Sgt 2023 Flashcards
1
Q
Compliance with this Procedure will ensure that arrests are conducted and reported in a manner consistent with all legal principles and best practices.
A
Section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC) provides authorities for arrest without warrant by any person.
In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in s. 494 CC, a peace officer is given additional authorities under ss. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC. A peace officer may arrest any person who
2
Q
Section 494 of the criminal code provides authority for?
A
Section 494 the criminal code provides authority for arrest without warrant by any person 
3
Q
Section 495(1) criminal code
A
– Has committed an indictable offense or the officer believes on reasonable grounds has committed or is about to commit and indictable offense
– Officer finds committing a criminal offense
– On reasonable grounds believes the person is wanted on the warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction the person is found in
4
Q
Section 524(2) & 525(6) criminal code
A
Has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release or has committed an indictable offense while on a release for a criminal offense
5
Q
Section 31(1) criminal code
A
Is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds the person is about to commit a breach of the peace
6
Q
Is there a general arrest authority for provincial statutes?
A
No, there is no general arrest authority for a contravention of provincial statutes, reference must be made to individual statutes for specific arrest authority
7
Q
A police officer shall not arrest a person without a warrant for a summary conviction, dual procedure or 553 indictable offenses if there exist reasonable grounds that the public interest has been satisfied;
A
– Establish identity of the person
– secure/preserve evidence
– prevent continuation or repetition of the offence
– ensure accused appearance in court
– ensure safety of victim/witness to the offence(s)
8
Q
If satisfied, must release accused by?
A
– Unconditionally with intent to seek a criminal summons, or
– unconditionally with no intent to proceed in court
– by way of an appearance notice
9
Q
Police officer may continue arrest where public interest is not satisfied or for any indictable offense other than dual or 553 offenses
A
Criteria for the public interest is set out in section 497
10
Q
In circumstances where continue detention is justified?
A
The accused must be brought before an OIC
11
Q
True or false
A lack of appropriate release paperwork at scene is not a valid reason to continue an arrest?
A
True
12
Q
Entry into a dwelling house to affect arrest is prohibited unless:
A
– The arrest warrant is endorsed with an authorization to enter under S. 529(1) CC or
– the arrest warrant is accompanied by a separate authorization to enter S 529.1 CC (Form7.1)
– reasonable grounds exist to suspect that entry into the dwelling-house is necessary to prevent imminent bodily harm or death to any person
– reasonable grounds to believe that evidence pertaining to an indictable offense is present inside the dwelling-house and that entry is necessary to prevent the imminent loss or destruction of that evidence
– Fresh pursuit
13
Q
Always make proper announcement before execution of a warrant unless?
A
– Warrant allows it
– exposes police to harm
– risk losing evidence of an indictable offence
14
Q
How should you restrain a person to avoid positional asphyxia?
A
Restrained in a seating/sitting position-
Unless circumstances don’t allow it
15
Q
What causes excited delirium?
A
Excited delirium can be caused by drug, alcohol, psychiatric illness or a combination
16
Q
What are the symptoms of excited delirium?
A
– Abnormal tolerance to pain
– abnormal tolerance to pepper spray
– acute onset of paranoia
– bizarre or aggressive behavior
– hallucinations
– disorientation
– impaired thinking
– Panic
–Shouting
– sudden calm after frenzied activity
– sweating, fever heat intolerance
– unexpected physical strength
– violence towards others
17
Q
Excited delirium is a?
A
Medical emergency and the person must always be brought to a hospital for examination once they are secured.
18
Q
When dealing with an arrested person who has ingested something potentially harmful, you shall?
A
– Perform first aid, if necessary
– ensure person is taken to hospital
19
Q
When dealing with an arrested person who is aided by a guide dog, you shall?
A
-Make reasonable attempts to have the guide dog accommodated by friends or relatives or contact TPOC
-Do NOT transport the guide dog to court with the accused
– Resources include K9 vision Canada or the Humane Society
20
Q
When releasing a person on a form 9, form 10 or when proceeding by way of a criminal summons, ensure the person is served with a?
A
T.P.S 493(WYNTK form)
21
Q
Foreign embassies and consulates are considered?
A
Foreign land and outside of the jurisdiction of the police
22
Q
Some of the things to keep in mind when using discretion when determining whether to handcuff an individual are?
A
Persons medical condition, age, disability, pregnancy and frailty.
23
Q
When arresting someone you should always check?
A
CPIC
MNI master name index
24
Q
When releasing a person following an arrest shall make reasonable efforts to ensure the safety of other persons who may be affected by the release and the safety of the person being released having regard for what?
A
The circumstances and the time in place of release
25
When arresting a foreign national?
Should not normally arrest a person during a religious ceremony or judicial hearing
26
When releasing or deciding to release the officer in charge shall?
Consider public interest, particulars are recorded in the UCMR, when releasing ensure the 493 is served
27
Ruling on the search of a person incident to arrest comes from?
December 2001,R v. Golden
28
Where does the lawful authority for searching a person come from?
Statute or common law
29
The decision on what type of search is necessary is based on?
On a case-by-case basis
30
Searches should never be conducted in an abusive fashion or be conducted to____________,______________ or
______________________________
Intimidate, ridicule or induce a confession 
31
Officer in charge notification mandatory (in regards to searches) when:
– After a search at the station
– circumstances around the strip search
– reasonable grounds that person has weapons or evidence in a body cavity
32
Section 1 of the Ontario human rights code states
– every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services, goods and facilities, without discrimination, because of?
– Race
– ancestry
– place of origin
– citizenship
– creed (religious beliefs)
– sex
– sexual orientation
– gender identity
– gender expression
– age
– Marital status
– family status
– Disability
33
When conducting searches of self identified trans or gender diverse persons shall have explained to them the option for search, which are?
– Male officers only
– female officers only
– a combination of both
34
When required to remove a gender affirming article or prosthetic device from a trans or gender diverse person you shall?
– Let them remove it themselves as long as it doesn’t pose a safety risk to that person or a member
– return the device/item to the person ASAP after the search
35
Items of religious significance
Section 2 of the charter of rights states?
Gives everyone fundamental “freedom of conscience and religion”
36
Items of religious significance
Section 8 of the charter of rights states?
Everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable search and seizure
37
Our duty to accommodate people with disabilities comes from?
Ontario human rights code and Accessibility for Ontarians with disabilities act
Any infringement of a persons right to be accommodated must be minimal in nature, and no more than is necessary to achieve the desired objective
38
If it is necessary to remove an assistive device from a person with a disability to conduct a search you shall?
Search the item/device in return it to the person ASAP after the search if it is safe to do so.
If the device/item is not returned, articulation must be made clearly in your memo book
Members shall be cognizant that persons requiring the aid of an assistive device may have an emotional as well as a physical attachment to the device and shall treat the assistive device with respect at all times
39
For a search to be lawful it must be?
Reasonable and justified given all the circumstances and it must be conducted for a valid reason
40
Section 8 of the charter of rights states that he search of a person is?
Prima Facie – unreasonable
41
The officers must demonstrate that a search of a person is?
Justified in law, necessary and reasonable
42
For safety reasons all persons under arrest must be searched prior to being?
– Placed in a police vehicle
– prior to being brought into a police station
– lodged in a cell
43
What must be conducted prior to a strip search, if authorized ?
A protective search/frisk search
44
Who approves a strip search?
The officer in charge if there are reasonable probable grounds what is necessary
45
When can a police officer search a person?
– after an arrest (common law-incident to arrest)
– upon consent
– when authorized by statute
46
Incident to arrest, officers may search for?
– Weapons
– anything that could cause injury (including drugs and
alcohol)
– anything that could assist in escape
– evidence
47
What must a police officer be able to demonstrate in regards to a consent search?
– Consent was informed and freely given
– the person giving consent must understand the possible consequences of the search prior to giving consent
A consent search, in most instances, should not be used where other lawful authority exists
48
Whatever practicable, all protective and frisk searches must be captured on?
Audio and video
49
True or false
Those who have been frisk searched only can be housed in the same area as those who have been stripped searched
True
50
If a person in custody has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity what should you do?
The person must be taken to the hospital in the item removed either by the person in the presence of a medical professional or by the medical professional
51
If a person who has secreted weapons of evidence in a body cavity and refuses the cavity search, what happens?
They are held in isolation in show caused
52
When a search of person has occurred in the field and the person has not been booked into a police facility the police officer shell?
Complete the search in the field only template
53
When conducting a consent search of a person the police officer shall?
