that contains or has on it any part of a cannabis plant; or  any substance that is identical to any phytocannabinoid produced by, or found in, such a plant, regardless of how the substance was obtained [including synthetic cannabis products]. [source: Cannabis Act, Schedule 1] Item of Religious Significance means any item, article, apparel, or clothing a person identifies as having religious importance.

Answer 684

any part of a cannabis plant, including the phytocannabinoids produced by or found in such a plant, regardless of whether that part has been processed or not, other than a part of the plant referred to in Schedule 2 [of the Cannabis Act];  any substance or mix of substances that contains or has on it any part of a cannabis plant; or  any substance that is identical to any phytocannabinoid produced by, or found in, such a plant, regardless of how the substance was obtained [including synthetic cannabis products]. [source: Cannabis Act, Schedule 1]

Question 685

When practicable, members shall facilitate the replacement of an item of religious significance as soon as possible when the item

Answer 685

apparel or clothing only

Question 686

IMS

Answer 686

Incident management system in response to any emergency incident including, but not limited to those involving hazardous materials, infrastructure disruptions that may involve utility and power failures, natural hazards such as severe weather, or a disease or other health risk. Supervision

Question 687

A level 1 emergency incident is called what Level 2?? Level 3??

Answer 687

Emergency response Major Incident Disaster Incident

Question 688

Emergency Planning | The Service has enhanced its emergency planning ability by the creation of the EPC

Answer 688

The EPC is mandated to increase the emergency preparedness; planning, mitigating, responding to and recovering from emergency incidents. To achieve this mandate, the EPC has established sub-committees reflective of the Incident Management System (IMS): Public Information, Health and Safety, Investigative, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Administration and Finance. Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO) plays an integral role in the EPC as their members are active in each of the sub–committees. The EPC also works closely with external stakeholders promoting emergency preparedness and positively contributing to a cohesive emergency response as required.

Question 689

To achieve this mandate, the EPC has established sub-committees reflective of the Incident Management System (IMS):

Answer 689

Public Information, Health and Safety, Investigative, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Administration and Finance. Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO) plays an integral role in the EPC as their members are active in each of the sub–committees.

Question 690

Incident Management System (IMS) The IMS is based on a doctrine enacted by the _________ of the ________ ______ that recommends IMS as the emergency preparedness model in Ontario. The Ontario Association of Chiefs of Police (OACP) has adopted the IMS as the recommended emergency preparedness system for Ontario police services. The IMS will be utilized in conjunction with the City of Toronto Emergency Operations Centre

Answer 690

Ministry of the Solicitor General

Question 691

The EOC

Answer 691

Emergency operation centre Emergency Operations Centre (EOC) means a facility operated by the City of Toronto specifically established to conduct the overall management of an emergency. The Toronto Police Service is one of many agencies represented. The Toronto EOC is located at 703 Don Mills Road, 6th Floor. The IMS will be utilized in conjunction with the City of Toronto Emergency Operations Centre (EOC) and can be integrated with other policies and procedures, as required. The IMS creates a clear point of control and can be expanded or contracted with ease in any size or type of emergency to manage response personnel, facilities and equipment.

Question 692

In an emergency incident response who assumes the role of Incident commander

Answer 692

The first member on scene although the service has established a cadre I’ve trade incident commander‘s capable assuming incident command Whenever called upon to do so As well, Public Safety, a sub–unit of EM&PO, is staffed by members who respond to and assist in the management of Level 2 – Major Incidents and Level 3 – Disaster Incidents.

Question 693

Undertaking a strategic role, the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC) may be activated for Level

Answer 693

for Level 2 – Major Incident or Level 3 – Disaster Incident emergencies and should be staffed according to the nature and scope of the event. Such staffing will include an officer of sufficient training, rank and authority to access and redirect personnel and material support as required, as well as liaise with other policing partners and external agencies. It is recommended that once activated, staffing for command and control should follow the IMS in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix A.

Question 694

Communication strategy with an emergency incident response the incident commander Shall appoint a ________ Who will ensure corporate communications is consulted

Answer 694

Public information officer

Question 695

LEVEL 1 – EMERGENCY RESPONSE . First Member When responding to an emergency incident shall

Answer 695

exercise caution when approaching the site, particularly when hazardous materials are indicated or suspected  take charge of the scene, assuming the role of the initial Incident Commander and implement IMS as required until relieved of these duties (refer to Chapter 10 – Appendix A for IMS chart and position profiles) The first police officer is designated as the Incident Commander until relieved by a supervisory officer, or the appropriate external agency having jurisdiction over the incident.  if not a police officer, take charge of the scene until relieved by the first attending police officer  designate a line of approach to the scene that allows for the least risk possible and notify the Communications Operator – Communications Services (Communications Operator) of this route  assess the situation and notify the Communications Operator of - the type or nature of the incident - the location and extent of damage - casualty information - potential hazards - if a separate radio channel will be required for emergency operations - the need for additional members and specialized response - the need for a supervisory officer to attend - whether immediate traffic diversion is required - whether Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics) or Toronto Fire Services (TFS) response and equipment are required The exact location of the Commander post If necessary Establish a Preliminary command post and location that is away from all hazardous conditions

Question 696

There will only be one command post for any incident. When multiple jurisdictions or agencies are involved in the incident, there will be a single unified command.

Answer 696

direct all responding units to the scene, advising them of  existing hazards - required equipment - the presence of any explosive device(s) - active attacker(s) - personal protective equipment - safe method of entry to the scene - routes to be avoided - routes to be closed to non-emergency traffic - take the required actions deemed immediately necessary to contain the emergency and prevent or minimize the loss of life - evaluate the need for, and establish a clearly identified staging area, as required - communicate the location of the staging area to all responding units and jurisdictions - if a staging area is established, assign a staging area manager to track and control all available resources - in conjunction with the ranking TFS member at the scene, evaluate the requirement for evacuation The decision to evacuate during civil disturbances or extraordinary police situations, such as hostage, barricade or terrorist incidents is a police responsibility. The decision to evacuate during a natural and man-made disaster is the responsibility of fire services.

Question 697

The decision to evacuate during civil disturbances or extraordinary police situations, such as hostage, barricade or terrorist incidents is a ______ responsibility. The decision to evacuate during a natural and man-made disaster is the responsibility of _______ _______.

Answer 697

police responsibility. of fire services.

Question 698

The decision to evacuate during civil disturbances or extraordinary police situations, such as hostage, barricade or terrorist incidents is a police responsibility. The decision to evacuate during a natural and man-made disaster is the responsibility of fire services.

Answer 698

assign members to complete necessary functions such as - securing inner and outer perimeter in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix A, if necessary - clearing access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles - ensuring access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel - liaise with other responding emergency services supervisors  maintain radio communication  ensure persons are assisted to safety  comply with Procedure 10–09 if an evacuation is required  when necessary and if qualified to do so, perform the required standard first aid treatment and/or cardio–pulmonary resuscitation (CPR), using universal precautions at all times  notify a supervisor

Question 699

Members attending an emergency incident shall take direction from the

Answer 699

In the absence of a supervisor for the incident commander take direction from the first police officer

Question 700

First Supervisory Officer When responding to an emergency incident (level1) shall exercise caution when approaching the site, particularly if hazardous materials are indicated or suspected. After being briefed by the first member or first officer on scene shall

Answer 700

assess the need to assume the role of Incident Commander and assume the role until relieved of this function, if necessary  reassess the situation  advise the Communications Operator of the status of Incident Commander and the new assessment of the incident and any new information  notify the divisional Officer in Charge  consider expanding the IMS as necessary by delegating members to complete necessary functions  ensure the following are established, co–ordinated and supervised - secure inner and outer perimeters in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix B, if necessary - clear access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles - access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel - staging area for additional responding units - a command post located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts, when safe to do so  assign one police officer at the scene to maintain radio communication with the Communications Operator and command post support staff, as required  ensure all members are directed to complete and submit the applicable eReports prior to the completion of their tour of duty

Question 701

This is only mentioned once in the package. Related to a;; assign one police officer at the scene to maintain radio communication with the Communications Operator and

Answer 701

Emergency response level 1

Question 702

Incident Commander | If assessing that the situation has escalated and is becoming a Level 2 – Major Incident shall

Answer 702

take appropriate immediate action, consider expanding the IMS as necessary by assigning members to complete necessary functions  notify the Operations Supervisor – Communications Services (Operations Supervisor) and request that the divisional Officer in Charge, Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) and EM&PO unit be notified to monitor and attend as required When responding to an incident shall  ensure a communication strategy is developed and communicated in compliance with the Communication Strategy section of this Procedure  assign a public information officer who will assume responsibility for the communication strategy Upon conclusion of an emergency incident shall complete an After Action Report, as req

Question 703

Upon conclusion of an emergency incident shall complete an After Action Report, as req

Answer 703

For all levels Emergency response Major Incident Disaster response

Question 704

LEVEL 2 – MAJOR INCIDENT All Members In addition to the requirements outlined in the Level 1 – Emergency Response section of this Procedure shall comply with the further direction contained in this section. First Supervisory Officer When responding to a Level 2 – Major Incident shall

Answer 704

 Corporate Communications  Wellness  Community Partnership & Engagement Unit – Volunteer Resources  other police services  Regional Police Air Support Units (when authorized by the Duty Senior Officer or other senior officer)  when in the role of Incident Commander, continue in the role until relieved  expand the IMS as necessary by assigning members to complete necessary functions (refer to Chapter 10 – Appendix A)  ensure the following are established and supervised  secure inner and outer perimeters in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix B, if necessary  clear access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles  access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel  staging area for additional responding units/agencies  a command post located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts and relocate if necessary  if not already on scene, ensure the attendance of Paramedics and/or TFS, as required  ensure persons are assisted to safety when safe to do so  assess and determine whether it is appropriate to recommend Shelter in Place, to commence evacuation, or in the case of a school, Hold and Secure, or a Lockdown  comply and ensure compliance with  Procedure 10–09 if an evacuation is required  Procedure 10–13 if a school is involved

Question 705

secure inner and outer perimeters in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix B, if necessary  clear access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles  access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel  staging area for additional responding units/agencies  a command post located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts and relocate if necessary

Answer 705

Related to a major incident level 2

Question 706

assess and determine whether it is appropriate to recommend Shelter in Place, to commence evacuation, or in the case of a school, Hold and Secure, or a Lockdown Which level of emergency incident speaks to this

Answer 706

Major incident level 2

Question 707

Emergency incident response Officer in charge If assessing the situation to be a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall contact the

Answer 707

Operations Supervisor to request the | attendance of a Duty Senior Officer.

Question 708

After the completion of any emergency incident at any level Shall

Answer 708

Complete the after action report

Question 709

LEVEL 3 – DISASTER INCIDENT All Members In addition to the requirements outlined in the Level 1 – Emergency Response and the Level 2 – Major Incident sections of this Procedure, shall comply with the further direction contained in this section. When notified of a Level 3 – Disaster Incident or impending disaster shall request the Communications Operator to notify

Answer 709

the TPOC  the on–call EM&PO member  the Unit Commander/Officer in Charge of the affected division(s), when appropriate.

Question 710

Incident Commander | When responding to a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall

Answer 710

establish communication with the MICC at local 8–0901 and request personnel and logistical support  update the MICC, as required

Question 711

Unit Commander – Emergency Management & Public Order | When notified of a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall notify the

Answer 711

Staff Superintendent – Public Safety Operations  Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations  Staff Superintendents – East Field, West Field and Field Services

Question 712

Command Post means a

Answer 712

place near the scene of an emergency incident where members report for instructions and information. The command post should be located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts.

Question 713

Egress means the

Answer 713

exit or way out of the scene.

Question 714

Emergency Operations Centre (EOC) means a facility operated by the

Answer 714

City of Toronto specifically established to conduct the overall management of an emergency. The Toronto Police Service is one of many agencies represented. The Toronto EOC is located at 703 Don Mills Road, 6th Floor.

Question 715

Hold and Secure means that all

Answer 715

movement in and out of the school is restricted and external doors locked, however, movement within the school is not restricted as the external danger near the school poses no immediate threat to the students or staff unless they leave the building.

Question 716

Incident Commander Cadre (ICC) means Toronto Police Service

Answer 716

Senior Officers who have been trained as incident commanders and are available 24/7 on an on–call basis and may be activated through the Inspector – Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO).

Question 717

Incident Management System (IMS)

Answer 717

means the model of police on–site response to emergencies and disasters based on the Incident Command System, adopted by the Province of Ontario. The IMS provides the functional infrastructure necessary for the appropriate and efficient use of police resources.

Question 718

Level 1 – Emergency Response means the

Answer 718

general response activities and resources to mitigate the situation of any incident. Members respond quickly to the report of an emergency situation to gather information, assess the situation, and determine whether additional members and specialized response is required. Many emergency incidents are resolved within a short period of time, using resources available at the divisional level.

Question 719

Level 2 – Major Incident means an emergency incident which

Answer 719

exceeds a division’s normal operational resources and | requires additional support, or multiple agency co–ordination at the site and some degree of external support. Level 2 -

Question 720

Major Incidents may continue for an

Answer 720

extended period of time and require a site Command Post and/or the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC). Level 3 – Disaster Incident means an incident that may affect a significant portion of the population, may continue for a long period of time and may require an extensive recovery period. Response to a disaster may require the activation of the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC), the Emergency Operations Centre (EOC), political direction and support, and the official declaration of a disaster in accordance with Municipal Code 59 and the provincial Emergency Management and Civil Protection Act.

Question 721

Lockdown means that

Answer 721

all movement in and out of the school and within the school is restricted as the danger is inside the school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff.

Question 722

Where is the MICC located

Answer 722

The major incident command centre is located at police headquarters on the 12th floor however it may be temporary located offsite pending the unique circumstances of the major event or emergency

Question 723

Toronto Emergency Management Program Committee (TEMPC)

Answer 723

means a committee comprised of the Mayor and key representatives from local boards, city agencies, and other agencies and organizations, responsible for the overall management of Level 3 – Disaster Incidents. During these emergencies, this group is collectively responsible for the direction and co–ordination of emergency response operations within the City.

Question 724

Who is the only person authorized to transport a suspected bomb or explosive package/device

Answer 724

A police explosive technician she’ll handle or transport a suspected bomb or explosive device

Question 725

Bomb Threats, Suspicious Packages/Devices and Explosions Supervision

Answer 725

 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when attending a bomb or explosion call  On-Call Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) notification mandatory for all chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear or explosive (CBRNE) related events and incidents Procedure The EDU is designated to respond to all explosive related events and incidents including hazardous environments, chemical suicides, suspicious packages, unknown materials, and illicit drug lab calls. The EDU analyzes, mitigates, and neutralizes all CBRNE threats, and preserves related evidence. All members of the EDU have received specialized CBRNE incident training and are Police Explosive technicians accredited The on-call EDU member shall be notified of all CBRNE related events and incidents by calling the police use only line (416) 435-2666.

Question 726

CBRNE

Answer 726

Chemical biological radiological nuclear or explosive

Question 727

Supervisory Officer When responding to a bomb threat shall 

Answer 727

 obtain all relevant information from the first police officer on scene  assume the role of Incident Commander When a suspected explosive package/device has been located, shall  comply with the Suspicious Packages/Devices portion of this procedure  be vigilant for secondary devices and hazardous materials

Question 728

Incident Commander | Upon arrival at the scene of a bomb threat shall

Answer 728

take charge of the incident  contact the person in charge of the premises to determine if there are emergency plans  ensure a command post is established and have the person in charge of the premises attend the command post  ensure a search of premises by persons familiar with premises Special attention should be paid to public areas and areas where an explosive package/device would cause the most damage.  consider use of the explosives detection dog/equipment  ensure compliance with Procedures 08–03 and 08–04, if applicable

Question 729

Suspicious Packages/Devices Police Officer Upon locating a suspicious package/device shall

Answer 729

not touch or handle the package/device  secure the area by establishing a minimum perimeter of 30 meters around the package/device  evacuate persons in the immediate vicinity  ensure the EDU is notified of the exact location and description of the package/device  detail a person to await the arrival of the EDU and direct them to the location  when directed by the EDU,  evacuate the area directly above and below the package/device, if located inside a building  evacuate any adjoining premises  clear the exterior of the building of pedestrians  establish an exterior perimeter in compliance with the safe distance measurements contained in 10–03 Appendix A 10–03 Appendix A is a chart from the National Ground Intelligence Center (NGIC) and provides evacuation distances from specific explosives based on the type of explosive.

Question 730

10–03 Appendix A is a chart from the NGIC _______ _______ _____ ______which provides evacuation distances from specific explosives based on the type of explosive.

Answer 730

National Ground Intelligence Center (NGIC)

Question 731

Where is the command post be located

Answer 731

A safe distance away from the scene and your other emergency services

Question 732

Incident Commander | Upon arrival at the scene of an explosion shall

Answer 732

preserve the scene until the arrival of the EDU  ensure the scene is protected for evidence  ensure Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) has been notified  notify the Officer in Charge  if criminal activity is suspected - ensure investigative personnel are notified to attend and take charge of the investigation - notify Intelligence Services

Question 733

Incident Commander means the

Answer 733

police officer who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police response at an incident.

Question 734

Incident Management System (IMS) means the model of

Answer 734

Incident Management System (IMS) means the model of police on–site response to emergencies and disasters based on the Incident Command System, adopted by the Province of Ontario. The IMS provides the functional infrastructure necessary for the appropriate and efficient use of police resources.

Question 735

Level 2 – Major Incident means an emergency incident

Answer 735

``` which exceeds a division’s normal operational resources and requires additional support, or multiple agency co–ordination at the site and some degree of external support. Level 2 – Major Incidents may continue for an extended period of time and require a site Command Post and/or the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC). ```

Question 736

Police Explosive Technician means any

Answer 736

police officer who has completed the appropriate training as approved by the Chief of Police to maintain the appropriate knowledge, skills and abilities to

Question 737

The role of the first responders had an incident require an ETF is to

Answer 737

Control and contain the same. Unless there is immediate danger to life first responders shall not enter the scene. please officer Shall exercise caution when approaching to seem particularly if weapons are present

Question 738

The role of the Incident Commander is to coordinate and manage the police response at an incident, with the exception of ________ tactical operations. When at the scene of an incident, the Supervisory Officer – ______ will assume the role of ______ Tactical Commander and is responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit Commander – _______ upon arrival at the scene.

Answer 738

The role of the Incident Commander is to coordinate and manage the police response at an incident, with the exception of ETF tactical operations. When at the scene of an incident, the Supervisory Officer – ETF will assume the role of ETF Tactical Commander and is responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit Commander – ETF upon arrival at the scene.

Question 739

The operational section of the ____ consists of_______ _______ _____ (SWT), and trained crisis negotiators. In addition, the ______ can initiate tactical paramedic and psychiatric support when necessary.

Answer 739

The operational section of the ____ consists of Special Weapons Teams (SWT), and trained crisis negotiators. In addition, the ETF can initiate tactical paramedic and psychiatric support when necessary.

Question 740

The ETF shall be notified for, but is not limited to, the following scenarios:

Answer 740

barricaded persons and hostage situations  executing high risk search or arrest warrants where violent or armed resistance is anticipated (see Procedure 02– 18)  arresting persons armed with firearms and/or offensive weapons, and known to be violent  incidents involving emotionally disturbed persons, including suicide intervention (see Procedure 06–04)  crisis negotiation  high risk prisoner escort/witness protection (see Procedure 12–11)  incidents involving explosive substances (see Procedure 10–03)  acts of terrorism (see Procedure 10–12)  Security Offences Act incidents (see Procedure 04–26)  any other violent situations involving weapons or explosive substances or violent persons  any other incidents as determined by the Unit Commander – ETF - All requests for crisis negotiators and/or a Forensic Psychiatrist shall be made through the ETF.

Question 741

Security offences act incidents

Answer 741

The ETF shall be notified

Question 742

When at the scene of an incident, the Supervisory Officer – ETF will assume the role of ETF ________ _______ and is responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit Commander – ETF upon their arrival at the scene.

Answer 742

Tactical Commander and is responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit Commander – ETF upon their arrival at the scene.  ensure the suspect is isolated and contained  ensure detective office personnel attend  consider requesting that the Communications Operator – Communications Services assign a separate radio frequency for the use of police personnel

Question 743

Although the Incident Commander has control over all police response at an incident, the Supervisor – ETF will have control of all aspects of ETF tactical operations. In relation to a bomb threat and/or explosion, the Supervisor–___________ ______& ______ ________ _____ _____ _______ will have control of all aspects of _______ operations.

Answer 743

Supervisor–Emergency | Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) will have control of all aspects of EDU operations.

Question 744

Incident Commander means the _______ ______ who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police response at an incident.

Answer 744

Incident Commander means the police officer

Question 745

Terrorism means

Answer 745

means the criminal use of violence, intimidation or coercion, or the threat of such violence to influence the behaviour of others by a terrorist activity.

Question 746

``` Threats to School Safety Status: Amended Issued: R. Rationale This Procedure was developed to assist officers in situations that may pose a threat to school safety. Supervision  ```

Answer 746

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for all threats to school safety  Officer in Charge notification mandatory upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place

Question 747

If there is an immediate threat to life, officers may initiate an Immediate _______ ____\\\ with regard to school dater m safety Except in ______ circumstances, the details of which must later be explained to the _______, police officers shall report to the main school office prior to commencing any investigation in a school (as defined in the Police / School Board Protocol). When conducting an investigation, police officers shall make every effort to minimize disruption to school routines. When a police officer becomes aware of a violent crime or serious safety concern that may affe

Answer 747

Rapid Response. exigent principal

Question 748

shall advise the school ______ of the danger and may recommend the school Lockdown, Hold and Secure, or Shelter in Place, depending on the nature of the threat. The ______ is the person in charge of a school and, as such, makes the decision to initiate a Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place.

Answer 748

Principal

Question 749

Examples of situations that might initiate a school Lockdown include

Answer 749

Examples of situations that might initiate a school Lockdown include  a person attacking a person with a knife in a school  a person using or threatening to use a gun on school property

Question 750

Examples of situations that might initiate a Hold and Secure include

Answer 750

a suspect with a weapon in the vicinity of a school  a search near a school for a suspect wanted for a violent offence  a serious motor vehicle accident in the area of a school, requiring temporary control of pedestrian and vehicle traffic When there is a report of a person carrying a concealed firearm or other concealed weapon on school property, and there is no indication that the person poses an immediate threat, members shall not advise the school to initiate a Lockdown or Hold and Secure. This will reduce the possibility of creating a hostage situation or provoking a violent response in the suspect. An example of a situation that might initiate a Shelter in Place includes if there is hazardous material around the building and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services. In summary, there are 3 categories of movement restriction that may be implemented a) Lockdown b) Hold and Secure, or c) Shelter in Place

Question 751

An example of a situation that might initiate a Shelter in Place includes if there is hazardous material around the building and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services. In summary, there are 3 categories of movement restriction that may be implemented a) Lockdown b) Hold and Secure, or c) Shelter in Place

Answer 751

hazardous material around the building and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services. In summary, there are 3 categories of movement restriction that may be implemented a) Lockdown b) Hold and Secure, or c) Shelter in Place

Question 752

When there is a report of a person carrying a concealed firearm or other concealed weapon on school property, and there is no indication that the person poses an _________ _______, members shall not advise the school to initiate a

Answer 752

Lock down or hold and secure This will reduce the possibility of creating a hostage situation or provoking a violent response in the suspect. An example of a situation that might initiate a Shelter in Place includes if there is hazardous material around the building and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services.

Question 753

Police Officer When attending on school premises to conduct an investigation shall 

Answer 753

 report to the main school office prior to commencing the investigation  in exigent circumstances, initiate an Immediate Rapid Response

Question 754

Police officer Upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school Lockdown shall

Answer 754

comply with item 2  identify a parent staging area  advise the Communications Operator  request the Communications Operator to notify - the Officer in Charge - the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) Supervisory Officer Upon being notified of a school Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place shall  first comply with Procedure 10–01  be mindful of the circumstances that led to the involvement of the police and ensure the original investigation continues  attend the school  assess the need to assume the role of Incident Commander and if necessary, become the Incident Commander until relieved of this function Upon being notified of a Hold and Secure that police have recommended shall  comply with item 5  assign a police officer to attend that school if, operationally feasible Upon being notified of a school Lockdown shall  comply with item 5 assign an officer to attend that school  assign an officer to the parent staging area and ensure the officer keeps parents informed of the status of the Lockdown in compliance with the Communication Strategy Incident Commander

Question 755

comply with item 2  identify a parent staging area  advise the Communications Operator  request the Communications Operator to notify - the Officer in Charge - the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) These steps for what;

Answer 755

An incident which might facilitate a school lockdown Upon completion of the incident shall notify the principal or designate of the involved schools that the incident has concluded so that the school can resume normal operations.

Question 756

Immediate Rapid Response means

Answer 756

that if there is an immediate threat to life in a school, officers shall enter the school to stop the threat in accordance with training.

Question 757

means; that if there is an immediate threat to life in a school, officers shall enter the school to stop the threat in accordance with training.

Answer 757

Immediate Rapid Response means

Question 758

Lockdown means that

Answer 758

all movement in and out of the school and within the school is restricted as the danger is inside the school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff.

Question 759

Parent Staging Area means a

Answer 759

location where parents can initially report to and await details. Usually positioned off-site from the immediate emergency or threat. Ideally separate and exclusive from the emergency responders, equipment and media.

Question 760

Shelter in Place requires that people

Answer 760

with the doors and windows closed due to an external environmental threat. Fans, including heating and air conditioning units, should be turned off to prevent air from outside entering the building. Normal operations may continue within the building.

Question 761

(OIPRD)

Answer 761

Officer of the Independent Police Review Director

Question 762

The OIPRD will manage and have carriage of all external complaints. The OIPRD may retain the investigation of an external complaint or direct the Service or ______ ______ _____ to investigate the external complaint on their behalf. The OIPRD will determine final dispositions of all external complaints regardless of who investigates the complaint.

Answer 762

or another police service to

Question 763

OIPRD Liaison Officer – Chief of Police Designate The OIPRD Liaison Officer will assume all the duties and powers of the Chief of Police in matters respecting an incident under investigation. The OIPRD Liaison Officer will coordinate the Service’s response to the OIPRD. The Chief of Police’s OIPRD Liaison Officer must be a Senior Officer. The Chief of Police has authorized the _____~______~_____ (—-) Complaints Administration as the OIPRD Liaison Officer.

Answer 763

Inspector – Professional Standards | (PRS) – Complaints Administration as the OIPRD Liaison Officer.

Question 764

Delivery of a Complaint Any member of the public may make an external complaint. A complaint shall be made on an OIPRD form which can be obtained at any Service facility or at the OIPRD website. The OIPRD form can be submitted 

Answer 764

 electronically, or  by mail, or  by TPS eFax, or  in person (or agent), or  by delivering the OIPRD form to any Service facility. Complaints about a police officer from another police service and third party complaints will also be accepted in the above manner.

Question 765

The OIPRD with not accepted

Answer 765

Anonymous complaints

Question 766

Local Resolution A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within ______ days of the complainant reporting to the police and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

Answer 766

30 days  dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or ``` failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Ontario Human Rights Code (Human Rights Code), or ```  using profane language, or  acting in a disorderly manner, or  neglect of duty, or  failing to work in accordance with orders, or  failing to make a report or record entry, or  conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or  contravening any provision of the Police Services Act (PSA) or its Regulations of a less serious nature. Local resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.

Question 767

No record of a ________~______ shall Place in Police Officers personal file

Answer 767

local Resolution

Question 768

The three types of resolution regarding a complaint are

Answer 768

Local Resolution 30 days Customer service Resolution 45 days Informal resolution. No time frame indicated. A record for all three on Officers file

Question 769

Customer Service Resolution A customer service resolution is an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days of the date of notice to PRS, and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

Answer 769

dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or  failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Human Rights Code, or  using profane language, or  acting in a disorderly manner, or  neglect of duty, or  failing to work in accordance with orders, or  failing to make a report or record entry, or  conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or  contravening any provision of the PSA or its Regulations of a less serious nature. Customer service resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form. No record of a customer service resolution shall be placed in the officers file

Question 770

Informal Resolution An informal resolution is an agreement between all parties after a complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD and involves conduct that is deemed less serious. There are two types of informal resolutions:

Answer 770

a) Informal resolution occurs during the investigation When a complaint is lodged directly with the OIPRD, the substance and nature of the complaint is not initially established by police. The investigating supervisor may then resolve the complaint by way of an Informal Resolution Agreement (004-0307 OIPRD). An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required. b) Informal resolution occurs after the investigation is completed After an investigation, when a completed Investigative Report (004-0309 OIPRD) has been forwarded to the OIPRD, the OIPRD may suggest that an informal resolution is an option; which may or may not involve unit level discipline. Informal Resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form. No record of an informal resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file. Human Rights The Toronto Police Services Board (Board) and the Service are committed to the delivery of police services that are fair, respectful and unbiased. Discriminatory and harassing behaviour is offensive, degrading and illegal under the Human Rights Code.

Question 771

Harassment, Coercion or Intimidation The PSA includes the following offence provisions:  harassment, coercion or intimidation in relation to a complaint  intentionally hindering or obstructing or providing false information to the OIPRD or an investigator  attempts at the above. This applies to either a police officer or a member of the public. No prosecutions of these offences can be commenced without the consent of the _______~_________.

Answer 771

Attorney General.

Question 772

Where a witness officer has previously supplied a statement regarding a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation, and is subsequently designated as the ________ officer, the statement shall be returned to the officer upon demand. No copies of the statement shall be retained by any other member of the Service, following the demand. Statements Pertaining to a Conduct Complaint Involving Criminal Allegations (Respondent) Where a police officer is designated as a respondent officer in a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation, the respondent officer may supply the investigating supervisor with a detailed statement concerning the incident, but is not compelled to do so. Where a witness officer has previously supplied a statement regarding a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation, and is subsequently designated as the respondent officer, the statement shall be returned to the officer upon demand. No copies of the statement shall be retained by any other member of the Service, following the demand. Interprovincial Policing

Answer 772

respondent officer,

Question 773

Statements Pertaining to a Conduct Complaint Involving Criminal Allegations (Respondent) Where a police officer is designated as a respondent officer in a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation, the respondent officer may supply the investigating supervisor with a detailed statement concerning the incident, but is _______~_____ to do so.

Answer 773

not | compelled

Question 774

Supervisor | When becoming aware of an OIPRD complaint, and having established the substance and nature of the complaint shall

Answer 774

provide the complainant with an OIPRD form/brochure and information about the OIPRD complaint process  attempt to resolve the complaint by way of a local resolution Upon receipt of a completed OIPRD complaint form and having reviewed and established the substance and nature of the complaint shall  fax the form, including any attachments, to the OIPRD, or  attempt to resolve the complaint by way of a local resolution When a complainant is unable to communicate in writing, or due to any disability is unable to attend a Service facility shall make every effort to assist the complainant in completing the form. Where the circumstances of a complaint suggest an immediate investigation is warranted shall, in addition to receiving the complaint, notify the Officer in Charge, Unit Commander, or if absent, the Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre.

Question 775

Supervisor When attempting to facilitate a local resolution

Answer 775

may utilize the following options  discuss the matter with the complainant, and/or  discuss the matter with the respondent officer, and/or  facilitate a discussion between the respondent officer and the complainant, and/or  facilitate an apology from the respondent officer, and/or  refer the matter to mediation which is a third party, off-site meeting, if the complainant, respondent officer and Director of the OIPRD consent  shall record the particulars of the complaint and actions taken in the memorandum book  shall complete a TPS 649 with reasons and forward to the Unit Commander for further assignment to an investigating supervisor, if a local resolution cannot be immediately resolved The 30 calendar day period for resolving a local resolution may be extended for an additional 30 calendar days, upon consent of the OIPRD. When a local resolution has been achieved shall  record the particulars of the complaint and actions taken in the memorandum book  complete the Local Resolution Agreement 004-0301 OIPRD and submit to the unit Commander

Question 776

The 30 calendar day. For resolving a local Resolution may be extended for an additional 30 calendar days upon consent of who

Answer 776

OIPRD

Question 777

Which resolution with a complaint has a 45 day time period to be resolved

Answer 777

Customer service resolution A customer service resolution is an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days of the date of notice to PRS, and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:  dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or  failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Human Rights Code, or  using profane language, or  acting in a disorderly manner, or  neglect of duty, or  failing to work in accordance with orders, or  failing to make a report or record entry, or  conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or  contravening any provision of the PSA or its Regulations of a less serious nature.

Question 778

Which resolution can be resolved within 30 days

Answer 778

Local Resolution A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within 30 days of the complainant reporting to the police and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

Question 779

When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint cannot be resolved by an informal resolution shall prepare a report in what time frame;

Answer 779

prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Comm

Question 780

When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint cannot be resolved by an informal resolution shall

Answer 780

provide the respondent officer with a TPS 649 outlining the substance of the complaint  record the particulars of the notification to the officer in their memorandum book, if applicable  consult with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights regarding an alleged violation of a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code  conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes  ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21  if applicable, direct the respondent and witness officers to  provide a TPS 217, and/or  attend an investigative interview  direct the officers to provide additional information as required  notify the Unit Commander of all side issues, where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, and comply with Procedure 13–03 as appropriate  liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations  complete a 45 Day Investigation Status Update Form 004-0306 OIPRD and submit electronically within 35 calendar days to the OIPRD Liaison Officer  prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit

Question 781

Unit Complaint Coordinator When due to the size or complexity of an investigation, that the investigation will not be concluded within the 90 calendar day time period mandated by the OIPRD, shall consult with the

Answer 781

OIPRD Liaison Officer and complete an OIPRD Time | Extension Request.

Question 782

45-Day Status Update Form (004-0306 OIPRD)

Answer 782

means a form outlining the status of the investigation to the Office of the Independent Police Review (OIPRD

Question 783

Alternative Dispute Resolution means Definition

Answer 783

mediation, conciliation, negotiation or any other means of facilitating the resolution of issues in dispute by a third party off site meeting.

Question 784

Association mean Definition

Answer 784

ues in dispute by a third party off site meeting. | Association means the Toronto Police Association or the Toronto Police Senior Officers’ Organization.

Question 785

Civilian Member means any Service employee who is not a police officer, including employees classified as:

Answer 785

```  permanent;  temporary;  part–time;  summer help;  participants in the co–operative education program. ```

Question 786

External Complaint means an allegation made by a member of the public: Definition

Answer 786

in writing and signed on the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) form; and,  delivered to any Toronto Police Service (Service) facility or the OIPRD personally or by an agent, by mail, facsimile or by electronic mail (e–mail); and,  must concern the policies of, or the services provided by the Service or the conduct of a police officer; and,  classified by the OIPRD.

Question 787

Investigating Supervisor in reference to complaints means a

Answer 787

a supervisor assigned to investigate a complaint and includes a Unit Complaint Co–ordinator (UCC).

Question 788

Local Inquiry means Definition

Answer 788

when a local resolution process has commenced but is not completed, (e.g., complainant refuses to complete/sign a local resolution form).

Question 789

Local Resolution means Definition

Answer 789

Local Resolution means the agreement that is reached between all parties when an external complaint is made directly to a police officer in lieu of being lodged with the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD). No record of a local resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file. Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) means an independent civilian ag

Question 790

Ontario Civilian Police Commission (OCPC) means

Answer 790

an independent oversight agency and is the appeal body for | decisions made at police disciplinary proceedings.

Question 791

Party to a Complaint includes:

Answer 791

a person making a complaint under Part V of the Police Services Act  a police officer who is a witness officer in a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police Services Act  the Chief of Police of the police service to which the complaint relates or  in the case of a complaint against the Chief of Police, the Police Services Board of the police service to which the complaint relates, and  may include any person added as a party by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD).

Question 792

Respondent Officer means

Answer 792

a police officer who is the subject of a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police Services Act, and may include a Chief of Police or Deputy Chief of Police.

Question 793

The police officer who is The subject of a complaint filed by member of the public is referred to as

Answer 793

Respondent Officer means a police officer who is the subject of a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police Services Act, and may include a Chief of Police or Deputy Chief of Police.

Question 794

Serious Complaint Allegation means a matter that,

Answer 794

at the discretion of the Chief of Police, is of public interest to be dealt with as a complaint under Part V of the Police Services Act. A serious complaint, if substantiated, must go to a disciplinary hearing.

Question 795

Unsubstantiated in reference to complaints means a matter where: Definition

Answer 795

insufficient evidence exists to support the allegation  evidence exists that, if believed, would not constitute misconduct  the identification of the police officer involved cannot be established.

Question 796

Uniform Internal Complaint Intake / Management Unit Commanders shall forward the completed file, including the adjudication/disposition, to PRS – Complaints within ________days

Answer 796

Unit Commanders shall forward the completed file, including the adjudication/disposition, to PRS – Complaints Administration within 120 days.

Question 797

Uniform internal complaints Members of the Toronto Police Service (Service) may initiate a conduct complaint about a police officer in the following manner:

Answer 797

civilian members in general and police officers of equal or lesser rank by way of a TPS 649 to the subject officer's supervisor  a civilian supervisor that directly manages a police officer by way of a TPS 901  a supervisory officer of higher rank than a police officer by way of a TPS 901

Question 798

The Toronto Police Services Board (Board) and the Toronto Police Service (Service) are committed to providing all its members with a workplace that is safe. The ________~______&_______act legislates that workers are provided a safe workplace. This procedure outlines for members what constitutes workplace violence and the process for reporting workplace violence. Members reporting workplace violence, including domestic violence, are protected from reprisal.

Answer 798

. The Occupational Health & Safety Act (OHSA) legislates that

Question 799

OHSA

Answer 799

The occupational health and safety act

Question 800

Where a witness officer has previously supplied a statement regarding a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation, and is subsequently designated as the subject officer, the statement shall be __________ to the officer upon demand. No ________ of the statement shall be retained by any other member of the Service, following the demand.

Answer 800

returned to the officer upon demand. No copies

Question 801

When notified by a supervisor of being the subject of an internal conduct complaint involving a non–criminal allegation shall, within ______ calendar days, or as otherwise directed

Answer 801

provide a copy of  all relevant documents  all memorandum book entries for the relevant tours of duty  prepare a TPS 217 containing all information related to the circumstances of the complaint and forward to the investigating supervisor  attend an investigative interview and respond to all questions posed that are related to the complaint in question

Question 802

When notified by a supervisor of being the subject of an internal conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation

Answer 802

provide a copy of  all relevant documents  all memorandum book entries for the relevant tours of duty  attend an investigative interview and may choose to respond to all questions posed that are related to the complaint in question - may choose to prepare a TPS 217 which may contain information related to the circumstances of the complaint and forward to the investigating supervisor - When a conduct complaint has been resolved informally the subject officer shall sign the applicable section of the TPS 901.

Question 803

Investigating Supervisor | When required to investigate an internal conduct complaint shall

Answer 803

provide the subject officer with a TPS 649 outlining the substance of the complaint  record the particulars of the notification to the officer in the “Log Notes” of the TPS 901 and in their memorandum book, if applicable  consider consulting Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights during the investigation and when preparing the Report of Investigation if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code  conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes  ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04-21  if applicable, direct the subject and witness officers to  provide a TPS 217 and/or  attend an investigative interview  direct the officers to provide additional information, as required  notify the Unit Commander of all side issues where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, as appropriate  liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations  prepare a Report of Investigation, including any recommendations, and submit to the Unit Commander  provide training to members on the complaint process, if applicable

Question 804

The unit complaints coordinator The UCC SHALL have a minimum rank of white

Answer 804

Detective / Sergeant

Question 805

Unit Commander upon being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall 

Answer 805

being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall  ensure the suspended officer has complied with items 1 and 2  ensure all surrendered use of force equipment is delivered to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section  ensure the surrendered warrant / identification card is delivered to the Unit Commander - Facilities Management (FCM)

Question 806

Uniform Internal Complaint Intake / Management Unit Commander Upon receipt of a completed Report of Investigation shall

Answer 806

review the Report of Investigation and any recommendations from the investigating supervisor  consider consulting with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code  adjudicate to determine if the complaint is unsubstantiated or substantiated When determining that the internal conduct complaint is unsubstantiated shall notify the subject officer of the decision on a TPS 649. When determining that the internal conduct complaint is substantiated shall  resolve the complaint informally, or  impose disciplinary action When resolving the internal conduct complaint informally shall ensure  details of the internal informal resolution are recorded on the TPS 901  the subject officer signs the TPS 901  the TPS 901 is forwarded to PRS – Complaints Administration  if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code, a copy of the TPS 901 is forwarded to Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights

Question 807

Unit commander Upon being advised of an internal conduct complaint which, due to its complexity or where the reputation of the Service may be severely impacted in a negative manner, shall consult with the ________~________~_______~_____ .

Answer 807

Unit Commander – Professional Standards.

Question 808

Informal Resolution (Internal) in reference to internal complaints means if,

Answer 808

at the conclusion of the investigation and upon review of the written report, the Unit Commander is of the opinion that there was misconduct and/or unsatisfactory work performance but that it was not of a serious nature, the Unit Commander may resolve the matter informally.

Question 809

Internal Complaint means an

Answer 809

allegation from internal sources concerning the conduct of a police officer, or the policies or the services provided by the Toronto Police Service.

Question 810

Investigative Brief means a brief similar in content to a crown brief, in that it should be

Answer 810

bound, the pages numbered sequentially, and include all video and audio recordings, or other electronic recordings, along with a transcript of same, and should be in a format as defined by Professional Standards Support – Prosecution Services.

Question 811

Prohibited Grounds means the protected grounds under the Definition

Answer 811

Ontario Human Rights Code for which a person cannot discriminate. These include: age, ancestry, citizenship, colour, creed, disability, ethnic origin, family status, gender expression, gender identity, marital status (including single status), place of origin, race, receipt of public assistance (in housing only), record of offences (in employment only), sex (including discrimination based on pregnancy and breastfeeding), and sexual orientation.

Question 812

Uniform Complaint Withdrawal Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2016.02.08-0158 Rationale The Police Services Act (PSA) allows for a complainant to withdraw a complaint. This Procedure outlines the process for the withdrawal of internal and external complaints. Procedure When a complainant wishes to withdraw a complaint, or a part thereof, the withdrawal must be in writing and signed by the complainant. The ______~____~____ (_____) may continue to deal with the complaint if the ______ considers it appropriate to do so. ****If a complainant wishes to withdraw a complaint after a hearing has commenced, consent must be provided by the Chief and the OIPRD.

Answer 812

Chief of police Chief Chris considers consent must be provided by the Chief and the OIPRD.

Question 813

Rationale In accordance with the Police Services Act, (PSA) the Chief of Police may suspend a police officer from duty with pay where the police officer is suspected of, or charged with, an offence under a law of Canada or of a province or territory, or is suspected of misconduct under the PSA. If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of an offence and sentenced to a term of __________, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may suspend him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal. Procedure

Answer 813

Imprisonment

Question 814

The Chief of Police (Chief) hereby authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the Chief under the PSA

Answer 814

 any Deputy Chief of Police  all Uniform Senior Officers  all officers permanently assigned to Professional Standards (PRS)  the Officer in Charge of a unit

Question 815

Criteria for Immediate Suspension An authorized officer of equal or superior rank shall commence the suspension of a police officer. The following factors shall be considered in determining if immediate suspension from duty is appropriate List for criteria

Answer 815

the seriousness of the misconduct  impact upon the reputation of the Toronto Police Service (Service), and public confidence in the Service, if the police officer is not suspended  impact upon the integrity of the investigation  prevention of workplace violence or workplace harassment After having made the decision to suspend, the suspending officer shall advise the suspended officer that the suspension is effective immediately.

Question 816

If the suspension is revoked the following conditions shall apply, if applicable:

Answer 816

 the police officer shall not be placed in a position where they could compromise the investigation  the police officer shall not be placed in a position where they could likely have contact with any victim or witness involved in the investigation

Question 817

When suspending a police officer from duty shall

Answer 817

 verbally advise the police officer that they are immediately suspended from duty  relieve the suspended officer of the applicable Service issued uniform and equipment as listed in item 1  deliver all surrendered Service issued uniform and equipment to the suspended officer’s Unit Commander  date and sign the suspended officer’s memorandum book  advise the suspended officer - to report to their Unit Commander as directed - that access is restricted to only the public areas of any Service facility - of the continued availability of the Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP)  arrange for the suspended officer to collect any personal property at the unit, where applicable  notify the Duty Senior Officer  complete a TPS 649 outlining the details of the suspension and submit to their Unit Commander  comply with the applicable sections of Procedures 13–02 and 13–03 Unit Commander

Question 818

Unit Commander | Upon learning that a police officer under their command has been suspended shall ensure

Answer 818

 the suspended officer has complied with item 1  the safe and proper storage of all seized firearms, including ammunition  memorandum books are stored in compliance with Procedure 13–17  further investigations are conducted, if necessary  the following have been notified of the circumstances and are forwarded a copy of the TPS 649 from the suspending officer  Staff Superintendent – Corporate Risk Management (CRM)  Unit Commander – Professional Standards (PRS)  ensure the following have been notified of the suspension  the suspended officer’s Deputy Chief of Police / Chief Administrative Officer  the suspended officer’s Staff Superintendent / Director The Unit Commander – Accounting Services shall be notified if suspended officer was issued a corporate/covert credit card or had Systems Applications and Product in Data Processing (SAP) access. Upon being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall  ensure the suspended officer has complied with items 1 and 2  ensure all surrendered use of force equipment is delivered to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section  ensure the surrendered warrant / identification card is delivered to the Unit Commander - Facilities Management (FCM) ensure the surrendered corporate/covert credit card is delivered to Unit Commander - Accounting Services  ensure the surrendered eToken is delivered to the Information Security Officer - Professional Standards Support (PSS) – Information Security  ensure any other applicable surrendered uniform and equipment is delivered to Fleet and Materials Management (FLT) – Equipment and Supply section, 9 Hanna Avenue, for storage

Question 819

CRM

Answer 819

– Corporate Risk Management (CRM

Question 820

Who is responsible for entering unpaid suspensions in HRMS

Answer 820

Corporate risk management CRM Part day suspensions will be entered on TRIMS only.

Question 821

The Unit Commander – Accounting Services shall be notified if suspended officer was issued a corporate/covert credit card or had Systems Applications and Product in Data Processing (SAP) access.

Answer 821

corporate/covert credit card or had Systems Applications and Product in Data Processing (SAP) access. ensure the appropriate entries are made in HRMS

Question 822

The conduct of civilian members is governed by ________ of _______ – Part II. Discipline matters relating to civilian members are governed by the respective Collective Agreement

Answer 822

by Standards of Conduct – Part II. Discipline matters relating to civilian members are governed by the respective Collective Agreement

Question 823

The outcomes available in the complaint process for a civilian member are:

Answer 823

unsubstantiated  substantiated  internal informal resolution. The disciplinary actions available in a substantiated complaint for a civilian member are:  verbal reprimand  written reprimand  suspension without pay  suspension without pay pending recommendation for termination. Civilian members may not utilize time banks as an alternative to a suspension without pay. In accordance with the principles of progressive discipline, assessed disciplinary penalties shall increase for subsequent offences and subsequent penalties shall not regress in severity. However, in exceptional circumstances, and only following consultation with and advice from

Question 824

The disciplinary actions available in a substantiated complaint for a civilian member are:

Answer 824

 verbal reprimand  written reprimand  suspension without pay  suspension without pay pending recommendation for termination. Civilian members may not utilize time banks as an alternative to a suspension without pay.

Question 825

Workplace Violence and Harassment | The Occupational Health & Safety Act (OHSA) legislates that workers are provided a

Answer 825

safe workplace. Members shall refer to Procedure 08–11 for what constitutes workplace violence and Procedure 08–12 for what constitutes workplace harassment, and the process for reporting either incident.

Question 826

Association Representation Where a member is the subject of a conduct complaint, or a witness to a conduct complaint, members are reminded that they may confer with an ________ representative prior to attending an investigative interview and may also request __________ representation be present. Supervisors should remind members of their ability to obtain ________ representation when investigating a complaint.

Answer 826

Association

Question 827

Member When notified by a supervisor of being the subject of an internal or external conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation shall, within _____ calendar days, or as otherwise directed - provide a copy of

Answer 827

10 calendar days, or all relevant documents - all memorandum book entries for the relevant tours of duty, if applicable - confer with an Association representative, as applicable - attend an investigative interview and may choose to respond to all questions posed that are related to the complaint in question - have Association representation, as applicable  may choose to prepare a TPS 217 which may contain information related to the circumstances of the complaint and forward to the investigating supervisor

Question 828

Civilian. Upon receipt of a TPS 931 with respect to a conduct complaint

Answer 828

shall be provided the opportunity - to confer with an Association representative, as applicable - to have Association representation, as applicable  may choose to respond to the disciplinary action in writing within 10 working days Supervisor

Question 829

What are “log notes” and who is responsible for them

Answer 829

Supervisors during a internal or external complaint and during the investigation. the log notes are on the TPS901.

Question 830

Member unless otherwise specified,  for the purposes of the Standards of Conduct means any ________~_____, or any __________ member, or any _______ member;  for the purposes of the Service Procedures means any _______~______, or any _________ member.

Answer 830

Member unless otherwise specified,  for the purposes of the Standards of Conduct means any police officer, or any civilian member, or any auxiliary member;  for the purposes of the Service Procedures means any police officer, or any civilian member.

Question 831

I’d an auxiliary considered a member of the service? ;

Answer 831

Only for Standards of Conduct not for Service Procedures

Question 832

Standards for Work Performance | Work performance standards applicable to members can be found in

Answer 832

Service Governance  Federal Statutes and associated Regulations  Provincial Statutes and associated Regulations  Municipal By-laws and Municipal Codes

Question 833

Unsatisfactory work Performance All work performance deficiencies should be addressed in a timely manner. Minor work performance deficiencies can generally be resolved through _______, ________ or _______ provided to the member. Members must be provided the opportunity to improve work performance without adversely affecting their work record.

Answer 833

discussion, guidance or training

Question 834

Work Performance Issues Examples of work performance issues that may form the basis for a complaint of unsatisfactory work performance include, but are not limited to

Answer 834

 incompetence  quality of work  quantity of work  insubordination  personal appearance  engaging in personal activities detrimental to the job  failure to co–operate  missed deadlines  frequent or repetitive errors  excessive absenteeism or tardiness

Question 835

For civilians it’s not called the police services act it’s called the

Answer 835

Standards of conduct See page 189

Question 836

A Special Review is a _______–part process. The initial part involves an interview between the member and the unit commander. This initial meeting is intended to ensure that management practices or accommodation factors are not the root cause of the reported deficiency. Where it is established that a supervisor or manager failed to provide adequate or necessary training or equipment, or failed to establish or communicate a work performance standard, an internal complaint shall be initiated against the supervisor or manager in compliance with the applicable procedures in Chapter 13. The second part of the Special Review will be initiated where it is identified that the work performance deficiency is a persistent situation attributable to the individual member. A meeting between the unit commander, the assigned supervisor and the member will be held to

Answer 836

develop a plan for corrective action  profile the time frame for improvement  detail the specific standard to be met  explain the possible disciplinary ramifications if the standards are not met. The time frame for a Special Review is 90 calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness. The additional review periods will be in increments of 30 calendar days, to a maximum of 90 calendar days. No Special Review shall be initiated until the member has received a copy of the specific standard to be met and has been informed of the disciplinary consequences if the standard is not met. The following outcomes are possible at the conclusion of a Special Review

Question 837

What is the timeframe for a special review

Answer 837

90 days The time frame for a Special Review is 90 calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness. The additional review periods will be in increments of 30 calendar days, to a maximum of 90 calendar days.

Question 838

When assigned to conduct a Special Review shall

Answer 838

meet with the member in private  conduct heightened monitoring of the member’s performance  complete a TPS 956 for each 30–day performance examination period  continue to provide guidance or instruction targeted at correcting the deficiency  advise the second–level supervisor throughout the Special Review and provide any recommendations If a member meets the standard threshold during the assessment period, the supervisor shall conclude the examination and forward any recommendations to the second–level supervisor.

Question 839

When a Special Review has concluded and it is determined that the member did not meet the standard threshold shall ensure

Answer 839

where a police officer is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 901 is generated and the internal complaint process commencing with Procedure 13–03 is followed  where a civilian member is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 931 is initiated and ensure compliance with Procedure 13–09 Shore

Question 840

Accommodation Factor means

Answer 840

providing accommodation to persons with any disability, as defined in the Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act.

Question 841

Disability means:

Answer 841

Disability means: a) any degree of physical disability, infirmity, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth defect or illness and, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, includes diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, a brain injury, any degree of paralysis, amputation, lack of physical co-ordination, blindness or visual impediment, deafness or hearing impediment, muteness or speech impediment, or physical reliance on a guide dog or other animal or on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device; b) a condition of mental impairment or a developmental disability; c) a learning disability, or a dysfunction in one or more of the processes involved in understanding or using symbols or spoken language; d) a mental disorder, or; e) an injury or disability for which benefits were claimed or received under the insurance plan established under the Workplace Safety and Insurance Act; (“handicap”). [Source: Ontario Human Rights Code, Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act]

Question 842

Todo

Answer 842

Look at 260 | 260a Form

Question 843

Missing Persons Act The Missing Persons Act came into effect on ____ 1, ____. This legislation will assist police officers investigating missing person occurrences by providing them with the ability, in certain circumstances, to:

Answer 843

July 1 2019  obtain a court order for a person or entity to produce records that would assist in locating a missing person;  obtain a search warrant to allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person; and  make an urgent demand for records without judicial authorization. If it is determined that a search warrant or, in exigent circumstances, an urgent demand for records may further the investigation, police officers shall comply with the relevant direction contained in this Procedure. Missing Persons Unit (MPU

Question 844

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a

Answer 844

parent, guardian, or any other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of fourteen whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.

Question 845

Rationale The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion.

Answer 845

 Cloutier v. Langlois (Supreme Court of Canada) (1990)  R. v. Flintoff (Ontario Court of Appeal) (1998)  R. v. Coulter (Ontario Court of Justice) (2000)  R. v. Golden (Supreme Court of Canada) (2001)  R. v. Clarke, Heroux and Pilipa (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2003)  R. v. Mann (Supreme Court of Canada) (2004)  R. v. McGuffie (Ontario Court of Appeal) (2016)  R. v. MacPherson (Ontario Native Council on Justice) (2018)  R. v. Tonkin (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2020) As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for  weapons  anything that could cause injury (including drugs and alcohol)  anything that could assist in a person's escape  evidence

Question 846

Section 2 of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) gives everyone the fundamental freedom________and ________ Section 8 of the Charter states that “everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable ______or_____ the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against arbitrary ________ and the S. 15 right to ______~______ under the law;  the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1

Answer 846

S. 2 freedom of conscience and religion S. 8 everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable search or seizure S. 9 protection against arbitrary detention S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;; Human rights Code; Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “Every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services, goods and facilities, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic origin, citizenship, creed, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, marital status, family status or disability.” The Service acknowledges its obligation and responsibility, short of undue hardship, to accommodate self-identified trans or gender diverse person

Question 847

Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “Every person has a right to equal

Answer 847

treatment with respect to services, goods and facilities, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic origin, citizenship, creed, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, marital status, family status or disability.” From this section, creed is the issue that deals with religious beliefs. The Service recognizes that special arrangements may have to be made when handling items, articles, apparel, or clothing a person identifies as having religious importance (item of religious significance). Members conducting searches of persons shall treat an item of religious significance with respect and handle the item appropriately. Although there are a multitude

Question 848

Limitations on Regulated Interactions Regulated Interactions shall be conducted in a manner consistent with this Procedure and O. Reg. 58/16. A police officer shall not attempt to collect identifying information about an individual from the individual if

Answer 848

 any part of the reason for the attempted collection is that the police officer perceives the individual to be within a particular racialized group unless,  the police officer is seeking a particular individual,  being within the racialized group forms part of the description of the particular individual or is evident from a visual representation of the particular individual, and  the police officer has additional information, in addition to information about the particular individual being in a racialized group, that may help to identify the individual or narrow the description of the individual;  Additional information may include, but is not limited to the following:  the appearance of the individual, including clothing, height, weight, eye colour, hair colour, hair style;  the location where the individual might be found;  the type of vehicle the individual might be found in;  the associates the individual might be found with; or  the behaviour of the individual. However, additional information may not consist only of the sex of the individual, approximate age, or both. OR the attempted collection is done in an arbitrary way. For the purpose of this Procedure only, as stipulated in O. Reg. 58/16, a Regulated Interaction is done in an arbitrary way unless the police officer has a reason that they can articulate t

Question 849

Ontario Human Rights Code The Human Rights Code prohibits actions that discriminate based on a prohibited ground in a protected social area. The following are the Human Rights Code prohibited grounds: 

Answer 849