– Ask for the consent of the person and explain the nature of the search
– inform the person that they have the right to refuse consent
– inform the person of potential consequences of the search, including the possibility that anything seized may be used as evidence
– immediately stop searching the person if consent is withdrawn, unless evidence has been disclosed that would permit continuation pursuit to lawful authorities 
54
Prior to a strip search being conducted the officer shall?
Re-read their rights to counsel prior to the strip search and ensure they are provided a reasonable opportunity to speak to counsel before the search commences
55
True or false
Strip searches can only be captured on audio
True
56
Searches must be conducted ______________ and in a methodical manner.
Thoroughly
57
The more intrusive the search, the more_________________
required
Justification
58
Unless reasonable grounds to do so, what action can amount to an unlawful strip search?
Seizing bras, underwire bras or string bikinis
59
Strip searches should not be conducted based solely on
Grounds that a person may come into contact with another person in custody
60
After a strip search who completes the booking and search template & trans template if applicable?
The officer in charge
61
Staff/Sergeant shall book prisoners and authorize strip searches, unless at a central lock up, where a ___________ can be appointed.
Designate
62
Supreme court ruling R v. Golden-
December 2001 re: strip searches
63
Supreme court ruling Cloutier v. Langlois-
Must be conducted for a valid reason (searches)
64
Strip searches can be conducted in the field for exigent circumstances but not to?
Secure evidence
65
True or false
Body cavity searches shall not be performed by any member of the T.P.S. Transport them to a medical facility
True
A medical professional can remove the item but if the person refuses, they will be held in isolation and held for a show cause hearing
66
Gender expression is how –
A person publicly presents their gender
67
Gender identity is –
Each persons internal and individual experience of gender
68
Trans women means
Male at birth who knows themselves to be a woman
69
Trans male is
Female at birth who knows themselves to be a man
70
Trans persons do not have to have surgery to affirm their?
Gender identity
71
How should you refer to a Trans person?
Refer to the person in their chosen name and gender pronouns
72
How should a trans person be lodged/housed in jail?
Lodged according to self identified preference, unless specific overriding health and safety concerns, and searched according to their preference
73
How should you handle an item of religious significance?
Handle the item as requested by the person
74
If a person has an item of religious significance on their person or in their possession, you should
- let the person remove it themselves if it doesn’t compromise safety/risk
– use gloves when handling the item
– facilitate the replacement of an item if it is being held and not immediately returned
– place in a separate property bag
– multiple items of religious significance can be stored together in one bag unless asked by the person not to beDo you like – a sealed property bag containing religious items may be sealed within the main property bag
-if it is safe they can retain it
When practicable – facilitate the replacement (apparel or clothing only)
75
Trans includes?
Trans woman, trans man, not binary, gender nonconforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two spirit to be a trans identity.
76
Gender affirming articles may include?
Breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penis is in wigs
77
When transporting a prisoner, prior to departure, advise the communications operator of?
Destination , the gender identity and age of the person and the odometer reading
78
Who does the booking officer forward the completed T.P.S 300 to and at what time?
The Booker will forward the completed T.P.S 300 to the detective sergeant at 24:00 hrs
79
What does PVEMU stand for?
Property and video evidence management unit
80
What are young person is in custody the officer in charge will ensure that?
A parent, legal guardian, adult relative, adult friend or spouse is notified without delay and requested to attend the Station.
If the detention of the young person is necessary a parent, relative, spouse or adult friend can interview the person however, a spouse or immediate relative is at the conclusion of the investigation only
81
Who shall ensure an investigation is commenced in relation to the last drink information received on the T.P.S 300 when required?
Det. Sergeant 
82
What does BHS stand for?
Booking hall system
83
What does DAMS stand for?
Detention area monitoring system
84
Divisional cells means
Cells that may be used for short term detention
85
Lock up means
An assigned Division used to detain a person in custody
86
Audio/video equipment has been installed in central lock ups in booking Halls, why?
– To monitor and record the condition of persons in
police custody and members
– ensure safety
– for court purposes
87
When can a young person be housed in the same area as an adult?
A young person (under 18) can be housed in the same area as an adult ONLY when there is adequate space between them
88
What property shall be removed from every prisoner?
Valuables, evidence, implements of escape, offensive weapons as defined by the cc, ligature items (Belts, shoelaces), items that can damage (matches, later, combs, keys) meds, tobacco.
89
When transporting a prisoner in a vehicle with no screen where should the prisoners sit?
The prisoner should sit in the right rear seat and the escort sits in the left rear seat behind the driver
90
What is the target time used between cell checks?
Target time of 30 minute intervals is used
91
What is the only designated lock up for females?
23 Division
92
When can methadone patients/prisoners get their prescribed dosage?
– Following released from custody
– if remanded, by request to corrections staff and after staff have consulted with prescribing doctor
– methadone liquid CANNOT be administered at Station, but pills can when the prisoners name and appropriate dosage is noted on the bottle
– pregnant prisoners on methadone should be treated at hospital regardless of the dispensed form
93
Some assistive devices are?
Hearing aids, orthotics, respiratory devices, medical supplies
94
Where should person(s) with airborne diseases be housed?
A person with an airborne disease should be in a room with good ventilation
95
Who makes the decision to send a prisoner to the hospital?
The officer in charge on a case to case basis
96
When a prisoner has or is suspected to have taken a drug or other controlled substance prior to arrest but isn’t showing any signs of impairment or distress, What should the officer in charge do?
The officer in charge will make inquiries to determine whether the person needs medical attention or not. All prisoners shall be informed of the risks of not disclosing the consumption of prescribed and non-prescribed substances.
97
What services are available at no cost to assist the officer in charge in making a determination as to whether a prisoner is in need of further medical treatment?
Telehealth Ontario and Ontario regional poison information Center, – sick kids can assist in determining if further medical attention is needed
98
When prisoners who have taken hard drugs (cocaine, heroin, fentanyl) shall be monitored more closely for at least?
Three (3) hours from the time when the drug was taken
99
True or false
Under no circumstances will an unconscious person be admitted to a police cell or lock up
True
100
Unexpected deaths of intoxicated individuals may occur as a result of a condition called?
Obstructive sleep apnea. The consumption of alcohol or alcohol in combination with central nervous system depressants (e.g. narcotics, barbiturates, etc.) can frequently produce a deep sleep accompanied by loud snoring.
101
Is snoring an indicator of consciousness?
No, snoring is not an indicator of consciousness. It indicates only that a person is breathing. Individuals who are intoxicated or who exhibit very loud or disrupted snoring must be closely monitored and awakened frequently in order to determine if their state of sobriety is improving overtime
102
Alcohol withdrawal syndrome is?
Characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol.
Symptoms of AWS may appear within 6 to 12 hours after a persons last consumption of alcohol.
AWS more commonly affects those with a history of alcoholism and/or those who have experience problems with alcohol withdrawal in the past.
103
Mild symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within ___ hours and should subside within ____ hours?
Mild symptoms can occur 24 hours after last drink and should subside after 48 hours
– tremors, anxiety, sleep disturbance, sweating, over responsive reflexes or nausea/vomiting
104
Moderate symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within ____to____hours and should subside after ___ hours.
Moderate symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 24 to 36 hours and should subside after 48 hours.
– Intensified mild symptoms, rapid breathing, racing
heart rate and agitation
105
Severe symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within ___ hours. 
Severe symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 48 hours.
– Seizures, intensified mild/moderate symptoms, disorientation, hallucinations and high fever
– persons can deteriorate to a condition called delirium tremens
106
Delirium tremens DTs usually occur ___ to ___ hours after last drink.
Delirium tremens DTs usually occur 48 to 72 hours after last drink.
If left untreated, DTs can result in death
107
AWS – Seizures may present between ___ to ___hours after a persons last consumption of alcohol
Seizures may present between 12 to 60 hours after a persons last consumption of alcohol
108
How should intoxicated persons be placed?
Intoxicated person should be placed on their side in the recovery position who lapse into sleep
109
Can a member inject medication into a prisoner?
Members shall never inject medication into a prisoner.
A prisoner can self inject an auto injector (epinephrine). ** A member can do it if the prisoner cannot do it themselves. The prisoner then must be taken to the hospital after the injection
110
Short term affects of methadone abstinence occur between ___ to ___ hours?
Short term affects of methadone abstinence occur between 24 to 36 hours from last consumption and is not Life threatening?
111
The officer in charge cannot know the background, history and state of mind of every person brought into custody, but is required to?
The officer in charge is required to ensure their safety
112
Persons being held for a show cause hearing are deemed?
To be entering the prisoner population
113
Why is determining the timestamp (last drink) important?
It is important to determine and assess onset of AWS
114
Individuals with excited delirium must always be treated as?
They are suffering from a medical emergency and once secured they are to be taken to the hospital
115
In regards to privacy shields, the officer in charge shall?
– Person should be advised they are video recorded
– person advised they may use the privacy shield
– the officer in charge can deny use if they can justify a safety issue/concern (suicidal)
116
Who authorizes the use of an approved handheld metal detector?
The officer in charge can authorize the use of an approved handheld metal detector to assist in the search of any prisoners at any point of the booking and search process, or at any point while the person is lodged in the station.
For a search to be lawful, using the handheld metal detector, it must be reasonable and justified given all the circumstances and it must be conducted for a valid reason.
Handheld metal detectors are only for used inside a police facility
Where a handheld metal detector has been used the appropriate entry shall be made in the Booking and Search template 
117
After processed, printed/photographed at the arresting unit, young offenders go to?
14 division
118
Adult male prisoners Will be lodged at five designated central lock ups they are? 
14, 23, 32, 43, and 51 Division.
119
14 Designated lock up houses?
Male adults from 11, 14 and 52 divisions as well as Male young persons
TSV as well
120
23 Designated lock up houses?
Male adults from 12, 22 and 23 division
All females adult and young person females
121
32 Designated lock up houses?
Male adults from 13, 31, 32, and 33 divisions
122
43 designated lock up houses?
Adult males from 41, 42 and 43 divisions
123
51 designated lock up houses?
Adult males from 51, 53, and 55 divisions
124
Members shall never apply a police seal or a similar device to?
Videotape, DVD, or cd storage case
125
Who should consider all accommodations to keep trans assistive devices?
The OIC shall consider all accommodations to keep trans assistive devices up to the point of undue hardship
126
How often are cell checks physically done?
Cell checks are physically done every 30 minutes when there are prisoners
127
When a person in custody is transported to the hospital, staff are advised?
That the purpose of the visit is not to receive their prescribed dosage
128

129
Court cells means?
Used the hours court is sitting
130
A detention facility is?
Central lock up or division/booking hall 
131
Police vehicle for the purpose of prisoner transport is a?
A vehicle that has the capacity to transport driver and two or more persons
132
How should non-binary people be housed? 
Non-binary people should be housed in a manner that they feel will maximize their safety, may include individual cell, interview room or male or female lock up as per the individuals assessment of what best suits their needs
133
Who does the officer in charge notify if the lock up is full?
The officer in charge will notify the senior duty officer Who will then initiate a secondary lock up
134
Who will transport young offenders for fingerprints and photos if required?
Court services will transport
135
True or false
The officer in charge may contact another facility to lodge a trans person if safety accommodations cannot be provided at the current facility
True
136
If a unconditional release is done at the station, who does the release?
The officer in charge
137
When releasing a person from the station on a sexual assault, criminal harassment or domestic related charge the officer shall?
Advised the victim of the bail conditions, next court date, safety plan, and T.P.S483 completed
138
A case manager can request an adjournment to bail when unfinished aspects of the investigation pertaining to bail, a justice may adjourn for how long?
Three (3) clear days unless the accused authorizes longer
139
What is the only police facility to have an accused person report to?
Organized Crime Enforcement –Bail & Parole
Open 09:00 to 2100 hrs
140
Who has the final decision to recommend opposing bail?
The officer in charge
141
Who is responsible for notifying a victim even if they delegate the task?
The officer in charge is responsible
142
Who is designated by the chief as an officer in charge?
The chief has designated all sergeants and detectives as OIC. Letter on services letterhead available at all court locations – must be provided when requested.
143
True or false
When a person is brought into the station in paraded before the officer in charge, the person shall be released in the same manner, whether charges are laid or not
True
144
What is the purpose of the show cause brief?
It is through the brief that the crown is made aware of all aspects of a case so that proper representation can be made at the bail hearing concerning the release conditions or they continued detention of an individual
145
Who does the case manager notify of all results relating to victim notification?
The officer in charge
Although the officer in charge may delegate the task of notifying the victim to another police officer, the accountability for this obligation remains with the officer in charge. It is not a shared accountability
146
Who does the officer in charge notify when an accused surrenders documents listed in Bail conditions?
The case manager
147
A warrant to arrest is a written order signed by a?
Judge, justice or a Coroner 
148
Who retains discretion to release on an endorsed warrant?
The officer in charge
149
What is a warrant of committal?
A word of committal is issued by the court upon conviction for an offense. Directs peace officers to arrest named person(s) to serve a period in jail. In default of payment for monetary fines.
Persons arrested solely on a warrant of committal are not held for Bail
150
Where are bench warrants for drugs are held?
Old city Hall
151
If a superior court bench warrant is executed with a new charge, the person is held for bail at provincial court. The person that must appear at Superior Court, before their next court date on the new charge.
If Superior Court is not sitting, the person will be held until they are.
Always advise who when executing a superior court bench warrant?
Superior Court- Detective Liaison
152
If an accuse is arrested on a surety warrant they are held for bail on what charge?
If there is no new charge they are held for bail on their original charge
153
What is a material witness warrant?
Material witness warrants are issued by a Justice for the apprehension of a witness who is invading service of a subpoena or has not appeared in court after being served a subpoena
No charge is laid as a result of the warrant being issued. Following an arrest , a bail hearing must be held to determine if the witness should be released until required to appear and give evidence.
**A person arrested solely for a material witness warrant shall not be fingerprinted**
154
Who issues immigration warrants?
A Canada border services agency officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a permanent resident or a foreign national whom the officer has reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an admissibility hearing, for the removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of the removal order by the minister.
155
When a superior court bench warrant is issued, court services unit at Superior Court shall advise who?
The warrant officer of the division in which the original charges were laid
156
In relation to family responsibility arrest warrants, when a support payor is arrested on this type of warrant, the person may be taken to the Family Court, or if the court is not sitting, they are to be brought before who?
A justice of the peace as soon as possible to be dealt with according to law
157
What are the two types of civil warrants?
– Small claims court
– civil court
158
When a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease, the Health Protection and Promotion act gives the Medical Officer of Health having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment.
What is the only medical facility in Ontario for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease?
The West Park healthcare Center located at 82 Buttonwood Ave. in 12 division
159
If an accused is arrested on a warrant and taken to a courthouse where the information is held, a clerk will obtain it, if it is at a different court location who will obtain it?
The police have to obtain it
160
What is the effective radius of a medical warrant?
It is restricted to the jurisdiction of the applicant MOH
161
When is a Report to Justice (form 5.2) required?
Every time property is seized by a peace officer with or without warrant
162
Section 13 of the CDSA requires a 5.2 for?
Drug seizures
163
When property is seized under POA search warrants or a warrantless seizure what is required?
A Return to a Justice
164
S.489.1 of the CC legislators that a report to a justice is required when?
Every time property is seized by police with or without warrant
165
True or false
Undercover drug purchases are neither searches nor seizures and a 5.2 is not required
True
Drug traffickers have no expectation of privacy in their dealings with customers
166
How can property be managed by a police officer?
– Return property to lawful owner if no charges laid
– hold for further investigation, whether charges laid or
not (includes abandon property)
– continued detention of property where the chargers
are lead, and evidence is required for court
167
Who should police consult with prior to returning property that was originally seized as evidence?
Police should consult with the Crown attorney
168
Found property is governed by?
The police services act
169
What is the retention for found bicycles?
30 consecutive days
170
What is the retention period for all other general property not including found bikes?
90 consecutive days
171
When a search warrant is executed who can submit the 5.2 and attend a report to a Justice hearing?
– Affiant of the search warrant
– case manager
– exhibits officer
– seizing officer
172
True or false
When property is seized without a warrant, a common informant may file the 5.2
True
173
In all instances where property, including cash, is seized as proceeds of crime of offense related preparatory, officers shall contact
OCE-Finacial Crimes-asset forfeiture (ASAP)
174
An order for continued detention is not required when?
– Charges are laid
– the item has been entered as an exhibit at a preliminary inquiry trial or other proceeding
175
The detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed?
Three (3) months
A further detention request is required if requesting longer than three months
176
The cumulative period of seized property cannot exceed _____________unless authorized by a superior court justice
One year
177
Where should the 5.2 be made before a Justice?
Where the search warrant was issued.
In the case of a tele-warrant, the 5.2 is submitted in the same jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed
178
Is a 5.2 required when abandoned property is seized without warrant and there are no pending charges or arrest? 
No.
179
When property is seized in a multi – jurisdictional operation, a _____ is submitted before a judge.
5.3 (Not contained in forms in shall refer to the criminal
code for the appropriate wording)
180
In regards to property, if continue detention is required, application must be made no later than _____ days before the current order is set to expire
30 days
181
Continue detention means:
Detention of property beyond the initial three months from the date of seizure
182
Justice means:
Justice of the peace or a provincial court judge
183
When must all applications be made before a justice?