``` Age;  Ancestry;  Colour;  Race;  Citizenship;  Ethnic origin;  Place of origin;  Creed;  Disability;  Family status;  Marital status (including single status);  Gender Identity;  Gender expression;  Receipt of public assistance (in housing only);  Record of offences (in employment only);  Sex (including pregnancy and breastfeeding); and  Sexual orientation. ```

Question 850

The following are the Human Rights Code protected social areas:

Answer 850

``` Accommodation (housing)  Contracts  Employment  Goods, services and facilities  Membership in vocational associations and trade unions ```

Question 851

Discrimination and/or Harassment | Harassment means engaging in a course of

Answer 851

vexatious comments or conduct that is known or ought reasonably to be known to be unwelcome. Harassment can include a one–time incident or repeated incidents. Examples include, but are not limited to, the following:  any action, verbal or physical, that expresses or promotes intolerance, prejudice, discord or hatred based on any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;  unwelcome or offensive comments, remarks, innuendos, banter, teasing, gossip or joking that is based on any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;  unwelcome inquiries, questions or comments about an individual based on any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;  offensive written or visual material, like graffiti or degrading pictures, based on any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;  using bias or stereotypes in language or other forms of communication;  threats, intimidation or physical force based on a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;  condescending, paternalistic or patronizing behaviour based on a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;  refusal to work or co–operate with a member based on any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;  unwanted attention of a repetitive, derogatory or abusive nature;  any unwelcome physical contact;  implied or expressed promise of reward for complying with a sexually oriented request;  implied or expressed threats or penalty for failure to comply with a sexually oriented request;  unwelcome staring, obscene or offensive gestures;  persistent unwanted contact or attention after a personal relationship has ended;  misgendering trans and gender variant people, and failure to use chosen name and pronouns; and  exclusion, ignoring and other “by omission acts” Steps taken by a supervisor as part of performance management or discipline are not harassment.

Question 852

Member | When the respondent in an Human Rights Tribunal of Ontario (HRTO). complaint shall

Answer 852

record on the reverse side of the original document - their name, rank/position, employee number, and unit - the date, time and location received - their signature  immediately send a copy of the document to Legal Services by TPS eFax  advise and provide a copy of the documents to their supervisor  may retain a copy of the document  forward the original document to Legal Services  not respond directly to the HRTO

Question 853

Supervisor | Upon becoming aware that a member is the respondent in an HRTO complaint shall

Answer 853

ensure the member has complied with item 6  forward the copy of the documents to the respondent’s Unit Commander  ensure that the complainant and any witnesses are protected from reprisal  ensure the workplace is not poisoned/toxic  not respond directly to the HRTO

Question 854

- all HRTO complaints regarding the delivery of police services shall remain with _______~_______ for response and case management

Answer 854

Legal Services Order HRTO complaints which deal with employment related issues are assigned to labor relations

Question 855

Human rights Discrimination means any

Answer 855

distinction, conduct or action, either by intention or not, on the basis of any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code, which has the impact of excluding persons, denying benefits or imposing burdens on an individual or group, which are not imposed on others or which withholds or limits access to benefits available to others.

Question 856

Human rights Gender: the set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of

Answer 856

men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither. the set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither.

Question 857

Human rights | Gender Expression is

Answer 857

is how a person publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and important ways of expressing gender.

Question 858

Gender identity is each

Answer 858

person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man, both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual orientation.

Question 859

Human Rights Tribunal of Ontario (HRTO) means the

Answer 859

independent provincial government agency who receives Human | Rights Code complaint applications and assists parties to resolve complaints through mediation and/or a hearing.

Question 860

Offensive Material means the

Answer 860

possession, reproduction, circulation, dissemination, publication or posting of any material that may be considered offensive or insensitive under the Human Rights Code in any area of a Toronto Police Service facility.

Question 861

Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC) means an

Answer 861

independent government agency that provides leadership for the promotion, protection and advancement of human rights and builds partnerships across the human rights system (but does not receive Human Rights Code complaints).

Question 862

Human rights Poisoned/Toxic Work Environment means

Answer 862

harassing or discriminatory behaviours, that are sufficiently severe and/or pervasive, that causes significant and unreasonable interference to a member’s work environment. A poisoned/toxic work environment can interfere with and/or undermine work performance and can cause emotional and psychological stress not experienced by other members. As such, it results in unequal terms and conditions of employment and prevents or impairs full and equal enjoyment of employment, benefits, or opportunities.

Question 863

What can cause a significant and unreasonable interference to a member’s work environment. A _______~_______~______ environment can interfere with and/or undermine work performance and can cause emotional and psychological stress not experienced by other members. As such, it results in unequal terms and conditions of employment and prevents or impairs full and equal enjoyment of employment, benefits, or opportunities.

Answer 863

Poisoned/Toxic Work Environment . A poisoned/toxic work environment can

Question 864

Trans: is an umbrella term referring to people with

Answer 864

diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth. It includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity

Question 865

SIU Supervision 

Answer 865

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory  Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority attendance mandatory  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when a Service member is involved in an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked  Officer in Charge – TPOC notification mandatory when the SIU mandate is or may be invoked  Duty Senior Officer notification mandatory when the SIU mandate is or may be invoked  Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority notification mandatory when the SIU mandate is or may be invoked

Question 866

Wellbeing of Members during SIU

Answer 866

The medical and psychological wellbeing of Service members is a priority for the Service. To assist involved officers in coping with an event in which the SIU mandate is or may be invoked, access, as required, to medical care and/or a representative of the Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) / Employee Family Assistance Program (EFAP) / Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) will be provided.

Question 867

Who Notifies the SIU | In cases where the SIU mandate may be invoked,

Answer 867

the Supervisory Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) shall be responsible for immediately notifying the ;; Duty Senior Officer - TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) and the Deputy Chief of Police (Deputy Chief) of the Command involved. The Duty Senior Officer shall be responsible for notifying the Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority. Only the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, or in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer, shall be responsible for notifying the SIU directly. The Duty Senior Officer must attempt to contact the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority prior to initiating contact with the SIU. All requests or inquiries related to an SIU investigation shall be made to the Professional Standards Support – Special Investigations Unit Liaison Section (PSS – SIU Liaison Section).

Question 868

Only the _________~______~______~____~_____~_______ or in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer, shall be responsible for notifying the SIU directly

Answer 868

Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, The Duty Senior Officer must attempt to contact the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority prior to initiating contact with the SIU. All requests or inquiries related to an SIU investigation shall be made to the Professional Standards Support – Special Investigations Unit Liaison Section (PSS – SIU Liaison Section). Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority Duties Relating to SIU Investigations

Question 869

Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is; What rank etc

Answer 869

``` Section 30(1) of the SIUA allows the Chief of Police, who is a designated authority under the Act, to, in writing, delegate any of his or her powers or duties as designated authority to a ``` senior officer of the Service, subject to such conditions or restrictions as the Chief may set out in the delegation. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority assumes all the duties and powers of the Chief of Police in matters respecting an incident under investigation by the SIU. The Chief of Police has authorized the following senior officers to act in this role:  Uniform Senior Officer – authorized in writing by the Chief of Police  Duty Senior Officer The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority will direct the Service’s response to the SIU investigation. Professional Standards Support (PSS) shall have custody of the Administration investigation into the policies of or services provided by the service and the Conduct of police officers as directed by s11 of O. Reg 267/10 When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10

Question 870

When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10. All requests for SIU personnel to participate in traini

Answer 870

When the Community Safety and s. 81(1) CSPA and associated | regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.

Question 871

Collection of Evidence In cases where the SIU mandate is invoked, the SIU shall collect all evidence. However, in cases where the SIU mandate may be invoked and a lack of immediate action may jeopardize the evidence or where there is a potential hazard to the public, such evidence will be

Answer 871

collected and preserved by Service members as detailed in Procedure 04–21. Search and Seizure of Service Property by SIU

Question 872

Search and Seizure of Service Property by SIU | The SIU will be permitted, subject to the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, to seize any

Answer 872

police– issued equipment, without warrant, that is relevant to an SIU investigation. Any other items can only be seized by consent or by search warrant. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for the release of all equipment and documents to the SIU. Under no circumstances will equipment, documents, or memorandum books be surrendered to the SIU without the specific direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority. Seizure of Service Firearms by SIU

Question 873

The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for the _________ of all ________ and _________ to the SIU. Under no circumstances will _______, ______, or _______~______ be surrendered to the SIU without the specific direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority. Seizure of Service Firearms by SIU

Answer 873

release of all equipment and documents to the SIU. . Under no circumstances will equipment, documents, or memorandum books

Question 874

Seizure of Service Firearms by SIU In cases where Service firearms are involved, firearms shall remain _______ until proven safe at a proving station, in compliance with Procedure 15–03 and in the presence of an ________ _______ and the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority. The firearm may then be turned over to the _______, at the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority. In exigent circumstances, such as in the case of an injured officer, a supervisory officer shall seize the firearm by means of seizing the _____~_____~_____ , ensuring it is secured and shall comply with the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.

Answer 874

Holstered SIU Investigator SIU Whole duty belt

Question 875

SIU In instances involving other Service firearms, the police officer discharging the firearm shall _______ the _____ in the presence of an SIU investigator, the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority and in compliance with Procedure 15–03 and training. If the officer is unable to perform this task, another officer who is currently qualified in the handling of the firearm shall perform this task.

Answer 875

Unload the firearm

Question 876

Seizure of Service Conducted Energy Weapons (CEWs) by SIU In cases where Service CEWs are involved, CEWs shall remain _______. The CEW information shall not be ______, altered, or modified, and the cartridge and battery shall not be _______. The CEW may then be turned over to the SIU, at the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority. In exigent circumstances, such as in the case of an injured officer, a supervisory member shall seize the CEW by means of seizing the ______~______~_____ belt, it is secured and shall comply with the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority. All handling of the CEW shall be in compliance with Procedure 15-09 and training.

Answer 876

Holstered Downloaded Removed WholeWill duty belt

Question 877

Seizure of Service Vehicles by SIU Service vehicles equipped with radios and/or mobile workstations having access to confidential records, and/or specialized equipment must be stored in a secure location. The following process shall be followed when a Service vehicle equipped with the aforementioned is seized by the SIU:

Answer 877

The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service vehicle. A departmental tow truck shall be used to tow the Service vehicle to a secure Service garage. The vehicle shall be securely stored until the authorized member of the Service is available to remove the radio, mobile workstation, and/or equipment. The removal of equipment will not occur until the SIU are in attendance, unless the SIU consents not to be present. Any equipment that is removed shall be securely stored by the Service and replaced in the vehicle when returned. Other Service and/or officer’s personal equipment shall only be removed under the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, prior to the vehicle being towed. Members wishing to remove personal items from the vehicle shall make the request to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.  When a Service vehicle requires forensic examination as part of the SIU investigation, the Service vehicle shall be towed by a departmental tow truck to either a secure Service garage or the Centre of Forensic Sciences vehicle storage area. In this circumstance, no equipment shall be removed from the Service vehicle unless directed by the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.

Question 878

The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service vehicle. A departmental tow truck shall be used to tow the Service vehicle to a secure Service garage. The vehicle shall be securely stored until the authorized member of the Service is available to remove the radio, mobile workstation, and/or equipment. The removal of equipment will not occur until the _______ are in _______, unless the ______ consents not to be present. Any equipment that is removed shall be ________ stored by the Service and replaced in the vehicle when returned. Other Service and/or officer’s personal equipment shall only be removed under the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, prior to the vehicle being towed. Members wishing to remove personal items from the vehicle shall make the request to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.  When a Service vehicle requires forensic examination as part of the SIU investigation, the Service vehicle shall be towed by a departmental tow truck to either a secure Service garage or the ________ ~____~________~_______ vehicle storage area. In this circumstance, no equipment shall be removed from the Service vehicle unless directed by the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.

Answer 878

SIU attendance SIU Secured Centre a Forensic sciences

Question 879

Seizure of Service Mobile Devices by SIU Service-issued mobile devices have access to confidential records and must be stored in a secure location. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is

Answer 879

solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service issued smart device. The mobile device shall be surrendered to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority or their designate and securely stored by the PSS - SIU Liaison Investigator until the Chief’s SI

Question 880

Seizure of Body Worn Camera Devices by SIU | Service-issued body worn camera devices have access to confidential records and must be stored in a

Answer 880

secure location. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service issued body worn camera. The body worn camera shall be surrendered to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority or their designate and securely stored by the PSS - SIU Liaison Investigator until the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority authorizes the release of the body worn camera.

Question 881

Criminal Investigations Officers shall be mindful of the circumstances that led to the involvement of the police and ensure that the original investigation continues, subject to certain restrictions as outlined below. Section 18 of the SIUA directs

Answer 881

that the SIU shall be the lead investigator, and shall have priority over any police service in the investigation of an SIU–related incident. Co–operation between the Service and the SIU is essential to ensure the timely completion of investigations. Where the SIU mandate has been invoked, priority in witness interviews and the collection or inspection of evidence shall be given to the SIU. All investigations conducted by members of this Service that may conflict with the SIU mandate shall first be cleared by the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority

Question 882

Chief’s Administrative Investigation Service investigations within this category will be conducted through PSS to determine issues related to the policies of, or services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers. Subject Officials, Witness Officials or any other member of the Service shall provide the assigned investigator with a copy of their notes, and shall make themselves available for an interview, when directed.

Answer 882

PSS to determine issues related to the policies of, or services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers. Subject Officials, Witness Officials or any other member of the Service shall provide the assigned investigator with a copy of their notes, and shall make themselves available for an interview, when directed. The exceptions provided to a Subject Official with regard to providing notes or attending an interview listed under the SIU criminal investigation do not apply to the Chief’s Administrative Investigation. All members shall cooperate as directed by s. 11 of O. Reg. 267/10. - When the CSPA legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.

Question 883

Service subject matter experts shall be assigned Chief’s Administrative Investigations. The following internal units shall be assigned Administrative Investigations:

Answer 883

Professional Standards  officer–involved firearm discharge Specialized Criminal Investigation – Homicide  death in police custody – other than an officer–involved firearm discharge Specialized Criminal Investigation – Sex Crimes  allegations of sexual assault Traffic Services  suspect apprehension pursuit or officer–involved collision Professional Standards Support  all serious injury not listed above

Question 884

Chief’s Administrative Investigation

Answer 884

Service investigations within this category will be conducted through PSS to determine issues related to the policies of, or services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers.

Question 885

SIU Investigative Interviews The SIU will communicate all requests directly to the ______ of ______. The scheduling of all investigative interviews requested by the SIU shall be arranged through the __________~_______~_____ The __________~_______~_____ shall direct all officers in relation to the SIU requests. Should the SIU contact an officer directly, the officer shall immediately notify the PSS -siu liaison section

Answer 885

Chief of police PSS - SIU Liaison Section. The PSS - SIU Liaison Section shall direct all officers in relation to the SIU requests. Should the SIU contact an officer directly, the officer shall immediately notify the PSS -

Question 886

In accordance with s. 25(2) of the SIUA, Witness Officials, when properly designated as such, shall attend for an investigative interview with the SIU and shall answer all reasonable questions immediately, or within _____ hours if appropriate grounds for delay exist.

Answer 886

24

Question 887

SIU has the authority to audio record, or video record on _____, official’s interviews.

Answer 887

Consent

Question 888

Non–Service Witnesses in SIU INCIDENT

Answer 888

Non–Service witnesses shall be segregated and transported separately, where practicable. The SIU shall have first right to interview witnesses that relate to its mandate. Officers shall encourage all witnesses to remain at the scene or a police facility. However, should a witness refuse, the officer shall obtain sufficient information to allow for follow–up at a later time. Failure to Comply

Question 889

Members acting as a representative of the Association and offering advice to an involved officer shall 

Answer 889

advise the OIC of their arrival at the unit respect the duties and obligations of the involved officer in keeping with the SIUA, Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC 71, and the direction contained in this Procedure  offer advice only after the involved officer has completed their notes  be advised that all communication with the involved officer is without privilege

Question 890

, Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC | 71, is related to;

Answer 890

SIU respect the duties and obligations of the involved officer in keeping with the SIUA Speaks to write in complete an independent notes consistent with the SIUA

Question 891

Police Officer When involved in an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall 

Answer 891

immediately notify a supervisory officer where the seriousness of the injury cannot initially be determined, immediate notification shall be made to a supervisory member so that the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority can notify the SIU Director, per s. 15(1) of the IUA.  protect and preserve the scene and all evidence  ensure the original investigation that gave rise to the event is completed, subject to restrictions contained in this Procedure  write complete and independent notes, consistent with the SIUA and Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC 71.  submit their completed notes by the end of their tour of duty to the OIC or PSS SIU Liaison Investigator, unless excused by the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority  consult with legal counsel and/or an Association representative only after their notes are completed and submitted to the OIC or PSS SIU Liaison Investigator  not communicate directly or indirectly with any other member of the Service concerning their involvement prior to the completion of their notes and all SIU interviews

Question 892

Supervisory Officer When attending an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall 

Answer 892

take charge of the scene and determine the roles (only) of the involved officers  ensure the scene and all evidence is protected and preserved  segregate the involved officers  ensure each of the involved officers are transported separately to a designated unit, where practicable  ensure unauthorized persons do not question involved officers, unless there is an immediate medical requirement, or an urgency to locate outstanding suspects, or preserve evidence  immediately notify the OIC – TPOC  ensure the OIC is notified and updated on a regular basis  comply with the applicable portions of Procedures 08–01 and 08–04, if applicable  brief the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority with the details of the incident The Administrative Investigation commences with the arrival of a supervisory officer. Any supervisory officer obtaining information from an involved officer shall do so under the compulsion of s. 11 of O. Reg. 267/10, for the purpose of the Administrative Investigation.

Question 893

Who briefs the Chiefs SIU Designate authority with the details of an SIU Incident when their mandate might be invoked

Answer 893

Supervisory officer

Question 894

When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace

Answer 894

s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10. All requests for SIU personnel to participate in training or conferences, and any request made by the SIU for members to provide training, must be made through the Chief

Question 895

When required to seize a Service issued firearm shall

Answer 895

do so only if currently certified to handle the specific firearm  do so by means of seizing the whole duty belt  comply with direction from the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority  safely handle and secure the firearm in compliance with Procedure 15–03

Question 896

Officer in Charge When notified of an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall 

Answer 896

ensure the OIC – TPOC is notified  ensure a supervisor attends  ensure the scene and all evidence has been protected and preserved  notify their Unit Commander  provide ongoing assistance to the members at the scene When the involved officers arrive at the unit shall  ensure the wellness of each involved officer, including their medical and psychological wellbeing  ensure compliance with the SIUA and Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC 71  segregate each officer by placing them in separate offices, where practicable  direct all involved officers to complete their notes independently  allow contact with the involved officers by only - authorized personnel - counsel and an Association representative only after notes have been completed and submitted in compliance with this Procedure and Procedure 13–17  brief the attending Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority with the details of the incident When notified, or having identified, that an involved officer requires medical and/or psychological assistance shall  immediately engage the appropriate supports, including a medical facility and/or a CIRT / EFAP / PSV representative, as necessary  make a memorandum book entry including details of - the reasons for engaging supports - what supports were engaged - any resulting delay in the completion of the involved officer’s notes

Question 897

allow contact with the involved officers by only - authorized personnel - counsel and an Association representative only after ______ _____~_____~_____ and submitted in compliance with this Procedure and Procedure 13–17  brief the attending Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority with the details of the incident When notified, or having identified, that an involved officer requires medical and/or psychological assistance shall  immediately engage the appropriate supports, including a med

Answer 897

After notes have been completed

Question 898

Unit Commander When notified that a member under their command has been involved in an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall 

Answer 898

attend the scene of the incident, if available  assist in the investigation, when requested  provide the necessary support for involved officers  refer to Procedures 08–01 and 08–04, if applicable  confer with the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, when necessary  confer with the PSS SIU Liaison Investigator, when necessary  ensure all side issues - of a serious nature are reported to PRS - of a less serious nature are dealt with as soon as practicable - arrange for replacement of seized equipment

Question 899

Who arranges for the replacement of seized equipment by the SIU

Answer 899

The unit Commander

Question 900

Professional Standards Support SIU Liaison Investigator Shall perform such duties as required or directed by 

Answer 900

the Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer or the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority  the Superintendent – PSS as related to s. 11 of O. Reg. 267/10  when the CSPA legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.

Question 901

Incident Notes means, only in relation to an incident where the

Answer 901

Special Investigations Unit mandate is or may be invoked, notes made in the members Service-issued memorandum book or case book about the incident giving rise to the SIU . mandate being invoked. Incident notes do not include other types of notes such as occurrence reports, arrest reports, use of force reports, duty reports, logs or canine training records. All incident notes shall be completed by the end of tour of duty, unless otherwise authorized by the Chief’s Special Investigations Unit On-Call Designated Authority

Question 902

Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) means a

Answer 902

Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek professional treatment, if required.

Question 903

Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident.

Answer 903

PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek professional treatment, if required. Peer support volunteer

Question 904

Police Officer – SIU Investigations in reference to Special Investigations Unit (SIU) investigations means a police officer engaged in the execution or purported execution of duty. Off–duty events may be subject to an SIU investigation. For example, but not limited to, the following events: 

Answer 904

where a police officer verbally identifies themselves as a police officer;  where a police officer produces police identification;  where a police officer engages in an investigation;  where a police officer uses police equipment or property;  where a police officer operates a Service vehicle; or  where a police officer otherwise engages their oath of office. where a police officer otherwise engages their oath of office. The decision to contact the SIU in such circumstances will be at the discretion o the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority or, in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre.

Question 905

Professional Standards Support Special Investigations (SIU) Liaison Investigator means the investigator assigned to

Answer 905

the Professional Standards Support - SIU Liaison Section that support the Chief's SIU On-Call Designated Authority and oversees all investigations required under Section 11 of Ontario Regulation 267/10. (When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.) Serious Injury in reference to Special Investigations Unit investigations, a person sustains

Question 906

``` Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will ```

Answer 906

replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.) Serious Injury in reference to Special Investigations Unit investigations, a person sustains

Question 907

Serious Injury in reference to Special Investigations Unit investigations, a person sustains serious injury if they: 

Answer 907

sustain an injury as a result of which they are admitted to a hospital;  suffer a fracture to the skull, limb, rib, or vertebra;  suffer burns to a significant proportion of their body  lose any portion of their body;  as a result of an injury, experience a loss of vision or hearing; or  sustains a prescribed injury.

Question 908

Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Mandate means that the SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted into any incident in which any of the following occurs, if the incident may have resulted from the criminal conduct of a Service official: 

Answer 908

the death of a person  the serious injury of a person  the discharge of a firearm at a person  the sexual assault of a person, as reported by the person. The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident,  the official was on duty; or  the official was off-duty but - engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest of a person or otherwise exercised the powers of a police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed person, as the case may be, whether or not the official intended to exercise such powers or identified him or herself as a person who may exercise such powers, or - the incident involved equipment or other property issued to the official in relation to his or her duties. Subject Official – SIU Investigations means, in respect of an incident referred to in SIUA ss. 15 (1), an official whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have been a cause of the incident. The Subject Official must be provided with a notice of their designation in writing.

Question 909

Subject Official – SIU Investigations means, in respect of an incident referred to in SIUA ss. 15 (1), an official whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have

Answer 909

been a cause of the incident. The Subject Official must be | provided with a notice of their designation in writing.

Question 910

The Service also recognizes that there may be circumstances where members may be reluctant to identify themselves when reporting discreditable conduct. Therefore, PRS can receive information anonymously on a dedicated telephone line. The telephone number 416–343–7090 is available between the hours of _____ and ______ each business day.

Answer 910

08:00-16:00

Question 911

The Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct Program (Program) allows for the anonymous, _______ ______ reporting of criminal activity or misconduct

Answer 911

Good faith

Question 912

Before considering the use of the anonymous reporting system, members should be cautioned that the Service cannot ________ total _______ from outside sources. In particular the courts may supersede any privilege extended by the Command to members. However, the Crime Stoppers Program can claim privilege from disclosing information based on a Supreme Court of Canada decision. Investigative Responsibility

Answer 912

guarantee. anonymity

Question 913

Protections A member is prohibited from disclosing any information received from anonymous reporting that might identify or tend to identify a person who made the disclosure, unless authorized to do so. Professional Standards investigators hold a ___________ _\_______ and therefore a member utilizing the anonymous reporting process shall be deemed to be in compliance with s. 1.3 of the Standards of Conduct.

Answer 913

Supervisory rank

Question 914

Member When anonymously reporting information pertaining to an act of misconduct by another member, may report the information by way of the dedicated telephone line at

Answer 914

416–343–7090. Unless authorized to do so, shall not disclose any information received from anonymous reporting that might identify or tend to identify a person who made the disclosure. Upon receiving a request for disclosure of information contained in a TPS 909 shall immediately direct the request to the attention of the Unit Commander – Legal Services.

Question 915

Member – Professional Standards | When receiving information through anonymous reporting shall complete a TPS

Answer 915

909. Investigator/Case Manager – Professional Standards In addition to those duties specified in Procedures 13–02, 13–03 and 13–09 shall  ensure the completed TPS 909 is not photocopied  ensure the completed TPS 909 is placed in the unit file  not remove the TPS 909 from the unit file unless directed by a court order  refer to the information source in any subsequent reports, documents or records as the “anonymous police informant”

Question 916

Unit Commander - Professional Standards When in charge of Professional Standards shall ensure 

Answer 916

there are sufficient personnel to manage the intake, administration, co–ordination and maintenance of the information received through anonymous reporting  compliance with items 4 and 5  a separate unit file is maintained for all completed TPS 909 reports  when there is insufficient evidence to assign a TPS 909 for investigation, the document is retained in the Unit file for the current year plus one year  TPS 909 assigned for investigation are retained in compliance with the Records Retention Schedule  a statistical log is maintained of all anonymous complaints received and outcomes thereof  source names and personal identifiers are NOT kept in the statistical log

Question 917

Misconduct means any conduct that is contrary to or a breach of any Legislative or Service Governance or the Police Services Act. Service Governance includes: 

Answer 917

Police Services Board Policies and By-laws  Toronto Police Service Collective Agreements  Standards of Conduct  Service Governance Definitions  Policy and Procedure Manual  Routine Orders  specialized manuals issued by the Chief of Police  unit-specific policies issued by their Unit Commander  CPIC messages, and  directions from a superior.

Question 918

Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals Police officers holding the rank of _______, _______/_______ and _________/______~_______ shall be subject to an annual

Answer 918

uniform performance appraisal during the month of their birth. The uniform performance appraisal process is a performance review emphasizing goal setting and measurement of achievement. Officers will be evaluated by one supervisor who has supervised the officer for a minimum period of 90 days. Where possible, the same appraiser should assess the officer throughout the 1–year appraisal period. The next level supervisor shall advise which officers a supervisor will be responsible for appraising. Prior to commencing an appraisal, the assigned appraiser shall review the officer’s appraisal from the previous year to ensure performance issues have been addressed. However, this review shall not influence the year–end rating of the current appraisal. The appraisal form shall remain in an officer’s unit personnel file for 5 years. At the end of the 5–year period, the Unit Commander shall ensure that the appropriate appraisal form is forwarded to People Strategy & Performance – Employee Records.

Question 919

Officers will be evaluated by one supervisor who has supervised the officer for a minimum period of _______ days. Where possible, the same appraiser should assess the officer throughout the _____–_____ appraisal period. The next level supervisor shall advise which officers a supervisor will be responsible for appraising. Prior to commencing an appraisal, the assigned appraiser shall review the officer’s appraisal from the previous year to ensure performance issues have been addressed. However, this review shall not influence the year–end rating of the current appraisal.

Answer 919

90 1 year

Question 920

The appraisal form shall remain in an officer’s unit personnel file for ______ years. At the end of the _______–year period, the Unit Commander shall ensure that the appropriate appraisal form is forwarded to People Strategy & Performance – Employee Records.

Answer 920

5

Question 921

Transfers and Secondments When an officer is permanently transferred into a unit after an appraisal has been initiated, the assigned appraiser will _____ with the officer’s former supervisor. When a temporary transfer is for more than _______ ______, the officer’s new supervisor will assume responsibility for the performance appraisal and will _______ with the officer’s former supervisor. However, if the transfer is for a period of _____ months or less, the officer’s home unit will retain responsibility for the appraisal and shall liaise with the officer’s current supervisor. When an officer has transferred into a new unit, the appraiser shall review the unit/job specific duties/responsibilities for possible adjustment. Unit Commanders who have been assigned responsibility for officers on secondment will be advised of those due for appraisal. In such cases, an appraisal will be completed in consultation with the appropriate supervisor responsible for the seconded officer.

Answer 921

Liaise 6 months liaise 6

Question 922

Generalist Constable Development Program Constables assigned to the Generalist Constable Development Program shall be evaluated on their job performance within each training assignment. At the conclusion of each training period, a TPS ______ shall be completed by the constable’s immediate ______. The TPS_____ will be completed in addition to the annual performance evaluation. Training activity checklists (TPS 526 and TPS 527) for the investigative and interpersonal skills segments of the program shall be maintained by the constable to assist in tracking the activities participated in or demonstrated. Checklists will be reviewed by the supervisor and maintained in the officer’s personnel file. Annual Uniform Performance Appraisal The annual uniform performance appraisal (annual appraisal) is for _____ year consisting of 2 steps: commencement of the appraisal process and the year–end summary. Constables being reclassified and probationary sergeants/detectives do not require an annual appraisal.

Answer 922

528 Supervisor 528 1

Question 923

Commencement of the Annual Appraisal Process This consists of 

Answer 923

identifying any specific tasks unique to the officer’s current duties/responsibilities  discussing with the officer the sections on human rights, personal qualities, technical skills and core competencies, and  completing the development plan

Question 924

Year-End Summary After reviewing the officer’s unit/job specific duties/responsibilities and development plan, the appraiser will discuss the human rights section with the officer, and comment and rate the officer on personal qualities, technical skills and core competencies.

Answer 924

The appraiser will discuss the year–end summary with the officer. People Strategy & Performance – Employee Records will forward a printout to each Unit Commander at the beginning of each month listing officers to be evaluated during the month. In addition, each unit will be responsible for providing the officer’s performance report for the previous 13 police reporting periods to the Unit Commander. Officers may respond to their annual appraisal by preparing a TPS 649 within 10 days of being counselled. Unit Commanders or, if applicable, the second in command, shall review the appraisal forms, make any appropriate comments and meet with the officer. In addition, Unit Commanders shall ensure appropriate action is taken where significant performance problems have been identified by the appraiser. When selecting officers for training or staff development opportunities, Unit Commanders, where appropriate, should take into consideration an officer’s performance, development and career goals as outlined in the current and previous annual appraisals.

Question 925

People Strategy & Performance – Employee Records will forward a printout to each Unit Commander at the beginning of each month listing officers to be evaluated during the month. In addition, each unit will be responsible for providing the officer’s performance report for the previous _____ police reporting periods to the Unit Commander. Officers may respond to their annual appraisal by preparing a TPS 649 within _____ days

Answer 925

13 10

Question 926

A performance appraisal shall be completed for probationary constables at the conclusion of Compressed Work Week (CWW) cycle _____ and ____ by the assigned coach officer and at the conclusion of CWW cycle ____, ____, ____ and _____by the assigned supervisory officer with appropriate review and comment by the Unit Commander at each stage. One of the performance appraisals of a probationary constable shall be completed by the_______~______~_____ supervisor where the probationary constable completes their two CWW cycles

Answer 926

1 and 2 3, 5, 7 and 9 by the assigned Community Response Unit

Question 927

``` Cadets–in–training who stand in the top ____% of their recruit class and pass all examinations without rewrite during the probationary training program shall be granted ____ months service towards reclassification from _____ to _____ class constable subject to satisfactory performance during the probationary period. ```

Answer 927

25 2 4th to 3rd

Question 928

.Former Police Constables of the Service who did not continue as a police officer and have been rehired will undergo a performance appraisal after the completion of the ______ CWW cycle or the equivalent of ______ months to determine appropriate

Answer 928

5th 6

Question 929

Sergeant/Detective Constables promoted to the rank of sergeant or detective shall be on probation for a period of ___year from the date of promotion as published on Routine Orders. During the probationary period, duties shall be performed in ______ unless, otherwise directed in writing by the Chief of Police.

Answer 929

1 Uniform

Question 930

Probationary sergeants who are absent from work due to parental leave, family care leave, long-term disability, central sick bank, suspension, or an off-duty injury will not be considered on active service. Such absences will not be considered as time served in the rank. Such probationary sergeants will resume their probationary period and will not be eligible to be confirmed in the rank of sergeant until they have completed at least _____year of active service in the rank.

Answer 930

1

Question 931

Probationary sergeants/detectives will have a performance appraisal completed by the assigned supervisory officer prior to the completion of the _____ _____ and _____ month following promotion. No annual appraisal is required for probationary sergeants

Answer 931

3rd, 6th, 10 th

Question 932

Confirmation in the rank of sergeant will be automatically withheld if a probationary sergeant is charged with a ______ offence or charged under the ______ \_____ ______. Unit Commanders shall ensure that Labour Relations and People Strategy & Performance – Employee Records are advised immediately by e–mail when any probationary sergeant eligible to be confirmed in the rank has been so charged. Charges laid internally, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU), other police agencies, or by private information, will also result in not confirming a sergeant in the rank. A probationary sergeant will not be confirmed in the rank until the underlying misconduct/complaint is resolved in favour of the officer. Staff sergeants may be reclassified to the rank of detective sergeant and sergeants may be reclassified to the rank of detective and vice versa, as deemed necessary by the Chief of Police. Such reclassifications shall be published on Routine Orders.

Answer 932

Criminal Police services Act

Question 933

``` Reclassifications The appraisal process includes constable reclassification from ____ to ____, and ____ to ____ class. The appraisals will be completed prior to the officer being reclassified. Constables holding the classification of 3rd and 2nd class are eligible for reclassification to the next higher constable classification after serving ____ months in their classification. Upon recommendation of a constable’s Unit Commander, the Chief of Police shall make a recommendation for reclassification to the Board. ```

Answer 933

3rd to 2nd and 2nd to 1st 12 months

Question 934

For constables who are eligible for reclassification from ____ to _____ class, and _____ to _____ class, a performance appraisal shall be completed by the assigned supervisory officer _____ months in advance of the reclassification date. No annual appraisal is required for constables being reclassified. ******An annual appraisal is different than a Performance appraisal

Answer 934

3rd to 2nd class, and 2nd to 1st class, a performance appraisal shall be completed by the assigned supervisory officer 2 months

Question 935

In instances where a constable is absent from work due to an injury on duty, the period of absence will be counted as active service and the original eligibility date shall be used for reclassification purposes, provided that  the minimum ______ months required period of service between classifications has been met  the constable has returned to a policing function for at least _____ days  the constable has been evaluated by supervisors and the evaluations indicate that the constable possesses the knowledge, skills and abilities required for reclassification

Answer 935

12 90

Question 936

A constable whose reclassification is withheld may exercise their rights under Item 2 of the Memorandum of Understanding of the Uniform Collective Agreement. When a constable chooses to appeal or dispute a recommendation under this section, the constable shall notify their Unit Commander and the Toronto Police Association within ______ hours of the time the constable was informed that the reclassification was being withheld.

Answer 936

72

Question 937

Civilian Members Civilian positions have a qualifying period from 6 months to 1 year, depending on the job classification. Probationary civilians covered by Units “A”, “B” and “C” Collective Agreements shall be appraised on a TPS 535 at the conclusion of their 2nd and 4th months of employment. Civilian members covered by Units “D” and “E” Collective Agreements shall be appraised on a TPS 535 after completing 348 hours (equivalent of 2 months) and 696 hours (equivalent of 4 months). Civilians shall be appraised on a TPS 535 as follows

Answer 937

6 month qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd and 4th month in the new position  1 year qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd, 4th and 10th month in the new position The evaluation process for annual evaluations, probationary evaluations and reclassifications shall be in accordance with Appendix B. Accommodation and accessibility needs must be taken into account when conducting a performance appraisal. Civilian members may respond to their annual evaluation by completing a TPS 649 within 10 days of being counselled or complete the appropriate section on the appraisal form.

Question 938

Civilian Members Civilian positions have a qualifying period from ____ months to _____ year, depending on the job classification. Probationary civilians covered by Units “A”, “B” and “C” Collective Agreements shall be appraised on a TPS 535 at the conclusion of their _____ and _____ months of employment. Civilian members covered by Units “D” and “E” Collective Agreements shall be appraised on a TPS 535 after completing _____ hours (equivalent of 2 months) and ______ hours (equivalent of 4 months). Civilians shall be appraised on a TPS 535 as follows  6 month qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd and 4th month in the new position  1 year qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd, 4th and 10th month in the new position The evaluation process for annual evaluations, probationary evaluations and reclassifications shall be in accordance with Appendix B. Accommodation and accessibility needs must be taken into account when conducting a performance appraisal. Civilian members may respond to their annual evaluation by completing a TPS 649 within 10 days of being counselled or complete the appropriate section on the appraisal form.

Answer 938

6 months 1 year 2nd and 4th months of employment. 348 hours (equivalent of 2 months) and 696 hours (equivalent of

Question 939

5-01 Use of Force Rationale The Toronto Police Service (Service) places the highest value on the protection of life and the safety of its members and the public, with a greater regard for _____ _____ than the protection of ______. Members of the Service have a responsibility to only use that force which is reasonably necessary to bring an incident under control effectively and safely

Answer 939

human life than the protection of property.

Question 940

Approved Use of Force Options | Ontario Regulation 3/99 provides that, at minimum, police officers are issued

Answer 940

issued a handgun  issued oleoresin capsicum (OC) aerosol spray  issued a baton, and  trained in officer safety, communication and physical control techniques

Question 941

Members shall not use a weapon other than a firearm unless | 

Answer 941

that type of weapon has been approved for use by the Solicitor General  the weapon conforms to technical standards established by the Solicitor General  the weapon is used in accordance with standards established by the Solicitor General  the weapon, in the course of a training exercise, is used on another member in compliance with Service Governance Intermediate Force Options

Question 942

Intermediate Force Options Members may use an intermediate weapon such as their issued baton, OC spray or conducted energy weapon (CEW) as a force option

Answer 942

to prevent themselves from being overpowered when violently attacked  to prevent a prisoner being taken from police custody  to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon  to control a potentially violent situation when other force options are not viable  for any other lawful and justifiable purpose

Question 943

Weapons of Opportunity Despite the foregoing, nothing in O.Reg. 926/90 or this Procedure prohibits a member from the reasonable use of weapons of opportunity when none of the approved options are available or appropriate to

Answer 943

defend themselves or members of the | public.

Question 944

Authorized Restraining Devices Handcuffs, leg irons, spit shields and other restraints authorized by the Chief of Police (e.g. plastic flexi–cuffs) may be used

Answer 944

to control the violent activities of a person in custody  when prisoners are being transferred from one place to another  to prevent a prisoner from escaping

Question 945

Fleeing Suspect A peace officer, and every person lawfully assisting the peace officer, is justified in using force that is intended or is likely to ________ ______ or ______ _____ _____ to a person to be arrested, if a) the peace officer is proceeding lawfully to arrest, with or without warrant, the person to be arrested; b) the offence for which the person is to be arrested is one for which that person may be arrested without warrant; c) the person to be arrested takes flight to avoid arrest; d) the peace officer or other person using the force believes on reasonable grounds that the force is necessary for the purpose of protecting the peace officer, the person lawfully assisting the peace officer or any other person from imminent or future death or grievous bodily harm; and e) the flight cannot be prevented by reasonable means in a less violent manner. [Authority: CC, ss. 25(4)]

Answer 945

cause death or grievous bodily

Question 946

Motor Vehicles Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle is an ______ method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle may present a hazard to both the officer and to the public. Police officers are prohibited from discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of ________ the vehicle. Police officers shall not discharge a firearm at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there exists an _______ _______ of _____ or ______ _____ _____ to officers and/or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle. Police officers shall be cognizant that disabling the operator of the motor vehicle thereby disabling the control over the motor vehicle may also present a hazard to both the officer and the public. Except while in a motor vehicle, officers shall not place themselves in the path of an occupied motor vehicle with the intention of preventing its escape. Additionally, officers should not attempt to disable an occupied vehicle by reaching into it. Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

Answer 946

ineffective Disabling immediate threat of death or grievous bodily

Question 947

Excessive Force Everyone who is authorized by law to use force is criminally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature and quality of the act that constitutes the excess. (Authority: CC, s. 26) Reporting Use of Force Ontario Regulation 926/90 compels members to submit a Use of Force Report to the Chief of Police when a member

Answer 947

uses physical force on another person that results in an injury that requires medical attention  draws a handgun in the presence of a member of the public, excluding a member of the police force while on duty  discharges a firearm  points a firearm regardless if the firearm is a handgun or a long gun  uses a weapon other than a firearm on another person For the purpose of reporting a use of force incident, the definition of a weapon includes a police dog or police horse that comes into direct physical contact with a person. Additionally, officers are required to submit a Use of Force Report and a TPS 584 to the Chief of Police when the officer uses a CEW  as a “demonstrated force presence”  in drive stun mode or full deployment, whether intentionally or otherwise.

Question 948

Use of force reports are collected and used to identify ______ and ______ ______ requirements, or Service use of force governance requirements.

Answer 948

individual and group training

Question 949

When was the anti-racist act implemented

Answer 949

2017 Ontario Regulation 267/18, made under the Anti-Racism Act, 2017, requires the Ministry of the Solicitor General to collect police service member’s perception regarding the race of individuals about whom a Use of Force Report is completed. As outlined in Procedure 16–07, the Toronto Police Services Board Policy entitled “Race-Based Data Collection, Analysis and Public Reporting” requires the Toronto Police Service (Service) to collect, analyze and publicly report on data related to the race of those individuals with whom Service members interact. When officers are required to complete a Use of Force Report, in accordance with this Procedure, they shall record their perceived race of the individual(s) about whom the report is completed in the designated section of the report. Team Reports

Question 950

Toronto Police Services Board Policy entitled “Race-Based Data Collection, Analysis and Public Reporting” requires the Toronto Police Service (Service) to collect, analyze and publicly report on data related to the race of those individuals with whom Service members interact. When officers are required to complete a Use of Force Report, in accordance with this Procedure, they shall record their ______ race of the individual(s) about whom the report is completed in the designated section of the report.

Answer 950

perceived race of the individual(s) about

Question 951

Team Reports Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF) and Emergency Management & Public Order – Public Safety (Public Safety), when operating/responding as a team, shall submit a Team Report UFR Form 1 in situations where force, meeting the reporting requirements, is merely _______. An incident in which force was actually used, including the Demonstrated Force Presence of a CEW, requires a _______ Use of Force Report from each individual officer involved. Exemptions to the Reporting Criteria

Answer 951

displayed. separate Use of Force Report from each individual officer involved.

Question 952

Exemptions to the Reporting Criteria A Use of Force Report is not required when 

Answer 952

a firearm, other than an issued handgun, is merely carried or displayed by an officer  a handgun is drawn or a firearm pointed at a person or is discharged in the course of a training exercise, target practice or ordinary firearm maintenance in accordance with Service Governance  a weapon other than a firearm is used on another member of the Service in the course of a training exercise  physical force is used on another member of the Service in the course of a training exercise

Question 953

The information from the Use of Force Report shall not be contained in an

Answer 953

officer’s personnel file.

Question 954

The Use of Force Report shall not be introduced, quoted from, or in any way referred to, during considerations of ________ or ______ ____ without the consent of the reporting officer.

Answer 954

promotion or job assignment without the consent of the reporting officer.

Question 955

Where a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure of the Use of Force Report is received, such request shall be directed to ________~______. Where the request is made under the Municipal Freedom of Information & Protection of Privacy Act and not by a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure, such request shall be directed to the Coordinator – Records Management Services – Access and Privacy Section.

Answer 955

Legal Services

Question 956

When a Service firearm has been discharged, the ______~______~_____shall be notified forthwith. The _____~_____~_____ (- - -) shall be responsible for all administrative investigations pertaining to firearm discharges. The discharging officer’s supervisory officer is required to complete a Firearm Discharge Report. A supervisory officer from the involved officer’s unit may be assigned to support and assist the _____ in the investigation.

Answer 956

Senior Duty Officer Firearm Discharge Investigator (FDI) FDI

Question 957

A FDI is not required when investigating the discharge of an impact projectile launcher or a tear gas launching device, where the projectile expelled by the firearm is designed or intended as a _____~______ mechanism.

Answer 957

less–lethal mechanism.

Question 958

Batons are the only impact weapon permitted for use when dealing directly with the public. When authorized to use OC aerosol spray shall 

Answer 958

only use it when other options reasonably present a risk of injury to a subject or themselves  make all reasonable efforts to decontaminate sprayed individuals at the earliest safe or practicable opportunity, including the consideration of aerosol water mist decontamination devices

Question 959

Police officers issued with and/or authorized to carry firearms or ammunition shall not draw a handgun, point a firearm at a person, or discharge a firearm unless - there are reasonable grounds to believe that to do so is necessary to

Answer 959

protect against loss of life or serious bodily harm (Authority: O. Reg. 926/90, s. 9) - engaged in a training exercise, target practice or ordinary weapon maintenance (Authority: O. Reg. 926/90, ss. 9.1) - the discharge of a handgun or other firearm is to call for assistance in a critical situation, if there is no reasonable alternative [Authority: O. Reg. 926/90, ss. 10(a)] - the discharge of a handgun or other firearm is to destroy an animal that is potentially dangerous or is so badly injured that humanity dictates that its suffering be ended [Authority: O. Reg. 926/90, ss. 10(b)]  not discharge a firearm - at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle - at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there exists an immediate threat of death or grievous bodily harm to the officers and/or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle Or as a warning shot

Question 960

In critical situations shall, when tactically appropriate

Answer 960

avoid confrontation by disengaging to a place of safety  take all reasonable measures to contain the scene  notify the communications operator and request the attendance of - a supervisory officer - Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics), if required

Question 961

Members shall not make, retain or release a copy of the Use of Force Report for any purpose except as required in this Procedure.  attach the TPS 105 and TPS 584 , as applicable, to the Use of Force Report and submit to their supervisor prior to the completion of the tour of duty  when approved by a supervisor, submit the completed Use of Force Report electronically via internal e-mail to the ______~______at ______  where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04

Answer 961

Training Analyst at the TPC

Question 962

Supervisory Officer | When notified of a firearm discharge incident shall

Answer 962

attend the scene immediately  ensure the scene and all evidence are protected and collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21  exercise all due caution to ensure the evidence is not contaminated, overlooked or destroyed  advise the Officer in Charge at the first available opportunity and provide regular updates  ensure the Officer in Charge of the division in which the firearm discharge occurred has been notified, if the discharge did not occur in the members home unit  support and assist the FDI and investigate as required  submit a TPS 586 to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the tour of duty

Question 963

Supervisor Upon receipt of a Use of Force Report shall  where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04  ensure the report is accurate and completed in accordance with this Procedure  direct the submitting officer to email the electronic version of the report to the ______~______as required  ensure the TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586, as applicable, are attached to the Use of Force Report  submit the completed Use of Force Report and TPS forms to the ______ in _______ prior to the completion of the tour of duty  where a member is incapable of completing the Use of Force Report, as the immediate supervisor, complete the member’s portion  if recommending additional training, complete the applicable section of the Use of Force Report  comply with Procedure 15–03, if applicable

Answer 963

Training Analyst, Officer in Charge receipt of a Use of Force Report shall  where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04  ensure the report is accurate and completed in accordance with this Procedure  direct the submitting officer to email the electronic version of the report to the Training Analyst, as required  ensure the TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586, as applicable, are attached to the Use of Force Report  submit the completed Use of Force Report and TPS forms to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the tour of duty  where a member is incapable of completing the Use of Force Report, as the immediate supervisor, complete the member’s portion  if recommending additional training, complete the applicable section of the Use of Force Report  comply with Procedure 15–03, if applicable

Question 964

Supervisor | Upon receipt of a Use of Force Report shall

Answer 964

where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04  ensure the report is accurate and completed in accordance with this Procedure  direct the submitting officer to email the electronic version of the report to the Training Analyst, as required  ensure the TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586, as applicable, are attached to the Use of Force Report  submit the completed Use of Force Report and TPS forms to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the tour of duty  where a member is incapable of completing the Use of Force Report, as the immediate supervisor, complete the member’s portion  if recommending additional training, complete the applicable section of the Use of Force Report  comply with Procedure 15–03, if applicable

Question 965

Officer in Charge | Upon being notified of a firearm discharge shall

Answer 965

ensure a supervisory officer is assigned to support and assist the FDI during the course of the firearm discharge investigation in accordance with the ‘Additional Investigative Requirements – Firearm Discharge’ section of this Procedure  where the firearm discharge results in injury or death to a person, notify the Unit Commander and comply with Procedures 04–02 and 13–16, as applicable  notify the Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre forthwith  ensure a description of the event is detailed in the Unit Commander’s Morning Report (UCMR) Upon receipt of a Use of Force Report shall

Question 966

The applicable forms (use of force) shall be forwarded to the Training Analyst

Answer 966

Within 72 hours

Question 967

Use of force When additional training is recommended for a member shall ensure

Answer 967

a TPS 649 is forwarded to the Unit Commander – TPC, and a copy is forwarded to the respective Staff Superintendent/Director  the member attends training as directed  all information pertaining to additional training is included in the member's personnel file, except the Use of Force Report

Question 968

Firearm Discharge Investigator – Professional Standards | When advised that a firearm discharge incident has occurred shall

Answer 968

take charge of the investigation  direct all required resources to ensure compliance with the additional investigative requirements  conduct a thorough investigation and submit the appropriate report Unit Commander – Toronto Police College

Question 969

Firearm Discharge Investigator (FDI) means a detective or detective sergeant assigned to

Answer 969

Professional Standards who | has completed the accredited Firearm Discharge Investigators Course.

Question 970

Unit Commander – Toronto Police College | In addition to unit specific guidelines, shall designate a member as the Training Analyst to

Answer 970

 schedule and co–ordinate additional use of force training  review all Use of Force Report, TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586 reports, as applicable, to identify individual and group training requirements  submit all mandatory information from completed Use of Force Reports electronically to the Ministry of the Solicitor General, as required  if individual training requirements are identified, conduct a further review of the use of force incident and direct appropriate remedial training through the applicable Unit Commander

Question 971

Who is responsible for submitting all mandatory information from completed Use of Force Reports electronically to the Ministry of the Solicitor General, as required

Answer 971

Training Analyst as Disaster by Unit Commander – Toronto Police College All points he/ she does schedule and co–ordinate additional use of force training  review all Use of Force Report, TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586 reports, as applicable, to identify individual and group training requirements  submit all mandatory information from completed Use of Force Reports electronically to the Ministry of the Solicitor General, as required  if individual training requirements are identified, conduct a further review of the use of force incident and direct appropriate remedial training through the applicable Unit Commander if group training requirements are identified, conduct a further review of required training and make changes as appropriate  conduct ongoing review and evaluation of all use of force procedures, training and reporting  ensure that written records of Use of Force training taken by Service members are to be maintained by the TPC  submit an annual CEW report

Question 972

The less lethal shotgun is an

Answer 972

intermediate extended range impact weapon which may provide the opportunity for police officers to resolve potentially violent situations at a greater distance with less potential for causing serious bodily harm or death than other use of force options. Impact munitions operate on the premise of pain compliance or incapacitation, so that the control of the subject can be established.

Question 973

What is this; Intermediate extended range impact weapon which may provide the opportunity for police officers to resolve potentially violent situations at a greater distance with less potential for causing serious bodily harm or death than other use of force options. Impact munitions operate on the premise of pain compliance or incapacitation, so that the control of the subject can be established.

Answer 973

Less Legal shotgun

Question 974

Notify ________ Senior Officer notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged

Answer 974

Duty Officer in Charge - TPOC When notified of an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall  notify the Duty Senior Officer (I think this is for he’s notified) Because the discharge of a sock shot gun means siu notified

Question 975

Supervision when lethal shotgun is discharged

Answer 975

 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged  Officer in Charge notification mandatory when equipment is missing, damaged or malfunctioning  Officer in Charge of Division of occurrence notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged  Duty Senior Officer notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged  Toronto Police Operations Centre notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged Procedure

Question 976

In the case of an accidental or negligent discharge, the officer will be deemed not qualified to use the Less Lethal Shotgun until

Answer 976

remedial training is successfully completed and the officer is subsequently re-qualified by a member of the Armament Section.

Question 977

Use of a Less Lethal Shotgun | Police officers may use a less lethal shotgun as a force option

Answer 977

 to prevent from being overpowered when violently attacked  to prevent a prisoner from being taken from police custody  to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon  to control a potentially violent situation when other use of force options are not viable  for any other lawful and justifiable purpose.

Question 978

The less lethal shotgun is a weapon designed to aid officers in gaining control of a subject who is assaultive. In certain situations, the less lethal shotgun may be a viable option against subjects who pose a threat of imminent serious bodily harm or death, including _______ threats or attempts.

Answer 978

Suicide

Question 979

The less lethal shotgun should not be used on

Answer 979

children, pregnant women or the elderly, except in situations where other use of force options would have the potential to cause greater injury.

Question 980

Safeguards It is critical that Less Lethal Shotguns are not confused with conventional shotguns. The Toronto Police Service (Service) has established the following safeguards to prevent unintended injuries or death that may result from such confusion:

Answer 980

1. Less lethal shotguns are clearly identifiable by their orange stocks and fore-ends, as well as the writing “Less Lethal” on the stock. 2. Less lethal shotguns and associated ammunition shall be stored in a designated storage container at the unit. 3. No conventional shotguns or any other types of shotgun ammunition, including “00” buckshot or rifled slug rounds shall be stored in the less lethal shotgun storage container. 4. Less lethal shotguns will only be transported in a designated orange bag. 5. Ammunition for conventional shotguns shall not be carried in the designated orange bags. 6. Conventional shotguns shall not be transported in the orange bags designated for less lethal shotguns. 7. Officers assigned with a less lethal shotgun shall not be simultaneously assigned a conventional shotgun. Two-officer cars shall not be assigned both a lethal and less-lethal shotgun.

Question 981

Police Officer | When assigned to use a less lethal shotgun shall

Answer 981

 be qualified by the Armament Section to use less lethal shotguns  take custody of the less lethal shotgun and designated orange bag  prove the less lethal shotgun safe and perform a function check in accordance with training  comply with Procedures 15-03 and 15–15  administratively load the less lethal shotgun with 4 CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the tubular magazine and 6 CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the side saddle  ensure the designated orange bag contains only 10 CTS-2581 “super-sock” ammunition  not be simultaneously assigned a conventional shotgun  not carry or load any other type of shotgun ammunition in the less lethal shotgun  not chamber any rounds when transporting the weapon  if a round is chambered during the course of an event, unload and reload the weapon in a safe area in accordance with training, and secure accordingly  transport the less lethal shotgun to and from the vehicle in accordance with training  report deficiencies to the Officer in Charge, immediately upon discovering any unsatisfactory equipment  return the less lethal shotgun to the unit at the completion of the tour of duty, and store in the designated storage container When assigned to a marked police vehicle not equipped with an electric mount shall  store the less lethal shotgun in the designated orange bag or approved trunk mount  store the designated orange bag in the locked trunk When assigned to a police vehicle with an electric mount shall  activate the "master electric switch"  ensure the indicator light is displayed  press the designated button on the dashboard  test the manual key override feature  when the test sequence has been completed, secure the less lethal shotgun within the mount secure the designated orange bag in the vehicle trunk  turn off the “master electric switch” and ignition to ensure the security of the less lethal shotgun, whenever the vehicle is left unattended

Question 982

Police Officer When assigned to use a less lethal shotgun shall administratively load the less lethal shotgun with _____ CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the tubular magazine and ____ CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the side saddle ensure the designated orange bag contains only _____ CTS-2581 “super-sock” ammunition

Answer 982

4 6 10

Question 983

Police officer When assigned both a less lethal shotgun and a C-8 rifle shall

Answer 983

 be assigned to a police vehicle equipped with an electric mount  mount the C-8 rifle in the car mount  store the less lethal shotgun in the trunk of the marked police vehicle

Question 984

When assigned to a marked police vehicle not equipped with an electric mount shall

Answer 984

 store the less lethal shotgun in the designated orange bag or approved trunk mount  store the designated orange bag in the locked trunk

Question 985

Police officer Less Lethal Shotgun Stora When assigned to a police vehicle with an electric mount shall

Answer 985

 activate the "master electric switch"  ensure the indicator light is displayed  press the designated button on the dashboard  test the manual key override feature  when the test sequence has been completed, secure the less lethal shotgun with In the mount secure the designated orange bag in the vehicle trunk  turn off the “master electric switch” and ignition to ensure the security of the less lethal shotgun, whenever the vehicle is left unattended

Question 986

when practicable, advise the communications operator via radio “_____ _____ on ____”  when practicable, prior to discharging a less lethal shotgun announce “______ ______

Answer 986

Sock Round on Scene” Sock Round

Question 987

When no contact of a discharged “sock” round is made with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;  collect the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) when no longer required for any immediate investigations, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU)  document the particulars on a TPS 649 and submit to the;

Answer 987

Toronto Police College – Armament Section for proper disposal and issuance of replacement rounds You only hold for 90 days when you make contact When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;  collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU)  document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section for issuance of replacement rounds  comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s) and casing(s)

Question 988

When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;

Answer 988

```  collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU) ```  document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section for issuance of replacement rounds ```  comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s) and casing(s) ```

Question 989

Supervisor | When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge incident shall

Answer 989

 attend the scene immediately  ensure immediate medical attention is provided, if required  comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01  notify the  Officer in Charge  Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre  comply with Procedure 13–16  ensure compliance with item 7

Question 990

Charter protections

Answer 990

Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “Every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services, goods and facilities, Section 2 of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) gives everyone the fundamental “freedom of conscience and religion”. Section 8 of the Charter states that “everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable search or seizure”. the S. 9 protection against arbitrary detention and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;

Question 991

Supervisor When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge incident shall

Answer 991

 attend the scene immediately  ensure immediate medical attention is provided, if required  comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01  notify the Officer in Charge  Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre  comply with Procedure 13–16  ensure compliance with item 7

Question 992

the Officer in Charge –re what Weapon does this apply;  each key ring for a police vehicle equipped with an electric mount includes a manual override mount key

Answer 992

a less lethal shotgun equipped vehicle  where feasible, assign 2 qualified officers to a less lethal shotgun equipped vehicle

Question 993

Officer in Charge | When assigning an officer equipped with a less lethal shotgun to patrol duties shall ensure

Answer 993

the officer is qualified in the use of a less lethal shotgun  the officer is not simultaneously assigned a conventional shotgun  where feasible, assign 2 qualified officers to a less lethal shotgun equipped vehicle  the Officer in Charge – Communications Services is notified of the vehicle call sign  each key ring for a police vehicle equipped with an electric mount includes a manual override mount key  2 sets of vehicle keys are available for each vehicle, with both sets going to the officer of a solo vehicle, and each officer receiving a set where the vehicle has 2 officers  compliance with Procedure 13–16  compliance with Procedures 15-03 and 15–15 When assigning an officer both a less lethal shotgun and a C-8 rifle shall only do so when the officer is assigned to a marked police vehicle equipped with an electric mount. When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge incident shall  ensure compliance with items 7 and 10  comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01 When a less lethal shotgun is inspected or cleaned shall ensure the appropriate entry is made on the TPS 553.

Question 994

When assigning an officer both a less lethal shotgun and a C-8 rifle shall only do so when the officer is assigned to a ________ vehicle equipped with an ____ ______.

Answer 994

Marked Electric mount

Question 995

Who is responsible for ensuring  conventional shotguns; and other types of shotgun ammunition, including “00” buckshot or rifled slug rounds are not stored in the designated less lethal shotgun storage container When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge shall

Answer 995

Unit Commander Unit Commander When in charge of a unit which is equipped with less lethal shotguns shall ensure  whenever possible, less lethal shotgun equipped patrol vehicles are deployed during each relief  less lethal shotguns and associated ammunition are stored in a designated storage container at the unit  conventional shotguns; and other types of shotgun ammunition, including “00” buckshot or rifled slug rounds are not stored in the designated less lethal shotgun storage container When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge shall  comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01  ensure compliance with items 7, 10 and 13 When additional training is recommended for an officer, such as in the case of a negligent or accidental discharge of a less lethal shotgun, shall comply with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01.

Question 996

Accidental Discharge means an unintentional discharge of a service firearm or less lethal shotgun by a police officer that is

Answer 996

not the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 997

Administrative Load means the manner in which a

Answer 997

gun is loaded, in accordance with training, to ensure safety.

Question 998

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority means a member of

Answer 998

the cadre of on-call Toronto Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the Chief.

Question 999

Less Lethal Shotgun means a

Answer 999

designated shotgun which uses less lethal impact munitions and is designed to be braced against the shoulder when fired.

Question 1000

Negligent Discharge means an

Answer 1000

intentional or unintentional discharge of a service firearm or less lethal shotgun by a police officer that is the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 1001

Conducted Energy Weapon In ________(month) ________(year), the Ministry of the Solicitor General (the Ministry) approved the use of Conducted Energy Weapons (CEWs) for tactical units, hostage rescue teams, preliminary perimeter control containment teams and qualified front–line supervisors. Furthermore, In ________(month) ________(year), the Ministry announced that it would change the guidelines surrounding the use of CEWs, and in November of that year the Ministry issued the revised guidelines titled “Revised Use of Force Guideline and Training Standards to Support Expanded Conducted Energy Weapon Use”. Parts of these changes include allowing police services to determine which officers are permitted to carry CEWs. The CEW is designed as a less–lethal weapon and is a legitimate force option within the Ontario Use of Force Model. The hand held CEW when applied directly, is specifically designed to gain control of a subject who is assaultive as defined by the Criminal Code (CC). This includes threatening behaviour if the officer believes the subject intends and has the ability to carry out the threat, or where the subject presents an imminent threat of serious bodily harm or death, which includes suicide threats or attempts. When CEW contact is made with a subject in Full Deployment, it delivers a metered and pulsed electrical current, which is designed to result in involuntary muscle spasms and loss of motor control. This may cause a subject to become incapacitated, permitting officers the opportunity to gain control of the subject. Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when a CEW has been used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Development  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when a CEW has been used in Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode or in Full Deployment  Communications Operator notification mandatory when a CEW has been used in Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, or in Full Deployment

Answer 1001

Feb 2004 Aug 2013

Question 1002

When CEW contact is made with a subject in Full Deployment, it delivers a ________ and ________ ______ ______, which is designed to result in involuntary muscle spasms and loss of motor control. This may cause a subject to become incapacitated, permitting officers the opportunity to gain control of the subject.

Answer 1002

a metered and pulsed electrical current,

Question 1003

CEWs provide officers with an additional tool to assist them in utilizing the appropriate level of force required when necessary. The purpose of issuing CEWs is not to increase the use of force by officers, but rather to provide officers with an additional option within the use of force continuum in an effort to reduce ________ and _____~_____ whenever possible. Officers who are authorized by law to use force are criminally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature and quality of the act that constitutes the excess.

Answer 1003

fatalities and serious injuries whenever possible.

Question 1004

The cew when applied directly, is used strictly to gain control of a subject who is at risk of _______ ______, not to secure compliance of a subject who is merely resistant. This Procedure limits the deployment of the device to the more serious of circumstances and in some instances prohibits its use.

Answer 1004

risk of causing harm, Full Deployment or Drive Stun Mode use should be considered an appropriate force option in relation to the Use of Force Model, beginning at subject behavior considered “assaultive”. The use of the CEW on sensitive areas of the body should be avoided. It should not be used on children, pregnant women or the elderly except under exceptional circumstances wherein the use of other force options would reasonably be expected to cause greater potential injury. Any time a CEW is activated, the date, time and duration of the firing is recorded in a microchip. This data will be downloaded for analysis and audit purposes. The CEW has a built–in weapon management system to prevent misuse/abuse and protect officers from unfounded allegations through documentation of usage. Use of CEW

Question 1005

Full Deployment or Drive Stun Mode use should be considered an appropriate force option in relation to the Use of Force Model, beginning at subject behavior considered “______”.

Answer 1005

Assaultive

Question 1006

The use of the CEW on sensitive areas of the body should | be avoided. It should not be used on

Answer 1006

children, pregnant women or the elderly except under exceptional circumstances wherein the use of other force options would reasonably be expected to cause greater potential injury.

Question 1007

Any time a CEW is activated, the

Answer 1007

date, time and duration of the firing is recorded in a microchip. This data will be downloaded for analysis and audit purposes. The CEW has a built–in weapon management system to prevent misuse/abuse and protect officers from unfounded allegations through documentation of usage. Use of CEW

Question 1008

Use of CEW | Police officers may use a CEW as a force option

Answer 1008

 to prevent themselves from being overpowered when violently attacked  to prevent a prisoner being taken from police custody  to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon  to control a potentially violent situation when other use of force options are not viable  for any other lawful and justifiable purpose

Question 1009

Prohibitions on Use of CEW Police officers shall NOT use a CEW in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment on a subject who is 

Answer 1009

operating a motor vehicle, bicycle or other conveyance, except as a last measure to protect life  subdued and under control  known to have been in contact with flammable liquids, or in a flammable atmosphere (e.g. natural gas leak, drug lab), except as a last measure to protect life, or  in a precarious position or location where a fall will likely cause serious injury or death, except as a last measure to protect life  in handcuffs Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

Question 1010

CEW Use Reporting Responsibilities Any time a CEW is used as Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, Full Deployment or accidental or negligent discharges, a Use of Force Report and a TPS _______ shall be completed and submitted prior to the completion of the tour of duty, unless engaged in approved training.

Answer 1010

a TPS 584

Question 1011

Professional Standards Unit shall be notified, and commence an immediate investigation of any incident involving the use of the CEW on ________ persons.

Answer 1011

handcuffed persons.

Question 1012

When a CEW is utilized as a shared asset, the following shall apply

Answer 1012

a Supervisor shall obtain from the secure CEW storage cabinet the number of CEW’s that are required for issue to qualified CEW operators  the Supervisor shall personally issue the CEW to the officer and record the serial number of the issued CEW  the serial numbers of the CEW’s shall be entered on the unit parade sheets  the officer receiving the CEW shall record the serial number in his/her memorandum book  the officer utilizes the Asset Inventory and Management System (AIMS) to record the issuance of the CEW  upon returning the CEW to a supervisory officer, the officer ensures that the CEW is unloaded and utilizes AIMS to record the return of the CEW

Question 1013

When issued with a CEW shall | 

Answer 1013

carry it in the approved holster on the support side, in a cross–draw fashion  conduct a spark test at the beginning of each tour of duty while pointing the CEW into a firearm proving unit and record the spark test in the memorandum book  comply with other standards as detailed in Procedure 15–16  submit a TPS 594 to the Unit Commander through the Officer in Charge  when personally issued a CEW and when there is a subsequent change in the choice of storage election, notify the Unit Commander of that change When personally issued with a CEW shall store the CEW with the safety switch on 'safe', with the cartridges removed, in the assigned firearm storage locker along with all of the cartridges.

Question 1014

When personally issued a CEW and electing to regularly store their CEW at their principal residence while off duty, rather than at their assigned unit shall 

Answer 1014

be subject to the provisions of the Storage, Display, Transportation and Handling of Firearms by Individuals Regulations (SOR/98-209) made under the Firearms Act (SDTH Regulations)  transport the CEW directly to their principal residence  immediately upon arrival at their principal residence ensure the CEW is stored with the safety switch on ‘safe’, and the cartridges removed  ensure that the CEW is unloaded while stored and shall be stored using either 1 of the 2 following options - CEW and issued cartridges will be stored in a securely locked container, receptacle or room that is secure. If this method is used, the CEW must be rendered inoperable using a secure locking device (i. e. a trigger lock) - CEW and issued cartridges will be stored in a securely locked vault, safe or room that has been specifically constructed or modified for a restricted or prohibited firearm. If this method is used, the CEW does not need to be rendered inoperable The Service will not provide a CEW storage container for officers who elect to store a CEW at other than a Service facility.

Question 1015

Whenever a CEW is cycled, excluding spark testing, shall | 

Answer 1015

ensure, if possible, that one or more additional officers are present during the CEW activation cycle  record the particulars in the memorandum book

Question 1016

When the CEW is used as a Demonstrated Force Presence shall | 

Answer 1016

notify a next level supervisor at the first available opportunity  notify the communications dispatcher that there was a CEW “Display Only”, and confirm that Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics) is not required  complete and submit a Use of Force Report and a TPS 584 to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the tour of duty

Question 1017

When the CEW is used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment shall 

Answer 1017

announce to other officers on the scene that a CEW is going to be activated  verbally caution the subject before use, when practicable  immediately secure the subject, if safe to do so  advise the subject that they have been subjected to a CEW and that the effects are short term  notify the communications dispatcher that a CEW was used in “Drive Stun Mode” or “Full Deployment”  request the attendance of Paramedics and monitor the subject until their arrival  unless circumstances make it impossible, restrain the subject in a sitting position to promote easier and more efficient breathing, monitoring them closely  allow only Paramedics personnel or medical staff to remove the probes, when the skin has been punctured

Question 1018

Service personnel are authorized to remove the probes that are only attached to ________.

Answer 1018

clothing.

Question 1019

When a CEW Full Deployment has occurred, or in the event of an accidental or negligent discharge, shall  separate the cartridge from the probes by ______ the attached wires and carefully place fired probes into a sharps container found in the Bio–Hazard Kit which is standard issue in all scout cars

Answer 1019

Breaking

Question 1020

Probes that have penetrated a body should be considered a bio–hazard and safety precautions should be used.

Answer 1020

 comply with disposal instructions contained in Procedure 08–06  package the expended cartridge in a plastic property bag  document the particulars on a TPS 649 including the deployed cartridge serial number and submit along with the expended cartridge package to the Officer in Charge to obtain a replacement cartridge

Question 1021

Communications Dispatcher Upon being advised that a CEW was Displayed only, or that there was an accidental/negligent discharge, shall 

Answer 1021

confirm that it was a Display Only or accidental/negligent discharge  notify a field supervisor  record in the text of the call  notify a Communications supervisor

Question 1022

Communications dispatcher Upon being advised that a CEW was deployed resulting in injury (Full Deployment, Drive Stun Mode or accidental/negligent discharge) shall 

Answer 1022

notify Paramedics to attend, updating as required  notify a field supervisor to attend (nearest available if necessary)  notify the Communications Supervisor  record in the text of the call

Question 1023

Communications Supervisor | Upon being advised that a CEW was displayed only, or that there was an accidental/negligent discharge, shall

Answer 1023

 record the event number and officer’s badge number in the Unit Commander Morning Report (UCMR) Upon being advised that a CEW was deployed resulting in injury (Full Deployment, Drive Stun Mode or accidental/negligent discharge) shall  monitor the event  notify  Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) of all events, when there is no indication TPOC is aware of the event - Officer in Charge of the division where the CEW use occurred of all events  record the following in the UCMR - event number - subject officer(s) badge number(s) - type of deployment (FD/DSM/Display Only) - if there were any injuries, if so to the officer or subject  ensure that all Communications dispatchers adhere to their policy regarding CEW’s

Question 1024

Supervisory Officer When notified of a CEW being used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment shall 

Answer 1024

 attend the scene immediately  ensure immediate medical attention, if required  comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01 and 15–02, as applicable  notify the Officer in charge - The Communications Operational Supervisor with the event number, type of deployment, subject officer’s badge number and description of subject and officer injuries (if applicable) - Officer in Charge – TPOC - If the CEW use occurs in other than the police officer’s home unit shall ensure the Officer in Charge of the division where the CEW use occurred is notified of the use  ensure the Use of Force Report, the TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105 are properly completed and submitted to the Officer in Charge  complete the officer’s portion of the Use of Force Report when an officer is incapable of doing so

Question 1025

Officer in Charge Upon being notified of CEW use shall 

Answer 1025

ensure a description of the event is detailed in the UCMR  ensure compliance with Procedure 15–01 and 15–02, as applicable  ensure all reports including the Use of Force Report, the TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105 are properly completed  if the discharge is accidental or negligent, submit a TPS 901 to the Unit Commander prior to the completion of the tour of duty Whenever a CEW is used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment, including accidental and negligent discharges, shall as soon as practicable but prior to the completion of the tour of duty  ensure arrangements have been made for the transport of the CEW to the Toronto Police College for download  attach a hard copy of the Use of Force Report, TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105  submit all relevant reports to the Unit Commander When in receipt of the expended cartridge package and accompanying TPS 649 shall ensure  the expended cartridge package and the TPS 649 are delivered to the Unit Commander for replacement approval  where replacement has been approved, the TPS 649 and the cartridge package are transported to Toronto Police College – Armament Office

Question 1026

Unit Commander/Senior Officer | When in charge of a unit where CEWs are authorized for use shall

Answer 1026

 review and approve as required any TPS 649 requesting - replacement equipment when required - additional training requests are facilitated by the Toronto Police College - ensure a TPS 594 is completed for each officer who is issued a CEW and the TPS 594 is placed in the officer’s personnel file Upon receipt of a TPS 105, TPS 584, Use of Force Report and hard copy CEW download shall  review for accuracy and appropriateness of CEW use  forward to the Use of Force Analyst – Toronto Police College as soon as practicable but no later than 72 hours after CEW use  if additional training is identified, document the particulars on a TPS 649 and forward to the Unit Commander – Toronto Police College

Question 1027

Unit Commander Shall Upon receipt of a TPS 105, TPS 584, Use of Force Report and hard copy CEW download shall  review for accuracy and appropriateness of CEW use  forward to the Use of Force Analyst – Toronto Police College as soon as practicable but no later than ______ hours after CEW use  if additional training is identified, document the particulars on a TPS 649 and forward to the Unit Commander – Toronto Police College Upon receipt of a TPS 901 shall review and take the appropriate action.

Answer 1027

as practicable but no later than 72 hours after

Question 1028

Unit Commander – Toronto Police College The Unit Commander – Toronto Police College shall ensure CEW

Answer 1028

the requirements for mandatory training prior to the issuance of a CEW  the requirement for the Toronto Police College to maintain records of CEW training The Unit Commander – Toronto Police College shall ensure  a summary of CEW use involving Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, Full Deployment or an accidental or negligent discharge is presented to the Use of Force Analyst for review  software and file storage requirements to retain usage data from the CEWs are maintained  the Armament Officer conducts random download of the data from the Service–owned CEWs for audit purposes When a CEW has been used and transported to the Toronto Police College shall ensure to  download the data  save the data to the respective officer’s folder, if personally issued  save the data to the respective CEW’s folder, if a shared asset

Question 1029

Definitions Accidental Discharge of a CEW means an

Answer 1029

unintentional discharge of a Service CEW by a police officer that is not the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 1030

Conducted Energy Weapon (CEW) means a weapon that

Answer 1030

primarily uses propelled wires to conduct energy that affects the sensory and/or motor functions of the central nervous system.

Question 1031

Conducted Energy Weapon Use means

Answer 1031

Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, Full Deployment, or an unintentional discharge.

Question 1032

Demonstrated Force Presence (DFP) means that the conducted energy weapon is in an

Answer 1032

un-holstered and displayed in the | presence of a subject with the intention to achieve behaviour compliance.

Question 1033

Drive Stun Mode (DSM) means when the

Answer 1033

conducted energy weapon is placed in direct contact with the subject and the current is applied without the probes being propelled.

Question 1034

CEW Full Deployment (FD) means the

Answer 1034

conducted energy weapon is used wherein the probes are fired at a subject and the electrical pulse applied. In this mode, the device is designed to override the subject’s nervous system and affect both the sensory and motor functions causing incapacitation.

Question 1035

Negligent Discharge of a CEW means an

Answer 1035

intentional or unintentional discharge of a Service CEW by a police officer that is the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

Question 1036

Qualified in the Use of a CEW means a

Answer 1036

police officer qualified by the Toronto Police College - Armament Section to use a CEW and who has attended and passed CEW training before the 12-month expiry of the date of certification of the previous year.

Question 1037

Subject (Conducted Energy Weapon) in reference to conducted energy weapon use

Answer 1037

includes either a person or an | animal.

Question 1038

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Status: Amended Issued: Rationale The Province of Ontario has regulated that, before initiating a suspect apprehension pursuit, a police officer shall determine

Answer 1038

whether the immediate need to apprehend or identify an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or to identify the fleeing motor vehicle outweighs the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit. Public safety is the paramount consideration factor in any decision to initiate, continue or abandon a suspect apprehension pursuit. Public safety represents a factor which may change rapidly and shall be continually assessed. A suspect apprehension pursuit shall be the choice of last resort and shall be considered only when other alternatives are unavailable or unsatisfactory.

Question 1039

Supervision In relation to a pursuit…. Notifications etc

Answer 1039

 Pursuit Supervisor attendance mandatory to monitor when a pursuit is initiated  Pursuit Supervisor notification mandatory when a pursuit is initiated

Question 1040

Procedure with regard to a pursuit | Public Safety

Answer 1040

Public safety is the paramount consideration factor in any decision to initiate, continue or abandon a pursuit. 2. Public safety represents a factor which may change rapidly and which shall be continually assessed. 3. A police officer does not breach the code of conduct when the officer decides not to initiate or chooses to abandon a pursuit because the officer has reason to believe that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit outweighs the risk to public safety that may result if an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not immediately apprehended or if the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not identified. 4. A pursuit shall be the choice of last resort and shall be considered only when other alternatives are unavailable or unsatisfactory. 5. Before initiating a pursuit, a police officer shall determine whether in order to protect public safety, the immediate need to apprehend or identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the motor vehicle outweighs the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit. 6. During a pursuit, a police officer shall continually reassess the determination to pursue and shall abandon the pursuit when the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit outweighs the risk to public safety that may result if an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not immediately apprehended, or if the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not identified.

Question 1041

Criminal Offences with regard to pursuits

Answer 1041

1. A police officer may pursue or continue a pursuit where the police officer, prior to initiating a pursuit, has reasonable grounds to believe that a criminal offence has been committed or is about to be committed. 2. The criminal offence (flight) described in ss. 249.1 of the Criminal Code is not justification to initiate a pursuit but is a charge available incidental to a pursuit that has been undertaken for another lawful reason. 3. The criminal offence of dangerous operation of a motor vehicle arising out of the pursuit itself is not sufficient grounds to continue the pursuit.

Question 1042

Non – Criminal Offences Relating to police pursuit

Answer 1042

No pursuit shall be initiated or continued for a non–criminal offence if the identity of an individual in the motor vehicle is known. 2. A pursuit for a non–criminal offence shall be abandoned once the motor vehicle is identified or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is identified.

Question 1043

Responsibility for Safe Conduct | The responsibility for the safe conduct of a pursuit rests with the

Answer 1043

individual police officer, the Communications Operator – Communications Services, the pursuit supervisor and any other authorized person monitoring the pursuit. Members are reminded that the Service has installed Automated Vehicle Location System (AVLS) equipment in all marked vehicles that are equipped with a Mobile Workstation (MWS). This system was designed, purchased and installed to enhance officer safety. AVLS uses the Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite network to determine the location, speed and direction of a marked vehicle at a specific date and time. At designated intervals, the GPS data received by the AVLS equipment is transmitted to and capable of being viewed using the Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD) system. Public Safety Factors Members shall continually assess the following factors when involved in or when monitoring a pursuit. These factors are not in order of priority and shall be given equal consideration

Question 1044

individual police officer, the Communications Operator – Communications Services, the pursuit supervisor and any other authorized person monitoring the pursuit. Members are reminded that the Service has installed ______~______~_____~______ (AVLS) equipment in all marked vehicles that are equipped with a Mobile Workstation (MWS). This system was designed, purchased and installed to enhance officer safety. AVLS uses the Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite network to determine the location, speed and direction of a marked vehicle at a specific date and time. At designated intervals, the GPS data received by the AVLS equipment is transmitted to and capable of being viewed using the _______~_______~_______ (CAD) system. Public Safety Factors Members shall continually assess the following factors when involved in or when monitoring a pursuit.

Answer 1044

Automated Vehicle Location System (AVLS) Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD)

Question 1045

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Members shall continually assess the following factors when involved in or when monitoring a pursuit. These factors are not in order of priority and shall be given equal consideration

Answer 1045

nature and seriousness of the offence involving a suspect in the motor vehicle  information on the occupants of the motor vehicle, if known, including whether they are armed, suspects in a violent crime, or there is reason to believe they are about to commit a violent crime  nature, condition and type of area (residential, industrial, playground, etc.)  presence of pedestrians or other traffic  time of day  apparent age of the driver  weather and road conditions  manner in which the pursued motor vehicle is being operated  presence in the pursued motor vehicle of individuals who are not suspects  length of time and distance involved  type of vehicles involved in the pursuit (motorcycle, car, truck)  presence in the police vehicle of non–police passengers  limits on the police officer’s ability to operate the police vehicle at the speeds reached during the pursuit  availability of other means of apprehension

Question 1046

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Restrictions

Answer 1046

1. A police officer in an unmarked motor vehicle shall not engage in a pursuit unless a marked motor vehicle is not readily available and the police officer believes that it is necessary to immediately apprehend an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. 2. Motorcycle and all–terrain vehicle operators shall not engage in a pursuit. 3. No more than 2 motor vehicles should be directly engaged in a pursuit unless authorized by the pursuit supervisor. 4. Complete or partial roadblocks may only be used in extreme circumstances and must be authorized by a road supervisory officer and/or the pursuit supervisor. 5. The following of a pursuit on a parallel route is prohibited unless directed by the pursuit supervisor.

Question 1047

Firearms Discharge Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle is an _________ method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle may present a hazard to both the _______ and to the _______. Members are _________ from discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle.