Monday – Friday 0900 to 1600 hrs
184
What are the disclosure requirements once a 5.2 is signed?
– Drugs 14 days from date of seizure
– all other property is 28 days from date of charge
185
In regards to a Tele-warrant what is the timeline to submit a 5.2?
Seven days
186
What is the timeline to submit a 5.2 for a search warrant signed at court location?
90 days/3 months
187
What is the timeline to submit a 5.2 for all other property, not including a tele-warrant or search warrant?
90 days/3 months
188
If the retention period has expired and no lawful owner has come forward the Finder may claim the property within?
Seven consecutive days
189
What shall not be taken to court?
Drugs and dangerous material 
190
True or false
The information or a copy of it, shall not be filed with the court or placed in Crown envelope
True
191
What is available to provide assistance if detaining property beyond 12 months?
Legal services
192
Who may act as a common informant for the purposes of bringing a 5.2 before a Justice when property is seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)?
Court officers
193
Informational material means:
Information obtained from a thing that is seized
194
In relation to death investigations, a supervisor attendance is mandatory for?
– Suicide
– possible sudden-death
–unnatural sudden-death
– suspicious death
– suspected Homicide
- sudden unexpected death
– apparent suicide
-an accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death of finding the body is an intimate partner, past or present
195
In relation to death investigations, a divisional Detective attendance is mandatory for?
– Death of a child under five
– sudden unexpected death of a child
– unnatural sudden death
– sudden unexpected death
– apparent suicide
– an accident where the only witness or person present at the time of the death of finding the body is an intimate partner, Past or present 
196
Death Investigations
Supervisor notification is mandatory for?
– Attempt suicide
– unable to establish identity
– unable to determine next of kin
– unable to notify the next of kin in person
– requested by another service to notify next of kiln
197
Who is qualified and has the authority to pronounce a person dead?
No person other than a qualified medical practitioner has the authority to pronounce a person dead.
A base hospital physician has declared death through on-site consult with EMS
Exceptions are:
– obvious death due to decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of cranial or visceral contents or a grossly charred body, or
198
Can you transport a deceased person in the same vehicle as a living patient?
A deceased person is never transported in the same vehicle as a living patient
199
How should you investigate sudden and unexpected death of a child under five?
Every sudden and unexpected death of a child under five shall be actively investigated and treated as suspicious
200
Who can you contact if the identification of a deceased cannot be determined?
If the identification of a deceased cannot be determined, contact the missing person unit (MPU)
201
What circumstances must an investigator or designate be present at the morgue when a deceased is identified?
– Homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offense
– when the presence of an investigator is requested by another officer
– cases where an inquest is or will likely be called
– when a coroner determines it necessary
202
Access to the morgue will only be created two officers who have an ____________,______________or__________need to be present.
operational, investigative or educational (Appointment only)
203
Who determines when the body is to be moved?
A coroner will determine when a body is to be moved.
204
In relation to death investigations, a SOCO can attend scenes at the discretion of who?
The officer in charge – FIS
205
A SOCO can not be assigned to?
– Sudden unexpected death of a child
– death of a child under five
– a suspicious death or suspected Homicide
206
When death occurs on TTC property who can photograph this scene?
FIS or SOCO (with approval from FIS)
207
When would you request FIS to fingerprint a deceased person?
– Outstanding criminal warrants exist
– active criminal record is found
– identification of the deceased is in question
208
If a death occurs in a bathtub, what should you do?
You should make good notes on the position of the body, the water temperature, water stopper engaged etc.
209
Do you need to wait for a divisional Detective prior to the removal of a body from a scene a TTC location?
No, unless otherwise directed, there is no need to await a divisional Detective prior to removal of a body from a seed at a TTC location
210
Can you place medications in the bag with a body?
Medications should not be sent in the bag with a body.
211
At a scene of an attempt suicide by gunshot, Shall ?
Make notes on the condition of the firearm, including the position of the action, safety and any ammo
212
What should you do when investigating a death by hanging?
Remove the person in such a manner as to maintain the knot
213
A death investigation involving consumer products who should you notify?
Health Canada – consumer product safety
214
If a corner has ordered an autopsy when should you not search the pockets of the deceased for drugs or drug paraphernalia?
If the corner has ordered an autopsy, search the pockets of the deceased for drugs or drug paraphernalia, unless death is criminally suspicious or suspected Homicide
215
When do you not seize valuables? 
If the next of kin is on scene, do not seize valuables.
If the next of kin is not on scene, seize valuables
216
The Coroner should always be given the contact information of who?
The Coroner should always be given the contact info of the investigator in the event of follow up/new info
217
When should you treat a death as suspicious?
– Death of a child under five
– sudden and unexpected death of a child (under 18)
– a suspicious death or Homicide
– found human remains
– obvious or suspect foul play
– any other suspicious circumstance
218
What should you consider Landed immigrants?
Landed immigrants should be considered as foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from which they emigrated
219
Death because of a motor vehicle collision shall be the responsibility of who?
TSV supervisor
220
Who’s responsibility is it to notify the next of kin in relation to a homicide death?
Homicide Detective will notify the next of kin 
221
True or false
Preliminary police report completed for any unnatural sudden death of child under five where coroner requests it?
True
222
The initial report is automatically E transferred to the office of the chief Coroner. Any requests from the office of the chief coroner for additional information must be made and approved for release by?
Homicide and missing persons
223
The supervisory officer, in relation to death investigations, shall ensure the attendance of?
– A divisional Det.
– the Coroner
– a FIS investigator
224
Bodies should always be transported and stored how?
Bodies should always be transported and stored in the supine position pending post Mortem examination
225
Undue subway delays can cause? 
Undue subway delays can cause safety concerns and a tremendous inconvenience to the TTC in the public
226
Fentanyl is a powerful synthetic opioid that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. As it may be skin permeable, proper handling of suspected fentanyl is?
Essential to minimizing potential health risks for members.
227
If the deceased person is or appears to be of aboriginal ancestry who can you contact?
Contact the community partnerships and engagement unit – aboriginal peacekeeping section.
Additional assistance can be obtained from members of first nations across Canada or from social agencies dealing with aboriginal issues
228
How will the T.P.S treat each missing person occurrence ?
Each missing person occurrence reported to the T.P.S will be treated as an investigation.
229
In relation to missing persons is a supervisor notification minatory?
Supervisor notification is mandatory for all missing person calls.
230
In relation to missing persons, when is a supervisor/investigator attendance mandatory?
Supervisor/investigator attendance is mandatory for level 2 and 3 searches
231
In relation to death investigations, who is responsible the appropriate notifications are made?
The divisional detective
232
When suspicious circumstances exist who shall the divisional Detective consult with? 
The divisional Detective shall consult with Homicide prior to leaving the scene
233
When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin, the divisional Detective shall consult with?
Records management – RMS
234
As a divisional Detective , when notified of an unnatural sudden death shall confer with the attending coroner and obtain a copy of?
The corners warrant. Also preliminary police report for unnatural sudden death where the corner has ordered an autopsy
235
When shall FIS attend a death investigation?
FIS shall attend the scene and autopsy of sudden unexpected death of a child under 18
236
When an officer cannot locate or contact the next of kin, in a death investigation, what shall they do?
Notify the supervisory officer, if you can’t, notify Detective , if can’t notify the D./Sgt.
237
Found human remains are classified as?
Unnatural sudden death
238
A missing person occurrence is where the following circumstances exist:
– The persons whereabouts are unknown and
– the person has not been in contact with a person they usually would be
– it is reasonable based on the circumstances to fear for the person safety
239
How many levels of investigative response are there to a missing person case?
There are three levels of investigated response
240
What are the forms for assessing risk in a missing person investigation?
T.P.S -260 & 260A
241
True or false
All missing person cases where foul play is a strong possibility meet the criteria for major case management 
True
242
When did the missing person act come into effect?
The missing person act came into effect on July 1, 2019
243
Can you collect DNA in relation to a missing person?
DNA from a missing person must be collected ASAP and can be obtained from saliva, blood, skin cells, or sweat.
To use their DNA as an investigative tool, consent must be given by a family member
244
What does NMPDP stand for?
National missing person DNA program
245
What does NCMPUR stand for?
Missing person & unidentified remains
246
What does NDDB stand for?
National DNA databank 
247
How shall level 2 and 3 searches be conducted?
Level 2 and 3 searches shall be conducted using the incident management system – IMS
248
Who will issue a BOLO after the missing person report is submitted?