Answer 1047

ineffective method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle may present a hazard to both the officer and to the public. Members are prohibited from discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle. Members shall not discharge a firearm at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there poses an immediate threat of death or grievous bodily harm to officers and or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle. Members shall be cognizant that disabling the operator of the motor vehicle thereby disabling the control over the motor vehicle may also present a hazard to both the officer and the public. Except while in a motor vehicle, members shall not place themselves in the path of an occupied motor vehicle with the intention of preventing its escape. Additionally, members should not attempt to disable an occupied vehicle by reaching into it. Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

Question 1048

Alternative to Pursuit Prior to a pursuit, police officers shall consider the alternatives described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These alternatives include

Answer 1048

1. strategic following 2. follow–up investigation 3. the Tandem Stop 4. use of tire deflation devices, when available 5. the use of a helicopter, when available 6. strategic use of rear, side and combination methods for stopping vehicles

Question 1049

Methods of Terminating a Pursuit During a pursuit, police officers and pursuit supervisors shall consider methods of terminating a pursuit as described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These methods include

Answer 1049

strategic pursuing 2. abandoning 3. use of tire deflation devices, when available 4. rolling block 5. stationary road block 6. pinning 7. intentional contact

Question 1050

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit By doing so, the police officers’ “_______~______” will be reduced, allowing for better control of sensory and physical multi-tasking functions and offer the driver an opportunity to abandon the fleeing motor vehicle and flee on foot. Strategic pursuing may be used until

Answer 1050

target fixation the driver stops voluntarily  another termination method is employed, or  the pursuit is abandoned.

Question 1051

When the fleeing motor vehicle is a large truck, bus, motorcycle, or off-road vehicle, use only the following methods to terminate a pursuit 

Answer 1051

strategically pursue the fleeing motor vehicle with emergency equipment activated until the fleeing motor vehicle stops, or  abandon the pursuit. )

Question 1052

Reporting of Pursuits Following every pursuit, the police officer initiating the pursuit shall complete a TPS 348 prior to the completion of their tour of duty. In addition, where no suspect has been apprehended, the police officer shall complete the applicable eReport prior to the completion of their tour of duty. For the purposes of pursuit reporting under Part “B” of the TPS 348, the police officer shall indicate in the required section 

Answer 1052

the specific reason for stopping the motor vehicle and justification for initiating the pursuit  the justification for continuing the pursuit  the risk to public safety throughout the pursuit the names and employee numbers of the pursuit supervisor and the available road supervisor  the summary of the report shall describe, in narrative format, a brief, chronological, synopsis of the events pertaining to the pursuit, including the point where the fleeing motor vehicle and/or individuals in the fleeing motor vehicle were identified. Personal identifiers, e.g. names of police officers, vehicle licence plate numbers etc., should not be recorded in this section of the report

Question 1053

Police Officer When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and circumstances dictate that a pursuit will not be initiated shall

Answer 1053

advise Communications Operator – Communications Services (Communications Operator)  prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete - the applicable sections of a TPS 348 - a TPS 227, if applicable - the applicable eReports

Question 1054

When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and a pursuit is initiated shall 

Answer 1054

immediately advise the Communications Operator of the driver’s refusal  assess the public safety factors and continuously update the Communications Operator with  the description of the fleeing motor vehicle, speed, location, and direction of travel  information on the nature and seriousness of the offence  the presence of pedestrians or other traffic  road and weather conditions  the manner in which the fleeing motor vehicle is being operated  any other public safety factors  activate the emergency lights and siren, if equipped  activate the In–Car Camera System (ICCS), if equipped For the protection of the public and members, police officers shall not adjust the ICCS while actively engaged in apprehending or pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle.  comply with any directions given by the pursuit supervisor A police officer may be held liable for any Criminal Code or Highway Traffic Act offence committed in relation to the pursuit.  remain on the assigned channel, unless otherwise instructed by the Communications Operator  advise the pursuit supervisor of any methods to be used to terminate the pursuit, when practicable

Question 1055

When initiating a pursuit while operating an unmarked motor vehicle shall 

Answer 1055

request a marked motor vehicle attend and engage in the pursuit  immediately abandon the pursuit when a marked motor vehicle arrives and becomes engaged in the pursuit

Question 1056

When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall

Answer 1056

 immediately abandon the pursuit  bring the marked or unmarked motor vehicle to a safe stop  turn off emergency equipment, if equipped  advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been abandoned  provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle description  advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle  prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete a TPS348  a TPS 227, if applicable  the applicable eReports if the driver of the fleeing motor vehicle is not arrested

Question 1057

Pursuit Supervisor When advised of a pursuit, in addition to complying with unit–specific policies, shall 

Answer 1057

assume control of the pursuit  order additional police vehicles to assist, if required  order unnecessary police officers to resume regular patrol, if required  monitor the progress of the pursuit to ensure compliance with this Procedure and O. Reg. 266/10  order and co-ordinate termination methods where time and circumstances permit  authorize the use of approved methods of terminating the pursuit  order the pursuit abandoned when it is determined that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle

Question 1058

Road Supervisory Officer | When advised of a pursuit shall

Answer 1058

 monitor the communication  advise the Communications Operator that he/she is monitoring  order the pursuit abandoned, when appropriate and advise the pursuit supervisor accordingly  assume the role of pursuit supervisor in the absence of an Operations Supervisor – Communications Services At the conclusion of a pursuit shall  ensure  a TPS 348  a TPS 227, if applicable  the applicable eReports are completed prior to the completion of the tour of duty  review the TPS 348 and include comments in the appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty Upon receipt of a TPS 348 indicating that a pursuit was not initiated shall review the report and include comments in the appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty.

Question 1059

Pursuit Supervisor means a

Answer 1059

communications supervisor or, if unavailable, a road supervisory officer.

Question 1060

Unmarked Police Vehicle in reference to pursuits, means

Answer 1060

all vehicles, other than a marked police vehicle, that are owned or operated by the Service. This includes vehicles commonly known as “stealth” vehicles and “clean top” vehicles.

Question 1061

Appearance Standards | The order of dress for uniform members include

Answer 1061

 Uniform of the Day  Formal  Mess

Question 1062

Uniform of the Day | – Operational

Answer 1062

To be worn by members during regular duties including court and when directed by the Chief of Police. Includes seasonal variations. With the permission of the Chief of Police, specialized units, including but not limited to *Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF), Specialized Emergency Response – Marine, Specialized Emergency Response – Police Dog Services, Emergency Management & Public Order, the Chief’s Ceremonial Unit, and Traffic Services, may deviate from the prescribed uniform due to the function being performed. Specialized Operations Command will maintain a current listing of approved items of clothing and equipment for each specialized unit. Members performing specialized functions such as bicycle duties and motorcycle/ATV duties may also deviate from the prescribed uniform, with the permission of the Chief of Police. (Refer to Appendix E) Each deviation from the standard uniform of the day must be requested in writing and authorized by the Chief of Police. *For ease of identification, the grey tactical uniform has been reserved for ETF only. .

Question 1063

Warrants of Committal A warrant of committal may be issued by the court upon the conviction of an accused for an offence. It directs peace officers to arrest the named/described individual and generally, in

Answer 1063

default of payment of monetary penalty set by the court, to serve a period of time in jail. Warrants of committal also include warrants issued for criminal convictions, small claims court warrants, federal/provincial parole violations, Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and provincial matters such as the Family Responsibility Act, the Trespass to Property Act, Safe Streets Act and the Highway Traffic Act. Persons arrested solely on warrants of committal are not to be brought before the court. They are to be processed according to the instructions contained within the body of the warrant.

Question 1064

Warrants of committal also include warrants issued for criminal convictions, small claims court warrants, federal/provincial parole violations, Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and provincial matters such as the Family Responsibility Act, the Trespass to Property Act, Safe Streets Act and the Highway Traffic Act. Persons arrested solely on warrants of committal are not to _____________

Answer 1064

be brought before the court. They are to be processed according to the instructions contained within the body of the warrant.

Question 1065

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Restrictions

Answer 1065

1. A police officer in an unmarked motor vehicle shall not engage in a pursuit unless a marked motor vehicle is not readily available and the police officer believes that it is necessary to immediately apprehend an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. 2. Motorcycle and all–terrain vehicle operators shall not engage in a pursuit. 3. No more than 2 motor vehicles should be directly engaged in a pursuit unless authorized by the pursuit supervisor. 4. Complete or partial roadblocks may only be used in extreme circumstances and must be authorized by a road supervisory officer and/or the pursuit supervisor. 5. The following of a pursuit on a parallel route is prohibited unless directed by the pursuit supervisor.

Question 1066

Firearms Discharge | Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle is an

Answer 1066

ineffective method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle may present a hazard to both the officer and to the public. Members are prohibited from discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle. Members shall not discharge a firearm at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there poses an immediate threat of death or grievous bodily harm to officers and or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle. Members shall be cognizant that disabling the operator of the motor vehicle thereby disabling the control over the motor vehicle may also present a hazard to both the officer and the public. Except while in a motor vehicle, members shall not place themselves in the path of an occupied motor vehicle with the intention of preventing its escape. Additionally, members should not attempt to disable an occupied vehicle by reaching into it. Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

Question 1067

Alternative to Pursuit Prior to a pursuit, police officers shall consider the alternatives described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These alternatives include 1.

Answer 1067

1. strategic following 2. follow–up investigation 3. the Tandem Stop 4. use of tire deflation devices, when available 5. the use of a helicopter, when available 6. strategic use of rear, side and combination methods for stopping vehicles

Question 1068

Methods of Terminating a Pursuit During a pursuit, police officers and pursuit supervisors shall consider methods of terminating a pursuit as described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These methods include

Answer 1068

1. strategic pursuing 2. abandoning 3. use of tire deflation devices, when available 4. rolling block 5. stationary road block 6. pinning 7. intentional contact

Question 1069

Police officers may only intentionally cause a marked or unmarked motor vehicle to come into physical contact with a fleeing motor vehicle for the purposes of stopping it, where the police officer believes on

Answer 1069

reasonable grounds that to do so is necessary to immediately protect against the loss of life or serious bodily harm. In considering this action, police officers shall assess the impact of the action on the safety of other members of the public and other police officers. It must be remembered that impacts at relatively low speeds can cause the driver and passenger-side airbags to deploy and potentially injure the occupants of the marked or unmarked motor vehicle. This manoeuvre should only be considered in areas of low vehicular and pedestrian traffic, and executed at very low speeds.

Question 1070

Police officers may cause a marked or unmarked motor vehicle to come into physical contact with the fleeing motor vehicle for the purposes of pinning the fleeing motor vehicle, if the

Answer 1070

fleeing motor vehicle has lost control or collided with an object and come to a stop and the driver of the fleeing motor vehicle continues to try to use it to flee. Police officers involved in a pursuit with the assistance of additional police officers in marked or unmarked motor vehicles may attempt to safely position their marked or unmarked motor vehicles in such a manner as to prevent the movement, either forwards or backwards, of the fleeing motor vehicle.

Question 1071

As a termination method, ________ ______ is the primary driving mode during an active pursuit. The intent of this technique is that by significantly increasing the distance between the marked or unmarked motor vehicle and the fleeing motor vehicle, the fleeing driver will seize the opportunity to stop and abandon the fleeing motor vehicle. When using this technique police officers shall

Answer 1071

Strategic pursuing  activate all emergency equipment  follow the fleeing motor vehicle from a significantly increased distance. By doing so, the police officers’ “_______~________” will be reduced, allowing for better control of sensory and physical multitasking functions and offer the driver an opportunity to abandon the fleeing motor vehicle and flee on foot. Strategic pursuing may be used until  the driver stops voluntarily  another termination method is employed, or  the pursuit is abandoned. Strategic pursuing is the primary driving mode during a pursuit and fully-activated emergency equipment must be deployed. Strategic pursuing is not to be utilized once a pursuit has been abandoned. target fixation

Question 1072

When the fleeing motor vehicle is a large truck, bus, motorcycle, or off-road vehicle, use only the following methods to terminate a pursuit

Answer 1072

 strategically pursue the fleeing motor vehicle with emergency equipment activated until the fleeing motor vehicle stops, or  abandon the pursuit. Reporting of Pursuits Following every pursuit, the police officer initiating the pursuit shall complete a TPS 348 prior to the completion of their tour of duty. In addition, where no suspect has been apprehended, the police officer shall complete the applicable eReport prior to the completion of their tour of duty. For the purposes of pursuit reporting under Part “B” of the TPS 348, the police officer shall indicate in the required section  the specific reason for stopping the motor vehicle and justification for initiating the pursuit  the justification for continuing the pursuit  the risk to public safety throughout the pursuit the names and employee numbers of the pursuit supervisor and the available road supervisor  the summary of the report shall describe, in narrative format, a brief, chronological, synopsis of the events pertaining to the pursuit, including the point where the fleeing motor vehicle and/or individuals in the fleeing motor vehicle were identified. Personal identifiers, e.g. names of police officers, vehicle licence plate numbers etc., should not be recorded in this section of the report

Question 1073

For the purposes of pursuit reporting under Part “B” of the TPS 348, the police officer shall indicate in the required section  the specific reason for stopping the motor vehicle and justification for initiating the pursuit  the justification for continuing the pursuit  the risk to public safety throughout the pursuit the names and employee numbers of the pursuit supervisor and the available road supervisor  the summary of the report shall describe, in narrative format, a brief, chronological, synopsis of the events pertaining to the pursuit, including the point where the fleeing motor vehicle and/or individuals in the fleeing motor vehicle were identified. Personal identifiers, e.g. names of police officers, vehicle licence plate numbers etc., __________~________~______ ~_______in this section of the report Pursuits Involving More Than One Police Service

Answer 1073

should not be | recorded

Question 1074

Pursuits Involving More Than One Police Service When there is more than one police service involved in the pursuit, the responsible supervisor is the supervisor in the jurisdiction where the pursuit is ________ until the pursuit is handed over to the other police service. Where a pursuit has covered more than _____police service jurisdiction, the police service in the jurisdiction where the pursuit _______ shall ensure co–ordination of a joint Fail to Stop Report.

Answer 1074

Initiated 1 Began

Question 1075

Police Officer When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and circumstances dictate that a pursuit will not be initiated shall advise Communications Operator – Communications Services (Communications Operator)  prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete - the applicable sections of a TPS ____ - a TPS 227, if applicable - the applicable eReports When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and a pursuit is initiated shall  immediately advise the Communications Operator of the driver’s refusal  assess the public safety factors and continuously update the Communications Operator with  the description of the fleeing motor _____~_____~_____and _______of ______  information on the nature and seriousness of the offence  the presence of pedestrians or other traffic  road and weather conditions  the manner in which the fleeing motor vehicle is being operated  any other public safety factors  activate the emergency lights and siren, if equipped  activate the In–Car Camera System (ICCS), if equipped For the protection of the public and members, police officers shall not adjust the _____ while actively engaged in apprehending or pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle.  comply with any directions given by the _____~______ A police officer may be held liable for any Criminal Code or Highway Traffic Act offence committed in relation to the pursuit.  remain on the assigned channel, unless otherwise instructed by the Communications Operator  advise the pursuit supervisor of any methods to be used to terminate the pursuit, when practicable

Answer 1075

348 vehicle, speed, location, and direction of travel ICC pursuit supervisor

Question 1076

When initiating a pursuit while operating an unmarked motor vehicle shall  request a ______ motor vehicle attend and engage in the pursuit  immediately abandon the pursuit when a _________ motor vehicle arrives and becomes engaged in the pursuit When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall

Answer 1076

Marked Marked  immediately abandon the pursuit  bring the marked or unmarked motor vehicle to a safe stop  turn off emergency equipment, if equipped  advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been abandoned  provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle description  advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle  prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete  a TPS 348  a TPS 227, if applicable  the applicable eReports if the driver of the fleeing motor vehicle is not arrested

Question 1077

Pursuit Supervisor | When advised of a pursuit, in addition to complying with unit–specific policies, shall

Answer 1077

 assume control of the pursuit  order additional police vehicles to assist, if required  order unnecessary police officers to resume regular patrol, if required  monitor the progress of the pursuit to ensure compliance with this Procedure and O. Reg. 266/10  order and co-ordinate termination methods where time and circumstances permit  authorize the use of approved methods of terminating the pursuit  order the pursuit abandoned when it is determined that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle

Question 1078

Road Supervisory Officer | When advised of a pursuit shall

Answer 1078

 monitor the communication  advise the Communications Operator that he/she is monitoring  order the pursuit abandoned, when appropriate and advise the pursuit supervisor accordingly  assume the role of pursuit supervisor in the absence of an Operations Supervisor – Communications Services At the conclusion of a pursuit shall  ensure  a TPS 348  a TPS 227, if applicable  the applicable eReports are completed prior to the completion of the tour of duty  review the TPS 348 and include comments in the appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty Upon receipt of a TPS 348 indicating that a pursuit was not initiated shall review the report and include comments in the appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty.

Question 1079

Unit Commander | Upon receipt of a TPS 348 shall

Answer 1079

review the report, include comments in the appropriate section and forward to the Staff Superintendent by the next business day. Staff Superintendent/Director Upon receipt of a TPS 348 shall review the report, include comments in the appropriate section and forward to Professional Standards Support forthwith.

Question 1080

Abandon Pursuit means the ________ of a pursuit when police officers are no longer pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. [Source: Police Services Act, O.Reg. 266/10, ss.1(2)]

Answer 1080

discontinuation

Question 1081

Marked Vehicle means a Service vehicle used primarily by _______ officers that: - is clearly marked with ______~_____~_____ decals along with the word “______” and is equipped with “overhead” emergency lighting visible from _____ degrees and has a forward-facing electronic siren - meets the minimum requirements as set out in the Highway Traffic Act for an emergency vehicle, as well as Ontario Regulation 926 and Policing Standards Manual (Adequacy Standards) AI–008 for general patrol vehicles.

Answer 1081

Uniformed Toronto Police Service police 360

Question 1082

Pursuit Supervisor means a _____~______ or, if unavailable, a ______~_____ officer.

Answer 1082

communications supervisor road supervisory

Question 1083

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit (Pursuit) occurs when a

Answer 1083

police officer attempts to direct the driver of a motor vehicle to stop, the driver refuses to obey the police officer, and the police officer pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping the fleeing motor vehicle, or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle. [Source: Police Services Act, O.Reg. 266/10, ss.1(1)]

Question 1084

Unmarked Police Vehicle in reference to pursuits, means all vehicles, other than a marked police vehicle, that are owned or operated by the Service. This includes vehicles commonly known as “———” vehicles and “_______~____” vehicles.

Answer 1084

as “stealth” vehicles and “clean top” vehicles. 15-16 Uniform, Equipment and Appearance Standards Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.0

Question 1085

Summer Dress | The summer dress options will be in effect during the period of ______to______

Answer 1085

April 01 to October 31.

Question 1086

Members initiated in the Sikh religion may wear the 5 Kakaars or 5 Ks. These physical symbols of Khalsa are the Kesh, Kanga, Kara, Kachhera and Kirpan (which will be no more than _______cm (_______) in length).

Answer 1086

19.05 cm (7.5 inches)

Question 1087

Members of the Muslim faith may wear an issued ______ as part of their uniform. The ______ shall be worn in accordance with Appendix F.

Answer 1087

Hijab

Question 1088

Members of the ______ faith may wear a nose stud in accordance with their religious beliefs.

Answer 1088

Hindu

Question 1089

Aboriginal members may deviate from the prescribed standards of appearance and wear their hair ______ as part of their spiritual practice. _____ shall be kept in a neat manner.

Answer 1089

braided, Braids

Question 1090

15-17 In-Car Camera System | The In–Car Camera System (ICCS) is a multifaceted tool that can:

Answer 1090

 enhance public trust and police legitimacy;  enhance public and police officer safety;  enhance the commitment to bias-free service delivery by officers to the public;  provide a tool to facilitate early resolution of complaints; and  provide improved evidence for investigative, judicial and oversight purposes; and  provide information as to the effectiveness of Service procedures and training The Service is committed to maintaining the public trust by delivering professional and unbiased policing at all times. The ICCS is a valuable tool in remaining accountable to the community and maintaining its trust.

Question 1091

Supervision | Supervisory Officer _______ mandatory when malfunction, damage or theft of an ICCS occurs

Answer 1091

notification

Question 1092

Procedure Objection to Being Recorded Officers may encounter situations where individuals object to being audio and/or video recorded. If the recording is occurring while in a _______~_____, officers shall continue to record in accordance with this Procedure Incidents of a Sensitive Nature Officers assigned to, or operating a Service vehicle equipped with an ICCS must be cognizant of the impact video recording may have on persons involved in incidents of a sensitive nature. In circumstances where the person is being captured on ICCS video, an officer may temporarily deactivate the ICCS, or adjust the camera view, while taking appropriate steps to address the situation, and reactivate the ICCS after having done so. Any deactivation of the ICCS video recording function, arising out of a reasonable concern for the dignity of a person, must be in accordance with this Procedure by noting the reason for the decision in a memorandum book, and, if practical, by recording an audible statement prior to. Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.p

Answer 1092

public place

Question 1093

Member | Upon receiving a request for an ICCS recording from a member of the public shall direct the individual to the

Answer 1093

Access and | Privacy Section of Records Management Services – Information Access.

Question 1094

ICC section/ Police Officer Police officers shall not

Answer 1094

 operate an ICCS equipped vehicle without having completed the prescribed training  adjust the ICCS while actively engaged in apprehending or pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle, for the safety of members and the public  modify or attempt to modify any permanent settings or installed components of the ICCS

Question 1095

When assigned to a Service vehicle that is equipped with an ICCS shall, at the beginning of the shift, check if the ICCS is functioning properly by activating the system and creating a brief recording to ensure that:

Answer 1095

 both cameras are capable of recording video  the wireless microphones are capable of remotely activating the system and recording audio  the fixed rear microphone is capable of recording audio  the camera lens and the windshield are free of debris that may obscure the camera  the camera is locked in position facing the front of the Service vehicle The front camera shall remain facing the front of the Service vehicle, except in circumstances where it is necessary to modify the position to record a specific event.  the system plays back both audio and visual recordings After completing the check detailed in item 3 shall record the results in the memorandum book.

Question 1096

ensure that the ICCS is not activated during

Answer 1096

 investigative discussions or enquiries between police personnel  situations that reveal police investigative techniques

Question 1097

When supervising personnel assigned to vehicles equipped with an ICCS shall

Answer 1097

 conduct a review of each officer’s ICCS recordings at least once per month to - assist with supervision - ensure the ICCS is functioning properly - determine whether the ICCS is being operated in accordance with procedure and prescribed training - ensure that officers are classifying ICCS recordings appropriately for retention purposes - identify material that may be appropriate for training - determine additional training needs, as appropriate Ensure supervisory reviews of each officer’s ICCS recordings are conducted at least once per month, or CWW cycle, as applicable.  review ICCS recordings, where applicable, to assist in the resolution of a public complaint in compliance with Procedure 13–02  record the results in the Unit Commander Morning Report (UCMR) and memorandum book

Question 1098

Supervisory When attending an incident where a Service vehicle is equipped with an ICCS, after assessing the circumstances, may direct an officer to

Answer 1098

deactivate the ICCS, when appropriate. When investigating a Service vehicle collision that does not fall under the SIU Mandate shall ensure that  if the vehicle is drivable, it is returned to its home unit for ICCS uploading  if the vehicle requires towing, that it is towed to the appropriate Service garage for ICCS uploading  the investigating supervisor shall ensure  the ICCS video has been successfully uploaded to the system  in circumstances where the upload has not been successful, the HELP desk is notified forthwith Where the event involves an audio/video recording captured by an ICCS shall ensure the recording is appropriately classified for retention purposes. Where a Service vehicle has been involved in a collision that has caused the vehicle engine to stop, shall ensure the vehicle is not restarted.

Question 1099

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Liaison Officer means a

Answer 1099

uniform senior officer of the Toronto Police Service designated by the Chief of Police to act as the main liaison with the SIU in all matters relating to SIU investigations. The Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer oversees the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate Cadre and Professional Standards Support SIU Liaison Section while in the field.

Question 1100

In car camera Deactivate means a process

Answer 1100

which causes the In-Car Camera to stop capturing audio and/or video recordings.

Question 1101

Digital Video Asset Management System (DVAMS)

Answer 1101

means a networked automated video solution that creates, stores, manages, and distributes video evidence via the Video Services Unit. DVAMS assets can be viewed and disclosure ordered from any workstation on the Toronto Police Service network.

Question 1102

In-Car Camera System (ICCS) means

Answer 1102

any in–car recording equipment that captures audio and visual signals, and may also be referred to as a Mobile Video Recording System.

Question 1103

In-Car Camera System (ICCS) Technician means a

Answer 1103

Toronto Police Service member trained in the operational use and repair of In–Car Camera Systems. NOTE: Some technicians may not be trained to repair an ICCS, but specialize in duplicating methods, storage and retrieval methods and procedures, and possess a working knowledge of video forensics and evidentiary procedures.

Question 1104

Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Mandate pursuant to Part VII PSA means that the SIU is legislated to investigate the

Answer 1104

circumstances of serious injury or death that may have resulted through criminal offences committed by a police officer. The death or serious injury is in relation to a citizen, another police officer or other member of the Service. The SIU mandate may be invoked for deaths or serious injuries that occur in circumstances where there has been police engagement. For example, but not limited to injuries or death occurring: - in the course of making an arrest - in the course of a suspect apprehension pursuit - while in police custody - while in the hospital following apprehension or police custody; or - allegations of sexual assault.

Question 1105

A police officer may continue the arrest (summary, dual, indictable 553 offences) of a person where the public interest is not satisfied or for any indictable offence other than dual procedure and 553 indictable offences. The criteria for satisfying the ‘public interest’ are set out in s. _______ CC.

Answer 1105

497

Question 1106

Positional Asphyxia Members should be aware that certain restraint positions (i.e. ______\_____ might compromise heart and lung functions increasing the risk of death. Unless circumstances make it impossible, persons should be restrained in a sitting position while being closely watched. Use of the sitting position permits easier breathing and cardiac function while affording good positional control over the individual.

Answer 1106

stomach down)

Question 1107

Excited Delirium Excited delirium is a condition that can be caused by ______ or ______ intoxication, ________ illness or a combination of both. Symptoms displayed by persons suffering from the condition may include any combination of

Answer 1107

drug or alcohol psychiatric ```  abnormal tolerance to pain  abnormal tolerance to pepper spray  acute onset of paranoia  bizarre or aggressive behaviour  disorientation  hallucinations  impaired thinking  panic  shouting  sudden calm after frenzied activity  sweating, fever, heat intolerance  unexpected physical strength  violence towards others. ```

Question 1108

Due to their inclination to violence and extreme exertion, persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium are often ________ for their own protection and the protection of others. Members should be cognizant of positional asphyxia when dealing with persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium and, unless circumstances make it impossible, restrain the person in a sitting position as noted above. Persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium must always be treated as suffering from a ______~_____ and once secured, be transported to hospital for examination.

Answer 1108

Restrained medical emergency

Question 1109

if an arrest involves an arrest warrant, check the ______~______~______(—-)note any previous arrest number and case number

Answer 1109

Master Name Index (MNI);

Question 1110

In December ______, the Supreme Court of Canada made a ruling in the case of R. v. Golden, which directly impacted on the search of person incident to arrest. The lawful authority for searching a person comes from _____ or ____ law. Officers conducting searches must be able to articulate their authority and grounds for doing so. Information has been included in this Procedure that will assist officers in properly assessing the appropriate type of search to be conducted, and identify some of the risks that must be addressed (see Appendix B). In the absence of clear direction in the form of legislation, the courts have expressed some concerns with “routine police department policy applicable to all arrestees”. As a result, although this Procedure outlines possible risk factors, and places an obligation on police officers to address them, the decision as to what type of search is appropriate must be assessed on a case–by–case basis. The Toronto Police Service (Service) agrees with the courts that clear legislative prescription as to when and how strip searches should be conducted would be of assistance to the police and to the courts.

Answer 1110

2001 statute or common

Question 1111

Medical Orders Health Protection and Promotion Act gives the

Answer 1111

Medical Officer of Health (MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment. The order is specific to the named person, a named hospital and the police service in the jurisdiction where the application is made. Unless otherwise specified in the order, the effective radius for medical orders is restricted to the jurisdiction of the applicant MOH. The West Park Healthcare Centre, located at 82 Buttonwood Avenue (in 12 Division), is the only medical facility in Ontario for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease. 02-19 Report to a Justice Status: Amendment Pending Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03–0001 Rep

Question 1112

Child abductions Officer in Charge ) When requesting an AMBER Alert based on the criteria outlined in this Procedure shall

Answer 1112

 contact the TPOC with as much of the following information as possible, keeping in mind that additional supplementary information can be provided as it becomes available  abducted person's name  abducted person's age  abducted person's description (and photograph if available)  location and time of the person's abduction  description of the suspect  description of vehicle and licence plate of the suspect  advise the Unit Commander - The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) will contact the Chief of Police, or designate. The Chief of Police or designate will make the final decision if an AMBER Alert will be initiated. If approved, the Duty Senior Officer will initiate the Alert through the TPOC.  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken Once it has been determined that the child has been located and is safe shall  if an AMBER Alert has been initiated, advise the TPOC to cancel the Alert  ensure the Located/Found section of the Missing Persons details page is completed  ensure the information is removed from the RCMP Missing Child Registry, if applicable

Question 1113

Form 1 MHA means an Application by

Answer 1113

Physician for Psychiatric Assessment signed by a doctor within 7 days of examining the person, giving any person authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. A Form 1 is valid for 7 days from and including the day it was signed.

Question 1114

Form 2 MHA means a

Answer 1114

Justice of the Peace Order for Examination directing police officers to take the person in custody to an appropriate psychiatric facility where a physician may order the person detained for examination. A Form 2 is valid for 7 days from and including the day it was signed.

Question 1115

Form 9 MHA means an Order for

Answer 1115

Return of an elopee issued by a psychiatric facility which authorizes a police officer to return the person without their consent to the psychiatric facility. A Form 9 is valid for a period of 1 month after the person is absent without leave.

Question 1116

Form 47 MHA means an Order for

Answer 1116

Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffer deterioration. A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid for a period of 30 days.

Question 1117

Person in Crisis means a person who

Answer 1117

suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help, demonstrating that they are in touch with reality. Once a person in crisis receives the needed help, there is often a rapid return to normalcy.

Question 1118

When a member is involved in a service vehicle collision (SVC) and they are determined to be at fault, the member may be subject to the following  criminal/provincial charges

Answer 1118

disciplinary action  driving assessments/driver development training  revocation of their Blue Card.

Question 1119

Traffic Services Officer | When investigating a reportable SVC shall

Answer 1119

 conduct the investigation in compliance with Procedure 07–01  consult with the attending supervisory officer  complete the officer information on the SRLD401 as follows  the member’s address 40 College Street, Toronto Ontario M5G 2J3  the member’s telephone number 416-808-2222  the vehicle registration and insurance information as contained on the respective documents The SRLD401 shall be completed using the Versadex built-in electronic eMVA xForm and Quickscene diagramming applications.

Question 1120

The SRLD401 shall be completed using the Versadex built-in electronic eMVA xForm and ____________ diagramming applications ——(more bullets points)

Answer 1120

Quickscene diagramming applications.  complete the eReport including all scanned notes and submit to the supervisory officer prior to reporting off duty, unless authorized by the Officer in Charge When investigating a non-reportable SVC shall  comply with item 6 with the exception that no SRLD401 is required  complete field notes with diagram or memorandum book notes with same attention to detail as any other reportable collision investigation  complete an eReport and include the following information  date, time and location of incident  brief synopsis of circumstances  description and estimated value of damage  scan all notes into eReport

Question 1121

Supervisory Officer |  When notified that a reportable or non-reportable SVC has occurred in the City of Toronto shall

Answer 1121

 promptly attend the scene to provide assistance and conduct an internal investigation  notify the respective Officer in Charge  ensure the collision is investigated in compliance with this Procedure and Procedures 04–21, 07–01, 13–16 and 15–17, as applicable  ensure all witness statements and other evidence is gathered prior to reporting off duty, or make arrangements for this to be completed as soon as possible  if the Service vehicle is equipped with an in–car camera system (ICCS) video, review the video and  if the SIU mandate has been or may be invoked, comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable if required for court or training purposes, request a copy of the ICCS video evidence from the Property and Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) by e–mail; indicating date, time and fleet number, as soon as practicable ```  conduct an internal investigation to determine if any of the following apply in relation to the involved member  criminal offence  provincial offence  conduct issue  training requirement  no further action required ```  complete a TPS 559 for each Service vehicle involved, include the circumstances of the SVC and complete the Supervisor’s Determination section  ensure the damage is recorded on the appropriate Vehicle Damage Report in the unit file  send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and investigative integrity and submit to the Officer in

Question 1122

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory;

Answer 1122

 suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide  sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches mandatory for all robberies - all domestic violence calls - when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service - when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service Sexual Assault upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult Child Abductions there is information that a suspected EDP is armed or may be armed with a weapon Supervisory Officer and Traffic Services Officer attendance mandatory for collisions involving a Service Vehicle for any incident of workplace violence for any incident of workplace harassment  Naloxone is administered  a member is critically injured  when responding to a Level 2 or 3 Incident when attending a bomb or explosion call upon confirming a situation requires the attendance of the ETF upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place SIU INCIDENTS Use of force when firearm is discharged Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged a CEW has been used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Development Pursuit Supervisor attendance mandatory to monitor when a pursuit is initiated  suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide  sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches

Question 1123

Fleeing Suspect | A peace officer, and every person lawfully assisting the peace officer, is justified in using force that is

Answer 1123

intended or is likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm to a person to be arrested, if a) the peace officer is proceeding lawfully to arrest, with or without warrant, the person to be arrested; b) the offence for which the person is to be arrested is one for which that person may be arrested without warrant; c) the person to be arrested takes flight to avoid arrest; d) the peace officer or other person using the force believes on reasonable grounds that the force is necessary for the purpose of protecting the peace officer, the person lawfully assisting the peace officer or any other person from imminent or future death or grievous bodily harm; and e) the flight cannot be prevented by reasonable means in a less violent manner. [Authority: CC, ss. 25(4)]

Question 1124

SIU Investigative Interviews | The SIU will communicate all requests directly to the

Answer 1124

Chief of Police. The scheduling of all investigative interviews requested by the SIU shall be arranged through the PSS - SIU Liaison Section.

Question 1125

The PSS - SIU Liaison Section shall direct all officers in relation to the SIU requests. Should the SIU contact an officer directly, the officer shall immediately

Answer 1125

notify the PSS - SIU Liaison Section. In accordance with s. 25(2) of the SIUA, Witness Officials, when properly designated as such, shall attend for an investigative interview with the SIU and shall answer all reasonable questions immediately, or within 24 hours if appropriate grounds for delay exist. A police officer’s preference for a particular counsel is not a justifiable excuse for unreasonable delay in attending interviews or for providing the required notes.

Question 1126

Siu A police officer’s preference for a particular counsel is not

Answer 1126

a justifiable excuse for unreasonable delay in attending interviews or for providing the required notes.

Question 1127

Searches of persons shall be conducted keeping in mind that the safety of

Answer 1127

Service members, the person being searched, | and the public are paramount. All searches of the person should be conducted thoroughly and in a methodical manner.

Question 1128

Searches of the person shall not be conducted in an

Answer 1128

abusive fashion or be conducted to intimidate, ridicule or induce admissions. Regardless of what type of search is undertaken, the dignity and the privacy of a person must always be given consideration.

Question 1129

Prohibited Grounds means the protected grounds under the

Answer 1129

Ontario Human Rights Code for which a person cannot discriminate. These include: age, ancestry, citizenship, colour, creed, disability, ethnic origin, family status, gender expression, gender identity, marital status (including single status), place of origin, race, receipt of public assistance (in housing only), record of offences (in employment only), sex (including discrimination based on pregnancy and breastfeeding), and sexual orientation.

Question 1130

When no contact of a discharged “sock” round is made with a person, the SIU is

Answer 1130

still required to investigate any discharge of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;  collect the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) when no longer required for any immediate investigations, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU)  document the particulars on a TPS 649 and submit to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section for proper disposal and issuance of replacement rounds When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;  collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU)  document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section for issuance of replacement rounds  comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s) and casing(s)

Question 1131

When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;

Answer 1131

 collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU)  document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section for issuance of replacement rounds  comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s) and casing(s)

Question 1132

Search of a person without Warrant is ________ _____ unreasonable under s. _____ of the Charter. The onus is on the officers conducting and authorizing a search to demonstrate that the search is justified in law, necessary and reasonable. Searches conducted simply as a matter of routine or “______ ______” is not justified in law. However, for safety reasons, except in extenuating circumstances, all persons under arrest must be searched prior to being placed in a police vehicle, prior to being brought into a police station, and prior to being placed in a police cell. Stronger grounds are required as the level of intrusiveness of a search increases. A Protective search and Frisk search

Answer 1132

prima facie unreasonable under s. 8 of the Charter. “standard procedure”

Question 1133

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority means a member of the

Answer 1133

cadre of on-call Toronto Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the Chief.

Question 1134

Affiant means a

Answer 1134

police officer who swears to an affidavit, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a Justice.

Question 1135

Police Officer Where there are reasonable grounds to believe that a person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity shall

Answer 1135

 consult with the Officer in Charge  escort the person to the hospital  comply with Procedure 03–06  request that the person remove the item in a controlled area of the hospital and with a medical professional present, if possible  if the person is unable or unwilling to remove the item and consents to a search - ensure that the search is conducted by a qualified medical practitioner - remain with the person while the search is taking place (same gender officers only, or if the person has self-identified as trans or gender diverse, in compliance with Appendix C) - advise the Officer in Charge of the results  where the person refuses a Body Cavity search by a medical practitioner, and the item has not been removed  advise the Officer in Charge  restrain the person and hold in isolation pending a Show Cause Hearing  continuously monitor the person to ensure their safety and the safety of Service members until recovery of the item or substance is made When a Body Cavity search has been completed shall complete a Body Cavity Search Template in compliance with item 6.

Question 1136

Officer in Charge | An Officer in Charge of a unit where persons are detained shall ensure

Answer 1136

the decision to search a person has been evaluated based on reasonable and probable grounds and all risk factors, including those found in Appendix B  all arrested parties are advised, on camera, of the level of search to be performed and the manner and location in which it will be carried out  a Frisk search must be completed prior to any Strip search being conducted  when applicable, all Frisk searches must be audio and video recorded. If not, the reason shall be documented accordingly  searches are conducted appropriately and the required Booking and Search Template has been completed for all Strip and Body Cavity searches  every effort is made to provide persons who do not speak English or, who by reason of disability have difficulty communicating  with the services of an interpreter in compliance with Procedure 04–09, or  other person who can assist the person in understanding the process  prisoners’ property is handled in compliance Procedures 01–03 and 09–06, as applicable  when an item of religious significance is removed from a person that the item is treated with respect and handled appropriately in compliance with Appendix D  assessments regarding the retention of assistive devices are made on a case-by-case basis taking into consideration all risk factors, including those contained in Appendix B, and all available accommodation options  when it is determined that a person with a disability requiring the aid of an assistive device cannot be accommodated, the reasons for the determination are clearly articulated in the memorandum book, including all accommodation options considered Note: Staff Sergeants shall book prisoners and authorize Strip Searches, unless at a Central lock-up where a designate can be appointed

Question 1137

Assistive/Prosthetic Device means a device used to

Answer 1137

replace, compensate for, or improve the functional abilities of people with disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity. Assistive device includes a broad range of items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises and wigs.

Question 1138

Gender: the set of

Answer 1138

socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both or neither.

Question 1139

Define; Non-binary gender

Answer 1139

identities outside of the expected binary of men and women.

Question 1140

What is; identities outside of the expected binary of men and women.

Answer 1140

Non binary

Question 1141

Any time a CEW is activated, the _____, _____ and _______ of the firing is recorded in a microchip. This data will be downloaded for analysis and audit purposes. The CEW has a built–in weapon management system to prevent misuse/abuse and protect officers from unfounded allegations through documentation of usage. Use of CEW

Answer 1141

date, time and duration

Question 1142

The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion.

Answer 1142

 Cloutier v. Langlois (Supreme Court of Canada) (1990)  R. v. Flintoff (Ontario Court of Appeal) (1998)  R. v. Coulter (Ontario Court of Justice) (2000)  R. v. Golden (Supreme Court of Canada) (2001)  R. v. Clarke, Heroux and Pilipa (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2003)  R. v. Mann (Supreme Court of Canada) (2004)  R. v. McGuffie (Ontario Court of Appeal) (2016)  R. v. MacPherson (Ontario Native Council on Justice) (2018)  R. v. Tonkin (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2020)

Question 1143

As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for

Answer 1143

 weapons  anything that could cause injury (including drugs and alcohol)  anything that could assist in a person's escape  evidence

Question 1144

Strip Searches In _______, the Supreme Court of Canada, in the matter of R. v. ______, while upholding the common law right to search a person who had been lawfully arrested, placed restrictions on police officers contemplating Strip searches. In light of this decision, the Toronto Police Service has adopted the following official policy in regard to Strip searches of persons who are in custody, incident to arrest. When a person has been lawfully arrested and transported to a police facility, an assessment of the risk factors shall be conducted. Where reasonable grounds exist to conduct a Strip search, a Strip search shall be conducted. Where reasonable grounds do not exist for a Strip search, a Frisk search shall only be conducted. (A Strip search may be conducted if reasonable grounds are established as a result of a Frisk search first.) Risk Factors Officers contemplating a Strip search of a person shall consider all the circumstances, including but not limited to  the details of the current arrest  the history of the person  any items already located on the person during a Protective or Frisk search  the demeanour or mental state of the individual  the risks to the individual, the police, or others, associated with not performing a Strip search  the potential that the person will come into contact with other detainees, creating an opportunity for the person to hand off contraband, weapons, etc…to another prisoner (R. v. Coulter) In addition to any factors being considered pertaining to the individual person, the following set of circumstances represents the heightened safety concerns that are common to all persons held for a Show Cause hearing  lodged in a cell awaiting transportation  direct contact with other prisoners during transportation and lodging, creating the potential for conflict and/or weapons/contraband being passed from one person to the next  unsupervised while being transported in a prisoner transportation wagon  lodged in court cells with other prisoners and prisoners arriving directly from the correctional system  transportation, lodging, escorting of prisoner at court conducted by unarmed court officers  direct contact with booking officers, court officers, correctional officers, lawyers, and other court staff who are unarmed and have an expectation that every prisoner has been thoroughly searched to ensure officer, prisoner and public safety  the duty to protect prisoners while in custody and their expectation that while in custody their safety is not compromised  the Officer in Charge cannot know the background/history/state of mind of all the prisoners that will be brought into the system on any given day, but is required to ensure their protection All persons who are held in custody pending a Show Cause hearing are deemed to be entering the prison population. In assessing the appropriate type of search, the Officer in Charge shall take into account the heightened safety concerns created by this situation. Members shall consult with the Officer in Charge prior to conducting a Strip search at a police station. Prohibitions The Supreme Court has ruled that Strip searches in the field will only be justified where there is a demonstrated necessity and urgency to search for weapons or objects that could be used to threaten the safety of the accused, the arresting officers or other individuals. In this case, officers would have to show why it would have been unsafe to wait and conduct the search at the police station.

Answer 1144

When a person has been lawfully arrested and transported to a police facility, an assessment of the risk factors shall be conducted. Where reasonable grounds exist to conduct a Strip search, a Strip search shall be conducted. Where reasonable grounds do not exist for a Strip search, a Frisk search shall only be conducted. (A Strip search may be conducted if reasonable grounds are established as a result of a Frisk search first.) Risk Factors Officers contemplating a Strip search of a person shall consider all the circumstances, including but not limited to  the details of the current arrest  the history of the person  any items already located on the person during a Protective or Frisk search  the demeanour or mental state of the individual  the risks to the individual, the police, or others, associated with not performing a Strip search  the potential that the person will come into contact with other detainees, creating an opportunity for the person to hand off contraband, weapons, etc…to another prisoner (R. v. Coulter)

Question 1145

In addition to any factors being considered pertaining to the individual person, the following set of circumstances represents the heightened safety concerns that are common to all persons held for a Show Cause hearing

Answer 1145

 lodged in a cell awaiting transportation  direct contact with other prisoners during transportation and lodging, creating the potential for conflict and/or weapons/contraband being passed from one person to the next  unsupervised while being transported in a prisoner transportation wagon  lodged in court cells with other prisoners and prisoners arriving directly from the correctional system  transportation, lodging, escorting of prisoner at court conducted by unarmed court officers  direct contact with booking officers, court officers, correctional officers, lawyers, and other court staff who are unarmed and have an expectation that every prisoner has been thoroughly searched to ensure officer, prisoner and public safety  the duty to protect prisoners while in custody and their expectation that while in custody their safety is not compromised  the Officer in Charge cannot know the background/history/state of mind of all the prisoners that will be brought into the system on any given day, but is required to ensure their protection All persons who are held in custody pending a Show Cause hearing are deemed to be entering the prison population. In assessing the appropriate type of search, the Officer in Charge shall take into account the heightened safety concerns created by this situation. Members shall consult with the Officer in Charge prior to conducting a Strip search at a police station. Prohibitions The Supreme Court has ruled that Strip searches in the field will only be justified where there is a demonstrated necessity and urgency to search for weapons or objects that could be used to threaten the safety of the accused, the arresting officers or other individuals. In this case, officers would have to show why it would have been unsafe to wait and conduct the search at the police station.

Question 1146

Risk Factors | Officers contemplating a Strip search of a person shall consider all the circumstances, including but not limited to

Answer 1146

 the details of the current arrest  the history of the person  any items already located on the person during a Protective or Frisk search  the demeanour or mental state of the individual  the risks to the individual, the police, or others, associated with not performing a Strip search  the potential that the person will come into contact with other detainees, creating an opportunity for the person to hand off contraband, weapons, etc…to another prisoner (R. v. Coulter)

Question 1147

Strip searches shall not be conducted in the field for the sole purpose of ______~_______When a Strip search must be conducted in the field, it will be done in a private area with only the searching officers able to view the person being searched, where possible. When a Strip search must be conducted in the field, the searching officers shall immediately notify the Officer in Charge upon their arrival at the police station. Strip searches shall not be videotaped. Any benefit to videotaping the search is outweighed by the potential of causing unnecessary embarrassment to the person being searched. Further, in cases where a searching area has video equipment installed, the person being searched will be advised that the search is not being videotaped. Body Cavity Searches Body Cavity searches shall not be performed by any member of the Toronto Police Service. Where there are reasonable grounds to believe that a person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity, the person shall be immediately transported to a medical facility for treatment. The person may consent to having the item or substance removed by a qualified medical practitioner. If the person is not willing to have the medical practitioner assist with the removal, they shall be restrained and held in isolation pending a Show Cause Hearing. The person shall be continuously monitored to ensure their safety and the safety of members of the Service until recovery of the item or substance is made.

Answer 1147

preserving evidence.

Question 1148

When a Strip search must be conducted in the field, the searching officers shall immediately notify the ________~_______upon their arrival at the police station.

Answer 1148

Officer in Charge

Question 1149

The term trans refers to people with

Answer 1149

diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth.

Question 1150

Gender Expression is how a person

Answer 1150

publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and important ways of expressing gender.

Question 1151

Gender identity is each person’s

Answer 1151

internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man, both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual orientation

Question 1152

Trans includes but is not limited to people who identify as

Answer 1152

transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), nonbinary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity.

Question 1153

non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Are included in the definition of a

Answer 1153

Trans persons

Question 1154

searches are conducted appropriately and the required Booking and Search Template has been completed

Answer 1154

for all | Strip and Body Cavity searches

Question 1155

Persons in custody section . A member shall never apply a police _________ or other similar device to any videotape, DVD/CD and/or the associated storage case.

Answer 1155

Seal

Question 1156

Accused Young Persons | A young person under 18 years of age may be lodged in a divisional cell only

Answer 1156

 to prevent injury or to protect others from aggressive behaviour and  when there is no adult present in the cells, OR when there is an adult present in the cells and there is adequate space to isolate the young person from the adult.

Question 1157

Prisoner’s Property In order to maximize the safety of prisoners held in police custody and the Service members assigned to their care, it is the practice of the Toronto Police Service that the following property be removed from every prisoner

Answer 1157

 valuable property  evidence  implements of escape  offensive weapons as defined in the Criminal Code  items which could be used as a ligature including belts, ties, and shoelaces  items which could be used to cause damage to property including matches, lighters, combs, keys and other sharp objects  prescription and over the counter medications  tobacco products - With respect to assistive/prosthetic devices, comply with the Duty to Accommodate sections below

Question 1158

Duty to Accommodate Persons with Disabilities | The Service has a duty to accommodate persons with disabilities under the

Answer 1158

Ontario Human Rights Code and the Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act. Therefore, persons with a disability requiring the aid of an assistive device should be permitted to keep their device while in custody. When required, any infringement of a person’s right to be accommodated must be minimal in nature, and no more than is necessary to achieve the desired objective.

Question 1159

Duty to Accommodate Gender Identity and Gender Expression | Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “

Answer 1159

Every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services, goods and facilities, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic origin, citizenship, creed, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, marital status, family status or disability.”

Question 1160

Member When transporting a person in custody shall  using only those handcuffs, leg irons and other restraining devices authorized by the _______~___~_______ , place the person in handcuffs using the approved manner and utilize the double–lock mechanism where possible in order to

Answer 1160

Chief of police  prevent the escape of a person in custody  control the violent activities of a person in custody  when handcuffs are not used, be prepared to justify this decision Keeping in mind officer and public safety, officers may use discretion when determining whether to handcuff an individual as it may not be practical or necessary in all circumstances (e.g. due to a person’s medical condition, age, disability, pregnancy, or frailty)  not leave the prisoner unattended  place the person in the rear of the police vehicle

Question 1161

Where the police vehicle has no screen, the person shall be placed in the right rear seat. If an escort is available, the escort shall occupy the left rear seat.

Answer 1161

 allow one (1) prisoner per vehicle (wagons excepted), when possible, comply with Appendix E when transporting trans person  permit only those police officers involved in the investigation inside the vehicle with an arrested person  ensure prisoners and civilians (e.g. witnesses) are not transported in the same police vehicle  prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the person, and the odometer reading  advise the communications operator of the odometer reading upon arrival When requested by another member to transport a person in custody to a police station shall - record the following information in the memorandum book  arresting officer’s name  reason for the arrest and continued detention  requesting member's name, badge number, rank and unit  person's name and charge  any other pertinent information relating to the person or to the arrest - provide the requesting member with their name, rank, badge number and unit

Question 1162

Upon determining the detention of the person is not required shall

Answer 1162

 release the person in compliance with the appropriate release procedures in Chapter 1  when the person in custody is a young person, ensure a parent, legal guardian, adult relative, adult friend or spouse is notified without delay and requested to attend the station

Question 1163

Oic with regard to lodging persons in cells individuals suspected of having suicidal or violent tendencies or serious medical conditions are more closely

Answer 1163

monitored and checked as frequently as possible

Question 1164

When a prisoner claims to be a methadone patient shall ensure that such persons are informed that their prescribed dosage can only be obtained

Answer 1164

 following release from custody, or  if remanded in custody, by request to corrections staff and after corrections staff has consulted with the prescribing doctor. When the prisoner complains of symptoms associated with the non-receipt of their prescription, shall ensure  medical advice (i.e. Telehealth Ontario) is sought, or the person is transported to a hospital for assessment by a doctor for short term health risks  while in police custody, such persons are not transported for treatment at any place other than a hospital  if the person is transported to a hospital, that staff are advised the purpose of the visit is not to receive their prescribed dosage  the results are noted in the crown brief, the Arrest Booking/Cell Management screen and the Prisoner Transportation Report

Question 1165

If an incident occurs in an area being monitored and recorded by the DAMS shall

Answer 1165

 ensure that assistance is immediately rendered and that the incident is dealt with in the appropriate manner  once the incident has been resolved, and it is determined that the recording should be retained, notify PVEMU to retrieve and preserve the relevant security recording  ensure the incident, along with a notation that the recording has been preserved, is made in the appropriate Arrest Booking/Cell Management screen and the UCMR

Question 1166

Court Cells means cells used during those hours in which the courts are sitting. A person shall be lodged in a court cell when:

Answer 1166

 being held for a court appearance;  awaiting transportation to a detention facility;  ordered into custody by the court.

Question 1167

Divisional Cells means cells that may be used for short term detention of a person in custody when:

Answer 1167

 being processed, or waiting to be processed, or to ensure the safety of the person and/or members;  awaiting transportation to a central lock–up;  being held for return by an outside agency.

Question 1168

Lock–Up means an assigned division used to detain a person in custody:

Answer 1168

 when the person is held for a Show Cause hearing, or Judicial Interim Release where the bail court is closed  when outside of admitting hours stipulated in Procedure 03–03  in any other circumstances where detention is authorized and necessary. See Appendix C for a list of assigned lock–ups.

Question 1169

Member – Prisoner Care & Control for

Answer 1169

the purposes of prisoner transportation, care and control, includes a police officer, court officer and custodial officer.

Question 1170

Police Cells means

Answer 1170

divisional cells, central lock–ups and court cells used for the secure detention of persons in custody. An interview room is not a police cell. Police officer Prior to lodging a person in police cells shall  take the person before the Officer in Charge and advise of any pertinent information relating to the person or to the arrest including, but not limited to  known or suspected suicidal tendencies  violent tendencies  serious medical conditions  assistive devices  safety concerns  injuries  emotional disturbance, any known mental illness or developmental disability  medication, or whether any medication has been administered  impairment due to alcohol or drugs

Question 1171

Police Vehicle – Prisoner Transportation for the purposes of

Answer 1171

prisoner transportation, includes marked and unmarked | vehicle owned or operated by the Service, that has the capacity to transport a driver and two or more passengers.

Question 1172

When considering the need for further medical attention, the Officer in Charge should be cognisant of some circumstances which may impact on the health of the individual

Answer 1172

 where a drug that is not designed to be swallowed has been swallowed by an individual (i.e. for the purpose of concealing or transporting), or held in the mouth in such a way that the drug is exposed (e.g. no wrapper, or damaged wrapper)  where the individual cannot, declines or fails to recall what substances (whether prescribed or non–prescribed), quantity, or when the substances were taken  where the quantity of drugs taken suggests a possible overdose (i.e. more than prescribed)  where any drug has been taken in conjunction with alcohol  where the individual is acting irrationally or aggressively, appears ill, is complaining of pains, nausea, etc., or reports feeling differently than other times when they have taken the same drug  where cocaine has been used by the person, and the person has had to be physically restrained, or has exerted themself physically (e.g. foot pursuit, struggle, etc.)  where the prisoner exhibits an unexplained change in behaviour (e.g. becomes aggressive, lethargic, sleepy, etc.)

Question 1173

The following services are available at no cost to assist the Officer in Charge in making a determination as to whether a prisoner is in need of further medical treatment. These services may be used where the Officer in Charge requires further information (e.g. effects of drug interaction) to complete their assessment of the individual 

Answer 1173

Telehealth Ontario (1–866–797–0000, TTY 1–866–797–0007) – provides quick easy access to a qualified health professional (registered nurse) who can assess the symptoms of the prisoner and offer advice as to whether the individual is in need of immediate hospital care. Depending on the number of people making use of this service, a representative may have to return your call. When leaving a message, for faster service, ensure you identify yourself as a police officer seeking advice regarding a prisoner who has taken a drug prior to arrest.  Ontario Regional Poison Information Centre – SickKids Hospital (416–813–5900 or 1–800–268–9017, TTY 416–597–0215 or 1–877–750–2233) – can provide information regarding drug interactions, and potential overdose information. If the concern to be addressed deals only with an interaction or potential overdose, call this service directly; otherwise contact Telehealth Ontario first. - When there is a delay in receiving the required information from the above mentioned services, the prisoner shall be continuously monitored until the information requested is received and the Officer in Charge has made a final determination whether to accept the individual at the police facility.

Question 1174

Any person who has or is suspected of having taken a drug prior to being arrested, and is accepted at a police facility shall be monitored more closely, and the results of those checks recorded, until such time as the Officer in Charge is satisfied that the individual is not at risk. Individuals who have taken hard drugs such as cocaine, heroin, etc., shall be monitored more closely for at least ______ hours from the time when the drug was taken.

Answer 1174

3 If at any time, the prisoner’s condition changes, or there is a concern regarding the health of the person, members shall notify the Officer in Charge who shall re–evaluate their condition. Individuals with violent or suicidal tendencies shall be lodged in a separate cell whenever practicable and their behaviour closely monitored. Prisoners housed in divisional cells or lock–ups should be placed opposite each other where possible. This can provide an opportunity for one prisoner to give early warning of illness, suicide, or self–injury involving another prisoner

Question 1175

Unexpected deaths of intoxicated individuals may occur as a result of a condition called _______~______~______

Answer 1175

obstructive sleep apnea. The consumption of alcohol or alcohol in combination with central nervous system depressants (e.g. narcotics, barbiturates, etc.) can frequently produce a deep sleep accompanied by loud snoring. Snoring is not an indicator of consciousness. It indicates only that a person is breathing. Individuals who are intoxicated or who exhibit very loud or disrupted snoring must be closely monitored and awakened frequently in order to determine if their state of sobriety is improving over time.

Question 1176

Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS) is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Symptoms of AWS may appear within _____~____ hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol. AWS more commonly affects those with a history of alcoholism and/or those who have experienced problems with alcohol withdrawal in the past. Symptoms can depend upon the ______ of ________ consumed, _______ of consumption, and the _______ of consumption prior to discontinuance. Determining a “_____~______” as to a person’s last consumption of alcohol is important in assessing the onset of AWS. Symptoms can range from mild to severe and include: Mild Symptoms tremors (trembling or quivering)  anxiety  sleep disturbance (insomnia)  sweating (diaphoresis)  over responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia)  nausea/vomiting Mild symptoms can occur within _____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within _____ hours. Moderate Symptoms  intensified Mild Symptoms  rapid breathing (tachypnea)  racing heart rate (tachycardia)  agitation Moderate symptoms can occur within ___~____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within _____ hrs. Severe Symptoms  severely intensified Mild and/or Moderate Symptoms  hallucinations  seizures  disorientation  abnormally high fever (hyperthermia) Severe symptoms can occur within ____ hours after discontinuance and/or after a decrease in consumption of alcohol and can cause a person’s condition to deteriorate to a very serious condition known as delirium tremens (DTs). Symptoms of DTs usually occur____~_____ hours after discontinuance and include:  profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms If left untreated, DTs can result in death. - The time frames for the onset of AWS symptoms have been generalized. Symptoms occurring outside of the time frames (before and after) must still be considered (e.g. Seizures may present between____~_____ hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol). The decision as to whether to send a prisoner to the hospital should be based upon the Officer in Charge’s assessment of the circumstances and observations made. Where a prisoner displays or reports symptoms of AWS as a result of disclosed or suspected alcohol use/abuse, further medical advice shall be sought and/or the prisoner shall be transported to the hospital for a medical examination.

Answer 1176

6 – 12 amount of alcohol consumed, frequency of consumption, and the duration of consumption time-stamp Mild 24-48 Moderate 24-36, within 48 Severe after 48 DT systems 48 – 72 12 – 60

Question 1177

Intoxicated individuals who lapse into sleep should be placed lying on their _____ with the head angled forward (recovery position) whenever possible.

Answer 1177

Side

Question 1178

Symptoms of DTs usually occur ____~____ hours after discontinuance and include:  profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms

Answer 1178

48-72

Question 1179

If left untreated, DTs can result in ___. | -

Answer 1179

Death

Question 1180

``` Mild Symptoms of AWS  tremors (trembling or quivering)  anxiety  sleep disturbance (insomnia)  sweating (diaphoresis)  over responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia)  nausea/vomiting Mild symptoms can occur within ____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within ____ hours. ``` ``` Moderate Symptoms  intensified Mild Symptoms  rapid breathing (tachypnea)  racing heart rate (tachycardia)  agitation Moderate symptoms can occur within _____~_____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within ____ hrs. ``` Severe Symptoms  severely intensified Mild and/or Moderate Symptoms  hallucinations  seizures  disorientation  abnormally high fever (hyperthermia) Severe symptoms can occur within _____ hours after discontinuance and/or after a decrease in consumption of alcohol and can cause a person’s condition to deteriorate to a very serious condition known as delirium tremens (DTs). Symptoms of DTs usually occur _____ – _____ hours after discontinuance and include:  profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms If left untreated, DTs can result in death.

Answer 1180

24, 48 24-36, 48 48 48-72 (DT’s)

Question 1181

Intoxicated individuals who lapse into sleep should be placed

Answer 1181

lying on their side with the head angled forward (recovery | position) whenever possible.

Question 1182

Excited delirium is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness or a combination of both. Symptoms displayed by individuals suffering from this condition may include any combination of

Answer 1182

abnormal tolerance to pain  abnormal tolerance to pepper spray  unexpected physical strength  violence towards others  shouting  sweating, fever, heat intolerance  sudden calm after frenzied activity  bizarre or aggressive behaviour  impaired thinking  disorientation  acute onset of paranoia  hallucinations  panic

Question 1183

Individuals exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium must always be treated as

Answer 1183

suffering from a medical emergency and | once secured, be transported to hospital for examination.

Question 1184

Because of their inclination to violence and extreme exertion, individuals exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium are often

Answer 1184

restrained for their own protection and the protection of others. Members should be cognizant of positional asphyxia when dealing with persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium and, unless circumstances make it impossible, restrain the person in a sitting position as noted in item K.

Question 1185

Members shall not inject any medication into a prisoner, and under no circumstances shall a medication container be given to the prisoner. Requests for injectable insulin, transition related hormones and similar medications require treatment by a physician. - This prohibition does not apply to epinephrine auto-injectors (e.g. EpiPen and Twinject). In accordance with this Procedure, prescription and over the counter medications shall be removed from every prisoner. However, when a person taken into custody has in their possession an epinephrine auto-injector, which has been prescribed for them, and experiences a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis), they shall

Answer 1185

be immediately provided with their epinephrine auto-injector to self-administer. Where a person is unable to self-administer the auto-injector, a member shall administer it to them in accordance with the instructions on the device and/or approved First Aid training. The person shall be transported to the hospital by Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics) immediately following the injection. Any member accidentally injected with epinephrine not prescribed for them, shall be immediately transported to a hospital.

Question 1186

If prescription medication is in ______~_____, the prisoner may be handed the appropriate dosage in compliance with this Procedure.

Answer 1186

Pill Form

Question 1187

Methadone is a synthetic opioid used as a replacement therapy for narcotic addiction. Treatment is obtained only by prescription and the prescribed dosage varies between individuals. The short–term (_____ – _____ hours) effects of abstinence from methadone by a patient are not life–threatening, although the patient may show signs of anxiety.

Answer 1187

24-36 hours

Question 1188

Individuals who bring a prescribed dosage of liquid methadone with them into custody (called a ‘______’) shall not be given the medication. The risk of an adulterated sample being brought into custody presents too great a health danger to allow such dosages to be consumed by prisoners.

Answer 1188

Carry

Question 1189

Pregnant persons who require methadone treatment should be treated at

Answer 1189

hospital regardless of the dispensed form of methadone. The Officer in Charge should make arrangements where possible for the issue of a prescription by the originating physician.

Question 1190

All methadone brought into custody shall be

Answer 1190

taken from the prisoner’s possession. Where lawful authority to possess the methadone is established, a clearly labelled and sealed ‘carry’ will be refrigerated and returned to the prisoner upon release from custody. Where lawful authority to possess the sample is not established, or the ‘carry’ is in an unlabelled or unsealed container, it——?? It stops here

Question 1191

Trans persons may or may not make

Answer 1191

``` a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity. ```

Question 1192

When interacting with trans persons, officers shall be sensitive to needs and concerns without jeopardizing ______ and ________ _______. In order to best address the specific needs or concerns of each person, each case must be assessed individually. To that end, the Officer in Charge shall determine the best possible course of action in order to respect the dignity of the person being lodged or transported.

Answer 1192

Officer and prisoners safety

Question 1193

This Procedure only applies to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a face-to-face encounter, to identify themself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected, only if that attempt is done for the purpose of

Answer 1193

(Give him the card)  inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or  inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or  gathering information for intelligence purposes. Notwithstanding the above, this Procedure does not apply to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual when  investigating an offence the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed;  the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer (e.g. during a traffic stop or trespass investigation);  the individual is under arrest or is being detained;  the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;  the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or  the individual is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officer’s duties.

Question 1194

Oic; When releasing a person shall make every effort to ensure the safety of that person given the

Answer 1194

age, gender or condition of | the person and the time and location of release.

Question 1195

Procedure The focus of police efforts for the purpose of bail hearings and detention orders must be the _______ of the ______ and the protection of the ______~______.

Answer 1195

Safety victim, general publi

Question 1196

Case Manager | If an accused person is presently before the courts shall

Answer 1196

 ensure the case manager at the unit managing the outstanding charge is notified of the new arrest, court date and location  ensure compliance with Procedure 02–01, as appropriate  ensure the items contained in the brief include a notation of the previous charge, court date and form of release  if the accused person is currently before the courts in another jurisdiction, notify the agency managing the case via CPIC of the date, time and location of the bail hearings for the new charges  ensure compliance with Procedure 05–11 for any breach of bail or non–compliance with conditional release If there is an outstanding warrant for the accused person in another jurisdiction, and the agency managing the charges indicates they will return the accused to that jurisdiction shall  ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 02–01  include a TPS 178 and a copy of the warrant in the Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) When seeking a detention order shall ensure  compliance with Procedure 12–01  opposition to bail is clearly noted and the grounds for continued detention are set out in the brief  when preparing the brief, a TPS – PS – Show Cause template has been completed in accordance with the format found in Appendix A a separate eReport containing the case manager’s recommended release conditions is included within the brief in the event a Justice decides that a detention order is not appropriate (see Appendix B for Guidelines for Bail Conditions) - The case manager should request an adjournment to the bail hearing when there are unfinished aspects of the investigation pertaining to bail and indicate an approximate time required to complete the investigation. Under ss. 516(1) of the CC, a Justice may adjourn these proceedings (Form 19) for a maximum of 3 clear days unless the accused person consents to a lengthier adjournment.  the victim is informed of the right to attend the bail hearing and consideration is given to calling the victim to testify at the bail hearing to present evidence when appropriate  compliance with Procedure 05–21, including the search and seizure provisions of the CC in cases involving violence, weapons, threats, intimidation or where there are concerns for the safety of the victim, witnesses or the accused person  consideration is given to seeking an Order of Weapons Prohibition under ss. 515(4.1) for the offences listed in ss. 515(4.1) (a) through (d)  consideration is given to seeking an Order of Non–Communication under ss. 515(12) or 516(2), as appropriate  consideration is given to requesting a psychiatric examination where there are grounds to believe, that except for the commission of a criminal act, the accused person acted in a manner that would require apprehension by a police officer under the Mental Health Act  consideration is given to seeking the assistance of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment section for a formal risk assessment in cases where there are concerns about the safety of the victim or witnesses  permission is sought from the Unit Commander, the detective sergeant or the Officer in Charge to attend the bail hearing for serious offences or at the request of the Crown and to co–ordinate any witnesses being called

Question 1197

Case Manager When seeking a detention order Where in the opinion of the case manager/investigator, the victim is believed to be at heightened risk due to the release of the accused shall ensure

Answer 1197

 the top section of a TPS 483 is completed and inserted in the Crown Brief  the outside of the Crown Brief is marked “Victim Notification” to alert Court Services that victim notification is required should the accused meet or be granted bail

Question 1198

Case Manager When seeking a judicial interim release shall ensure

Answer 1198

 compliance with Procedure 12–01  appropriate conditions are recommended in the event the accused person is released, focusing on restricting the behaviour of the accused person to ensure the safety of the victim and/or the public. Release conditions must be directly related to one of the grounds (primary, secondary or tertiary) outlined in ss. 515(10) CC. (See Appendix B for Guidelines for Bail Conditions) - Organized Crime Enforcement – Bail & Parole is the only police facility to be designated for the purpose of having an accused person report to police. This unit is open between 0900 and 2100 hours, Monday through Friday, except on statutory holidays.  compliance with Procedure 05–21 including the search and seizure provisions of the CC in cases involving violence, weapons, threats, intimidation or where there are concerns for the safety of the victim, witnesses or the accused person  if the accused person has access to firearms and other weapons in the course of their employment, the employer is promptly notified of any prohibition order arising from the bail hearing  consideration is given to using Procedure 17–04 to provide victim and public notifications, particularly in cases involving domestic violence, intimidation, and criminal harassment  the victim is informed of the right to attend the bail hearing and consideration is given to calling the victim to testify at the bail hearing to present evidence when appropriate  if the accused person is a young person, a YCJA Parent is served on the appropriate person When notified that bail has been granted to the accused shall  ensure that the conditions of release are communicated personally to the victim as soon as possible Bail conditions shall be communicated personally to the victim as close as possible to the time bail is granted and not delayed until the time the accused person is actually released. It is not sufficient to simply leave a message or letter outlining the release conditions at the victim’s address. The conditions contained on the release documents shall be reported to the victim. However, actual copies of the release documents are not to be given to the victim by the police. ensure the victim is notified of the next court date  ensure the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9-1-1 in emergency situations, and is referred to Victim Services Toronto for safety planning information  ensure the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program  ensure the victim is advised of the option of registering with the Ministry of the Attorney General Victim Support Line for release notification from a detention facility, if applicable  monitor all court appearances of the accused person for potential variances to the original bail conditions  if bail variances have been granted to the accused person, notify the victim as soon as possible of these changes

Question 1199

Case Manager Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim shall ensure

Answer 1199

 that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are  added as supplementary information to the original eReport  made in the  memorandum book or case book  TPS 483, if applicable  the Officer in Charge is notified of all results related to victim notification

Question 1200

Domestic Violence Investigator The DVI shall be responsible for ensuring the needs of the victim are met, effective management of the crime scene, including the gathering of evidence and ensure that a thorough and comprehensive investigation is conducted. When investigating a domestic violence occurrence shall  conduct a thorough and complete investigation  if the victim requires or requests medical attention, ensure the services of a DVCC are offered

Answer 1200

Read this entire thing pg 92

Question 1201

Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section to assist the victim in developing a personal safety plan What section is this in??

Answer 1201

Domestic Violence Investigator Shall pg92. Read the entire section

Question 1202

What is this in relation to in high risk cases, consider placing both the victim and accused in the CPIC ‘Special Interest to Police’ (SIP) category by submitting a completed TPS 227 according to the instructions on the form - The SIP category exists in CPIC to capture a wide range of information, including "persons who are dangerous to themselves or others" including, but not restricted to domestic situations. All SIP entries must include the specific reason (e.g. Dangerous Person – Domestic Violence) and should contain a caution for "Family Violence”.

Answer 1202

Domestic Violence Investigator | The DVI shall

Question 1203

ensure that two copies of a DVRM/ODARA are completed and included in the crown envelope for the first court appearance

Answer 1203

Domestic Violence Investigator | The DVI shall. Pg 93

Question 1204

Domestic Violence Investigator The DVI shall. Pg 93 When in receipt of a Domestic Violence report and the suspect has not been arrested shall

Answer 1204

ensure a further investigation is promptly conducted  lay charges where reasonable grounds exist and submit a TPS 227 with the eReport number  where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has not been arrested/charged within 24 hours of the offence, consider obtaining a warrant in compliance with Procedure 02–01  complete a Warrant Application Supplementary via eReport and enter the suspect’s information onto CPIC in the “WANT” category indicating that an arrest warrant is pending, if applicable The entry will be removed from CPIC after two business days if the warrant is not received.  if no charges are laid, add supplementary information to the original eReport explaining the reasons for such a decision

Question 1205

Domestic Violence Investigator The DVI shall. Pg 93 When in receipt of a Domestic Incident report where no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge shall

Answer 1205

 review all of the circumstances, including the responses to the ‘Risk Factor’ questions  generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be made available to the Office of the Chief Provincial Firearms Officer - The Firearms Act s. 5 (http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/F-11.6/FullText.html) indicates the types of offences/incidents which justify a FIP. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms licence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process or a subsequent review of the licence file by the Chief Firearms Officer.

Question 1206

Domestic Violence Investigator The DVI shall. Pg 93 When in receipt of a Domestic Incident report where no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge shall

Answer 1206

 review all of the circumstances, including the responses to the ‘Risk Factor’ questions  generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be made available to the Office of the Chief Provincial Firearms Officer - The Firearms Act s. 5 (http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/F-11.6/FullText.html) indicates the types of offences/incidents which justify a FIP. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms licence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process or a subsequent review of the licence file by the Chief Firearms Officer. Detective Sergeant

Question 1207

Unit Commander | Where a Service member is a suspect/accused in a domestic violence case shall

Answer 1207

 notify the appropriate Unit Commander, or if absent, the Duty Senior Officer of the circumstances surrounding the incident  comply with Procedure 13–08 or 13–10 when considering suspending the member  ensure the assistance of the EFAP, Victim Services Toronto and other community agencies are offered to the victim  ensure the suspect/accused is informed of the assistance available from the EFAP Where a member of another police service is a suspect/accused shall notify their Unit Commander, or if absent, the Duty Senior Officer of the circumstances.

Question 1208

Unit Commander/ Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre The Unit Commander, or in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer shall be responsible for ensuring all proper notifications are made when a member of a police service is a suspect or an accused. When notified a member of this Service is a suspect/accused shall

Answer 1208

 immediately advise PRS of the circumstances  for a matter involving a police officer, ensure compliance with Chapter 13 regarding conduct complaints  for all members, comply with Procedure 13–08 or 13–10 when considering suspension  ensure the assistance of the EFAP, Victim Services Toronto and other community agencies are offered to the victim ensure the suspect/accused is informed of the assistance available from the EFAP  where appropriate or requested, ensure appropriate arrangements are made in the workplace to ensure there is no direct contact between the victim and the suspect/accused When notified a member of another police service is a suspect/accused shall ensure  the Duty Officer of their service is contacted as soon as practicable  information is provided about the matter including  details of the incident  condition and status of the victim  charges laid, if applicable  whether bail is being opposed  date, time and location of the first court appearance, if applicable Definitions

Question 1209

Domestic | Bona Fide Reasons means

Answer 1209

 a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the Provincial Witness Protection Program;  a Crown Attorney is requesting information for disclosure purposes;  the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;  investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to ascertain the immigration status of a victim or witness.

Question 1210

Child in Need of Protection means a

Answer 1210

child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

Question 1211

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

Answer 1211

 homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;  sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching); ```  trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in section 24(1) Criminal Code; ```  occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;  missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;  occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;  criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,  any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 1212

Dominant Aggressor means the individual who has been the

Answer 1212

principal abuser, and not necessarily the person who initiated the violence that resulted in the attendance of police.

Question 1213

Victim means:

Answer 1213

 a person to whom harm was done or who suffered physical or emotional loss as a result of the commission of the offence; and  where the person described in paragraph (a) is dead, ill or otherwise incapable of making a statement referred to in subsection (1), includes the spouse or common-law partner or any relative of that person, anyone who has in law or fact the custody of that person or is responsible for the care or support of that person or any dependant of that person. [Source: Criminal Code, 722(4)]

Question 1214

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) means the program operated by the (

Answer 1214

Ontario) Ministry of the Attorney General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible. Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.

Question 1215

The Domestic Violence Risk Management – Ontario Domestic Assault Risk Assessment (DVRM/ODARA) is a report that shall be completed for all domestic violence occurrences.

Answer 1215

 Only an accredited DVI, who has received the ODARA training and received a certificate from Waypoint Health Center shall complete the DVRM/ODARA  Should be used as a tool to assist officers, supervisors and Crowns in managing domestic violence investigations and identifying risk factors that may exist in a domestic violence case  Victim participation in completing the DVRM is optimal and strongly encouraged  every effort should be made to improve relationships, build trust with the victim and promote victim participation,  however, an uncooperative or incapacitated victim does not preclude you from completing the report, as other sources of information are available  It is important that the accredited DVI conducting the investigation understands the purpose of each question and is able to assess and manage risk. They must make sure the victim has a good understanding of the question in order to get the required information.  The DVRM/ODARA must be completed and in the crown brief for the bail hearing Safety

Question 1216

When initiating a pursuit while operating an unmarked motor vehicle shall  request a _____~_____~____ attend and engage in the pursuit  immediately abandon the pursuit when a _______~_____~____ motor arrives and becomes engaged in the pursuit When engaged in a pursuit where

Answer 1216

Marked motor vehicle

Question 1217

When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall  immediately ________ the pursuit  bring the ________ or ______ motor vehicle to a safe stop  turn off _________ equipment, if equipped  advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been __________  provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle _________  advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle  prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete  a TPS 348

Answer 1217

When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall  immediately abandon the pursuit  bring the marked or unmarked motor vehicle to a safe stop  turn off emergency equipment, if equipped  advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been abandoned  provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle description  advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle  prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete  a TPS 348

Question 1218

When a person in custody has gender-affirming personal items or gender-affirming prosthetics on their person or in their possession shall: - assess whether to ________ the person to keep their gender affirming item or gender-affirming prosthetic - Assessments regarding the retention of gender-affirming personal articles including gender-affirming prosthetics shall be made on a _____~__~_____ basis complying with 1.9.2 Standards of Conduct considering all risk factors, including those contained in 01-02 Appendix B, 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E. All available accommodation options shall be considered when making an assessment. - permit the person to keep their item/device to the point of undue hardship  if allowing the person to retain the item, make the appropriate notation in the ________~_______ screen Upon determining that a person in custody _______ be accommodated, shall clearly articulate the reasons for the determination in the memorandum book and the ________] and ________ Template, including all accommodation options considered  if removing the item from the person, do so in compliance with Procedure 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E When notified in accordance with items 18 and 25 that a decision regarding a person’s accommodation while in custody requires reassessment, due to a change in circumstances, shall  reassess the situation accordingly

Answer 1218

assess whether to permit the person to keep their gender affirming item or gender-affirming prosthetic - Assessments regarding the retention of gender-affirming personal articles including gender-affirming prosthetics shall be made on a case by case basis complying with 1.9.2 Standards of Conduct considering all risk factors, including those contained in 01-02 Appendix B, 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E. All available accommodation options shall be considered when making an assessment. - permit the person to keep their item/device to the point of undue hardship  if allowing the person to retain the item, make the appropriate notation in the Property screen pon determining that a person in custody cannot be accommodated, shall clearly articulate the reasons for the determination in the memorandum book and the Booking and Search Template, including all accommodation options considered  if removing the item from the person, do so in compliance with Procedure 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E When notified in accordance with items 18 and 25 that a decision regarding a person’s accommodation while in custody requires reassessment, due to a change in circumstances, shall  reassess the situation accordingly

Question 1219

When removing personal property from persons in custody shall ensure  prior to removing the property, the person is informed of the _________ concerns that require its removal  the property is removed, inventoried and secured in a property bag in compliance with Procedures 01–02, 09–01 and 09–06 - The property bag may remain _________ for investigative purposes providing it is in a _________ location, but must be sealed prior to transport. The ________ property bag shall accompany the prisoner through the justice system.  the person’s money is counted and other property are inventoried aloud and on camera in the presence of the individual  all money and property are recorded in the Property screen  the person signs the Property form, as directed in Procedure 09–06  the property is inventoried on camera as it is returned to the person upon their release from custody When a person in custody has an item of religious signific

Answer 1219

When removing personal property from persons in custody shall ensure  prior to removing the property, the person is informed of the safety concerns that require its removal  the property is removed, inventoried and secured in a property bag in compliance with Procedures 01–02, 09–01 and 09–06 - The property bag may remain unsealed for investigative purposes providing it is in a secured location, but must be sealed prior to transport. The sealed property bag shall accompany the prisoner through the justice system.  the person’s money is counted and other property are inventoried aloud and on camera in the presence of the individual  all money and property are recorded in the Property screen  the person signs the Property form, as directed in Procedure 09–06  the property is inventoried on camera as it is returned to the person upon their release from custody When a person in custody has an item of religious signific

Question 1220

Officer in Charge – Central Lock–up | When receiving a prisoner to be held pending transportation to Bail Court shall ensure

Answer 1220

 the crown envelope is completed in compliance with Procedure 12–01  compliance with Procedure 01–03  the accused person is fingerprinted prior to transport to court in compliance with Procedure 01–07  the completed crown envelope court calendar arrive at court for the first appearance

Question 1221

Detective Sergeant | Upon receipt of a completed TPS 483 and/or release documents from the Officer in Charge shall

Answer 1221

 review the completed documents |  ensure the original documents are forwarded to the appropriate case manager

Question 1222

Warrant in the First Instance A peace officer, who believes that an offence has been committed by a person not yet apprehended, may seek a warrant in the first instance upon presentation of an Information to a Justice. The Justice must be given reasonable grounds to believe that it is in the public interest that a warrant be issued. The ‘public interest’ may include

Answer 1222

 the accused has fled  the accused is evading capture  danger to the public  danger to the victim and/or witnesses  nature and/or seriousness of the offence  all attempts to locate the suspect have been exhausted Persons arrested on a warrant in the first must be presented to the court for a bail hearing unless the warrant was ________ by the issuing Justice authorizing the release of the arrested person by an Officer in Charge. The Officer in Charge retains the discretion to release when the warrant is _______. Endorsed

Question 1223

Warrants of Committal A warrant of committal may be issued by the court upon the conviction of an accused for an offence. It directs peace officers to arrest the named/described individual and generally, in default of ________ of _________ penalty set by the court, to serve a period of time in jail. Warrants of committal also include warrants issued for criminal convictions, small claims court warrants, federal/provincial parole violations, Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and provincial matters such as the Family Responsibility Act, the Trespass to Property Act, Safe Streets Act and the Highway Traffic Act. Persons arrested solely on warrants of committal are not __________. They are to be processed according to the instructions contained within the body of the warrant. Members executing a Warrant of Committal shall also comply with Procedure 02–02.

Answer 1223

Payment of monetary not to be brought before the court

Question 1224

Bench Warrants A bench warrant is an arrest warrant in Form _______ issued by a Justice having jurisdiction when an accused has failed to attend court  when directed by _______~______~_____~_______, Entered Before an Officer in Charge, Judicial Interim Release, or  when directed by the court to return on a subsequent date When a person is arrested pursuant to a Superior Court bench warrant, the __________________~~~~~

Answer 1224

7 Summons, Appearance Notice, Promise to Appear, Recognizance the Superior Court Liaison Detective shall be advised forthwith by telephone, voicemail or TPS eFax of the following information  name of the accused  date of birth  charge  date of issue of the bench warrant In the case of a bench warrant issued for drug charges, the person must be taken to Old City Hall Courts for a show cause hearing. Bench Warrants – Fail to Appear or Additional Charge Being Laid If a "Fail to Appear" or additional charge is laid in relation to the execution of a bench warrant issued by the Superior Court of Justice (Superior Court), the new charge will be heard in the Ontario Court of Justice (OCJ). However, the individual must appear at the Superior Court on the bench warrant before any other court appearances for new or additional charges. In circumstances where the Superior Court is not sitting, a remand to the next sitting date of the Superior Court shall be sought at the bail hearing. Members shall make a prominent notation on the confidential crown envelope (crown envelope) to ensure that the person is not released until appearances have been made in both courts. A TPS 178 shall be completed and given to a court officer at the OCJ.

Question 1225

Case managers shall advise the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue by ___________or _______ of the execution of a Superior Court bench warrant at the time of processing. When a Superior Court bench warrant is issued, the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue shall advise the _______~_______ in the division in which the original charges were laid. In the case of a person appearing on Toronto Police Service (Service) charges but also wanted on a warrant held by another jurisdiction, a TPS _____ shall be completed and given to a court officer at the Superior Court.

Answer 1225

telephone or TPS eFax Advise the warrant officer 178

Question 1226

A surety warrant is issued when the person who is acting as surety appears before a Justice and requests ______ from the obligations of being a surety. Upon issue of a surety warrant by the Justice, the accused can be arrested and a new bail hearing must be held on the original charges. The original Information must be obtained and taken to court for the commencement of the new bail hearing. If the accused is show caused at the court where the warrant originated, a clerk from Court Services will retrieve the Information. If the accused is show caused at a court other than where the original Information is held, the ______~_______ shall arrange to obtain the Information and bring it to court.

Answer 1226

Relief Arresting unit

Question 1227

Material Witness Warrants Material witness warrants are issued by a Justice for the apprehension of a witness who is _______ service of a subpoena or has not appeared in court after being served a _________ (s. 698 and 705 CC). No _______is ______as a result of the warrant being issued. Following an arrest, a bail hearing must be held to determine if the witness should be released until required to appear and give evidence. A person arrested solely for a material witness warrant shall not be ________.

Answer 1227

Evading subpoena charge is laid charge is laid

Question 1228

Immigration Warrants Under section A55(1) of the __________and _______~______act, a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a _______~~~~~~whom the officer has reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for ___________, for an ________ hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA. When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons such as receipt of a _____~_____~_____~_____(PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre (CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest on the CBSA’s behalf.

Answer 1228

Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA) permanent resident or a foreign national Examination, admissibility pre–removal risk assessment

Question 1229

Family Responsibility Arrest Warrants The Family Responsibility Office (FRO) is a centralized enforcement program mandated to enforce _______ and _____ court orders in the Province of Ontario. Staff from the FRO may commence and conduct proceedings on behalf of support recipients in the family court to ensure ________and _______ support payments are made, including conducting a Default Hearing under s.41 of the Family Responsibility and Support Arrears Enforcement Act (FRSAEA). If a support payor fails to attend a FRSAEA Default Hearing, the court may issue a warrant for arrest (Form 32B) under s. 41(7) of the FRSAEA. The warrant of arrest directs officers to take the named person to court so that a Justice can issue an undertaking to appear (Form 131) to the person, directing them to attend a later court date. When a support payor is arrested on this type of warrant, the person may be taken to the ________ court, or if the court is not sitting, brought before a _______ of the Peace as soon as possible to be dealt with according to law.

Answer 1229

Child and spousal child and spousal Family Justice

Question 1230

FRSAEA

Answer 1230

Responsibility and Support Arrears Enforcement Act

Question 1231

For provincial matters, a _______to______~_______ is required by the Provincial Offences Act (POA) for property seized under the authority of a search warrant, or when property is seized without warrant during the performance an officer’s duties under a ______~______~_____, and where no procedure for dealing with the seized thing is otherwise provided by law. All applications for the detention of property seized shall be made to a Justice at the appropriate court location between (_____hint…. Times and days etc—-)

Answer 1231

Return To Search Warrant (TPS 130) Provincial Offences Statute 0900 and 1600 hours, Monday to Friday (weekends and statutory holidays excluded).

Question 1232

Disposition of Property The police officer may elect to manage seized property in the following manner  return the property to the ______~_____, if no charges have been laid and there is no dispute as to who is lawfully entitled to possession of the thing seized  hold for ________~______, where charges are pending or no charges laid and includes abandoned property  _______~________of seized property where charges are laid and the seized property is required for further investigation, preliminary inquiry, trial or other proceeding The police officer shall consult with a _______~_______for direction on the return of property which was seized as evidence, prior to returning any property to the lawful owner.

Answer 1232

lawful owner further investigation continued detention crown attorney f

Question 1233

Retention of Found Property Police officers are advised that found property is governed by the Police Services Act (PSA). The following are guidelines for retention:  found bikes: _______ consecutive days  all other general property: ____ consecutive days Finders of property listed above are able to claim the found property within a ____ consecutive day grace period, provided the retention period has expired and the lawful owner cannot be ascertained.