Records management – RMS
249
True or false
A missing person can be added to CPIC by calling RMS prior to the report being submitted
True
250
Under no circumstances will a missing person report be entered as?
An incident
251
When a person is reported missing by a reportee in person at a division, the reportee shall not?
The reportee shall not be directed to attend a different division
252
When a person is reported missing by a reportee over the phone, the member receiving the call can?
The member receiving the call can forward the reportee to communications
253
If the missing person is under the age of 16 in the circumstances warrant it, what can an officer do?
The officer can apply for a child apprehension warrant under the child, youth and family services act.
254
If a missing person case is international in nature where immediate concern for public safety or high risk traveling officers shall notify who?
Intel - Security section.
255
A missing person level 1 search should consist of a _____ meter search of the immediate area of the place last seen, if known.
300
256
True or false
The investigator shall complete the RCMP form A01& A02 as well as Form 5&6 Missing Person Act
True
257
The divisional box search applies to?
Level 2 & 3 searches
258
Parental abduction involves a child under, what age?
14 yrs
259
What guidelines must be met for an amber alert?
– Investigator believes a child under 18 has been
abducted
– investigator believes the child is in danger
– there exists information about one or more of the
following:
*Child
*Abductor
*Vehicle
– to believe an immediate broadcast will help locate the
child
260
What is the duration of an amber alert?
An amber alert shall have a duration of five (5) hours following activation
261
How is an amber alert initiated by the Toronto Police?
The duty senior officer - TPOC - will contact chief or designate and decide if Amber alert will be initiated. If approved, the duty senior officer will contact TPOC to initiate the alert.
The amber alert request is then sent to the OPP via fax or email.
262
Missing person search – level 1
– Level of search implemented when there are minimal concerns
263
Missing person search – level 2
– Under 16 years old and not likely to be able to care for
themselves
– mentally challenged
– over 65 years old
– evidence of foul play
264
Missing person search – level 3
– When a level 1 or 2 search has been deemed ineffective and extenuating circumstances necessitates this level to be initiated
265
A missing person investigation after 30 days becomes?
A major case
266
In cases of foul play or unusual circumstances, the collection of DNA will be conducted under the direction of?
FIS
267
A citizen requesting information on a missing person shall be directed to who?
The OIC – who will determine the release of information
268
When did the missing person act come into effect?
July 1, 2019
269
True or false
MPU: coordinates, manages and reports on the use of urgent demands for records
True
270
Who is responsible for the divisional resource checklist?
The unit commander is responsible for the divisional resource checklist
271
Amber alerts will be considered in all missing children investigations, and ____________________________ shall be implemented in all cases involving amber alert activations
Major case management
272
Missing person scenario
Reportee outside of Toronto, missing person not a resident of Toronto, area person is missing from is unknown, who investigates?
Officer in charge-TPOC to determine who investigates
273
Who investigates, if a Toronto resident is reported missing to an outside police agency?
D/S of Division missing person resides in shall assign an investigator to coordinate. Once outside agency completes their investigation, the TPS will take responsibility for the investigation.
274
Missing persons, international in nature with immediate safety concerns, Intel shall be called. All other investigations with immediate safety concerns?
The missing person unit shall be called
275
The first officer will provide the phone number for the
D/S to?
the reportee – division where missing person resides
276
The __________ Will ensure on going communication with the OIC of any other Division involved in missing person investigations?
D/Sgt
277
Missing persons – when is a form 6MPA required simultaneously with a form 5MPA?
Level two search – divisional investigator – exigent circumstances
278
True or false
Divisional Detective to provide notice to any person whose records were obtained pursuant to urgent demand – notice can be provided verbally, has to provide written when requested by person
True
279
If the missing person is under 16 years of age, the OIC will ensure who is contacted as soon as practicable?
The officer in charge will ensure the principal is contacted as soon as practicable in cases of a missing person under 16
280
Missing person – level 3
Who does the OIC notify?
– Unit commander
- duty senior officer via TPOC
– MPU
281
The senior duty officer during a missing person case/investigation will?
Ensure sufficient resources and converse with the applicable deputy chief (advised and consult a level of search)
– Notify search manager
– assign incident commander from Division
– request TPOC contact auxiliary program
282
EMPU will help with the search, but the overall responsibility for the search and investigation for missing persons is?
Remains with the Division
283
For missing persons, the command post should be established where?
The supervisory officer shall attend the scene and establish a command post at a location other than the place last seen or the missing persons home. 
284
Outside of business hours who can you contact for the assistance with posting missing persons bulletins to push pin?
TPOC and communications is notified immediately so that an alert may be broadcast notifying all members regarding the pushpin posting
285
With the missing person is not located within 30 days of being reported missing and there is no new evidence at the discretion of the detective sergeant the RCMP1667 (dentist characteristic file) maybe be completed before the ____ day period has passed. 
30 day
286
Can you disclose the location of an adult missing person without their approval?
No, do not disclose the location of an adult missing person without their approval
287
Upon confirmation that the missing person has been located who shall ensure that postings are removed from pushpin?
The unit crime analyst
288
What does NCMPUR stand for?
National Center for missing persons and unidentified remains
289
What does NMCO stand for?
National missing children’s operations
290
What does EM&PO stand for?
Emergency Management & Public order
291
Who is responsible for coordinating a level three search for a missing person?
The search management team – EMPO, supported by the requesting division.
The search manager is the officer in charge – EMPO 
292
Regulated interactions are governed by?
Ontario regulation 58/16
293
What is Section 9 of the Charter of rights?
Protects against arbitrary detention
294
What is section 15 of the Canadian charter of rights?
Equal treatment under the law
295
What does section 1 of the Ontario human rights code speak to?
Freedom from discrimination
296
All historical data shall be classified as restricted in regards to regulated interactions as of when?
January 1, 2017
297
If required to access restricted records what does an officer need to do?
The officer shall submit approval to their unit commander who then seeks the chief or designate approval.(Deputy chief or staff super - Det. operations)
298
True or false
A request for historical regulated interactions can only be made for a more serious investigation or matter (Missing person, abductions etc.)
True
299
A regulated interaction report is required in all instances where and attempt to collect identifying information is made, whether or not identifying information is collected. The report must include the officers perception of the individuals what?
The individuals sex, age, and racialized group, but recording name information is not mandatory.
300
A police officer _______ be able to articulate the reasons why a T.P.S 308 was not offered and/or provided, including details related to the particular circumstances in relation to Regulated interactions
Must
301
The ___________ and _________ of any assisting police officer or supervisor who is present at or assist in conducting the regulated interaction shall be included all the T.P.S 308
Name and badge number
302
R. vs. Stinchcombe relates to?
Disclosure obligations
303
True or false
Police officer shall not attempt to collect info, if any part of the reason is officer perceives individual to be within a particular race. If there is additional info then OK, however additional info may not consist of sex or age or both
True
304
All regulated interactions are done in an __________way unless the officer can articulate otherwise
Arbitrary way
305
How does a police officer request restricted data, in relation to regulated interactions?
OIC to chief or designate deputy, in exigent circumstances through OIC to deputy senior officer to staff/super - Det. operations.
306
Shall not use any historical data as a basis for classifying an individual as?
Known to police
307
Controller – regulated interactions means
The member of the service, designated by the chief of police who assesses procedural compliance of regulating interaction reports.
The controller – regulated interaction reports is also responsible for preparing a report to the unit commander of the Toronto Police college every three (3) months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to Regulated interactions
308
Death in police custody
Supervisory officer attendance is mandatory and will request who?
Homicide, FIS and the Coroner
309
Death in police custody
Who does the supervisory officer notify?
The supervisory officer shall notify the officer in charge – TPOC
310
Whenever an in- custody death occurs what is invoked?
The special investigation unit mandate
311
When there is a death in police custody who will conduct parallel investigations?
The SIU and Det. operations – Homicide
The SIU and FIS run parallel forensic investigations when there is a death in police custody.
312
True or false
Wait for the SIU before evidence collection?
True
The SIU and FIS run parallel forensic investigations when there is a death in police custody
313
What is the SIU Mandate?
– The death of any person
– serious injury of any person
– discharge of a firearm at a person
– sexual assault of a person, as reported by the person
314
The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident:
– The officer was on duty, or
– the officer was off duty, but
*Exercise Powers and/or identified themselves as a police officer when involved in an investigation, pursued, detention, or arrest of a person (Includes police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed a person) whether or not the official intended to exercise such Powers
* Used issued equipment

315
As the officer in charge, in relation to a death in police custody shall?
Ensure the attendance of Homicide, FIS, and the Coroner.
Ensure that the OIC - TPOC was notified
Notify the unit commander
316
In relation to a death in police custody, the OIC -TPOC will notify?