Answer 1233

30 90 7

Question 1234

Members who may file a Report to a Justice (Form 5.2) When a search warrant had been executed, the officer completing the Form 5.2 and attending a Report to a Justice Hearing may include:

Answer 1234

```  affiant of the search warrant  case manager  exhibits officer  seizing officer. In addition, when property is seized without warrant, a common informant may file the Form 5.2 under the conditions outlined in item 3. ```

Question 1235

Asset Forfeiture / Offence – Related Property In all instances where property, including cash, is seized as proceeds of crime or offence–related property, officers shall contact the _____~____~____~_____~____~____ as soon as possible. When seizing property as proceeds of crime or offence–related, the corresponding ______ forms must be completed and inserted into the ______~_____. The Asset Forfeiture section will co–ordinate and provide expertise in cases involving the seizure of monies and other assets obtained through criminal activity. The Asset Forfeiture section may also participate in cases where the investigating unit is unable to provide the necessary resources to conduct the proceeds investigation. Officers shall comply with Procedure 05–15.

Answer 1235

Organized Crime Enforcement – Financial Crimes – Asset Forfeiture (Asset Forfeiture section) forfeiture crown envelope

Question 1236

Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services – Large Seizures Officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who have large seizures at major crime scenes shall submit an ______\~_____to the case manager listing all property seized. The case manager shall ensure that a Form 5.2 is subsequently completed and filed in court.

Answer 1236

exhibit list

Question 1237

Continued Detention Order Once seized property has  been entered as an _______ at a preliminary inquiry, trial or other legal proceeding or  where charges are laid an Order for Continued Detention is ____~_____ required. The detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed ____ months from the date of seizure. When further detention of the seized property is required beyond the ______month period, a TPS 143 shall be completed. The cumulative period of detention shall not exceed ______ from the date of the seizure. All applications for the continued detention of seized property shall be made before a Justice in the court location where the search warrant was ______ and/or the Form ______ was filed. In circumstances where it is necessary to detain property beyond ______, an application for continued detention shall be made before a Superior Court Justice. Such applications will be made through the Office of the Crown Attorney. Legal Services (LSV) is available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager on this process.

Answer 1237

Exhibit no longer 3 3 1 year Issued 5.2 1 year

Question 1238

Forfeiture Order In order to lawfully dispose of seized property at the completion of a case, it is essential to have the applicable Forfeiture Orders placed inside the crown envelope during the initial investigation. Member After seizing property with or without warrant, the police officer seizing the property shall  complete the applicable Form ____  place the paperwork into the_____~____ When property has been seized as a result of the execution of a search warrant and  charges laid, or  no charges laid, or  charges are pending  whenever possible, the police officer who obtained the search warrant and the officer signing the Form 5.2 with warrant shall be the ______ person  the Report to a Justice Hearing shall be made before a Justice in the ________ court location where the search warrant was ______ Officers may use a common informant to file the Form 5.2 when property has been seized without a warrant and  the accused is held for a show cause hearing  the accused is released on a Form 9 or Form 10  charges are laid and/or proceeding by way of a Criminal Summons  charges are pending. Items 2 and 3 also governs when property is seized for further investigation and charges are pending. There is no requirement to complete a Form 5.2 when _______ property is seized without warrant and  no arrest is made or charges laid, or  there are no charges pending. In the case of a telewarrant shall file the Form 5.2 in the ______ jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed. When a court officer seizes property during a tour of duty shall comply with

Answer 1238

5.2 crown envelope Same Same Issued Abandoned In the case of a telewarrant shall file the Form 5.2 in the __same ___ jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed.

Question 1239

When attending a Report to a Justice Hearing shall  comply with Procedure 04–21  complete an crown envelope in compliance with Procedure 12–01. Mark in ______ on the front ‘______to a _________ and insert a copy of  the search warrant and appendices  the_____ from the eReport outlining  the _______ of the search  the date and time of the search and seizure  the accused name, a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect, if known and a list of charges pending  the connection between any _____~_____and charges laid or _______ ______  the _______ of property seized, including the reason any property is required to be held  when a search warrant was executed, complete a Form 5.2 with warrant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith  when property is seized without warrant, complete a Form ____ ______~____ or form ______ make 2 copies of the Form 5.2 and note at the top of each form which is the original and which are the copies

Answer 1239

Red Report to a Justice’ Synopsis Location property seized and charges laid or charges pending Disposition 5.2 without warrant or Form 5.2 without Warrant – Common Informant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith When appearing before a Justice, in addition to the above items listed in the crown envelope, may be asked to produce  the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable  a copy of the original Information to Obtain a Search Warrant (Information), if applicable  the seized property when directed by a Justice Where it is not feasible to transport the seized property to the courthouse shall photograph or videotape the evidence.  Drugs and dangerous materials shall not be taken to court.  The Information, or a copy thereof, shall not be filed with the Court or placed in the crown envelope

Question 1240

Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall  file the original signed Form _____ at the ______, attached to the______~_____ if applicable  place _____ copy of the signed Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within _____ days for Federal cases and _____ days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable  send ______ copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable  e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the _______&______~_____~______unit (____) and the Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS - The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the _ _ _ _ _.  comply with Appendix A After seizing property under the authority of the POA shall comply with applicable items 2 to 9, substituting TPS _____ for the Form 5.2, as applicable.

Answer 1240

5.2, Court, original Information, 1 14, 28 1 copy Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) Emailed to PVEMU 130

Question 1241

If a Justice refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall  request that the ________ be given on record  notify the _____~______by e-mail of the refusal, and request that the seizing officer attend in person to file the Form 5.2  complete a TPS ______ outlining the date and time, court location, name of the Justice and the circumstances, and submit to the ______~_____through the next level supervisor

Answer 1241

Reason case manager Tps649 Unit Commander

Question 1242

Case Manager When property has been seized as a result of a multi–jurisdictional and/or joint forces operation shall ensure a Form ______ is completed and filed before a Judge.  The Form ______ is not contained in TPS Forms. Officers shall refer to the CC for the appropriate wording.

Answer 1242

5.3

Question 1243

The Case Manager When in receipt of an e-mail notice from a_______~_____ indicating that a Justice has_________ to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the _______~_______ status shall ensure  the______~_______ attends a Report to a Justice Hearing, as soon as practicable  the _______ ________ submits a TPS 649 to their Unit Commander indicating the date, time, court location, name of the Justice and circumstances

Answer 1243

common informant refused refused common informant seizing officer

Question 1244

Where a Forfeiture Order is required shall ensure | Receipt one to read

Answer 1244

 at the time the charges are laid, the original applicable Forfeiture Order and 1 copy, (both shall be left blank) are included in the crown envelope  a copy of the applicable property reports are appended to each Forfeiture Order and placed inside the crown envelope  the forfeiture section on the back of the crown envelope is completed in full  the crown prosecutor is made aware that a Forfeiture Order form is in the crown envelope prior to the trial and sentencing of the accused - The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that Crown Prosecutors are made aware of their obligation under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized prior to sentencing, if applicable to the case. Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a drop box located in the Detective Sergeant’s office at the courthouse. At the conclusion of the sentencing, if forfeiture of the property is not granted, shall ensure the Property Disposition Inquiry (PDI) application on the TPS Network is updated, indicating the disposition of all property. Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall  give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used  serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least 3 business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date of the Hearing on the  person from whom the property was seized, or  lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or  the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been served with a “Notice of Hearing”  if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least 2 days prior to the Hearing date  a copy of the original crown envelope, containing  a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable  a copy of the original TPS 143  a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining  the location of the search  the date and time of the search  the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if known  the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending  the reason the property needs to be held  appear before the Justice at the court with  a copy of the TPS 141  the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,  a TPS 143, in duplicate  a copy of the original Form 5.2 and appendices, if applicable

Question 1245

The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that Crown Prosecutors are made aware of their obligation under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized ________ to__________, if applicable to the case. Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a_____~______ located in the ______~_______office at the courthouse.

Answer 1245

prior to sentencing Drop box Detective sergeant’s

Question 1246

At the conclusion of the sentencing, if forfeiture of the property is not granted, shall ensure the Property Disposition Inquiry (PDI) application on the TPS Network is updated, indicating the disposition of all property. Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall  give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than _____ days prior to the expiration of the current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used  serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least _____ business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date of the Hearing on the  person from whom the property was seized, or  lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or  the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been served with a “Notice of Hearing”  if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least _____ days prior to the Hearing date  a copy of the original crown envelope, containing  a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable  a copy of the original TPS 143  a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining  the ______ of the search  the date and time of the search  the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if known  the connection between any ______~______ and ______~_____ or_____~_____  the reason the property needs to be held  appear before the Justice at the court with  a copy of the TPS _____  the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,  a TPS _____, in duplicate  a copy of the original Form 5.2 and appendices, if applicable after the TPS 143 has been signed by the Justice, e-mail all the information to PVEMU and the case manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report To Justice – PPB/TPS  The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.

Answer 1246

30 3 2 days Location property seized and charges laid or charges pending 141 143 after the TPS 143 has been signed by the Justice, e-mail all the information to PVEMU and the case manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report To Justice – PPB/TPS  The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.

Question 1247

Where an Order for Continued Detention is required beyond____~_____ shall consult with the Office of the Crown Attorney prior to making an application before a _____~______~____.  Legal Services is available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager. After the Order for Continued Detention beyond ______ _______ has been signed by the Justice shall e-mail the information on the Order for Continued Detention of property seized to ________ using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report To Justice – PPB/TPS.

Answer 1247

12 months Superior Court Justice 12 months PVEMU

Question 1248

Detective Sergeant (Crown Liaison) – Court Services  The Crown Liaison in each court location shall ensure  a TPS _____~_____ is available for crown prosecutors to place the signed ________ Orders  all received ________Orders are forwarded to the Unit Commander –_______ prior to the completion of their tour of duty

Answer 1248

drop box Forfeiture Forfeiture PVEMU

Question 1249

Common Informant the purposes of court disclosure means a divisional_______ officer, or an on-duty designate, or a _____~____who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties. _______~_____ may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only) and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held for a show cause hearing.

Answer 1249

Warrant court officer Court officers

Question 1250

Continued Detention means the detention of property beyond the initial___~_______ from the date of seizure.

Answer 1250

3 months

Question 1251

Justice means a | (

Answer 1251

Justice of the Peace or a Provincial Court Judge

Question 1252

Peace Officer – Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means a

Answer 1252

police officer, or a court officer who | is a sworn peace officer.

Question 1253

Property means any

Answer 1253

article and/or document found by, seized by, surrendered to, or intended to be surrendered to a Service member.

Question 1254

Seized Property means a thing, including

Answer 1254

informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent.

Question 1255

Seizing Officer means a

Answer 1255

peace officer who has seized property, either with or without a search warrant, and includes a court officer during the lawful execution of their duties.

Question 1256

Death investigations Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for 

Answer 1256

suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide  sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

Question 1257

Death investigations Supervisory Divisional Detective attendance mandatory for

Answer 1257

 death of a child under 5  sudden unexpected death of a child  unnatural sudden death  sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

Question 1258

Death investigations | Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for

Answer 1258

 attempt suicide  unable to confirm/establish identity of the deceased person  unable to determine next of kin  unable to notify next of kin in person  request by another police service to notify next of kin

Question 1259

Pronouncing Death No person, except a qualified medical practitioner, has the authority to pronounce a person dead. The only exceptions are where:

Answer 1259

 death appears obvious due to decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of cranial or visceral contents, or a grossly charred body, or  a base hospital physician has declared death through consultation with an on–scene paramedic. Any person who has not been pronounced dead by a qualified medical practitioner or does not fall within the above noted exceptions must be treated as a living patient. Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics) will respond in all cases to render medical assistance as required but will not transport individuals pronounced or obviously dead. A deceased person will only be transported by Paramedics away from public view when a body removal service is not readily available. Deceased persons will not be transported in the same vehicle as a living patient. Officers are reminded to remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play in every circumstance where there is:  a sudden, unexpected death, and  also present at the time of death or the finding of a body, a partner, and particularly a partner with whom the deceased had or may have had an intimate relationship, recent or remote.

Question 1260

Office of the Chief Coroner The Coroner will be notified and requested to attend in all cases of unnatural sudden death. The Coroner will be responsible for pronouncing death in the absence of another qualified medical practitioner and will authorize the removal of the body. The Coroner may be consulted in cases of sudden death by______ causes at the discretion of the______~_____

Answer 1260

natural investigating officer.

Question 1261

Death investigations After pronouncement of death, the body should not be_______or ______ without the direction of the_______. However, it may be possible to allow the family early access and/or movement of the body following the initial discussion with the Coroner regarding the circumstances of death.

Answer 1261

Touched or moved Coroner

Question 1262

Death of a Child Under Five Years of Age Every sudden unexpected death of a child or the death of a child under 5 years of age must be actively investigated as _______, and premature conclusions should not be made regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough investigation has been completed. Officers shall comply with the applicable sections of Procedure 05–01 when conducting such investigations.

Answer 1262

suspicious

Question 1263

Identification of the Deceased The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

Answer 1263

 homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences  cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer  cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called  when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the identification. If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons.

Question 1264

Identification of the Deceased The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances: ________,_______~_____ or other related criminal offences  cases where the investigating officer has requested the_______of ______~________  cases where an______ has been or is likely to be called  when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the identification. If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the_______~_____~____ is notified via the global e-mail address at____________.

Answer 1264

homicide, suspected homicide presence of another officer inquest Missing Person Unit (MPU) MissingPersons

Question 1265

Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the post mortem examination room is determined by the________ of the Facility and will be granted only to those who have an essential need to be present, including:  officers from Detective Operations – _______~________~______who are directly related to the case being autopsied and have a need for ________ and evidence collection a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons. Access will be granted only to officers who have an ______, _______ or ______ Need to be present Attendance should be restricted to the________~_______ period only unless there is a pertinent, reasonable need to be present through the entire post mortem examination. An office has been set–up exclusively for officers to await the examination results.

Answer 1265

Medical Director Forensic Identification Services (FIS) Photographs police officer operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to external examination

Question 1266

Death investigations First Police Officer The first police officer to arrive at the scene shall be responsible for

Answer 1266

offender management (if applicable), preservation of the evidence and the crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator. When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall attend the scene promptly. Upon arrival at the scene shall  designate a line of approach to the victim that allows for the least contamination possible  take charge of the scene until the arrival of a supervisory officer  in the absence of a doctor or Paramedics personnel  assess the vital signs and responsiveness of the victim  administer first–aid if signs of life are present while using the universal precautions as detailed in Procedure 08–07  ensure the victim receives immediate medical attention  request additional assistance as required  request the attendance of a supervisory officer  pending the arrival of a supervisory officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks  advise Paramedics and Toronto Fire Services (TFS) personnel of medical and suicide attempt details  if the body has been moved, make note of the original position and any items moved to gain access to the body  ensure the communications operator is advised of the details of the incident  conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check  determine whether any of the individuals involved in the occurrence own, possess or have access to a firearm, ammunition, firearms certificate, registration certificate, permit, licence or authorization and comply with Procedure 05–21  Officer and public safety is compromised when firearms are left in a deceased’s dwelling and may come into the possession of an unlicensed person and/or person untrained to properly handle firearms.  ensure a police officer accompanies the victim to hospital Additional Police Officers When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall  attend the scene promptly  in the absence of a supervisory officer take direction from the first police officer Police Officers Upon discovering  the death of a child under 5 years of age  the sudden unexpected death of a child  a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found human remains  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstances  shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

Question 1267

Members initiated in the Sikh religion may wear the 5 Kakaars or 5 Ks. These physical symbols of Khalsa are the Kesh, Kanga, Kara, Kachhera and Kirpan (which will be no more than in ___________ in length). The Kesh (uncut hair) shall be worn in accordance with Appendix F. The Kesh (uncut hair) to be covered by a police issued Dastar (turban), wrapped in the members preferred manner with the issued rank specific coloured uniform band/stripe attached to the Dastar (turban)

Answer 1267

19.05 cm (7.5 inches)

Question 1268

Any jewellery or non–issued articles lost, stolen, damaged or destroyed shall not be repaired or replaced at the expense of the Service, except when otherwise authorized by the _____~_____~____

Answer 1268

Chief Administrative Officer.

Question 1269

(CPLC)

Answer 1269

Community Police Liaison Committee (CPLC) means a divisional committee that represents all segments of the community.

Question 1270

Car Camera System Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2021.01.27-0065 Replaces: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Rationale The In–Car Camera System (ICCS) is a multifaceted tool that can:

Answer 1270

 enhance public trust and police legitimacy;  enhance public and police officer safety;  enhance the commitment to bias-free service delivery by officers to the public;  provide a tool to facilitate early resolution of complaints; and  provide improved evidence for investigative, judicial and oversight purposes; and  provide information as to the effectiveness of Service procedures and training The Service is committed to maintaining the public trust by delivering professional and unbiased policing at all times. The ICCS is a valuable tool in remaining accountable to the community and maintaining its trust.

Question 1271

The In–Car Camera System (ICCS) is a multifaceted tool that can:  enhance _____~____and _____~_____  enhance _________and______~____ safety;  enhance the commitment to_____~_____ service delivery by officers to the public;  provide a tool to facilitate early_______ of complaints; and  provide improved______ for ______, judicial and oversight purposes; and  provide information as to the effectiveness of Service_______and ______

Answer 1271

public trust and police legitimacy; Public and police officer bias-free resolution evidence for evidence procedures and training

Question 1272

Chief’s Administrative Investigation | Service investigations within this category will be conducted through PSS to determine issues related

Answer 1272

to the policies of, or services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers. Subject Officials, Witness Officials or any other member of the Service shall provide the assigned investigator with a copy of their notes, and shall make themselves available for an interview, when directed.

Question 1273

Office of the Chief Coroner | The Coroner will be notified and requested to attend in all cases of

Answer 1273

unnatural sudden death. The Coroner will be responsible for pronouncing death in the absence of another qualified medical practitioner and will authorize the removal of the body.

Question 1274

The Coroner may be consulted in cases of sudden death by _________~______ at the discretion of the investigating officer.

Answer 1274

Natural causes

Question 1275

After pronouncement of death, the body should not be touched or moved without the direction of the ________. However, it may be possible to allow the _______ early access and/or movement of the body following the initial discussion with the ________ regarding the circumstances of death.

Answer 1275

Coroner Family Coroner

Question 1276

Death of a Child Under ______ Years of Age Every sudden unexpected death of a child or the death of a child under _____ years of age must be actively investigated as suspicious, and premature conclusions should not be made regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough investigation has been completed.

Answer 1276

Five 18

Question 1277

Identification of the Deceased The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be _________ present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

Answer 1277

physically  homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences  cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer  cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called  when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the identification. If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons.

Question 1278

Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the ______~_____~______ room is determined by the _______~_______ of the Facility and will be granted only to those who have an essential need to be present, including:

Answer 1278

post mortem examination Medical Director officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who are directly related to the case being autopsied and have a need for photographs and evidence collection  a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons. Access will be granted only to officers who have an operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to be present.

Question 1279

First Police Officer The first police officer to arrive at the scene shall be responsible for _______~_______ (if applicable), ________ of the _________ and the crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator.

Answer 1279

offender management preservation of the evidence

Question 1280

When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall attend the scene _________. Upon arrival at the scene shall  designate a ________ of _______ to the victim that allows for the least ___________ possible  take charge of the scene until the arrival of a _______~_______  in the absence of a doctor or Paramedics personnel  assess the ______~_____and responsiveness of the victim  administer ______~______ if signs of life are present while using the universal precautions as detailed in Procedure 08–07  ensure the victim receives immediate _______~______  request additional assistance as required  request the attendance of a ________ officer  pending the arrival of a _______ officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks  advise Paramedics and Toronto Fire Services (TFS) personnel of medical and suicide attempt details  if the body has been moved, make note of the _________~\_______and any items moved to gain access to the body  ensure the communications operator is advised of the details of the incident  conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check  determine whether any of the individuals involved in the occurrence ______,_______ or have access to a ________, _________, _________~______,_______~_______~________ and comply with Procedure 05–21  Officer and public safety is compromised when _________ are left in a deceased’s dwelling and may come into the possession of an unlicensed person and/or person untrained to properly handle firearms.  ensure a police officer accompanies the victim to hospital Additional Police Officers When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall  attend the scene promptly  in the absence of a _________ officer take direction from the ______ police officer

Answer 1280

promptly Line of approach contamination supervisory officer vital signs first–aid medical attention supervisory supervisory original position own, possess or have access to a firearm, ammunition, firearms certificate, registration certificate, permit, licence Firearms Supervisory First

Question 1281

Police Officers Upon discovering  the death of a child under ______ years of age  the sudden unexpected death of a _____  a suspicious death or suspected ________, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found ______~______  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstances  shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

Answer 1281

5 Child Homicide human remains

Question 1282

Upon discovering a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall  remain vigilant for the possibility of _________~______  request the attendance of a _________ officer and a divisional detective

Answer 1282

foul play supervisory

Question 1283

When investigating an unnatural sudden death shall  request the attendance of a _________officer and a ________~________  request the attendance and confirmation of notification of the _____  leave the body undisturbed when death has been pronounced or where death appears obvious due to decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of cranial or visceral contents, or a grossly charred body The Coroner will determine when the body will be ________.  promptly notify the Coroner, Paramedics and hospital personnel if a properly completed ______ form relating to organ donation is located  record all relevant details in the memorandum book, including the  circumstances relating to the finding of the body  position and description of the body  physical characteristics of the scene  description of the _______ to and from the body  personal information on the deceased, including but not limited to  name, address, date and place of birth  occupation, marital status  personal physician and medical history  Ontario Health / other insurance card, Welfare number, Social Insurance Number  name, address, occupation and relationship of next of kin  name, address, phone number and occupation of  the person finding the body  all other persons present  any persons who have left the scene  method of _______, if applicable  text of any suicide _______or ______~_____ if applicable  any relevant information obtained from witnesses and other persons on scene  canvass the immediate area for any witnesses, where appropriate  notify the Supervisory Officer if the identification of the deceased cannot be determined  request the attendance of an FIS investigator, where applicable A Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) may only be assigned to examine crime scenes at the discretion of the Officer ___ ~ ______~______

Answer 1283

supervisory officer and a divisional detective Coroner Removed Consent Approach suicide note or criminal writing,

Question 1284

A SOCO shall not be assigned to death investigations involving  the sudden, unexpected death of a _____  the death of a child under _____ years of age  a suspicious death or suspected _______. When a death occurs on TTC property, an FIS Investigator or a ______ (with approval from FIS) will ______ the scene.  request FIS to fingerprint and photograph the deceased if  any outstanding _______~_______exist  an active criminal record is found  the identification of the deceased is in question  if an outstanding warrant exists, or a document relating to bail or parole is found, notify the respective unit or police service  if in a public place, ensure the area is cleaned of blood, bodily fluids, etc., when necessary - Either TFS or Toronto Transportation Services may be able to assist.

Answer 1284

child 5 homicide SOCO photograph criminal warrants

Question 1285

When investigating a death where the deceased is found in a bathtub shall record in the memorandum book any of the following information that apply

Answer 1285

 the approximate depth and temperature (e.g. hot, cold or room temperature) of any water present in the bathtub  the position of the body (e.g. supine, prone or some other position)  which end of the bathtub the head was positioned  whether the body is wet or dry, including the hair  whether the head is submerged at least up to and including mouth and nose  whether the fingers and/or feet show signs of prolonged immersion  whether there is evidence of froth in the mouth or nose  whether the water stopper is engaged  whether there is evidence to suggest that the deceased may have fallen into the bathtub. - A finding of drowning is rarely based on definitive autopsy findings. Information from the initial responder is therefore often critical in these cases in determining the cause and manner of death.

Question 1286

These are associated to;  ensure the electrical power is turned off before approaching the track level  comply with Procedure 10–10  make every effort to restore subway service as soon as practicable Undue subway delays cause safety concerns and a tremendous inconvenience to the TTC and the public.

Answer 1286

When investigating a fatal vehicle collision shall also comply with

Question 1287

When investigating a death on TTC property, upon the direction of the ______ shall  obtain a _______ from under the platform, place the body and any dismembered parts on the ______ and remove from public view only after  the _________ has authorized the removal of the body, and  the scene has been _________, and  a supervisor or detective has been consulted and authorized the removal of the body  if the body must be moved prior to the scene being ________, outline the position of the body Unless otherwise directed, there is no requirement to await the arrival of a ________ prior to removing the body. All subway platforms have rooms available, out of public view, where the body may be removed at the ________ direction. This permits the _____ a timely return to service and protects the sensibilities of the public. These rooms also allow for temporary storage of the remains until such time as body removal services are available.  ensure the area is clear before arranging for the _______~_____to be restored

Answer 1287

Coroner stretcher stretcher Coroner photographed photographed detective Coroner’s TTC electrical power

Question 1288

When investigating an attempt suicide/suicide by apparent gas poisoning (natural gas, carbon monoxide, etc.) shall  ensure that no person in the immediate area uses any item which may cause

Answer 1288

unintentional ignition, such as an open flame, cigarette, electric switch, doorbell, cellular telephone or portable radio, etc.  if it is safe to do so turn off the source of the gas  remove the victim to fresh air  conduct a search of the location for other persons and remove them to safety When there are concerns that a hazard continues to exist shall  evacuate all persons in compliance with Procedure 10–09  request assistance to evaluate the hazard  not remain in the area - The TFS, local utilities, and the Ministry of the Environment are equipped to remove such hazards.  consider the notification and attendance of the Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) in compliance with Procedure 10–08

Question 1289

When investigating an attempt suicide/suicide by drug overdose or ingestion of poison shall  exercise extreme caution and comply with Procedure 08-06 - ______ is a powerful ______~_____that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. As it may be skin permeable, proper handling of suspected _______ is essential to minimizing potential health risks for members.  refrain from handling any container containing a poison until advised that it is safe to do so  collect evidence in compliance with Procedure 04–21  consult with ______ to determine if any items are to be removed from the scene  when seizing prescription and controlled substances on behalf of the ________ or in relation to a criminal investigation, complete the applicable eReport including, where possible  names of the ________ located at death scene  prescription number  prescribed to (patient name)  dosage instructions  name of the pharmacy where the prescription was filled  date of the prescription  name of the prescribing physician  number of pills, vials or patches, etc. prescribed and remaining - Medications should not be taken to ______~______ units or ______~______~______ units unless specifically requested by the pathologist, and only following a case–by–case consideration. _______ shall not be placed in the body bag or otherwise sent with the body.  comply with Procedures 02–19 and 09–04 when seizing illicit drugs/substances, prescription and controlled substances pursuant to the Coroners Act, Controlled Drugs and Substances Act or the Food and Drugs Act, as applicable

Answer 1289

Fentanyl synthetic opioid fentanyl FIS Coroner medication Forensic Pathology Units or hospital–based pathology units, Medications

Question 1290

When investigating an attempt suicide or death by gunshot shall  comply with Procedure 05–21  if the firearm must be _____ for safety reasons, ensure detailed notes are completed regarding the condition of the firearm, including the _______ of the action, safety, and any ammunition  when seizing any firearm, ensure the firearm is rendered _____ and the firearm, ammunition and any ejected ammunition components are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–03

Answer 1290

Moved position Safe

Question 1291

When investigating a death involving suspected sabotage or tampering of food, drugs, cosmetics or medical devices shall also

Answer 1291

Health Canada, Consumer Product Safety. | Consumer products may include such things as: children’s playthings and equipment; flammable items; sports equ

Question 1292

When investigating a death attributed to consumer products shall notify ______~______,______~_____~______ Consumer products may include such things as: children’s playthings and equipment; flammable items; sports equipment; household and garden items; dangerous household chemical products; and charcoal products.

Answer 1292

Health Canada, Consumer Product Safety.

Question 1293

When the apparent cause of death is hanging shall remove the person in such a manner as to _______the_____ whenever possible.

Answer 1293

preserve the knot,

Question 1294

When the death is apparently caused by jumping or being thrown from a height shall  search the area for articles of _______, property or identification which may have fallen from the body  search the area for _____~_____, if applicable  search the location from which the person jumped

Answer 1294

clothing body parts

Question 1295

When the Coroner has ordered an autopsy shall  except in cases of homicides and criminally suspicious deaths, ______ the ______ and_________ of the _______ for any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia  if any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia are located, ensure the items are seized in accordance with Procedures 02–19, 04–21, and 09–04, as applicable - These items create a high-risk situation for all involved and must never accompany the body sent for _______~______~_______, except in cases of homicides and criminally-suspicious deaths.  remain with the body until the removal service has attended  record in the memorandum book the  presence or absence of any valuables, including jewellery  exact position of the jewellery on the body  details of the removal of the body  maintain continuity by accompanying the body to the morgue or applying a TPS 214 to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue - Bodies should always be transported and stored in the __________ (face up) position pending post mortem examination to avoid introducing artefacts which may obscure post mortem findings.

Answer 1295

Search pockets and clothing post-mortem examination Supine

Question 1296

Supervisor When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall  take ____ of the scene  provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene  ensure a police officer ________ the body to the hospital  request/assign further assistance, as required  ensure the attendance of  a ______~_______  the ________  a ____ investigator  ensure a police officer _______ the body to the hospital  advise the ________~_______of all pertinent information  ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary - Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a _____ officer in lieu of a constable.

Answer 1296

charge accompanies divisional detective Coroner FIS accompanies Officer in Charge supervisory

Question 1297

Supervisor When dealing with  the death of a child under ____ years of age  the sudden unexpected death of a _____  a suspicious death or suspected _______, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found ______~______  obvious or suspected ______ _____  any other suspicious circumstances shall treat the death as suspicious and ensure compliance with Procedure 05–01. When notified of a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall  remain _______ for the possibility of foul play  ensure the attendance of a ________~______

Answer 1297

5 Child homicide human remains foul play Vigilant _____~______

Question 1298

Detective – Division The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the scene, the thoroughness of the investigation, and that the appropriate notifications are made. When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall  attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation  ensure the attendance of FIS personnel, as required  ensure that valuables seized for safekeeping are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–01  provide direction concerning the return of valuables to the next of kin  confer with the attending Coroner and obtain a copy of the _______~______  provide the following information to the Coroner before leaving the scene

Answer 1298

Coroner's warrant;  original eReport number;  identification of deceased and method of confirmation, if known;  name, address, phone number and relationship of next of kin, if known; and  name, badge number and a contact phone number of assigned investigator - It is imperative that the Coroner is provided with a contact number of the assigned investigator in the event that additional information is required from the Service prior to the autopsy being conducted.  ensure identification of the deceased person is confirmed, if possible  add supplementary information to the original eReport listing  method of identification confirmation; and  name, address and phone number of the person making the identification

Question 1299

Divisional detective when the Coroner has ordered an autopsy, ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the Post Mortem Examination  applicable eReports  _______ Police Report - The ________ Police Report was developed by the _______ of the ______~_____ and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any _______ sudden death where the _____ has_______ an ________.  maintain continuity by ensuring  a TPS _____ is applied to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue, or  a police officer ________ the body to the morgue  ensure an officer attends and obtains the results of the Post ________~________then adds the supplementary information to the original eReport  consider and exercise, where applicable, all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits  notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when ______ are or may be a factor  notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons - The MPU is available as a resource in all _______~_______~_____ investigations that will provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support. The MPU will also ensure all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

Answer 1299

Preliminary Preliminary Office of the Chief Coroner unnatural Coroner has ordered an autopsy. 214 accompanies Mortem Examination firearms unidentified human remains

Question 1300

Divisional detective When dealing with  the death of a child under 5 years of age  the sudden unexpected death of a child  a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include  an unexplained or unknown cause of death  found human remains  obvious or suspected foul play  any other suspicious circumstances shall treat the death as ________ and ensure compliance with Procedure 05–01.

Answer 1300

suspicious

Question 1301

Divisional detective When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin shall consult with

Answer 1301

Records Management Services | (RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action.

Question 1302

.The _______ will also ensure all relevant information is | entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

Answer 1302

The MPU

Question 1303

Divisional detective When the deceased cannot be readily identified shall  request that FIS _________ and______the deceased  consider the use of the FIS _______~______ to complete a reconstructed image for a media release  request that the_______ have a dentist complete an OPC 105  ensure the OPC 105 is scanned and attached to the original eReport  ensure the eReport number is forwarded to RMS – Operations (RMS – Ops) for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristics file  consider contacting FIS regarding the completion of ______~____~_____~_____ forms and the gathering of samples for DNA analysis and comparison  continue efforts to locate and notify the _____~____~____  ensure identification is made by a relative, a close friend or a person who knows the deceased in the presence of a morgue official

Answer 1303

fingerprint and photograph Forensic Artist Coroner Interpol Disaster Victim Identification next of kin

Question 1304

Officer in Charge Death investigations The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response and, in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. When notified of a suicide where there exists a suicide note or criminal writing shall ensure the suicide note, and any other writings made by the deceased relevant to the investigation are ________ and ______ to the original eReport  transmitted to the Office of the ____~_____by ___~____, along with a copy of the completed eReports.

Answer 1304

scanned and attached Chief Coroner by TPS eFax

Question 1305

Oic Death investigations When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall ensure  detective personnel are assigned and attend the scene  a copy of the completed eReport and _______~_______~_______ are forwarded by TPS eFax to the Office of the Chief Coroner as soon as practicable, and prior to the post mortem examination  if involving a _______~______, notify Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section - Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from which they emigrated.

Answer 1305

Preliminary Police Report Foreign national

Question 1306

Death investigations Oic if involving a foreign national, notify

Answer 1306

Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section - Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from which they emigrated.

Question 1307

Investigator – Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services When investigating the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age, shall

Answer 1307

 attend the scene and autopsy |  comply with Procedure 05–01

Question 1308

Compassionate messages police officer if the deceased person is or appears to be of Aboriginal ancestry contact the

Answer 1308

Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Aboriginal Peacekeeping section by telephone or by e–mail at “Aboriginal Peacekeeping” for assistance in locating next of kin - Additional assistance can be obtained from members of First Nations across Canada or from social agencies dealing with Aboriginal issues. The web link to social agencies within the City of Toronto is available on the CPEU – Aboriginal Peacekeeping webpage on the Internet.  add supplementary information to the original eReport, including the Sudden Death Deta

Question 1309

Compassionate message supervisor Shall Notification of a death as a result of a motor vehicle collision shall be the responsibility of the ______~______ Supervisor. Unless deemed inappropriate, notification of a death as a result of a homicide shall be made by an investigating officer from Detective Operations – Homicide. Upon receiving a request for notification of a next of kin outside the jurisdiction of the Service shall  contact a supervisor at the appropriate police service and provide the information listed in item 44  if the initial contact is by telephone, follow with a CPIC message or e–mail and include the information listed in item 44

Answer 1309

Traffic Services Providing a written request to back–up a telephone request will reduce the likelihood of incorrect information being conveyed to the next of kin.

Question 1310

Homicide Investigation means an investigation led by Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is:  obvious or suspected _____~_____  the cause of death cannot be _____,  found ______~______  any other ________ circumstance.

Answer 1310

foul play, explained human remains, suspicious

Question 1311

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the ______~_____~\_____ in every threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the ______~_____~_____~______ course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual] Sudden Death means an unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other than violence.

Answer 1311

Major Case Manager Ontario Major Case Management Course

Question 1312

Missing Persons Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.09.25-0942 Replaces: R.O. 2020.02.12-0109 Rationale Missing person occurrences are a high-risk area of policing, and must be given appropriate levels of priority and resources from the outset. Each missing person occurrence reported to the Toronto Police Service (Service) shall/will be treated as an investigation, given the potential that _________ may be uncovered at a later date.

Answer 1312

criminality

Question 1313

This Procedure provides direction to members outlining both the responsibility and clearly defined guidelines for the reporting of missing persons, the co-ordination of search activities, the required investigation, and subsequent follow-up. Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level _____ and ____ searches  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for all missing person investigations

Answer 1313

2 and 3

Question 1314

Procedure A missing person is a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:  The persons ________ are unknown and, - the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or - it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s _______ because of the circumstances surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.

Answer 1314

Whereabouts safety  A member of a police force is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so. When someone is reported as missing or lost to the Service, a full missing person eReport shall be taken in all instances and completed in accordance with this Procedure. All reports of missing persons are accepted at the time that they are made and given full consideration and attention regardless of:  where the missing person resides;  where the reportee resides;  the reportee’s relationship to the missing person;  the length of time the person has been missing; or  the missing person’s age, sex, race, citizenship, ethnic origin, religion, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, belief, social standing, disability or lifestyle.

Question 1315

There are 3 levels of investigative response to missing person cases. This is determined with information collected on the TPS ______ and TPS ______. These forms are an investigative aid that will be used to assist responding officers, supervisors and the Officer in Charge in assessing the level of risk, and determining the appropriate level of investigative response that is required.

Answer 1315

260 and 260a

Question 1316

All cases of missing persons where circumstances indicate a strong possibility of ______ _______ meet the criteria as a Major Case pursuant to the Ontario Major Case Management Manual. Therefore, an accredited Major Case Manager shall lead the investigation.

Answer 1316

foul play 30

Question 1317

Missing person cases, where it has yet to be determined whether foul play is involved and the individual remains unaccounted for _____ days after being reported missing, shall be deemed a ______~______pursuant to the Ontario Major Case Management Manual for the purpose of utilizing the Ministry approved software (_______). In cases where ______~______is suspected or unusual circumstances are encountered the collection of _____ will be conducted under the direction of Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS).

Answer 1317

30 Major Case PowerCase foul play DNA

Question 1318

Missing persons; A citizen requesting information about another citizen’s whereabouts either electronically or by telephone shall be directed to the _______in _______. The ______in______ shall determine whether it is appropriate to release the requested information. If the reportee and missing person are or have been involved in an intimate relationship, members shall comply with Procedure 05–04.

Answer 1318

Officer in Charge Officer in Charge

Question 1319

Missing Persons Act The Missing Persons Act came into effect on __________. This legislation will assist police officers investigating missing person occurrences by providing them with the ability, in certain circumstances, to:  obtain a _______~______ for a person or entity to produce records that would assist in locating a missing person;  obtain a _______~______ to allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person; and  make an _______~______ for records without judicial authorization. If it is determined that a search warrant or, in _______ circumstances, an urgent demand for records may further the investigation, police officers shall comply with the relevant direction contained in this Procedure.

Answer 1319

July 1, 2019 court order search warrant urgent demand exigent

Question 1320

Missing Persons Unit (MPU) The Missing Persons Unit (MPU) is the centralized unit for the Service that will ensure a consistent process and investigative response for all occurrences of persons missing in the City of Toronto, or _______~______~_____~______~_____. This includes both newly reported and historic cases of missing persons and unidentified human remains. The availability of the MPU will ensure:

Answer 1320

on the way to/from the City of Toronto  standardized investigations and a consistent process of review across the Service;  collaboration of all partners to leverage all available resources that may be utilized as a resource for investigative assistance, information and community mobilization;  all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website;  our commitment to a victim-centered approach to all missing person occurrences (victim support/management); and  continuity and consistency of file management. The MPU is available to all members of the Service as a resource that is:  available to provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support for missing person investigations;  designated by the Chief to coordinate, manage and report on the use of urgent demands for records outlined in section 8 of the Missing Persons Act.

Question 1321

National Missing Persons DNA Program

Answer 1321

The National Missing Persons DNA Program (NMPDP) is designed to be utilized as an additional resource with ongoing missing person investigations. The NMPDP is a joint effort of the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) and the National DNA Data Bank (NDDB). Each person’s DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is unique to them and it can be used to identify a missing person’s remains or their blood at a crime scene. The DNA of a missing person can be collected from personal items containing their saliva, blood, skin cells or sweat, as outlined in Appendix A. These types of personal items are often lost even with the short passage of time and, as a result, should be collected in the early stages of a missing person investigation.

Question 1322

Missing Persons Unit (MPU) The Missing Persons Unit (MPU) is the centralized unit for the Service that will ensure a consistent process and investigative response for all occurrences

Answer 1322

of persons missing in the City of Toronto, or on the way to/from the City of Toronto. This includes both newly reported and historic cases of missing persons and unidentified human remains. The availability of the MPU will ensure:  standardized investigations and a consistent process of review across the Service;  collaboration of all partners to leverage all available resources that may be utilized as a resource for investigative assistance, information and community mobilization;  all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website;  our commitment to a victim-centered approach to all missing person occurrences (victim support/management); and  continuity and consistency of file management. Oic The MPU is available to all members of the Service as a resource that is:  available to provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support for missing person investigations;  designated by the Chief to coordinate, manage and report on the use of urgent demands for records outlined in section 8 of the Missing Persons Act.

Question 1323

National Missing Persons DNA Program The National Missing Persons DNA Program (NMPDP) is designed to be utilized as an additional resource with ongoing missing person investigations. The NMPDP is a joint effort of the

Answer 1323

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified | Remains (NCMPUR) and the National DNA Data Bank (NDDB).

Question 1324

National Missing Persons DNA Program The National Missing Persons DNA Program (NMPDP) is designed to be utilized as an additional resource with ongoing missing person investigations. The NMPDP is a joint effort of the ________ for _______~_______ and _______~______(X X X X X X ) and the ________XXX______~______ (XXXX).

Answer 1324

Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR National DNA Data Bank (NDDB)

Question 1325

Level 2 and Level 3 searches shall be conducted using the Incident ______~\_______ as defined in Chapter 10, Appendix A.

Answer 1325

Management System

Question 1326

Reporting When a person has been reported missing to the Service, officers shall utilize the ______~_______~_____~____~_____ by contacting RMS – Ops via telephone to generate the required missing person eReport. This process will simplify data entry requirements for officers, and ensure the missing person is entered onto CPIC immediately.

Answer 1326

Missing Person Phone-In process by

Question 1327

Under no circumstances will the report of a missing person be entered as an ‘______’.

Answer 1327

Incident

Question 1328

Level one search police officer provide the reportee with the telephone number of the ______~______of the division where the missing person resides

Answer 1328

Detective Sergeant

Question 1329

provide notice to any person whose information was produced pursuant to an _______~_______, which includes  description of the information the officer accessed; and contact information for the requesting officer The notice may be provided ________ or in ________. If the notice is provided _______, the officer shall provide a written copy of the notice upon the person’s request.

Answer 1329

urgent demand Verbally or in writing Verbally

Question 1330

Level 3 Search Manager – Emergency Management & Public Order The Search Manager is responsible for co–ordinating the search for the missing person. Upon being notified by the Duty Inspector of the implementation of a Level 3 search and investigative response shall  ensure a ______~_____is established and attend the Command Post when required  maintain _______ with the Incident Commander  co–ordinate the Level 3 search aspect of the incident  implement unit-specific policies regarding Level 3 searches

Answer 1330

Command Post Liaison

Question 1331

Re level three states Emergency Management & Public Order provides search management support. The overall responsibility for the search and its investigation remains with the ______.

Answer 1331

division

Question 1332

Detective Sergeant level 3 missing Operations When the missing person is not located within _____ days of being reported missing and there is no new evidence, explanation or circumstances indicating that the occurrence should not be cancelled shall ensure

Answer 1332

30  the status of the original eReport remains open  request is made to have the missing person's dentist complete a RCMP 1667 - At the discretion of the Detective Sergeant, the RCMP 1667 may be completed before the 30–day period has passed.  supplementary information is added to the original eReport for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristic File and submit with the RCMP 1667  an investigative chronology is created and maintained  regular investigative follow–up until the missing person is located or a sufficient conclusion is established  the occurrence is re-assigned when the lead investigator leaves the unit  in cases where foul play is suspected, an electronic ViCLAS Report/eBooklet is completed in accordance with Procedure 05-19  the requirements of the Ontario Major Case Management Manual are met pursuant to the use of the Ministry approved software (PowerCase)

Question 1333

Level 1 Missing Person Search means the level of search implemented when a person is reported missing and there are no _______~_______. At this level, there are minimal concerns regarding the issue of foul play or the infirmity or limitations of the missing person.

Answer 1333

extenuating circumstances.

Question 1334

Level 2 Missing Person Search means the level of search when a missing person is:  under _____ years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves;  ________ challenged;  over _____ years of age or infirm, or;  there is evidence of ______~______

Answer 1334

16 mentally 65 foul play.

Question 1335

Level 3 Missing Person Search means the level of search implemented when the Level 1 and Level 2 missing person searches are ineffective or if the situation, due to the _________~______ necessitates that this level be initiated immediately.

Answer 1335

extenuating circumstances,

Question 1336

Missing Persons Search Page means a web page located on the _______~_____~_____ used to publish information and pictures regarding missing persons investigations that have proceeded to a Level _____ search.

Answer 1336

Service Internet site 3

Question 1337

Missing Persons Search Page means a web page located on the Service _____ site used to publish information and pictures regarding missing persons investigations that have proceeded to a Level___ search

Answer 1337

Internet | 3

Question 1338

A member may only submit a request for access to a restricted record

Answer 1338

 for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation involving  preservation of life and/or preventing bodily harm or death  homicides and attempts, sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching),  occurrences involving abductions and attempts,  missing person occurrences, where circumstances indicate a strong possibility of foul play,  occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains,  criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim,  occurrences involving a firearm or discharge of a firearm, and/or  gang related investigations;  in connection with legal proceedings or anticipated legal proceedings  including instances where crown advice is that it is relevant to R. v. Stinchcombe, (1991) and other disclosure obligations;  for the purpose of dealing with a complaint under Part V of the PSA or for the purpose of an investigation or inquiry under clause 25 (1)(a) of the PSA;  in order to prepare the annual report described in subsection 14 (1) or the report required under section 15 of O. Reg. 58/16;  for the purpose of complying with a legal requirement; or  for the purpose of evaluating a police officer’s performance. No member of the Service shall use any Historical Contact Data or Regulated Interaction Report as a basis for classifying an individual as “known to police”.

Question 1339

Target Policing means the

Answer 1339

targeting of offenders or offences within a specific time period and/or a specific geographic area.

Question 1340

Guidelines for Divisional Crime Management Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03–0001 Replaces: R.O. 2016.02.08-0158 There are four key steps in establishing the Crime Management Process at the divisional level. Their purpose is to ensure a high level of integration, co–ordination and focus of divisional resources: 1. Long–term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division 2. Short–term/daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react as required 3. Integrated Role for Divisional CPLCs 4.Targeted Debriefing of All Prisoners Where practicable, persons in custody will be debriefed as to information they may provide on any of the crime problems set as a divisional priority. 04-18 Appendix G – Duties of a P

Answer 1340

1Detective Sergeant Rep from all sectors of the unit unit including Commander., cplc Team meets 1:4 yearly Strategies approved by the Chief and Command may be added Crimes Analyst provides A profile sheet 2. Meet regularly, Tactical Deployment plans, short term strategies and results, local intel on active criminals 3. Partner in the crime management process 4. Debriefed

Question 1341

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

Answer 1341

 homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;  sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching);  trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in section 24(1) Criminal Code;  occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;  missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;  occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;  criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,  any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 1342

Rationale Robberies of all types are violence acts capable of escalating without notice. These incidents pose a serious danger to ______~_______and ________ _______~\________While the initial investigation of all robbery incidents is the responsibility of the _______~______~______, the Detective Operations – Hold-up Squad (HUS) will take the lead and provide co-ordination throughout the Service for all robberies within their mandate. These include all robberies involving;

Answer 1342

victims, witnesses and responding police officers. of the local police division, the financial institutions, armoured cars, retail businesses, home invasions committed with firearms or offensive weapons, money deposits, and carjacking’s committed with firearms or offensive weapons.

Question 1343

Robbery This procedure was developed to meet the Police Services Act, O. Reg. 3/99, Adequacy and Effectiveness of police Services to ensure a) The _______ of responding officers b) The _______ of the public c) A thorough investigation, and d) The collection and ________ of evidence in the approved manner. Supervision

Answer 1343

Safety protection preservation

Question 1344

Robberies Supervisory Officer The supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. When notified of a robbery shall  attend at the scene ______  take charge of all ______~_____~______  assign ______~______~______  ensure the ________ in ______is notified of all particulars  ensure the HUS are notified of all particulars, if the robbery falls within their mandate  ensure police officers comply with the applicable sections in this Procedure

Answer 1344

forthwith uniformed police officers sufficient police officers Officer in Charge

Question 1345

Robberies / supervisor When notified that a GPS tracking device has been activated, or available in a vehicle taken in a carjacking shall  ensure the _______ station is contacted to obtain GPS tracking information  __________ the tracking information, as appropriate  ensure the attending divisional investigator and the ______ are notified

Answer 1345

Monitoring communicate HUS

Question 1346

Officer in Charge – Division The divisional Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon being notified of a robbery shall  if confirmed hold-up, notify (X X X X )  ensure the particulars are recorded in the (X X X X ) as required Upon receiving an eReport for a robbery occurrence shall ensure  compliance with Procedure 17–01  all involved police officers have ~~~~~~~~~~~~~to the original eReport prior to the completion of their tour of duty  the eReport number is provided to the ~~~~~~~~~~ Detective – Detective Operations – Hold-Up

Answer 1346

Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR scanned and attached all memorandum book notes Unit Analyst – HUS

Question 1347

The investigator from the HUS shall take charge of the investigation and seize all surveillance recordings. When attending the scene shall, in addition to complying with unit specific policies  take charge of the investigation  seize and ______~_______any hold–up note to FIS – Documents  seize or make arrangements for seizure and pick up all _______~\_____  consult with the attending supervisory officer and/or divisional investigator regarding _______~______information obtained, as applicable

Answer 1347

hand–deliver surveillance recordings GPS tracking

Question 1348

Domestic Violence Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2021.04.23-0317 Replaces: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Rationale The Toronto Police Service (Service) recognizes that domestic violence is a serious social problem, and is not limited or restricted by marital status, sexual orientation, occupation, vulnerability, age or gender. The Service also views domestic violence as a ________ crime.

Answer 1348

preventable

Question 1349

Domestic violence The goal of the Service is to  reduce the incidence of domestic violence and homicide in the community through \________And _______  thoroughly investigate all domestic violence and domestic incidents, and bring offenders to _______ wherever possible  enhance the safety of victims through prompt action including referrals to other ______~_____  build effective partnerships with community support agencies to ensure a victim focussed response.

Answer 1349

education and enforcement Justice community partners

Question 1350

Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance ______ - all domestic violence calls - when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service - when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service  Supervisory Officer notification mandatory  Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI) or Officer in Charge _________ mandatory when attending or investigating domestic violence and a supervisor is unable to ______  Divisional Investigative office _______~_______where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has left the scene

Answer 1350

mandatory Notification, attend mandatory notification

Question 1351

Procedure Calls for Service Domestic violence and domestic incident calls for service shall be treated with the same priority as other ________~______ calls. The safety of the victim and dependents requires prompt and efficient response to all calls and the Service shall respond even when the original call for service is ______.

Answer 1351

life threatening cancelled

Question 1352

Domestic violence Victims and Witnesses without Legal Status Victims and witnesses of crime shall not be asked their immigration status, unless there are ______~\_____ reasons to do so.

Answer 1352

bona fide

Question 1353

Charges Police officers shall fully document their response to every domestic violence and domestic incident call, regardless of whether a criminal offence has been committed or a charge laid/an arrest made. Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist, and the decision to lay charges shall not be influenced by factors such as  ______~_____ of the parties  disposition of ~~~~~~~~~  victim’s _________ to attend court likelihood of obtaining a ______  denials of violence despite ______~______  fear of ______ by the accused  occupation of the victim/accused  immigration status of the parties.

Answer 1353

marital status previous calls for police service unwillingness conviction contrary evidence reprisals

Question 1354

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for the death of a child under

Answer 1354

5 years of age, and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post mortem examination.  if the Homicide investigator is not attending, follow the instructions of the divisional detective  submit all seized evidence in compliance with Procedure 04–21 and the applicable procedures in Chapter 9  complete the memorandum book notes in compliance with Procedure 13–17  complete the TPS 303 and TPS 466, as applicable  scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport  provide the original eReport number to the  other attending officers who may need to add supplementary information  Officer in Charge  divisional detective  Investigator – FIS  Major Case Manager – Detective Operations – Homicide  Investigator – CYAC, as applicable  obtain permission from the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective prior to reporting off duty

Question 1355

The DVRM/ODARA must be completed and in the ~~~~~~~~~

Answer 1355

crown brief for the bail hearing | Safety

Question 1356

Safety Recognizing that the safety of victims, witnesses and police officers is a priority due to the high risk inherent in domestic situations, officers must use extreme caution when responding to domestic violence and domestic incident calls. A minimum of 2 officers shall be dispatched to all domestic violence and domestic incident related calls for service. Officers shall remain at the scene until satisfied that the safety risk to the victim is minimized. The first officer to arrive on scene should be prepared to _____ prior to the arrival of a backup officer in _____ circumstances.

Answer 1356

Act emergent

Question 1357

Domestic Violence Investigator The DVI shall be responsible for ensuring the needs of the victim are met, effective management of the crime scene, including the gathering of evidence and ensure that a thorough and comprehensive investigation is conducted. When investigating a domestic violence occurrence shall  conduct a thorough and complete investigation  if the victim requires or requests medical attention, ensure the services of a _____ are offered  when interpreting services are required, ensure the services of the _____ are utilized or comply with Procedure 04– 09 where MCIS is unable to assist  ensure 9–1–1 recordings are reviewed and consider preserving them as evidence, where applicable  comply with Chapter 2 when considering the use of search warrants to gather evidence  in cases involving threshold offences as defined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, consult with the _______~_______~_____concerning designation of the offence as a Major Case  whenever possible, obtain an _______~______~______from the victim, using the R. v B.(K.G.) guidelines and comply with Procedures 04–32 and 12–08, as applicable  explain to the victim the charge and the nature of the proceedings against the accused  ensure a charge is laid where ______~______~_______  ensure ________ of the victim’s injuries, the scene and/or evidence are made available for the _____~______ wherever possible  make every effort to determine a ______~_______ before considering charging both parties  when both parties are charged, cross reference the two cases on each confidential crown envelope (crown envelope)  comply with Procedure 05–11 where there has been a breach of bail conditions or failure to appear at court, and notify the victim  comply with Procedure 05–27 when conducting any domestic related criminal harassment investigations  comply with Procedure 06–07 when investigating breaches of restraining orders issued under the Family Law Act and Children’s Law Reform Act and ensure  DVRM/ODARA is completed  the top right hand corner of the information is marked “DV”  the box entitled ‘Domestic’ in the ‘Incident Type’ section of the crown envelope has been checked off  all charges are clearly noted in the crown envelope as ‘Domestic’ in origin and the top border of the crown envelope is boldly marked in red  consider commencing show cause proceedings as appropriate, making particular note of any _______~\______ shown by the accused  consider requesting a non–communication order under ss. 515(12) CC where a detention order is being sought  whenever possible, consult with the ______ when determining required bail conditions  if the accused is granted bail, ensure the conditions of release, or any change in conditions of release are communicated to the victim as soon as possible rather than delay until the accused is actually released  ensure a copy of the bail conditions are maintained in the case file  where applicable, consider and exercise all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related authorizations, licences, certificates and permits  consider contacting all persons known to police who may provide the accused access to firearms or related authorizations, licences, certificates or permits  notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when firearms are or may be a factor  conduct a Firearms Interest Police (FIP) check on CPIC  consider applying for a prohibition order or seeking a revocation where reasonable grounds exist to believe it is not desirable in the interests of safety for the offender to possess weapons  where possible, ensure that injuries sustained by the victim are photographed a second time 48 to 72 hours after the initial incident  consult with Detective Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section to assist the victim in developing a personal safety plan  consider contacting Victim Services Toronto on behalf of the victim to initiate the Victim Quick Response Program - Please restrict your advice to the victim about the services Victim Services Toronto “can” provide and refrain from committing to what they will provide. The decision remains with Victim Services Toronto. - consider warning other known intimate partners of an abuser of the potential for abuse in compliance with Procedure 17–04 - if the offender has an open case with another division or another police service, share and co–ordinate current case information with the case manager from that division or police service, as applicable - in high risk cases, consider placing both the victim and accused in the CPIC ‘_____~_____~_____(XXX) category by submitting a completed TPS 227 according to the instructions on the form - The SIP category exists in CPIC to capture a wide range of information, including "persons who are dangerous to themselves or others" including, but not restricted to domestic situations. All SIP entries must include the specific reason (e.g. Dangerous Person – Domestic Violence) and should contain a caution for "Family Violence”.

Answer 1357

DVCC MCIS divisional Detective Sergeant electronically recorded statement reasonable grounds exist photographs bail hearing, dominant aggressor stalking behaviour victim Special Interest to Police’ (SIP)

Question 1358

Medical Oversight Section 27 of the ~~~~~~~~~~~act states that controlled medical acts, such as administering Naloxone nasal spray to a person experiencing an opioid overdose, may only be performed by persons who are not physicians if a physician has delegated that authority to them.

Answer 1358

Regulated Health Professions Act (RHPA)

Question 1359

Domestic violence if it is determined that the offender is at risk of re–offending or breaching conditions of release, peace bond or probation order, ensure that appropriate resources are dedicated to investigate the matter immediately  encourage the victim to complete a _____~______~______nt at the appropriate stage of the court process in compliance with Procedure 04–24

Answer 1359

Victim Impact Statement

Question 1360

Domestic Violence Investigator if it is determined that the offender is at risk of re–offending or breaching conditions of release, peace bond or probation order, ensure that appropriate resources are dedicated to investigate the matter immediately  encourage the victim to complete a Victim Impact Statement at the appropriate stage of the court process in compliance with Procedure 04–24  where possible, notify the victim of any known court dates, with a follow–up call prior to the court appearance  direct a victim requesting that charges be withdrawn to the ______~\_____~______  where possible, notify the victim and the original police officer once final disposition of the case is obtained  consider making application to the ________~_______~______~_____ (WARP) in compliance with Procedure 04–37, when applicable  ensure  the box entitled ‘Domestic’ in the ‘Incident Type’ section of the crown envelope has been checked off  all charges are clearly noted in the brief as ‘Domestic’ in origin (e.g. Assault – Domestic), and the top border of the crown envelope is boldly marked in red  that in cases where the accused is a young person, the top border of the crown envelope is also boldly marked in ______  ensure that two copies of a DVRM/ODARA are completed and included in the crown envelope for the first court appearance  ensure the top right hand corner of the information is marked “DV” When in receipt of a Domestic Violence report and the suspect has not been arrested shall  ensure a further investigation is promptly conducted  lay charges where reasonable grounds exist and submit a TPS 227 with the eReport number  where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has not been arrested/charged within 24 hours of the offence, consider obtaining a warrant in compliance with Procedure 02–01  complete a Warrant Application Supplementary via eReport and enter the suspect’s information onto CPIC in the “WANT” category indicating that an arrest warrant is pending, if applicable The entry will be removed from CPIC after two business days if the warrant is not received.  if no charges are laid, add supplementary information to the original eReport explaining the reasons for such a decision When in receipt of a Domestic Incident report where no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge shall  review all of the circumstances, including the responses to the ‘Risk Factor’ questions  generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be made available to the Office of the Chief Provincial Firearms Officer - The Firearms Act s. 5 (http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/F-11.6/FullText.html) indicates the types of offences/incidents which justify a FIP. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms licence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process or a subsequent review of the licence file by the Chief Firearms Officer. Detective Sergeant Detective sergeants are responsible for ensuring an appropriate investigative response, that domestic violence investigations are conducted by accredited domestic violence investigators and that a thorough and comprehensive investigation is conducted. When in charge of a divisional detective office shall ensure  a minimum of one DVI accredited detective is assigned to oversee all domestic violence investigations in the division - each DVI has completed the DVRM/ODARA training and has received a certificate  domestic violence investigations are assigned to a qualified DVI who will be able to initiate the investigation expeditiously  a TPS 426 is completed, filed electronically at the division

Answer 1360

Crown Attorney's Office Witness Assistance and Relocation Program blue DVRM/ODARA

Question 1361

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC) Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the oncall SACC nurse. - There is no longer an ~~~~~~~~~~~~~. If the victim is injured, has consumed drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between

Answer 1361

Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital

Question 1362

There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between 2000hrs Friday evening and Monday 0730hrs, they are fully mobile, providing service to the 7 emergency departments in Toronto –

Answer 1362

Mount Sinai, Toronto General Hospital, Toronto Western Hospital, Michael Garron Hospital, St. Joseph’s Health Centre, Sunnybrook Health Sciences Centre and St. Michael’s Hospital. The SACC nurse can be reached by telephone and will arrange to see the victim at the above noted hospitals. Women’s College SACC operates under the “Acute Mandate” and shall be contacted for all sexual assault victims where the offence occurred within the previous 12 days. Name of Facility Location Age of Victim The Scarborough Hospital (Birchmount Campus) 3030 Birchmount Rd. 12 years and older SickKids Hospital 555 University Ave. under 18 years Women's College Hospital 76 Grenville St. 14 years and older Trillium Health Centre – Mississauga Hwy 10/Queensway any age

Question 1363

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator shall attend the _______, where the victim is located or any additional ____ deemed necessary and take charge of the investigation without delay.

Answer 1363

Scene Location

Question 1364

Bona Fide Reasons means  a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the ____~_____~_____~____  a Crown Attorney is requesting information for _____ purposes;  the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;  investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to ascertain the ______~_______ of a victim or witness.

Answer 1364

Provincial Witness Protection Program; disclosure immigration status

Question 1365

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

Answer 1365

 homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;  sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching); ```  trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in section 24(1) Criminal Code; ```  occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;  missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;  occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;  criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,  any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual. [Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

Question 1366

Domestic Violence means any ____~\____or______ harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including:

Answer 1366

physical, sexual or psychological  assault;  murder;  sexual assault;  threatening;  harassment;  intimidation;  unlawful interference with personal liberty;  any other criminal offence;  offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.;  but does not include child abuse investigations.

Question 1367

Victim Quick Response Program means a program administered by

Answer 1367

Victim Services Toronto that provides quick financial assistance to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, domestic violence, sexual assault and hate crime in the immediate aftermath of a crime.

Question 1368

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) means the program operated by the (_____~______of the _____ General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible. Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded. 05-05 Sexual Assault

Answer 1368

Ontario) Ministry of the Attorney General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible. Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded. 05-05 Sexual Assault

Question 1369

Who can. request the assistance of the Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes) through the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) once the preliminary investigation has been conducted.

Answer 1369

Only the Officer in Charge, the divisional sexual assault investigator, or in their absence, a divisional investigator, may request the assistance of the Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes) through the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) once the preliminary investigation has been conducted.

Question 1370

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator Divisional sexual assault investigators shall be responsible for investigations that do not fall within the mandate of Sex Crimes. Historical ______~______assaults, and those where the suspect is known will generally be handled by the divisional sexual assault investigators.  When investigating complaints of _____ sexual assault, officers are reminded to be sensitive to the possibility that the person reporting the incident may be experiencing a wide range of victim anxiety reactions including symptoms of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and other symptoms of crisis or distress. These reactions may have a significant impact on the dynamics of the investigation including the interview with the person who has experienced the sexual assault.  As with recent sexual assault investigations, the MO field in eReport shall be completed for historical sexual assaults.

Answer 1370

familial sexual historical

Question 1371

A divisional sexual assault investigator shall be assigned as the lead investigator in all sexual assault cases except  where the victim is under _____ years of age, a ____~____~_____investigator shall conduct the investigation in compliance with Procedure 05–06  when the incident arises out of a domestic situation as defined in Procedure 05–04, a _____~______investigator (XXX) shall be assigned as the lead investigator but shall work in conjunction with an accredited sexual assault investigator  when the incident involves child pornography or child luring as defined in Procedure 05-24, the ____~______ Section (CES) shall be notified and will assume control over the investigation.  when the incident involves human trafficking for the purpose of exploiting persons or facilitating their exploitation for a sexual and/or forced labour ____~______~_____~______(HTET) purpose as defined in Procedure 05-31, the shall be notified.

Answer 1371

16, child sexual abuse domestic violence Child Exploitation Human Trafficking Enforcement Team (HTET)

Question 1372

Notification and Assignment of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes Sex Crimes shall be notified of any sexual assault where, it is determined:  the offender is _____  there is ongoing risk to the _______  the occurrence involves an offence under s. ~~~~~~long ~~~~~  there are ______~____or_____~_____  the occurrence involves multiple sexual acts, the use of _____,______or______of a ______ by the offender  the offender _____ the offence in any manner  the offender removes or keeps any personal item from the victim  the offender uses _______ by having the victim engage in prompted dialogue  the offender uses a con or ruse, including dating services and the internet, to lure the victim the sexual assault is linked to another sexual assault occurrence  to be a criminal offence, by an unknown offender, where sexual assault appears to have been the motive

Answer 1372

unknown 272 or 273 of the CC (sexual assault with a weapon, sexual assault causing bodily harm, wounds, maims, disfigures or endangers life) multiple victims or multiple suspects restraints, bondage or wearing of a disguise Records Scripting

Question 1373

CYAC Physical assaults when the victim is under the age of ____ years and the suspect is a known adult  sexual offences when the victim is under the age of ______ years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office  occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child

Answer 1373

16 18

Question 1374

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) Child abuse section) The Team shall be responsible for informing the school principal, as soon as practicable, of the following

Answer 1374

 when parents have been informed of an interview conducted without their prior notification  if the investigation is delayed, indicating when the interview is expected to occur  the appropriate time that school personnel may resume contact with one or both parents  if the child is placed in the care of the CAS  whether child protection proceedings will be commenced  whether a criminal charge will be laid  the existence and terms of any court orders regarding access or contact with the child  any other information deemed necessary.

Question 1375

Symptoms of DTs usually occur _____ – _____ hours after discontinuance and include:  profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms If left untreated, DTs can result in death.

Answer 1375

48-72

Question 1376

Child Abuse Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2019.03.05-0182 Rationale This Procedure sets out the responsibilities of police officers during child abuse investigations, including sexual and physical abuse cases, and the responsibilities of the first officers on scene, supervisory officers, and investigators. Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with  the “

Answer 1376

Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co– ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;  the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;  the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children under 5 years of age; and  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O. 2012.12.31–1557). Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse  Officer in Charge notification mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) The CYAC is a section of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes). The CYAC promotes the protection of victims; provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing support.

Question 1377

Child Abuse Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2019.03.05-0182 Rationale This Procedure sets out the responsibilities of police officers during child abuse investigations, including sexual and physical abuse cases, and the responsibilities of the first officers on scene, supervisory officers, and investigators. Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with  the “

Answer 1377

Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co– ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;  the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;  the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children under 5 years of age; and  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O. 2012.12.31–1557).

Question 1378

Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance _______ upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child _______or _______abuse  Officer in Charge ______ mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse

Answer 1378

mandatory, physical or sexual abuse notification

Question 1379

Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations Access will be granted only to officers who have an ________,________or editorial (by appointment only) need to be present.

Answer 1379

operational, investigative or educational

Question 1380

Child abuse Any child or youth should be taken to ANY hospital emergency department (ER) immediately if the following exist

Answer 1380

 concerns of possible head injury or fracture  child is complaining of severe pain in the extremities  lack of movement, headache, vomiting, not feeding, dizziness, scalp swelling  inconsolable crying in an infant or excessive sleeping. ```  be guided by the Centre for Forensic Sciences (CFS) Police Submission Guidelines for the Sexual Assault Examination Kit (SAEK) (Appendix B) and the following, as appropriate ```

Question 1381

Child abuse pg104 Prepubertal (under _____ within ______ hours* advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence after ______ hours* contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention Pubertal Adolescents (_____~_____) within ______ days advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence after ______ days contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention *consider potential to gather forensic evidence up to _____ days since incident if suspected penile penetration of vagina

Answer 1381

Prepubertal (under 12) within 72 hours* advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence after 72 hours* contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention Pubertal Adolescents (12 – 18) within 12 days advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence after 12 days contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention *consider potential to gather forensic evidence up to 12 days since incident if suspected penile penetration of vagina

Question 1382

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC) Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the oncall SACC nurse. - There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between

Answer 1382

2000hrs Friday evening and Monday 0730hrs, they are fully mobile, providing service to the 7 emergency departments in Toronto – ``` Mount Sinai, Toronto General Hospital, Toronto Western Hospital, Michael Garron Hospital, St. Joseph’s Health Centre, Sunnybrook Health Sciences Centre and St. Michael’s Hospital. ``` The SACC nurse can be reached by telephone and will arrange to see the victim at the above noted hospitals. Women’s College SACC operates under the “Acute Mandate” and shall be contacted for all sexual assault victims where the offence occurred within the previous 12 days. The Scarborough Hospital (Birchmount Campus) 3030 Birchmount Rd. 12 years and older SickKids Hospital 555 University Ave. under 18 years Women's College Hospital 76 Grenville St. 14 years and older Trillium Health Centre – Mississauga Hwy 10/Queensway any age

Question 1383

prior to attending SickKids ER or SCAN, the investigator shall notify the SCAN on-call clinician through the switchboard 416-813-7500  an on-call member of SCAN will collaborate with the investigator to determine if immediate transportation to _________er or ______ is required  the phone consultation will facilitate planning next steps and determine if the victim ought to be ______ before or after the medical exam  with the noted timelines to collect evidence in mind, this collaboration will enhance efficiencies of the investigation and reduce wait times of officers upon arrival at _______er or ______  if transportation by ambulance is not necessary, consider the use of an ________ vehicle when transporting the victim to a hospital  to reduce the necessity for the victim to recount the incident, accompany the victim to the treatment facility, and where operationally possible, wait for the victim until the completion of the medical examination at the hospital  in cases of child sexual assault, request the victim postpone ______ whenever possible until after the medical examination, but if _________ is necessary advise the victim to avoid wiping the ______ area or to save the tissue for later submission with the sexual assault kit  advise the victim not to bathe or change their clothes until after the medical examination. If clothes are to be changed, ensure clothes are ______ for later submission with the sexual assault kit  secure the crime scene and preserve all physical evidence in compliance with Procedure 04–21  request that a supervisory officer attend the scene of the offence, where the victim is located, or any additional location deemed necessary ``` obtain personal information regarding the identities of all involved parties, from official documents if possible, to ensure accuracy (i.e. correct date of birth, spelling of name, maiden name, etc.)  notify the appropriate _____ and document all referrals in their memorandum book and the applicable eReport if a suspicion exists that a child may be in _______of _______ under the CYFSA ``` Child, Youth and Family Services Act (CYFSA)  conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check  determine if the suspect/accused owns, possesses or has access to _______~_______~______~______ or the related authorizations licences, certificates or permits and comply with Procedure 05–21  consider using the search and seizure provisions contained in S. 117 CC to minimize any subsequent risk to the victim  obtain the information outlined in Chapter 5, Appendix A to help determine whether reasonable grounds exist to believe there is a threat to safety  complete the applicable eReport in consultation with the designated investigator ensuring to record  all notifications made and attendance or non–attendance of ______ personnel  the applicable information outlined in Chapter 5, Appendix A A _____~______~_____(XXX) entry will be auto-generated from the eReport entry and uploaded to CPIC. The XXX database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms licence who has committed, or threatened to commit, an act of violence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process or subsequent review by a Chief Firearms Officer.  complete the applicable MO Detail page

Answer 1383

SickKids ER or SCAN interviewed SickKids ER or SCAN Unmarked voiding voiding genital Seized cas need of protection weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives supervisory Firearms Interest Police (FIP)

Question 1384

Officer in Charge The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon receiving notification of a case of suspected child physical or sexual abuse, or circumstances where child abuse cannot be ruled out, shall

Answer 1384

 contact the CYAC to request a designated investigator  ensure the eReport number is  distributed in accordance with unit policy  provided to the divisional detective office where the offence took place, if applicable. At the time of booking a prisoner and before considering release, shall ensure  all reasonable inquiries have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearms Acquisition Certificate, etc.  such items are surrendered before release to enhance the safety of the victim Definitions

Question 1385

Child Abuse no person having charge of a child shall

Answer 1385

 inflict abuse (physical, sexual or sexual exploitation) on the child; or by failing to care and provide for or supervise and protect the child adequately, - permit the child to suffer abuse or - permit the child to suffer from a mental, emotional or development condition that, if not remedied, could serioiusly impair the child's development. [Source: Child, Youth and Family Services Act ss.136 (1)(2)]

Question 1386

Child in Need of Protection means a child that can be _________ as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1) of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

Answer 1386

apprehended

Question 1387

Child Physical Abuse where the circumstances could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or render the child in need of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act, and where the alleged abuser (whether adult or child) has responsibility for the care of the child victim. Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an abuser and includes all of the following:

Answer 1387

 physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under 18 years of age and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority;  abductions when the victim is under the age of 16 years of age;  occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended  homicides when the victim is under the age of 18 years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in a position of trust or authority  physical offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years and there are clear developmental differences between the victim and the suspect.

Question 1388

Child Sexual Abuse means the use of a child by an adult for sexual purposes, whether or not consent is alleged to have been given, which could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or could place a child in need of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act. Child sexual abuse can include:

Answer 1388

```  incest;  acts of exposure;  sexual touching;  sexual intercourse;  sexual molestation;  inappropriate sexual language;  sexual harassment;  exhibitionism;  exploitation of child for pornography or prostitution. ```

Question 1389

Designated Child Abuse Investigator means a specially trained police officer who is responsible for the criminal investigation of

Answer 1389

child sexual and physical abuse cases.

Question 1390

Designated Children’s Aid Society Worker means a trained

Answer 1390

Children’s Aid Society specialist who is responsible for the child protection investigation and the protection of the child.

Question 1391

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the

Answer 1391

Major Case Manager in every threshold major case investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College. (Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual)

Question 1392

Team (Child Abuse Investigation) means a designated

Answer 1392

Child Abuse Investigator and a Children’s Aid Society specialist, who shall conduct interviews together and communicate at every stage of the investigation.

Question 1393

Hate / Bias Crime Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2019.06.20-0553 Rationale The impact of crime motivated by hate or bias is far–reaching; extending beyond the _____ and emotional trauma suffered by the victim and encompassing other members of the targeted group. Such crimes often heighten the isolation and vulnerability of the victim group and can cause severe stress for all members of the community. If unchecked, these crimes can result in escalating

Answer 1393

physical social tensions between different groups that can destroy communities. An appropriate police response to hate/bias crime goes beyond law enforcement and must convey a strong message of our respect for, and commitment to, a diverse society. The commitment of the Toronto Police Service (Service) to the community is based upon valuing the equality and dignity of every person. Supervision Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when dispatched to the scene of a hate/bias crime

Question 1394

Procedure For the purposes of this procedure, hate/bias crimes and hate propaganda will be reported as ______ offences. Where the procedure indicates a ‘hate/bias crime’, offences under the ‘Hate Propaganda’ sections of the CC shall be substituted where appropriate. A police officer shall be _______ to every report of hate/bias crime or hate propaganda. The Service is committed to the investigation of hate/bias crime and to assuming a leadership role in the co-ordination of a strong police and community response. In addition, the Service is committed to working closely with all segments of the community to provide education programs on hate/bias crime and hate propaganda. The investigation of hate/bias crime is the responsibility of the

Answer 1394

separate dispatched divisional detective office but Intelligence Services – Hate Crime (INT – Hate Crime) will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions for these crimes. It will also maintain an information base of hate/bias occurrences and arrests to assist divisional analysts and investigators. Intelligence Division – Hate Crime will also assist in developing public education programs in partnership with other members of the Service and the community. Intelligence Services – Hate Crime will be the central focus for the dissemination of information and support to divisional hate crime investigation co–ordinators, other police services, government agencies and the community.

Question 1395

Supervisory Officer | Upon being notified of an incident suspected to be a hate/bias crime shall

Answer 1395

 attend the scene whenever possible  assign sufficient police officers to ensure a thorough investigation is conducted  ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01  request the attendance of investigators from the divisional detective office, Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services, INT – Hate Crime and Victim Services Toronto, as appropriate  ensure compliance with Procedure 04–31, if required assure the victim and the community that the Service will fully investigate the occurrence and assist the community in taking measures to prevent any repetition of the offence  advise the Officer in Charge of all relevant facts

Question 1396

Detective | Upon initiating an investigation of a hate/bias crime shall

Answer 1396

 ensure the divisional co–ordinator is advised of significant aspects of the investigation  ensure the relevant eReport numbers are provided to the divisional co–ordinator and INT – Hate Crime  where applicable, consider and exercise all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits  when firearms are or may be a factor  notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun and Gang Task Force  comply with Procedure 05–21 When an arrest results from an investigation shall  ensure that information on the hate/bias aspect of the crime, is noted in the eReport and the top of the report clearly indicates ‘hate/bias crime’  in cases involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour, and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence, consult with the divisional detective sergeant regarding consultation with Detective Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section (BAS)  consider contacting all persons known to police who may provide the accused access to firearms or related licences, certificates or permits  consider applying for a prohibition order or seeking a revocation where reasonable grounds exist to believe it is not desirable in the interests of safety for the offender to possess weapons

Question 1397

Officer in Charge Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall ensure 

Answer 1397

detective personnel attend the scene as required  in cases involving bodily harm or major property damage, the Unit Commander and INT – Hate Crime, are notified promptly  compliance with Procedures 17–01 and 17–08, if applicable  the relevant eReport numbers are provided to the divisional detective sergeant  the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR), as required When booking a prisoner, and before considering release, shall ensure all reasonable inquiries have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, authorizations, permits, Firearms Acquisition Certificate, etc., and that such items are surrendered before release to enhance victim safety. Detective Sergeant Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall  review the circumstances to determine if further action is required  ensure the eReport number is provided to  INT – Hate Crime  the divisional co–ordinator to permit referral of the involved persons to community based agencies If further investigation is not warranted or a charge is not supported shall  add supplementary information to the original eReport detailing the reasons for the decision  ensure the victim and INT – Hate Crime are advised of the decision If further investigation is warranted shall  assign the appropriate resources to the investigation including assistance from INT – Hate Crime  ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01 In all cases where a charge is supported shall ensure  the investigation is completed in compliance with the applicable Service Governance  evidence is submitted for expert examination, if necessary  compliance with Procedure 17–04, if applicable

Question 1398

Hate crimes When would a detective consult with the divisional detective sergeant regarding consultation with Detective Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section (BAS)

Answer 1398

in cases involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour, and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence

Question 1399

Detective Sergeant | Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall

Answer 1399

 review the circumstances to determine if further action is required  ensure the eReport number is provided to  INT – Hate Crime  the divisional co–ordinator to permit referral of the involved persons to community based agencies If further investigation is not warranted or a charge is not supported shall  add supplementary information to the original eReport detailing the reasons for the decision  ensure the victim and INT – Hate Crime are advised of the decision If further investigation is warranted shall  assign the appropriate resources to the investigation including assistance from INT – Hate Crime  ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01 In all cases where a charge is supported shall ensure  the investigation is completed in compliance with the applicable Service Governance  evidence is submitted for expert examination, if necessary  compliance with Procedure 17–04, if applicable the victim is informed of developments in the investigation  at the conclusion of any court proceeding  supplementary information is added to the original eReport, indicating the disposition of the case  INT – Hate Crime is advised of the disposition When an arrest has been made in a hate/bias crime case involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour; and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence shall contact the BAS for advice, referral or an assessment of risk, if appropriate.

Question 1400

Divisional Hate Crime Investigation Co-ordinator When designated by the Unit Commander shall 

Answer 1400

consult and liaise with other divisions and INT – Hate Crime  track all hate crime cases to ensure proper application of the increased sentencing provisions of ss. 718.2 CC  follow up on all hate crime occurrences to ensure victims are provided access to appropriate police and community based resources  provide information and training to divisional personnel on hate crime matters  maintain a unit specific file on hate crime occurrences Upon receipt of an eReport for a hate/bias crime shall ensure  appropriate referrals are made to community based agencies to assist in resolving/defusing the incident  a TPS 228 is completed to place the address on the Special Address System, if appropriate  supplementary information is added to the original eReport, outlining the action taken and any resolution achieved  INT – Hate Crime is advised of any supplementary information

Question 1401

Unit Commander When in charge of a division shall appoint a divisional hate crime investigation co–ordinator. Upon being advised of a hate/bias crime shall ensure

Answer 1401

 a thorough investigation is completed  liaison is maintained and assistance sought from  INT – Hate Crime  Victim Services Toronto, as applicable  Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit  outside agencies, as applicable When appropriate, meet with the victim and the affected community to address any concerns

Question 1402

Hate/Bias Crime means a criminal offence committed against a _______ or ________ that is motivated by hate, bias, or prejudice based on the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, age, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation, or gender identity or expression, or on any other similar factor. This is found in s. 718.2 of the Criminal Code, which contains increased sentencing provisions for the aggravating circumstances.

Answer 1402

Person or property

Question 1403

Hate Propaganda means any communication that advocates or promotes _______ against any identifiable group or makes statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability.

Answer 1403

genocide

Question 1404

Hate Propaganda means any communication that advocates or promotes _________ against any identifiable group or makes statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability. Hate propaganda offences are found in s. 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code. Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of hatred require the permission of the _______~______ to proceed with prosecution. Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the ______~______

Answer 1404

genocide Attorney General Attorney General. Intelligence Services – Hate Crime will liaise with the Ministry of the Attorney General and advise the respective detective office when a decision by the Attorney General has been made concerning the commencement of legal proceedings in cases of hate propaganda.  These definitions are provided to clarify the difference in victim groups between a criminal offence motivated by hate and the more limited definition relating to hate propaganda. The differences are particularly important when the increased sentencing provisions for aggravating circumstances are applied to hate crimes using the expanded definition in s. 718.2 CC.

Question 1405

 Supervisory Officer ______~______ when using the authority of ss.117.02(1) or ss.117.04(2) of the Criminal Code to search for firearms, offensive weapons, ammunition or explosive substances

Answer 1405

Mandatory attendance

Question 1406

Procedure Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force (IGGTF) is responsible for the identification and arrest of criminal ________ and the identification, arrest and dismantling of any gang, criminal organization, or crime group or its members responsible for violent criminal activity within the community, primarily focusing on illegal firearms, drugs and crimes of violence. The IGGTF operates 24 hours, seven days a week. The IGGTF – Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU) is mandated to identify and take enforcement action against persons involved in the ________~_______ of firearms, ammunition and explosives. This includes the offences of smuggling, trafficking and the possession of “______~_____”.

Answer 1406

gunmen illegal movement crime guns

Question 1407

Firearms Enforcement Unit – Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) will ________ firearm investigations and ensure that there is a standard process for investigation and accountability. FIAU screens all _____, _______ and ______ seized by the Service. FIAU will designate if firearms are criminal or non-criminal. Firearms deemed to be criminal will be examined, which includes verifying, forensic testing, test firing and Integrated Ballistics Identification System (IBIS) testing. Examiners also provide expert testimony in court. All firearms, ammunition, projectiles and casings brought into the custody of the Service will be screened through the Detective at FIAU or their designate. Members of FIAU are available to assist with all enquiries concerning possession of a firearm licence, authorization to transport, authorization to carry or permits held by an individual. They are also available to assist with investigations involving weapons seizures, illegally possessed firearms and investigations relating to businesses in the City of Toronto involving the use, sale and storage of firearms and related products. Beyond regular business hours, an FEU/FIAU member can only be contacted through the on-call IGGTF.

Answer 1407

Streamline firearms, ammunition and casings

Question 1408

IGGTF will attend scenes/units to debrief arrested persons in ______ of/or _________related officers. Intelligence –Gang Unit will attend units to de–brief known _______~_____. In addition, all firearms and ammunition seized during an investigation will either be:  seized by members of IGGTF if they attended the scene/division  submitted by investigating officer to the divisional DLMS in compliance with Procedure 09–03;  seized on scene by Forensic Identification Services (FIS) and forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation, as required. The IGGTF shall be notified and will attend all firearm–related homicide scenes. The IGGTF investigator shall consult and assist……

Answer 1408

possession of/or firearm related offences gang members. Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide, as required. This Procedure is in two parts

Question 1409

Supervisor officer When notified by an officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s identity having been revealed shall

Answer 1409

 ensure that the Controller and the Unit Commander are notified forthwith  notify the detective sergeant

Question 1410

When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin shall consult with

Answer 1410

Records Management Services | (RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action.

Question 1411

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC) PDRC – Child Welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family was receiving, or had received, the services of a ______~______~_____or ______~______~_____ society within 12 months of the death. The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes ____._____~_____,______s~_____,______From The ______ of the _______, ____and representatives from _______,______ organizations across the province; and is chaired by the Regional ______~_______ for the Province of Ontario.

Answer 1411

Children’s Aid Society (CAS) Indigenous child wellbeing police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare Chief Coroner

Question 1412

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC) PDRC – Medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by the relevant Regional Supervising Coroner. The PDRC – Medical panel includes _______expert’s,_______~_______, senior staff from the office of the ______~_____ and is also chaired by the Regional _______~_____for the province of Ontario.

Answer 1412

paediatric experts, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the Office of the Chief Coroner Chief Coroner

Question 1413

Hate Propaganda means any communication that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability. Hate propaganda offences are found in s. 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code. Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of hatred require the permission of the…….

Answer 1413

Attorney General to proceed with prosecution. Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the Attorney Genera

Question 1414

Missing persons level 3 The Duty Inspector is responsible for ensuring that sufficient resources are made available, the applicable _______ _______ of _______ is advised and determine, after consultation, whether to escalate or de–escalate physical search operations.

Answer 1414

Deputy chief of police

Question 1415

If the alleged offender is a school employee, consideration must be given by the ______~_______ or designate of the investigating unit as soon as practicable of notifying the respective _______ of _______ or designate, responsible individual or body. School officials shall be advised not to interview or advise the alleged offender prior to the police interview.

Answer 1415

Unit Commander Director of Education

Question 1416

Firearms enforcement unit / firearms investigation and analysis unit FIAU Bullet points your words

Answer 1416

Crimes guns Streamline Firearms investigations Screens all Firearms, ammo, and casings Determine if guns are criminal or non criminal. Provide testimony in Court

Question 1417

In addition, all firearms and ammunition seized during an investigation will either be:  seized by members of IGGTF if they attended the scene/division  submitted by investigating officer to the divisional DLMS in compliance with Procedure 09–03;  seized on scene by Forensic Identification Services (FIS) and forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation, as required. The IGGTF shall be notified and will attend all firearm–related homicide scenes. The IGGTF investigator shall consult and assist Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide, as required. This Procedure is in two parts

Answer 1417

 seized by members of IGGTF if they attended the scene/division  submitted by investigating officer to the divisional DLMS in compliance with Procedure 09–03;  seized on scene by Forensic Identification Services (FIS) and forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation, as required. The IGGTF shall be notified and will attend all firearm–related homicide scenes. The IGGTF investigator shall consult and assist Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide, as required. This Procedure is in two parts

Question 1418

ALL firearm trace submissions shall be submitted by _____ only.

Answer 1418

FIAU Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) means the part of the Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force – Firearms Enforcement Unit, responsible for the verification, testing and tracing of all seized firearms and related components including crime scene evidence. FIAU consists of firearm experts who testify in all levels of court, as required. The unit can also assist with expert opinion with respect to video/image analysis and coded language investigations.

Question 1419

Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) means the part of the

Answer 1419

Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force – Firearms Enforcement Unit, responsible for the verification, testing and tracing of all seized firearms and related components including crime scene evidence. FIAU consists of firearm experts who testify in all levels of court, as required. The unit can also assist with expert opinion with respect to video/image analysis and coded language investigations.

Question 1420

CFS Evidence Web-Submission System All submissions to the Centre for Forensic Sciences (CFS) are now made through the CFS Evidence Web-Submission System. Service members will

Answer 1420

submit evidence forms online via the interactive web application; obtain submission approval, packaging labels and track submission status. The system requires all evidence to undergo an online pre-submission review, resulting in notification of which items are approved for submission to CFS. - ALL firearm submissions for testing shall be completed through FIAU only

Question 1421

Supervisory Officer When attending an incident relating to a firearm offence shall -

Answer 1421

assume responsibility for the safe and efficient search of the premises - ensure all powers of search and seizure have been considered - ensure appropriate units have been notified (e.g. IGGTF, FIS, ETF) - All submissions for testing shall be completed through FIAU.

Question 1422

Incident Commander When attending a School Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place shall first comply with Procedure 10–01. Upon conclusion of the incident, shall

Answer 1422

 notify the Operations Supervisor – Communications Services (Operations Supervisor)  request the Operations Supervisor to notify  the Officer in Charge  Emergency Management & Public Order  the TPOC Officer in Charge

Question 1423

CLRA

Answer 1423

ensure that any Children’s Law Reform Act (CLRA) Order of Apprehension is immediately entered on CPIC

Question 1424

Divisional detective Shall in a case of a stranger involved abduction, contact the on–call _______,_____~______~_______ The INT can assist by providing expertise relating to telephone intercepts and other investiga

Answer 1424

Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services (INT)

Question 1425

When is this |  ensure compliance with Procedures 05–06 and the Child Abuse Protocol, where applicable

Answer 1425

Detective at division shall ensure re Child abductions

Question 1426

Oic Det Pc And even Sgt are indicated to notify Ensure _____~______ has been notified when circumstances indicate a non Parental or stranger involved abduction

Answer 1426

ensure Sex Crimes

Question 1427

The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) will contact the ______of _______,or _______. The ______of______ or designate will make the final decision if an AMBER Alert will be initiated. If approved, the Duty Senior Officer will initiate the Alert through the TPOC. (Then it’s faxed to opp)

Answer 1427

Chief of Police, or designate Chief of Police Upon authorization from the Chief of Police or designate to initiate an AMBER Alert, shall ensure  a Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is completed with as much information as possible, keeping in mind that additional supplementary information can be provided at a later time as it becomes available  the Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is forwarded by facsimile or electronic mail to the Duty Officer – OPP GHQ, requesting the activation of an AMBER Alert  The RCMP Missing Child Registry can be accessed by calling toll free to 1–877–318–3567. The automated system will assist investigators in notifying federal law enforcement agencies in both Canada and the U.S. including all border points. Once it has been determined that either the child has been located and is safe, or the duration time of the AMBER Alert has expired and no extention has been requested, shall  ensure the Duty Office – OPP GHQ is notified  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken Definitions

Question 1428

Investigator – Detective Operations – Sex Crimes | Upon being notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18, in addition to unit specific policies shall

Answer 1428

 immediately liaise with the on–call Homicide investigators |  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

Question 1429

When win sex crimes immediately liaise with the on–call Homicide investigators

Answer 1429

Upon being notified of a possible abductions of a Person under 18

Question 1430

Upon authorization from the Chief of Police or designate to initiate an AMBER Alert, shall ensure  a Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is completed with as much information as possible, keeping in mind that additional supplementary information can be provided at a later time as it becomes available  the Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is forwarded by facsimile or electronic mail to the ____~~~~~~~~~_____  The _____ Missing Child Registry can be accessed by calling toll free to 1–877–318–3567. The automated system will assist investigators in notifying federal law enforcement agencies in both Canada and the U.S. including all border points. Once it has been determined that either the child has been located and is safe, or the duration time of the AMBER Alert has expired and no extention has been requested, shall  ensure the Duty Office – OPP GHQ is notified  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken Definitions

Answer 1430

Duty Officer – OPP GHQ, requesting the activation of an AMBER Alert RCMP

Question 1431

Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Once it has been determined that either the child has been located and is safe, or the duration time of the AMBER Alert has expired and no extention has been requested, shall  ensure the Duty Office – _______ is notified  ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken Definitions

Answer 1431

OPP GHQ

Question 1432

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or any other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of _______ whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person. Restraining Order means an order of the Court (Ontario Court of Justice), which restrains one parent from having contact with the other parent and/or children. This could also include restraining both parents from having contact with their children. Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) Missing Child Registry means the n

Answer 1432

fourteen

Question 1433

Restraining Order means an order of the Court (Ontario Court of Justice), which restrains one parent from having contact with the other parent and/or children. This could also include restraining _____ parents from having contact with their children.

Answer 1433

Both

Question 1434

Search Management Team means the team from Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO), supported by the ________ division, responsible for co–ordinating a Level ____ search for a missing person.

Answer 1434

requesting 3

Question 1435

The Mental Health Act (MHA) provides for the _______,______,______and ______ of emotionally disturbed persons. This Procedure addresses situations where officers observe verbal cues, behavioural cues or other behaviours that provide them with reasonable cause to believe a person is apparently suffering a mental disorder.

Answer 1435

control, apprehension, detention and treatment

Question 1436

Section ______ MHA – Action by Police Officer Section _____ of the MHA states that Where a police officer has reasonable and probable grounds to believe that a person is acting or has acted in a disorderly manner and has reasonable cause to believe that the person, (

Answer 1436

17 has threatened or attempted or is threatening or attempting to cause bodily harm to himself or herself; (b) has behaved or is behaving violently towards another person or has caused or is causing another person to fear bodily harm from him or her; or (c) has shown or is showing a lack of competence to care for himself or herself,

Question 1437

and in addition the police officer is of the opinion that the person is apparently suffering from mental disorder of a nature or quality that likely will result in,  serious bodily harm to the person;  serious bodily harm to another person; or  serious physical impairment of the person, and that it would be dangerous to proceed under section ____ (Justice of the Peace Order for Examination, Form ____), the police officer may take the person in custody to an appropriate place for examination by a physician. There is no longer a requirement for a police officer to actually observe the person’s behaviour and may use information obtained from a third party in order to form reasonable and probable grounds for apprehension. Police officers should obtain and record as much information as possible in situations involving third party reports and request that the complainant sign the officer’s memorandum book.

Answer 1437

16 2

Question 1438

Section ____ MHA – Duty to Remain and Retain Custody Section ___ of the MHA directs  A police officer or other person who takes a person in custody to a psychiatric facility shall ____ at the facility and retain custody of the person until the facility takes custody of him or her in the prescribed manner.

Answer 1438

33 33 remain

Question 1439

Form 47 MHA means an Order for Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within _____ hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffer deterioration. A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid for a period of ____ days.

Answer 1439

72 Form 47 MHA means an Order for Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffer deterioration. A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid for a period of 30 days. Mental Disorder means any disease or disability of the mind. [Source: Mental Health Act, ss. 1(1)] A person suffering from a mental disorder may have to live with a long–term breakdown of coping skills including perception, decision making and problem solving abilities. Person in Crisis means a person who suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help, demonstrating that they are in touch with reality. Once a person in crisis receives the needed help, there is often a rapid return to normalcy. Physician means a legally qualified medical practitioner. [Source: Health Protection and Promotion Act, ss. 1(1)]. Psychiatric Facility means a facility for the observation, care and treatment of persons suffering from a mental disorder and designated as such by the regulation contained in the Mental Health Act. See Procedure 06-04, Appendix B for a list of designated psychiatric facilities.

Question 1440

Service Vehicle Collision – Responsibility for Investigation Members shall comply with Procedure 07–01 which outlines the responsibility for collision investigations. A supervisory officer and a .—— officer shall attend the scene and assume the responsibility for all SVC investigations. Subject to availability, the attending supervisory officer shall be from ____.

Answer 1440

TSV Subject to availability, the attending supervisory officer shall be from ____. TSV

Question 1441

Unit Commander – Involved Member | When in receipt of a SVCR that has been reviewed by TSV shall

Answer 1441

 review to ensure compliance with applicable procedures  ensure the appropriate action is taken, which may include  consideration for repetitive behaviour  recommendation for a driving assessment and/or driver development training  initiating criminal or provincial charges  commencing an internal complaint in compliance with the applicable procedures contained in Chapter 13  ensure that a copy of the SRLD401 has been sent to FLT  ensure repairs are made to the Service vehicle in a timely manner  review SVCR for completeness, accuracy and systemic integrity  if concurring with the report, email a copy of the TPS 559 and SRLD401 for  all not–at–fault, property damage only SVCR to Professional Standards Support – Analysis and Assessment (PSIS Analyst) (the original is retained on unit file and copy on member’s file per retention schedule)  all other collisions, (including at–fault collisions, personal injury collisions, and pursuit–related collisions) to the involved member’s Staff Superintendent / Director  if not concurring with the report and/or errors/omissions are identified ensure corrections are made in a timely manner and, once corrected, forward to the TSV Unit Commander (Designate) – SVC Review

Question 1442

Service Vehicle Collision (SVC)

Answer 1442

means a vehicle collision involving a Toronto Police Service vehicle where involvement is direct or indirect.

Question 1443

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Committee (SVCRC) means a panel consisting of, but not limited to, the Unit Commander and/or Designate from:

Answer 1443

 Professional Standards Support  Traffic Services  Toronto Police College with the mandate to monitor Toronto Police Service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues, and report its findings to the Chief of Police.