The SIU on call designate and the appropriate deputy
317
Intelligence led policing consists of?
Crime management
Disorder resolution
Problem oriented policing
Targeted policing
Directed patrol 
318
Community policing is an operational philosophy requiring?
Local police – community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order and enforce the law
319
True or false
A problem can be identified by either the public or the police
True
320
What are the four (4) key steps in establishing the crime management process at the divisional level?
1) Long-term strategic planning
2) Short term/daily planning
3) Integrated rules for divisional CPLC’s
4) Targeted debriefing of all prisoners
321
Divisional Crime management
The unit commander must designate a?
Crime manager
The crime manager should be a minimum of a detective sergeant and if the Division only has one detective sergeant he/she should be absolved of administrative responsibilities
322
The divisional crime management team must meet a minimum of?
Quarterly starting at the first of the year to establish the crime priorities and strategies of the unit
323
Principal members of the crime management team will meet?
Regularly
324
Who will provide the profile sheet and appropriate additional data to the crime management team who will review, measure and evaluate strategies?
The divisional crime analyst
325
In relation to divisional crime management, the detective sergeant shall ensure?
Debriefing of all prisoners happens – apart from investigative interview
Info from debrief may be subject to disclosure
326
Order maintenance means
The act of upholding community standards, using both informal community activities in law-enforcement to create a safer environment and an improved quality of life
327
The duties of a police officer are set out in the police services act S. 42(1), they are
– Preserve the peace
– prevent crimes and other offenses and offered
encouragement to person in their prevention
– assist victims of crime
– apprehending criminals and other offenders who may
be lawfully taken into custody
– Laying charges and assisting in prosecutions
– executing warrants
– perform lawful duties assigned by the Chief of police
328
Source management
A supervisor notification is mandatory when?
– Consider establishing a relationship with a source
– prior to meeting a source
– after meeting or communicating with a source
– after learning the safety of a source may have been
compromised
329
Sources/informants have a legitimate place in law enforcement, and it has long been recognized that they are one of the most__________________ means of obtaining information. The proper management of sources is a key component of risk management.
cost effective
330
Source management notification is mandatory when?
– Prior to using any information from a source who is being used for the first time
– prior to using any source information obtained from a source who is under 18 years old
331
Level two sources are designated by the controller it should only be managed by?
Level two handlers
332
Source payments shall only be dispersed by?
A member of source Management (CO-SMS)
333
Crown letters on behalf of a source shall only be provided by?
The unit commander – intelligence services
334
A source is an asset of the service it is not the exclusive asset of any? 
One police officer
335
As a supervisor when notified by an officer of an intended meet with a source shall?
– Make notes on a date, time and location of meat
– primary and secondary officers name and badge meeting source
– confidential source number, if known
***if source compromise notify controller in unit commander***
******Notify your D/Sgt********
336
If the source requests advice regarding taxation for money received from this service, they shall be advised that Finacial awards from the service are considered?
Taxable income
However since the source is not a Service employee, T4 slips will not be issued
337
Caution shall be used when dealing with sources who are?
– Facing criminal charges
– subject to any stage of an immigration inquiry
– subject to a parole or probation order
338
All requests regarding information on the identity of a source shall be referred to?
Intelligence services (CO-SMS) by email 
339
A sources identity is privileged and shall not be disclosed to anyone other than a ______________________ without their sources consent
sworn police officer
340
When a charge is lead in a matter where information from a source is involved, the case manager shall notify__________ in writing as soon as practicable.
CO-SMS
341
Confidentiality commences immediately after?
The first officer undertakes that the information provided will be kept confidential, whether or not the source is later formally registered with CO – SMS
342
A police officer when communicating with a source shall not use a source as an agent without?
Prior approval of the unit commander – INT
343
Willhand written reports be accepted by CO – SMS?
Handwritten reports shall not be accepted by CO – SMS and shall be returned to the officers unit commander for action
344
Is the ID of an agent subject to disclosure?
The ID of an agent is subject to disclosure
345
True or false
When multiple communications or meetings occur within the same day all incidents may be recorded on a single T.P.S 276 or T.P.S 277. A single notification to the supervisory officer is sufficient
True
346
Confidential source – level 2 means
– A source under the age of 18 (young person), or
– a source who is information could be considered
– multi – jurisdictional
– may affect national security
– involves organize crime
– is beyond the resources or the source – handling abilities of the officers involved
– at the discretion of the controller
**Unless otherwise approved by the controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a handler – level 2
347
True or false
Level 2 handler also develops in managers agents on behalf of the service
True
348
For a preliminary homicide investigation whose attendance is mandatory?
A supervisor and a divisional Detective 
The notification to the officer in charge and the unit commander is mandatory as well 
349
Homicide mandate is?
– Homicide occurring in the city of Toronto
– lead investigation for all criminal acts which result in
serious bodily harm or life-threatening injuries to a
police officer while on duty
– support field officers in suspicious death investigations – lead the investigation of a death in police custody that
does not involve the discharge of a service firearm
– provide investigative support to the Coroner in the
investigation of a death in police custody
350
Every sudden or unexpected death of a child under 18 shall be treated as?
Every sudden and unexpected death of a child under 18 shall be treated as suspicious and Homicide on-call team shall be consulted by the attending division of Detective 
351
Who shall be consulted by the attending divisional Detective in an investigation involving a sudden or unexpected death of a child under 16?
The CYAC
352
An investigator, or designate shall physically attend the morgue and be present when a deceased is identified when?
– Homicide or suspected Homicide
– cases where investigator has requested the presence
of another officer
– cases where an inquest is likely
– when the coroner deems it necessary
353
The first officer on scene of a suspicious death or Homicide Shall request the attendance of?
– supervisor
– divisional Det.
– Coroner
– FIS
354
A preliminary police report shall be completed, in addition to the applicable report, for any death of a child under five years old and forwarded to?
The coroner 
355
As a supervisor, when advised of a sudden or unexpected death of a child under 18 shall?
Treat the death as suspicious and notify the CYAC if the child is under 16 years of age
356
A child is under the age of ____ and an infant is under the age of___?
A child is under the age of 18 and an infant is under the age of 1
357
When an autopsy is ordered as a result of a suicide or accident where the only witness is in intimate partner, the autopsy is to be performed by?
Regional coroners pathologist who currently preforms Homicide autopsies – the autopsy is to be conducted as if suspicious circumstances
358
In relation to a death of a child under 16, the divisional Det. will consult with?
The CYAC prior to leaving the scene or conducting interviews with caregivers, etc.
CYAC is available from 0730 to 2200 and after hours through TPOC
359
PDRC stands for?
Pediatric death review committee
360
The pediatric death review committee is composed of two sections, they are?
PDRC – child welfare and PDRC – medical
361
The PDRC – child welfare panel includes?
Police officers, Crown attorneys, senior staff from the office of the chief Coroner and representatives from child welfare organizations across the province and is chaired by the Regional chief Coroner for the province of Ontario
362
PDRC – child welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family was receiving, or had received, the services of a Children’s aid Society (CAS) or indigenous child wellbeing society within _____ months of the death.
12 months
363
PDRC – medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by?
The relevant regional supervising Coroner
364
The PDRC - medical panel includes?
Pediatric expert, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the office of the chief Coroner and is also chaired by the Regional chief Coroner for the province of Ontario
365
The investigation questionnaire for sudden unexpected death in infants was developed by the office of the chief Coroner and is completed by the coroner, except where the death of an infant is confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by?
Police
366
The initial officer report is automatically E-transferred to the office of the chief Coroner. Any requests from the office of the chief Coroner for additional information must be made in approved for release by?
Homicide and Missing persons
367
The preliminary police report is to be completed for death of a child under five and forwarded to the Coroner prior to?
Post Mortem
368
True or false
On- call Homicide will determine if attending the scene
True
369
In the absence of homicide detectives who will take charge of the scene?
The FIS investigator.
370
True or false
An FIS investigator shall attend the scene in autopsy when a sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 occurs?
True
371
SIDS means
Sudden infant death syndrome for child under 1 that remains unexplained after a thorough investigation in autopsy
372
Sudden unexplained death includes
SIDS, accidental injury, and non-accidental, due to neglect, abuse or other reasons. Where there is significant concern regarding any part of the death investigation, cause shall be classified as SUD. 
373
Hold up squad is notified immediately for all robberies involving?
– Financial institutions
– armored cars
– retail businesses
– home invasions committed with firearms or offensive
weapons
– money deposits and
– carjackings committed with firearms or offensive
weapons
374
True or false
The unit commander – HUS may, upon conclusion of the preliminary investigation, at their discretion, take charge of any robbery investigation
True
375
If in attendance, it is the responsibility of ______ to seize all hold up notes
HUS officers
Detective from HUS Will seize, and hand deliver any hold up note to FIS – documents 
376
Police officer will notify?
The supervisory office, Divisional Detective and Hold Up Squad in relation to hold up.
If the holdup is in progress the first officer will notify communications who will notify the officer in charge and the ETF
377
If in attendance it is the responsibility of _________to seize all surveillance recordings
HUS
378
When each US officers are not available, the officer will sees surveillance recordings if available in hand deliver the surveillance recording to the front desk at ___________________and place it in the HUS video evidence dropbox
33 Division
379
The Toronto Police service recognizes that intimate partner violence is a serious_______________ and is not limited or restricted by marital status, sexual orientation, occupation, vulnerability, age or gender.
Social problem
380
The service views intimate partner violence as?
A preventable crime
381
The goal of the service is to reduce the incidence of intimate partner violence and homicide in the community through?
Education and enforcement
382
Intimate partner violence
Supervisor attendance is mandatory for?
*** All domestic violence calls (public or police involved –
attend all)
– When the suspect/accused/victim is a member of the T.P.S
– When a suspect/accused is the member of another police service
383
Intimate partner violence and intimate partner incident calls for service shall be treated with the same priority as?
Other life-threatening calls
384
When a person attends a division to report an intimate partner violence or intimate partner incident, The division receiving the complaint shall be responsible for the initial investigation and submission of the report. Contact the division where the offense occurred in for the follow up investigation.
At no time shall a reportee be?
At no time shall a reportee be redirected to attend a different unit or location to report intimate partner violence or an incident
385
What does DVRM mean?
Domestic violence risk assessment
386
What does ODARA mean?
Ontario domestic assault risk assessment
387
True or false
A domestic violence risk assessment and Ontario domestic assault risk assessment shall be completed and available for the bail hearing
True
388
What is the minimum of officers that shall be dispatched to an intimate partner violence call?
Two officers
389
Ontario domestic assault risk assessment training is provided by?
Waypoint health center
390
Intimate partner investigators shall take the lead role in all intimate partner violence investigations except?
– Involves sexual assault, work in consultation with an accredited sexual assault investigator
– involves death, Homicide advised and takes over
– cases where major case management criteria met
– involves a young person, work in consultation with a youth investigator
**** The DVI Takes lead in cases involving sexual assaults and youth but works in consultation with the investigators from sex crimes and youth investigator 
391
Victims that witnesses of crime shall not be asked their __________________________, unless there are bona fide reasons to do so.
Immigration status
392
Where an intimate partner violence occurs in the city of Toronto and the suspect/accused is a member of the T.P.S who shall be notified and assume the role as case manager?
PRS
The unit commander or duty senior officer shall contact PRS
393
When developing a safety plan for a victim who can you consult with?
Sex crimes – behavioral assessment section to assist the victim
394
True or false
DVRM/ODARA to be completed by accredited DVI who has had the training. An uncooperative victim does not preclude from doing the report as other sources of information are available.
True
395
In relation to intimate partner violence, with the suspect/accused is from another police service, notification is done by?
The unit commander of the Division or the Duty senior officer will notify the duty senior officer of that service where the suspect/accused is from
396
Who is designated as the service liaison with a T.P.S officer is involved in an intimate partner violence outside of Toronto?
PRS
397
When a T.P.S officer is involved in Intimate partner violence outside of Canada is treated as allegations of?
Intimate partner violence outside of Canada is treated as allegations of describable conduct
398
Internal injuries may cause death within ____ hours if not treated
72 hrs
399
The sexual assault/domestic violence care center (SA/ DVCCs) at Womens College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre and intimate partner violence services to persons who are over the age of ____and who have been sexually assaulted within the last _____ days and/or are experiencing intimate partner violence
Over the age of 14
Sexually assaulted within the last 30 days
400
Women’s college hospital has seven mobile emergency department sites they are located?
– Mount Sinai
– Toronto General Hospital
– Toronto Western Hospital
– Michael Garron Hospital
– St Josephs health Center
– Sunnybrook health sciences center
– St Michaels hospital
401
 Multilingual Community interpreter services will provide free interpretation services to the service during the investigation of all sexual, intimate partner violence and human trafficking related occurrences.-MCIS interpreters will provide their services to all involved parties, Including the accused up until?
The time that a formal charge has been laid (an information has been sworn to before a justice of the peace)
402
Victims may sustain internal or external injuries, which are not immediately apparent. If injuries are not visible at the time of the investigation, consideration should be given to for photographing the injuries after a?
48 to 72 hour period 
403
Cases involving high-risk offenders may be referred to?
Domestic violence high risk review team at the courthouse by the Detective sergeant
Also consider using physical surveillance for high-risk offenders
404
Victim quick response program is for?
Financial assistance to victims of serious crime
405
The victim/witness assistance program begins and ends when?
The service begins once charges are laid it continues until the court case is concluded
406
The ____________________ when in charge of a divisional Detective office Shall ensure a minimum of one intimate partner violence investigator accredited Det. is assigned to oversee all intimate partner violence investigations in the division
Detective sergeant
407
The written revocable concert program pertains to?
Intimate partner violence assault cases only in addresses the issue of WRC attached to a reconnaissance of the bail or a bail variation.
To qualify, the accused must be eligible for entry into “early intervention” court in the “partner assault response” program
408
The written revocable consent (WRC) program is designed to?
To provide intimate partner violence victims with information about informed consent and to reduce the number of recurrences of consent being revoked and reinstated prior to the charges be concluded at court.
409
In relation to a sexual assault whose attendance is mandatory?
Supervisor and divisional Detective (Sexual assault investigator)
410
The preliminary investigation must be done first before?
Sex crimes is requested.
Only the officer in charge, the divisional sexual assault investigator, or in their absence divisional investigator may request the assistance of sex crimes through TPOC
411
The divisional sexual assault investigator shall attend where?
They shall attend the scene, attend where the victim is located or attend any additional location deemed necessary.
412
Sexual assault, including sexual interference, and attempted sexual assault, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching are all defined as?
Major cases
413
Divisional sexual assault investigator assigned lead in the following circumstances
– Victim under 16, child abuse investigator shall conduct the investigation
– domestic situation, DVI takes lead but will consult with sexual assault investigator
– when the incident involved child pornography or child luring, child exploitation unit contacted and will take over
– when human trafficking involved, Human trafficking unit will be notified
414
Sex crimes notified for?
– Unknown offender(s)
– ongoing risk to community
– sexual assault cause bodily harm or with a weapon
– multiple victims or multiple suspects
– incident involves multiple sexual acts
– offender records the offense in any manner
– Offender keeps or removes any personal items from the victim
– offender uses scripting by having the victim recite dialogue
– offender uses cons or rouses or lure the victim
– linked to another case
415
Who will conduct a victim interview in relation to a sexual assault?
Only an accredited sexual assault investigator
416
Where there are allegations of a sexual assault when the suspect/accuse is a member of the T.P.S?
Sex crimes conducts the initial investigation, then the unit commander of sex crimes will notify PRS
417
CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases where?
– Physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect where the victim is under 16 and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or person in a position of trust or authority
– physical assaults where the victim is under 16 in the suspect is a known adult
– sexual offenses where the victim is under 18 where the suspect is known but outside of sex crimes mandate
– Occurrences entitled child in need of protection or child left unattended
CYAC notified of any sudden or unexpected death of a child under 16
418
Women’s college SACC operates under the ___________ mandate in Shall be contacted for all sexual assault Victim where the offense occurred within the previous 12 days.
Note: There is no longer an emergency department at Womens college. Must called before attending.
Acute mandate.
419
VICLAS stands for?
Violent crime linkage analysis system
420
What are the sexual assault/domestic violence care centers and the age restrictions?
Scarborough hospital - 12 years and older
Sick Kids Hospital- 18 years
Women’s college hospital -14 years and older
Trillium health center- any age
421
In relation to sexual assault, when the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years in the offender(s) is unknown contact?
Sex crimes investigative section
422
All submissions to the center of forensics sciences are now made through the__________________________
CFS evidence web – submission system
423
Where a report is made within______hrs to _________days of the incident, shall advise the victim of the importance of attending a hospital with an SA/DVCC for the purposes of medical evaluation as well as the gathering of potential forensics evidence.
72 hours to 12 days
The investigator may still consider encouraging the victim to attend the SE/DVCC for the purposes of medical treatment even if beyond 12 days of the incident.
424
Child abuse
Who’ s attendance is mandatory for child sexual or physical abuse?
Supervisory officer attendance is mandatory
425
When did Ontario increase the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18?