Question 1444

Dates to know

Answer 1444

The Missing Persons Act came into effect on July 1, 2019. This legislat Cloutier v. Langlois (Supreme Court of Canada) (1990)  R. v. Flintoff (Ontario Court of Appeal) (1998)  R. v. Coulter (Ontario Court of Justice) (2000)  R. v. Golden (Supreme Court of Canada) (2001)  R. v. Clarke, Heroux and Pilipa (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2003)  R. v. Mann (Supreme Court of Canada) (2004)  R. v. McGuffie (Ontario Court of Appeal) (2016)  R. v. MacPherson (Ontario Native Council on Justice) (2018)  R. v. Tonkin (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2020) A member of a police force is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so. [Source: Missing Person Act, 2018] tion Reports & Historical Contact Data As of January 1, 2017, all Historical Contact Data shall be classified as restricted. Access to any Regulated Interaction Report collected in accordance with this Procedure shall be restricted 5 years after the date it was submitted to the Service’s records management system.

Question 1445

Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with

Answer 1445

 the “Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co– ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;  the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;  the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children under 5 years of age; and  the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O. 2012.12.31–1557).

Question 1446

Protection Services for ____ and ____ Year olds On, _____ January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18 years. Children who are ____ or ____ years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new ``` Voluntary Youth Services Agreement (VYSA), see ```

Answer 1446

2018 16 and 17

Question 1447

``` Voluntary Youth Services Agreement (VYSA), ``` What is it??

Answer 1447

On, 2018 January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18 years. Children who are 16 or 17 years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new Voluntary Youth Services Agreement (VYSA), see Appendix C. Police Officer

Question 1448

The EFAP provider will only breach client confidentiality when required by law, such as

Answer 1448

 when records are _______ by a court of law  when there is suspicion that a ______ is or may be in need of protection from current or potential physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect  when there is a need to intervene to prevent serious ______ to an individual or others  when there is a need to report a _____~______ where there is reason to believe that they are not working in accordance with the standards of the Regulated Health Professions Act  when records are subpoenaed by a court of law  when there is suspicion that a child is or may be in need of protection from current or potential physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect  when there is a need to intervene to prevent serious harm to an individual or others  when there is a need to report a health professional where there is reason to believe that they are not working in accordance with the standards of the Regulated Health Professions Act

Question 1449

Upon becoming aware that another member may be experiencing a problem shall

Answer 1449

 refrain from ________ a person who is suffering a problem  encourage the member to seek assistance ________ before work performance or safety is affected  provide support and encouragement to assist the member and/or family in accessing ______ support  refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident  refrain from diagnosing a person who is suffering a problem  encourage the member to seek assistance voluntarily before work performance or safety is affected  provide support and encouragement to assist the member and/or family in accessing EFAP support  refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident

Question 1450

Supervisor Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall 

Answer 1450

advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider  permit the member the _______ to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements  follow–up as necessary with the member for support and ______  refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider  permit the member the opportunity to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements  follow–up as necessary with the member for support and encouragement  refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident

Question 1451

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to:

Answer 1451

 liaise with - the EFAP provider and its CIRT, - the Toronto Police Operations Centre, Officer in Charge and/or unit commander, and the CIRT/Peer Support Volunteers (PSVs), and; - work with CIRT/PSVs, the EFAP provider, and/or _________ Services to co–ordinate defusing and debriefing sessions. Psychological

Question 1452

``` Family – Employee and Family Assistance Program for the purposes of using the services of the Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) provider includes: ```

Answer 1452

 a spouse or partner from a same sex or opposite sex relationship;  dependent children.

Question 1453

Procedure In the normal course of their duties, members are involved in events that meet the definition of “traumatic critical incident”.

Answer 1453

Serious ______~_______and ______~______s are two examples of such routine events. More catastrophic events occur less frequently and may increase the potential for members to experience symptoms of critical incident stress. Keeping in mind that any event has potential to interfere with a member’s ability to function ________ or ________; supervisors, officers in charge and unit commanders must assess each traumatic critical incident to determine the appropriate level of support for members involved. The determination of whether or not the Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) / Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) is immediately contacted will be dependent on the assessment by the officer in charge in consultation with the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC). However, the CIRT/PSV must be contacted in all instances in which the member has _______~________ support. Additionally, supervisors, officers in charge and unit commanders MUST ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed for all members involved in an event and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03. Serious traffic collisions and sudden deaths are two examples of such routine events. More catastrophic events occur less frequently and may increase the potential for members to experience symptoms of critical incident stress. Keeping in mind that any event has potential to interfere with a member’s ability to function professionally or personally; supervisors, officers in charge and unit commanders must assess each traumatic critical incident to determine the appropriate level of support for members involved. The determination of whether or not the Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) / Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) is immediately contacted will be dependent on the assessment by the officer in charge in consultation with the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC). However, the CIRT/PSV must be contacted in all instances in which the member has requested immediate support. Additionally, supervisors, officers in charge and unit commanders MUST ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed for all members involved in an event and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03.

Question 1454

For Traumatic Critical incidents The wording for the Injured on Duty Report under the section “Nature and Area of Injury(ies)” shall be: “

Answer 1454

Traumatic Critical | Incident”.

Question 1455

Officer in Charge / Civilian Equivalent | Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall

Answer 1455

 provided a copy of the Critical Incident Stress Handout (Appendix A) Many other pg 132 but this one stood out

Question 1456

the Critical Incident Stress Handout is made available when ;

Answer 1456

Unit Commander Upon becoming aware that a traumatic critical incident has taken place shall ensure the TPOC is immediately consulted any time a member requests immediate support Officer in Charge / Civilian Equivalent Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall

Question 1457

Who notifies CIRT/PSV Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall respond to the unit’s request in consultation with the unit commander or the officer in charge of the involved unit. If assessment of the incident has determined that the CIRT must be activated, the TPOC shall

Answer 1457

Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall respond to the unit’s request in consultation with the unit commander or the officer in charge of the involved unit. If assessment of the incident has determined that the CIRT must be activated, the TPOC shall  immediately notify  the on–call CIRT/PSV using the on-call roster at the TPOC  the EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator, during business hours  the Duty Senior Officer – TPOC  an on–call member of the Senior Officers Organization and/or Toronto Police Association, whichever is appropriate  comply with Procedure 13–16, where appropriate

Question 1458

PSV’s ate not

Answer 1458

Counsellors. Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) means a Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek professional treatment, if required.

Question 1459

Traumatic Critical Incident means any incident during which a member experiences, witnesses, or is confronted with

Answer 1459

serious injury, death, or mass casualties; any incident in which the member’s life has been imperilled or threatened; or any situation which is recognized at the time to have the potential to significantly interfere immediately or at a later time with a member’s ability to function professionally or personally.

Question 1460

Considerations The Officer in Charge, supervisor, EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator, CIRT/PSV and/or the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC), as required, should consult with the unit commander of the affected unit as early as possible on the best course of action. Consideration should be given to addressing the following areas, as required

Answer 1460

 scheduling of the mandatory defusing and debriefing sessions for involved members  personal safety issues  communication between family and the Service  transportation of immediate and extended family  spouse’s needs  child care financial needs  home maintenance  pet care  assistance from the Senior Officers Organization and Toronto Police Association

Question 1461

Restricted Duties (Substance Abuse) for the purposes of a _________ seeking help for a substance abuse problem, means work that is_____ to permit a member with a disability to work in accordance with limitations imposed by the Medical Advisor – Wellness – Medical Advisory Services. Sick Benefits means sick leave accrued in accordance w

Answer 1461

Member modified

Question 1462

The Toronto Police Services Board (Board) and the Toronto Police Service (Service) are committed to providing all its members with a workplace that is safe. The________~_____&_____~_____ legislates that workers are provided a safe workplace. This procedure outlines for members what constitutes workplace violence and the process for reporting workplace violence. Members reporting workplace violence, including……..

Answer 1462

Occupational Health & Safety Act (OHSA) domestic violence, are protected from reprisal.

Question 1463

``` The ________(four letters) requires the employer to assess the risk of workplace violence that may arise from the nature of the workplace, the type of work or the conditions of work. The assessment shall take into account ```

Answer 1463

The OHSA  circumstances that would be common to similar workplaces  circumstances specific to the workplace, and  any other prescribed element.

Question 1464

Workplace violence Officer in Charge / Designate The Officer in Charge shall ensure  members are made aware of how to immediately ________ assistance if workplace violence occurs  any complainant or witness is protected from reprisal and comply with Procedure 13–18  the workplace is not _____or ______

Answer 1464

summon toxic or poisoned When notified of a member refusing to work as a result of a workplace violence incident shall  ensure the member remains available and in a safe place for the purposes of an investigation, if applicable Upon becoming aware of, or ought reasonably to be aware of, violence which may occur in the workplace, and would likely expose a member to physical injury, shall take every reasonable precaution necessary for the protection of the member. Reasonable precaution necessary for the protection of the member may include the re–assignment to reasonable alternative duties.

Question 1465

Domestic Violence means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved in an intimate relationship including:

Answer 1465

 assault;  murder;  sexual assault;  threatening;  harassment;  intimidation;  unlawful interference with personal liberty;  any other criminal offence;  offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.; but does not include child abuse investigations.

Question 1466

Workplace Harassment Supervision  Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for any incident of workplace harassment  Supervisory Officer, Officer in Charge and Unit Commander notification mandatory for any incident of workplace harassment Procedure The Service is committed to the delivery of police services that are fair, respectful, unbiased, and in line with the OHSA and its provisions that are designed to protect workers from workplace harassment. The definition of workplace harassment under the OHSA is broader than the definition contained in the____~_____~_____~_____ (Code).

Answer 1466

Ontario Human Rights Code

Question 1467

Supervisor | Upon becoming aware of any incident of workplace harassment shall

Answer 1467

 maintain confidentiality  report any incident of workplace harassment to the Officer in Charge  commence an investigation  speak to the member initiating the complaint in private  when gathering evidence comply with Procedure 04–21, if applicable  when the harassment is domestic related comply with Procedure 05–04, if applicable  when the harassment includes a prohibited ground under the Code, also comply with Procedure 13–14, if applicable  if an arrest is made, comply with Procedure 01–01  when a member requires counselling, including counselling which is gender and culturally specific, comply with Procedure 08–01  take all reasonable precautions necessary for the protection of the member

Question 1468

Workplace Sexual Harassment means engaging in a course of________ comment or conduct against a worker in a workplace because of

Answer 1468

vexatious sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression, where the course of comment or conduct is known or ought reasonably to be known to be unwelcome, or making a sexual solicitation or advance where the person making the solicitation or advance is in a position to confer, grant or deny a benefit or advancement to the worker and the person knows or ought reasonably to know that the solicitation or advance is unwelcome.

Question 1469

Fentanyl Fentanyl is a powerful_______ opioid that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. The potency and toxicity of fentanyl varies significantly, as it is sometimes combined with other powdered illicit narcotics and cutting agents. As it can be ______~_______, proper handling of suspected fentanyl and fentanyl analogues is essential to minimizing health risks to involved members. Members shall seek immediate medical attention, in compliance with Procedure 08–06, if they feel ill and note any of the following symptoms:

Answer 1469

synthetic skin permeable ```  irregular and or shallow difficult breathing,  confusion,  seizures,  dizziness,  excessive drowsiness,  headaches,  pinpoint pupils, or  nausea/vomiting. ```

Question 1470

Medical Oversight Section 27 of the Regulated Health Professions Act (RHPA) states that controlled medical acts, such as_______ Naloxone nasal spray to a person experiencing an opioid overdose, may only be performed by persons who are not_______ if a physician has delegated that authority to them. The Service has obtained a medical______ from a physician in order for designated members to be able to administer Naloxone to members of the public experiencing an overdose. This medical delegation stipulates that all members being issued Naloxone shall maintain a current Standard First Aid certification. Failure to maintain a Standard First Aid certification shall result in the requirement for those members to return their Service issued Naloxone kit. The Naloxone Tracking Form text template shall be used to track Naloxone use. Any member that attends an opioid-related overdose shall complete this text template in the related eReport forthwith, regardless of whether Naloxone was _______or______

Answer 1470

administering physicians delegation administered or not.

Question 1471

Unit Commander When in command of members that have been issued a Naloxone kit shall ensure  the members have successfully completed the Naloxone training program as required by the TPC  the members complete Standard First Aid training at least once every ______ months  compliance with item 2 When a member’s Standard First Aid certification expires, shall ensure that their Service issued Naloxone kit is returned to FLT – Hanna.

Answer 1471

36

Question 1472

the members complete Standard First Aid training at least once every ______ months

Answer 1472

36

Question 1473

Current studies indicate the risk of occupational exposure to Cannabis for Service members is low. Second and third hand smoke is not likely to create a reportable exposure and impairment due to the length of time and conditions required for any effects to be realized. Studies have shown that it can take upwards of _______ hours of continuous exposure in an unventilated space where multiple smokers are actively smoking to show second hand absorption.

Answer 1473

4

Question 1474

Fitness for Duty Assessments Fitness for duty assessments of Service members are the responsibility of MAS. No medical information will be disclosed to a member’s Unit Commander, however MAS will share information related to an absence or return to work abilities. Factors that may impact a member’s fitness for duty include

Answer 1474

illness, injury, fatigue, mental stress, alcohol and drug use.

Question 1475

Cannabis Unlike alcohol, which eliminates from the body at a constant rate, compounds found in cannabis such as tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) are metabolically complex and are released from the body at variable rates. THC is responsible for the way the _____and____ respond to cannabis. Factors such as _______ of cannabis use and body fat levels cause people to metabolize THC differently and, dependent on the person, THC can stay stored in the body’s fat deposits for up to _____ days after cannabis was last ingested. The Service places the highest value on the protection of life and the safety of its members and the public, and relies on members to perform their job tasks free from impairment. Because cognitive impairment from cannabis use can persist for up to 28 days after the initial intoxicating effects, there exists a risk of potential harm to the public and other Service members post-consumption of cannabis. In accordance with Standards of Conduct 1.25, members shall not: ________ cannabis while at work, and/or use recreational cannabis while at work, on duty, on call, or in uniform; or  for a minimum of 28 days prior to attending work. The Service will endeavour to accommodate all members who require the use of medically-prescribed or authorized cannabis, in compliance with Procedure 08–13. Members who knowingly contravene Standards of Conduct 1.25 shall be subject to discipline in accordance with Chapter 13 of Procedures.

Answer 1475

brain and body Frequency 28 possess

Question 1476

Unit Complaint Coordinator When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint cannot be resolved by an informal resolution shall

Answer 1476

 provide the respondent officer with a TPS ______ outlining the substance of the complaint  record the particulars of the notification to the officer in their memorandum book, if applicable  consult with _____~_____&____~_____ regarding an alleged violation of a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code  conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes  ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21  if applicable, direct the respondent and witness officers to  provide a TPS 217, and/or  attend an investigative interview  direct the officers to provide additional information as required  notify the Unit Commander of all side issues, where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, and comply with Procedure 13–03 as appropriate  liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations  complete a ______ Day Investigation Status Update Form 004-0306 OIPRD and submit electronically within ____ calendar days to the OIPRD Liaison Officer  prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within ______ days to the Unit Commander When required to facilitate a local resolution shall  provide the respondent officer with a TPS 649 outlining the substance of the complaint  record the particulars of the notification to the officer in their memorandum book, if applicable  consult with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights regarding an alleged violation of a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code  conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes  ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21  if applicable, direct the respondent and witness officers to  provide a TPS 217, and/or  attend an investigative interview  direct the officers to provide additional information as required  notify the Unit Commander of all side issues, where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, and comply with Procedure 13–03 as appropriate  liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations  complete a 45 Day Investigation Status Update Form 004-0306 OIPRD and submit electronically within 35 calendar days to the OIPRD Liaison Officer  prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Commander When required to facilitate a local resolution shall

Question 1477

Procedure The Chief of Police (Chief) hereby authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the Chief under the PSA

Answer 1477

 any Deputy Chief of Police  all Uniform Senior Officers  all officers permanently assigned to Professional Standards (PRS)  the Officer in Charge of a unit

Question 1478

the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. ____ protection against arbitrary detention and the S. ____ right to equal treatment under the law;

Answer 1478

9 15

Question 1479

he Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. ____ freedom from discrimination based on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;

Answer 1479

1

Question 1480

The disciplinary actions available in a substantiated complaint for a civilian member are:  ________ reprimand  ________ reprimand  ________ without pay  ________ without pay pending recommendation for termination. Civilian members may not utilize time banks as an alternative to a suspension without pay. In accordance with the principles of progressive discipline, assessed disciplinary penalties shall increase for subsequent offences and subsequent penalties shall not regress in severity. However, in exceptional circumstances, and only following consultation with and advice from

Answer 1480

Verbally written suspension suspension

Question 1481

Special Review Where a supervisor identifies the performance of a member that is less than satisfactory and the work performance deficiency cannot be corrected through discussion, guidance or training, the supervisor shall record the deficiency on a TPS 955. A Special Review is a two–part process. The initial part involves an _______ between the member and the unit commander. This initial meeting is intended to ensure that management practices or accommodation factors are not the root cause of the reported deficiency. Where it is established that a supervisor or manager failed to provide adequate or necessary training or equipment, or failed to establish or communicate a work performance standard, an internal complaint shall be initiated against the supervisor or manager in compliance with the applicable procedures in Chapter 13. The second part of the Special Review will be initiated where it is identified that the work performance deficiency is a persistent situation attributable to the individual member. A meeting between the unit commander, the assigned supervisor and the member will be held to

Answer 1481

interview  develop a plan for corrective action  profile the time frame for improvement  detail the specific standard to be met  explain the possible disciplinary ramifications if the standards are not met. The time frame for a Special Review is 90 calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness. The additional review periods will be in increments of 30 calendar days, to a maximum of 90 calendar days. No Special Review shall be initiated until the member has received a copy of the specific standard to be met and has been informed of the disciplinary consequences if the standard is not met.

Question 1482

The following outcomes are possible at the conclusion of a Special Review

Answer 1482

Member meets standard: TPS 955 is concluded and placed in the unit personnel file until 2 full years have passed without further negative reports. Member fails to meet standard: If a police officer is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 901 will be generated and the internal complaint process will be initiated in compliance with Procedure 13–03. If a civilian member is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 931 will be generated and the civilian disciplinary process will be initiated in compliance with Procedure 13–09.

Question 1483

The second part of the Special Review will be initiated where it is identified that the work performance deficiency is a persistent situation attributable to the individual member. A meeting between the unit commander, the assigned supervisor and the member will be held to

Answer 1483

 develop a plan for corrective action  profile the time frame for improvement  detail the specific standard to be met  explain the possible disciplinary ramifications if the standards are not met.

Question 1484

The time frame for a Special Review is _____ calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness. The additional review periods will be in increments of _____ calendar days, to a maximum of _____ calendar days. No Special Review shall be initiated until the member has received a copy of the specific standard to be met and has been informed of the disciplinary consequences if the standard is not met.

Answer 1484

90 30 90

Question 1485

Ontario Human Rights Code The Human Rights Code prohibits actions that discriminate based on a prohibited ground in a protected social area. The following are the Human Rights Code prohibited grounds:

Answer 1485

```  Age;  Ancestry;  Colour;  Race;  Citizenship;  Ethnic origin;  Place of origin;  Creed;  Disability;  Family status;  Marital status (including single status);  Gender Identity;  Gender expression;  Receipt of public assistance (in housing only);  Record of offences (in employment only);  Sex (including pregnancy and breastfeeding); and  Sexual orientation. ``` The following are the Human Rights Code protected social areas:  Accommodation (housing)  Contracts  Employment  Goods, services and facilities  Membership in vocational associations and trade unions

Question 1486

Detention Facility means any

Answer 1486

central lock–up and/or booking hall.

Question 1487

Moderate symptoms can occur within ____~_____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within ____ hrs.

Answer 1487

24 – 36 48

Question 1488

Community Patrol means the performance of general policing duties in the community by officers assigned to a combination of

Answer 1488

general and directed patrol, targeted and problem oriented policing initiatives.

Question 1489

Community Police Liaison Committee Define it

Answer 1489

CPLC) means a divisional committee that represents all segments of the community.

Question 1490

Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC) means an independent government agency that provides leadership for the promotion, protection and advancement of human rights and builds partnerships across the human rights system (but…..

Answer 1490

does | not receive Human Rights Code complaints).

Question 1491

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator When investigating complaints of historical sexual assault, officers are reminded to be sensitive to the possibility that the person reporting the incident may be experiencing a wide range of victim ______ reactions including symptoms of ______~\______~_____~____ and other symptoms of crisis or distress. These reactions may have a significant impact on the dynamics of the investigation including the interview with the person who has experienced the sexual assault.  As with recent sexual assault investigations, the ______ field in eReport shall be completed for historical sexual assaults.

Answer 1491

anxiety Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)  As with recent sexual assault investigations, the MO field in eReport shall be completed for historical sexual assaults.

Question 1492

All complaints of abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall be_______in _____ by a police officer. This includes those at (places)_______ An occurrence report shall be submitted for each police response to a complaint of abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult. Supervisory Officer

Answer 1492

attended in person retirement homes, long-term care homes, residential care facilities or any other institutional settings.

Question 1493

Designated Operator for the purposes persons in custody means any ____ designated as an audio/video operator with an understanding of how to operate the equipment.

Answer 1493

Member

Question 1494

mpliance with  the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. _____ protection against arbitrary detention and the S. ____ right to equal treatment under the law;  O. Reg. 58/16;  the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;  the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part II of the MFIPPA; and

Answer 1494

9 15

Question 1495

Alternative Dispute Resolution means

Answer 1495

mediation, conciliation, negotiation or any other means of facilitating the resolution of issues in dispute by a third party off site meeting.

Question 1496

140. Which statement is true about prisoner transport? A) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, age of the person, and the odometer reading B) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the address, the gender expression and age of the person, and the odometer reading C) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the person, and the odometer reading D) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the address, age of the adult, and the odometer reading E) No need to tell dispatch anything. 141. Who shall ensure when an arrest ha

Answer 1496

C C) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the person, and the odometer reading

Question 1497

``` 141. Who shall ensure when an arrest has been made, consideration is given to the public interest in deciding to continue the detention of an arrested person. A) Police officer B) Officer C) Officer in Charge D) Supervisory office E) Supervisor 142. Who shall be respon ```

Answer 1497

C Oic

Question 1498

``` 142. Who shall be responsible for ensuring the Hold-Up Squad and FIS/SOCO are notified to attend and take charge of the investigation (HOLD-UPS AND ROBBERIES IN THEIR MANDATE) until the arrival of the HUS? A) First officer on scene B) Supervising Officer C) Supervisor D) Divisional Investigator E) Officer in Charge ```

Answer 1498

D Divisional investigator

Question 1499

``` 148. In case of death in police custody, who shall notify the Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC)? A) Staff Sergeant B) Officer in Charge (OIC) C) Supervisory officer D) Booking Sergeant E) SIU 149. Sex ```

Answer 1499

C) Supervisory officer

Question 1500

154. Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC) receives Human Rights Code complaints. A) TRUE B) FALS

Answer 1500

False

Question 1501

155. In accordance with the Police Services Act, (PSA) the Chief of Police may suspend a police officer from duty without pay where the police officer is suspected of, or charged with, an offence under a law of Canada or of a province or territory, or is suspected of misconduct under the PSA. A) TRUE B) False

Answer 1501

False Technically because it didn’t go on to say “sentenced to a term of imprisonment” In accordance with the Police Services Act, (PSA) the Chief of Police may suspend a police officer from duty with pay where the police officer is suspected of, or charged with, an offence under a law of Canada or of a province or territory, or is suspected of misconduct under the PSA. If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of an offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may suspend him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal. Procedure

Question 1502

Gender _______ is how a person _______ ______ their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and important ways of expressing gender.

Answer 1502

Gender Expression Publicly presents

Question 1503

Gender_______ is each person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man, both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual orientation Trans includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), nonbinary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that reflect their lived identity.

Answer 1503

identity

Question 1504

Trans includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans______ (someone assigned male at birth who knows themself to be a_______), trans_______ (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a ____), nonbinary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity. Trans persons may or may not make a_______ transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity_____ that reflect their lived identity.

Answer 1504

woman, woman Man, man social documents

Question 1505

157. Search of Persons (01-02); Officer in Charge notification mandatory; A) after conducting a search at the station B) before conducting a search at the station C) while conducting a search at the station D) no need to notify E) only when you find something cool 158. In a Traumatic Critical Inci

Answer 1505

A Supervision Officer in Charge notification mandatory  after conducting a search at the station  regarding grounds and circumstances (Strip search)  there are reasonable grounds to believe the person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity

Question 1506

Supervision. Search of Persons | Officer in Charge notification mandatory

Answer 1506

 after conducting a search at the station  regarding grounds and circumstances (Strip search)  there are reasonable grounds to believe the person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity

Question 1507

``` 160. Who shall commence an investigation upon becoming aware of, or ought reasonably to be aware of workplace violence or threat of workplace violence, including domestic violence or violence which may occur in the workplace, and would likely expose any member to physical injury? A) Any member B) Supervisor C) Officer in Charge D) Unit Commander E) PRS 161. Which sect ```

Answer 1507

B Supervisor

Question 1508

``` 171. The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. Which case law supports this? A) R.v. Feeney B) Cloutier v. Langlois C) R.v. Golden D) R.v. Flintoff E) R.v ```

Answer 1508

B

Question 1509

``` Who shall make every effort to determine a dominant aggressor before considering charging both parties in a domestic violence situation? A) First officer on scene B) Supervisory Officer C) Officer D) Domestic Violence Investigator E) Investigator ```

Answer 1509

D

Question 1510

``` who shall make every effort to determine a dominant aggressor before considering charging both parties in a domestic violence situation? A) First officer on scene B) Supervisory Officer C) Officer D) Domestic Violence Investigator E) Investigator ```

Answer 1510

D

Question 1511

179. The ETF shall be notified for incidents involving emotionally disturbed persons, including suicide intervention. A) TRUE B) FALSE

Answer 1511

A

Question 1512

On, 2018 January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of _____ years. Children who are _____or _____years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new Voluntary Youth Services Agreement (VYSA), see Appendix C.

Answer 1512

18 olds

Question 1513

``` 188. In case of a potential child abduction, who is responsible for notifying TPOC? A) Supervisory Officer B) Supervisor C) Sergeant on Scene D) Officer in Charge E) Detective Sergeant ```

Answer 1513

D

Question 1514

``` 193. In a confirmed hold-up, who shall notify TPOC? A) Supervisory Officer B) Member C) Officer D) Divisional Investigator E) Officer in Charge - Division ```

Answer 1514

E

Question 1515

195. In which case is Supervisor attendance NOT mandatory? A) Suicide B) Possible sudden death C) Unable to notify next of kin in person D) Unnatural sudden death E) Suspected homicide

Answer 1515

C

Question 1516

201. Who conducts the investigation when there is a death in police custody? A) SIU and Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) will conduct parallel investigations B) SIU C) Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) D) CIB E) All of the above

Answer 1516

A

Question 1517

Who conducts the investigation when there is a death in police custody? A) SIU and Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) will conduct parallel investigations B) SIU C) Detective Operations

Answer 1517

A

Question 1518

``` 203. Who assess the effectiveness of the Service’s training, practices and associated Service Governance, and report its findings to the Senior Management Team (SMT)? A) Use of Force Committee B) Toronto Police College C) Incident Review Committee D) Governance and Procedure Unit E) Ontario Standards and Practices Com ```

Answer 1518

C

Question 1519

``` 208. ________________ is responsible for consulting with the investigating officer and contacting the Chief of Police or designate to receive authorization to activate an AMBER Alert when appropriate. A) Officer in Charge B) OIC C) Unit Commander D) Duty Senior Officer E) TPOC ```

Answer 1519

D

Question 1520

__________ is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness or a combination of both. a) Delirium Tremens b) Alcohol Withdrawal c) Excited delirium d) Positional Asphyxia

Answer 1520

C

Question 1521

______________ requires the Toronto Police Service (Service) to collect, analyze and publicly report on data related to the race of those individuals with whom Service members interact. a) 81 recommendations by Toronto Police Board b) Toronto Police Procedures and Governance c) Race based data collection, analysis and Public reporting d) Action Plan: The Way Forward 2

Answer 1521

C

Question 1522

Accused young persons must be fingerprinted and photographed prior to being lodged atanylock–up for young persons._________ will transport young persons for this purpose and will determine, on a case by case basis, which adult central lock-up will be used for this function. a. OfficerinCharge b. Booker c. DistrictSpecialConstable d. Court Services

Answer 1522

D

Question 1523

Officer in Charge Upon receipt of  A licence, registration certificate, authorization or other document enabling the acquisition or possession of a firearm or a weapon, or  Travel documents, including passport from an accused person surrendering these items as part of bail conditions shall Notifythe_____________ thattheaccusedpersonhascompliedwiththeapplicable bail conditions a) Arresting officer b) Case Manager c) Detective Sergeant d) Crown Attorney 02-01 Arrest Warrants

Answer 1523

B

Question 1524

What is defined as any article and/or document found by, seized by, surrendered to, or intended to be surrendered to a Service member? a) Abandoned Property b) Informational Material c) Surrendered Property d) Property

Answer 1524

D

Question 1525

According to Category D, If the reportee is situated outside the city of Toronto, and the missing person is a resident of the city of Toronto, who is responsible for the initial report? a) Division reportee resides b) Division Missing Person Last Known to Be c) TPOC to determine d) Division Missing Person resides

Answer 1525

D

Question 1526

What is defined as the national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non – parental abduction? a) National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) b) RCMP 1667 c) National Center for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) d) Missing Persons Unit 04-14 Regulated Interactions

Answer 1526

A

Question 1527

Officer in Charge of Toronto Police Operations Center, when notified of a death in police custody shall notify the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority and the appropriate ___________? a) Deputy Chief of Police b) Chief of Police c) Staff Superintendent – East, West & Field Services d) Staff Superintendent – Professional Standards 11

Answer 1527

A

Question 1528

What is an operational philosophy requiring local police –community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order, and enforce the law? a) Intelligence led policing b) Crime Prevention c) Problem oriented policing d) Community Policing

Answer 1528

D

Question 1529

What is defined as the act of upholding community standards, using both informal community activities and law enforcement to create a safer environment, and an improved quality of life? a) Community Policing b) Order Maintenance c) Quality of Life d) Problem oriented policing

Answer 1529

B

Question 1530

A Supervisory officer, when notified by an officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s i dentity having been revealed shall notify whom? a) Officer in Charge b) Detective Sergeant c) Staff Sergeant d) Detective

Answer 1530

B

Question 1531

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReports, for a death of a child under 5 years of age. Following the post mortem examination, a Preliminary Autopsy Findings Reportwillbecompletedbythe___________ andforwardedtotheinvestigator. a) Coroner’s office b) Office of Chief Coroner c) Pathologist d) Regional Chief Coroner

Answer 1531

C

Question 1532

Police officers shall fully document their response to every domestic violence and domestic incident call, regardless of whether a criminal offence has been committed or a charge laid/an arrest made. Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist, and the decision to lay charges shall not be influenced by factors such as following EXCEPT: a) Immigration status of parties b) Disposition of previous calls for service c) Victim unwillingness to attend court d) Accused unwillingness to attend court

Answer 1532

D

Question 1533

Detective Sergeant, when in charge of a divisional detective office shall ensure in cases involving high risk offenders the use of_______________is considered as part of a high risk offender management strategy. a) EMPO – Drone Program b) Physical surveillance c) Victim Services Program d) Ankle monitor Program – Bail & Parole

Answer 1533

B

Question 1534

_______________ is designated as the Service liaison with other police services regarding Service member–involved domestic violence occurrences outside the City of Toronto, and shall be responsible for submitting a TPS 901. a) Professional Standards b) Unit Complaints Coordinator, at applicable unit c) Corporate Risk Management d) Unit Commander

Answer 1534

A

Question 1535

59. Where a member of another police service is a suspect/accused shall notify their ______________ or if absent the____________ ofthecircumstances. a) Officer in Charge or if absent the Unit Commander of applicable unit b) Officer in Charge or if absent the Unit Commander of PRS c) Unit Commander or if absent the Duty officer d) Applicable Duty Inspector of if absent the Superintendent of applicable unit

Answer 1535

C

Question 1536

When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall ensure  detective personnel are assigned and attend the scene  a copy of the completed eReport and Preliminary Police Report are forwarded by TPS eFax to the Office of the Chief Coroner as soon as practicable, and _____ to the post mortem examination  if involving a foreign national, notify Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section - Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from which they emigrated.

Answer 1536

Prior

Question 1537

Restricted Source means a person who has been

Answer 1537

restricted by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO–SMS). Such a person shall not be used as such by any officer unless designated by the Controller.

Question 1538

Toronto Emergency Management Program Committee (TEMPC) means a committee comprised of the Mayor and key representatives from local boards,

Answer 1538

city agencies, and other agencies and organizations, responsible for the overall management of Level 3 – Disaster Incidents. During these emergencies, this group is collectively responsible for the direction and co–ordination of emergency response operations within the City.

Question 1539

Unified Command means a team of people representing involved agencies with responsibility for the incident, which jointly provide management

Answer 1539

direction to an incident through a common set of incident objectives and strategies established at the command level. [Source: U.S. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)]

Question 1540

Incident Commander Cadre (ICC) means Toronto Police Service

Answer 1540

Senior Officers who have been trained as incident commanders and are available 24/7 on an on–call basis and may be activated through the Inspector – Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO).

Question 1541

Pursuit Non – Criminal Offences

Answer 1541

1. No pursuit shall be initiated or continued for a non–criminal offence if the identity of an individual in the motor vehicle is known. 2. A pursuit for a non–criminal offence shall be abandoned once the motor vehicle is identified or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is identified.

Question 1542

Organized Crime Enforcement – Bail & Parole is the only police facility to be designated for the purpose of having an accused person report to police. This unit is open between_____to______ hours, Monday through Friday, except on statutory holidays.

Answer 1542

0900 and 2100

Question 1543

Upon discovering the death of an infant (less than 1 year of age) shall, in addition to item 4, use Appendix B as a reference to record at–scene information in the memorandum book. - The Investigation Questionnaire for Sudden Unexpected Deaths in Infants in Appendix B was developed by the Office of the _____~_____ and is completed by the Coroner, except where the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by police. Information recorded by the first police officer on scene may assist the investigation by ensuring that critical information is captured immediately and not overlooked, lost or forgotten.

Answer 1543

Chief Coroner

Question 1544

Crime and Disorder Management Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.04.06-0340 Replaces: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Rationale Intelligence led policing consists of a number of components including

Answer 1544

crime management, disorder resolution, problem oriented policing, targeted policing and directed patrol. Community Policing is an operational philosophy requiring local police–community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order, and enforce the law.

Question 1545

Supervisory Officer | When assigning officers to community patrol activities shall

Answer 1545

 promote and implement crime management initiatives to respond to identified crime, public disorder and road safety problems, including repeat calls for service and repeat victimization  use crime analysis for identifying areas or issues requiring directed patrol, targeted enforcement, problem–oriented policing, or community–based crime prevention initiatives  where possible, work with municipalities, school boards, businesses, community organizations and members of the public to address crime, public disorder and road safety problems  assist in developing appropriate strategies, based on the analysis of crime, calls for service, public order, criminal intelligence and road safety  encourage officers to document the intelligence information on crimes, active criminals and disorder issues in the applicable eReports  ensure patrol officers are provided with relevant information in order to undertake the type of activity to which they have been assigned  ensure appropriate measurements of each activity are recorded by each officer assigned  ensure the use of directed patrol, targeted enforcement and other initiatives to respond to high crime or high occurrence locations and serial occurrences  notify the Officer in Charge when crime management initiatives are utilized  ensure both local and Service–wide crime prevention initiatives are brought to the attention of all relevant members  encourage officers to provide crime prevention information or referral to the community wherever possible during the course of duty

Question 1546

. The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReports, for a death of a child under 5 years of age. Following the post mortem examination, a Preliminary Autopsy Findings Reportwillbecompletedbythe___________ andforwardedtotheinvestigator. a) Coroner’s office b) Office of Chief Coroner c) Pathologist d) Regional Chief Coroner

Answer 1546

C | Pg

Question 1547

When investigating the death of an infant (less than 1 year of age) shall, in addition to item 22,  use Appendix _____, as applicable, as a reference to record at–scene information in the memorandum book  complete Appendix ____if the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide and forward to the ______~_____prior to the post mortem examination - The Investigation Questionnaire for Sudden Unexpected Deaths in Infants in Appendix _____ was developed by the Office of the _______~_____and is completed by the Coroner, except where the death of an infant is a confirmed_______ in which case it will be completed by police. Officer in Charge

Answer 1547

B B Coroner’s Office B homicide

Question 1548

All allegations arising from a domestic violence situation in which the suspect/accused is a member of another police service shall be reported in a timely manner to the ________~_______of that police service by the________~______ of the Service division handling the investigation, or by the_____~_____-______ – Toronto Police Operations Centre (Duty Senior Officer).

Answer 1548

Duty officer Unit Commander (oic tells him) Pc-sgt-oic-unit Commander-

Question 1549

Supervisory Officer |  When notified that a reportable or non-reportable SVC has occurred in the City of Toronto shall

Answer 1549

promptly attend the scene to provide assistance and conduct an internal investigation  notify the respective Officer in Charge  ensure the collision is investigated in compliance with this Procedure and Procedures 04–21, 07–01, 13–16 and 15–17, as applicable  ensure all witness statements and other evidence is gathered prior to reporting off duty, or make arrangements for this to be completed as soon as possible  if the Service vehicle is equipped with an in–car camera system (ICCS) video, review the video and  if the SIU mandate has been or may be invoked, comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable if required for court or training purposes, request a copy of the ICCS video evidence from the Property and Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) by e–mail; indicating date, time and fleet number, as soon as practicable  conduct an internal investigation to determine if any of the following apply in relation to the involved member  criminal offence  provincial offence  conduct issue  training requirement  no further action required  complete a TPS 559 for each Service vehicle involved, include the circumstances of the SVC and complete the Supervisor’s Determination section  ensure the damage is recorded on the appropriate Vehicle Damage Report in the unit file  send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and investigative integrity and submit to the Officer in Charge prior to reporting off duty.

Question 1550

send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith

Answer 1550

Supervisory Officer |  When notified that a reportable or non-reportable SVC has occurred in the City of Toronto shall

Question 1551

Supervisor Upon becoming aware that a member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and symptoms of critical incident stress shall  immediately notify the _____~_____ of the affected member’s unit or civilian equivalent  ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03 The wording for the Injured on Duty Report under the section “Nature and Area of Injury(ies)” shall be: “_____~_____~____  participate in the assessment of the incident with the _____in ______ to determine the appropriate level of support for the member  provide support and ongoing encouragement to assist the member

Answer 1551

Officer in Charge Traumatic Critical Incident”. officer in charge

Question 1552

When the source of the workplace violence is external to the Service shall  comply with and ensure compliance with Procedure 08–10  ensure compliance with item 9  ensure the applicable_______ are completed prior to the completion of the tour of duty  ensure the applicable ______ numbers are provided to the involved member’s Unit Commander and the Unit Commander – _______~_____prior to the completion of the tour of duty

Answer 1552

eReports eReports Professional Standards

Question 1553

Emergency Preparedness Committee (EPC) is a committee, chaired by the Staff Superintendent –_____~_____~_____, comprised of subject matter experts from every command pillar within the Toronto Police Service (Service). The EPC focus is on mitigation, preparedness planning, response and recovery; ensuring appropriate planning, investigative and response capabilities are available within the Service.

Answer 1553

Public Safety | Operations

Question 1554

Uniform Internal Complaint Intake / Management Unit Commander The Unit Commander shall

Answer 1554

 appoint a police officer with the minimum rank of sergeant/detective as the Unit Complaint Co-ordinator (UCC), if applicable  ensure a supervisor is assigned to review the UCC e–mail daily for notice of new complaints, if applicable When notified of a police officer who is the subject of an internal conduct complaint shall  comply with procedure 13-08 when immediate suspension is required  ensure a TPS 901 is initiated and immediately forwarded with any attachments to PRS – Complaints Administration Upon receipt of a TPS 901 from PRS – Complaints Administration involving a police officer who is the subject of an internal conduct complaint shall  ensure  an investigating supervisor is assigned to investigate the complaint  a Report of Investigation is completed within 120 days  consider consulting Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code Upon receipt of a completed Report of Investigation shall review the Report of Investigation and any recommendations from the investigating supervisor  consider consulting with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code  adjudicate to determine if the complaint is unsubstantiated or substantiated When determining that the internal conduct complaint is unsubstantiated shall notify the subject officer of the decision on a TPS 649. When determining that the internal conduct complaint is substantiated shall  resolve the complaint informally, or  impose disciplinary action When resolving the internal conduct complaint informally shall ensure  details of the internal informal resolution are recorded on the TPS 901  the subject officer signs the TPS 901  the TPS 901 is forwarded to PRS – Complaints Administration  if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code, a copy of the TPS 901 is forwarded to Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights When imposing disciplinary action shall  comply with Procedure 13-04 if deemed less serious, or  comply with Procedure 13-05 if deemed serious

Question 1555

Unit Commander Upon being advised of an internal conduct complaint which, due to its complexity or where the reputation of the Service may be severely impacted in a negative manner, shall consult with the Unit Commander – ______~____.

Answer 1555

Professional Standards

Question 1556

Unit Commander When notified that a side issue has been identified shall ensure the TPS 901 is forwarded to PRS –______~______ At the conclusion of the investigation, if the subject officer’s conduct constitutes misconduct and unable to serve a TPS 951 within the 6 month time period shall  consult with Professional Standards Support – Prosecution Services  prepare a Board Report detailing  the name and particulars of the subject officer on which a notice of hearing is to be served  a summary of the investigation  the reason for the delay in service of a notice of hearing in relation to the 6 month time period stipulated in the PSA  provide PRS – Complaints Administration with a copy of the Board Report

Answer 1556

Complaints | Administration

Question 1557

A performance appraisal shall be completed for probationary constables at the conclusion of Compressed Work Week (CWW) cycle 1 and 2 by the assigned ______~______and at the conclusion of CWW cycle 3, 5, 7 and ____ by the assigned supervisory officer with appropriate review and comment by the Unit Commander at each stage. One of the performance appraisals of a probationary constable shall be completed by the_____~_____unit supervisor where the probationary constable completes their two CWW cycles

Answer 1557

9 Community Response Unit

Question 1558

Former Police Constables of the Service who did not continue as a police officer and have been rehired will undergo a performance appraisal after the completion of the _____th CWW cycle or the equivalent of ____ months to determine appropriate classification as per Procedure 14–30 Appendix A. This is to be effective at the commencement of the _____ CWW. Sergeant/Detective

Answer 1558

5th 6 months

Question 1559

Where a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure of the Use of Force Report is received, such request shall be directed to______~_______. Where the request is made under the Municipal Freedom of Information & Protection of Privacy Act and not by a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure, such request shall be directed to the Coordinator – Records Management Services –______and _______~_______

Answer 1559

Legal Services Access and Privacy Section.

Question 1560

Member Upon receiving a request for an ICCS recording from a member of the public shall direct the individual to the _______and _______~______ of _______Management Services – Information Access. Police Officer

Answer 1560

Access and | Privacy Section of Records

Question 1561

Additional Training The Unit Commander of a member who has been identified with a training issue shall submit a TPS 649 to the Unit Commander – Toronto Police College (TPC) detailing the issue. The TPC shall be responsible for liaising with a Unit Commander recommending individual training for a member, and shall schedule the required training in accordance with unit specific guidelines. Final determination on individual training will be made by the Unit Commander – ______???.

Answer 1561

– TPC.

Question 1562

149. In___________, theMinistryoftheSolicitorGeneral(theMinistry)approvedtheuse of Conducted Energy Weapons (CEWs) for tactical units, hostage rescue teams, preliminary perimeter control containment teams and qualified front–line supervisors. a) August 2013 b) June 2002 c) January 2004 d) February 2004

Answer 1562

D

Question 1563

154. When a member wants to recommend a new article of clothing or equipment or a change to a current article of clothing or equipment, including specializ ed units/functions, shall a) Forward the TPS 649 to the Officer in Charge for approval b) Forward the TPS 649 to the Unit Commander for approval c) Forward the TPS 649 to the Supervisory officer for approval d) Forward the TPS 649 to Unit Commander – Fleet and Materials for approval 15-17 In Car Camera System

Answer 1563

B

Question 1564

Pregnant persons who require methadone treatment should be

Answer 1564

treated at hospital regardless of the dispensed form of methadone. The Officer in Charge should make arrangements where possible for the issue of a prescription by the originating physician.

Question 1565

All methadone brought into custody shall be taken from the prisoner’s possession. Where lawful authority to possess the methadone is established, a clearly labelled and sealed ‘_______’ will be refrigerated and returned to the prisoner upon release from custody. Where lawful authority to possess the sample is not established, or the ‘_______’ is in an_________ or______ container, it

Answer 1565

Carry carry unlabelled or unsealed

Question 1566

Methadone is a synthetic opioid used as a replacement therapy for narcotic addiction. Treatment is obtained only by prescription and the prescribed dosage varies between individuals. The short–term (____~_____ hours) effects of abstinence from methadone by a patient are not ______~\______, although the patient may show signs of______. Individuals who bring a prescribed dosage of liquid methadone with them into custody (called a ‘______’) shall not be given the medication. The risk of an adulterated sample being brought into custody presents too great a health danger to allow such dosages to be consumed by prisoners. Requests by persons in custody for prescribed methadone in tablet form shall be handled in accordance with items 19, 20 and 21 of Procedure 01–03

Answer 1566

24-36 Life threatening Anxiety carry

Question 1567

Unit Commander – Emergency Management & Public Order | When notified of a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall notify the

Answer 1567

 Staff Superintendent – Public Safety Operations  Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations  Staff Superintendents – East Field, West Field and Field Services Definitions

Question 1568

Public agent 112

Answer 1568

public agent means (a) any of the following persons in the course of their duties or for the purposes of their employment: (i) peace officers, (ii) persons training to become police officers or peace officers under the control and supervision of a police force or a police academy or similar institution designated by the federal Minister or the lieutenant governor in council of a province, (iii) persons or members of a class of persons employed in the public service of Canada or by the government of a province or municipality who are prescribed to be public officers by the Regulations Prescribing Public Officers, and (iv) chief firearms officers and firearms officers, and (b) an individual acting on behalf of, and under the authority of, a police force or a department of the Government of Canada or of a province. (agent public