January 1, 2018
Children who are 16 or 17 years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new voluntary youth services agreement.
426
Forensics evidence can be gathered for up to ____days following incident if suspected penile penetration of vagina
12 days
Note: the Supreme Court of Canada has ruled obtaining a penile swab incident to arrest, where reasonable grounds exist and if conducted in a reasonable manner, would not constitute a charter breach, it would therefore be lawful as a search incident to arrest. When an arrest is made consider contacting FIS to obtain a penile swab from the accused
72 hour threshold for under 12
12 day threshold for 12 to 18 years old
427
In regards to a sexual assault if the offender is a school employee consideration must be given by the unit commander to contact the respective?
Director of education or designate
428
Child means
Under 18 years old
429
Hate crime/bias
Attendance and notifications?
Supervisory officer – mandatory notification and attendance
Divisional detective sergeant mandatory notification
Intelligence services – hate crime mandatory notification
430
In cases involving bodily harm or property damage the officer in charge will notify?
Unit commander Intel – hate crime
431
What is a hate/biased crime?
A criminal offense committed against a person or property that is motivated by hate
432
What is hate propaganda?
Any communication that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes a statement.
433
Although the investigation of hate/biased crime is the responsibility of the divisional Det. office who will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions for these crimes?
Intelligence – hate crime
Intelligence – hate crime will also complete the hate crime detail page or it’s equivalent and maintain the services information database of hate/crime occurrences to assist divisional analysts and investigators. They will also assist in developing public education programs in partnership with other members of the service in the community.
434
What is one of the most effective ways of curtailing the incidence of graffiti?
One of the most effective ways of curtailing the incidence of graffiti is having it removed or covered over within 24 hours.
Note: the removal of graffiti from private property is the responsibility of the property holder.
Maintenance of public property is the responsibility of the respective government agency.
435
Just need to know…
A fire arms interest police FIP entry will be auto generated from the the eReport entry and uploaded to CPIC. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms license who has committed, or threatened to commit, an active violence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue the license, but Assists in the initial screening process or subsequent review by Chief firearms officer.
436
Generally, no single factor is sufficient to make a determination of what constitutes a heat/biased crime. It is often the result of cumulative information that supports such a finding. It is not enough to determine that the suspect was biased against the victim but rather that the __________ for the commission of the criminal act was hate or bias
Motivation
437
In cases involving stalking, threatening or harassing behavior, and where there is an identifiable target And serious potential for violence, who should the case manager consult with?
The case manager should consult with the divisional detective sergeant regarding the consultation with Det. operations – sex crimes – behavioral assessment section
438
As a supervisory officer being notified of an incident suspected to be a hate/crime shall request the attendance of?
Divisional Det. office, detective operations – forensic identification services, Intel – a crime in victim services Toronto
439
Advocate genocide and willful promotion of hatred require the permission of who to proceed with the prosecution?
The attorney general.
440
Does public incitement of hatred require the consent of the Attorney General?
Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the attorney general
441
Intelligent services – hate crime will liaise with the Ministry Of the attorney general and advise the respective Det. office when a decision by the __________________________ has been made concerning the commencement of legal proceedings in cases of heat propaganda
Attorney general
442
Good to know…
Supervisor attendance is mandatory when using authority under section 117 to search for firearms, ammo or explosives
443
What is the primary consideration when conducting firearm investigations?
Officer safety
444
Organized crime enforcement – integrated Gun & Gang task force is responsible for?
OCE – IGGTF -the identification and arrest of criminal government and the identification, arrest and dismantling of any gang, criminal organization or crime group.
445
Firearms enforcement unit is mandated to?
FEU – is mandated to identify and take enforcement action against persons involved in the illegal movement of firearms, ammunition and explosives. This include The offenses of smuggling, trafficking and the possession of crime guns.
446
Firearms enforcement unit – firearms investigation & analysis unit will?
FIAU – will streamline firearm investigations. Determine if firearms are criminal or non-criminal origins.
Examiners also provide expert testimony in court.
All fire arms, Ammunition, projectiles and casings are brought into the custody of the service will be screamed through the Det. at FIAU or their designate.
447
All firearms and ammo seized during an investigation will either be?
– Seized by members of IGGTF if they attend the scene or the division
– submitted by divisional officer via DMLS
– seized by FIS
And forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation.
448
Part III of the criminal code houses information on all available powers to search and seizure, with or without warrant relative to?
– Firearms
– firearm authorizations
– firearms permits
– fire arm licenses
– prohibited devices
– prohibited weapons
– restricted weapons
– explosive substances
– Ammo
Officers Shall seek Prohibition orders where there is an interest for public safety
449
All firearms sumissions for testing shall be completed by?
Firearm investigation & analysis unit (FIAU) will prepare and submit to CFS
450
All firearms submissions for testing shall be completed by?
Firearm investigation & analysis unit (FIAU) will prepare and submit to CFS
451
Members at ________ can assist officers to obtain information as to whether the involved person possesses a firearm license, authorization, registration certificate or permit
Firearms investigation & analysis unit
452
When is a fire arm Bail form completed?
When a person is arrested for firearm possession
453
What units are to be notified by TPOC after a confirmed shooting?
– Intel
– IGGTF
– victim services
– PSRT
454
No firearm shall be modified, cut or dismantled for the purpose of proving it safe, without authorization from?
The Det. at FIAU or designate
455
Who made test fire weapons?
Only members at FIAU may test fire weapons
456
Good to know……
When officers from specialized criminal investigations – FIS at 10 active crime scenes involving firearms, they will seize or receive all firearms, ammunition, casings and projectiles.
Members from FIS will turn the seized items over to the laboratory section of FIS for identification, testing and examination.
The seized items will then be forwarded to FIAU for further testing, analysis and investigation.
A CFS evidence web – submission will only be completed by the FIAU investigator and submitted with the seized items to CFS
457
Explosives shall be handled by?
Emergency Management & public order – explosive disposal unit
458
When will the FIAU investigator forward the firearms reports and certificate of analysis to the respective case manager?
The FIAU investigator will only forward the firearms reports and certificate of analysis to the respective case manager only upon request
459
Upon notification of the report follow up for DNA/fingerprint identification and/or IBIS linkage, what shall the divisional/unit investigator do? 
Request the appropriate extension period In consultation with the detective sergeant if unable to follow up within 14 days.
460
Who is certified to perform serial number restoration procedures?
FIS/FIAU Technicians.
461
Who shall determine what form of testing on a firearm is required?
Only FIS/FIAU members In consultation with the investigating officer
462
Good to know…
The detective sergeant – FEU will assume the lead in multijurisdictional investigations into firearms trafficking and/or smuggled firearms after consultation with the divisional investigator
463
Illegally possessed firearm means
Any firearm that
– is not legally registered in Canada
– has been reported stolen
– is being unlawfully possessed
– is used in a crime
– is suspected to have been used in a crime
464
Who will attend to debrief arrested persons in possession of/or firearm related offenses?
IGGTF
Organized crime enforcement – integrated gun and gang task force
465
Who will attend to debrief known gang members?
IGGTF
466
Elder and vulnerable adult abuse
Is a supervisory officer attendance mandatory?
Yes, supervisory officer attendance mandatory at scene of a complaint of abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult. Officer in charge (in the absence of a supervisory officer) notification is mandatory at the scene
467
Elder and vulnerable adult abuse
What is the goal of the service?
– Reduce the incidence of abuse of elderly and vulnerable adults through education and enforcement
– investigate all occurrences thoroughly and to bring offenders to justice wherever possible
– ensure the safety of victims through prompt action including referrals to other community partners
468
Good to know…
All complaints of elder abuse or vulnerable adult shall be attended to in person by a police officer
469
Elderly means
Anyone over the age of 65
470
Elder in vulnerable abuse can include?
– Physical
– psychological
– sexual
– Finacial
– neglect 
471
Vulnerable adult means
Person who by nature of physical, emotional, or psychological condition is dependent on someone else for care
472
Good to know…
Victim services Toronto is able to provide access to a variety of community resources including the Advocacy Center for the Elderly, a community based legal clinic for low income senior citizens.
473
Good to know… 
The crown and the victim witness assistance program at the court location should be advised of any known medical, physical or mental conditions of the victim so appropriate arrangements can be made for any required court appearance. Consider highlighting the Crown envelope so the Crown may consider seeking stiffer sentencing upon conviction.
474
A child that has been abducted by a stranger is?
A child that has been abducted by a stranger is clearly a “child in need of protection” as defined in the child, youth and family services act.
475
Who’s attendance is mandatory in relation to child abductions?
Supervisory officer attendance is mandatory
Divisional Det. attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18.
476
Good to know…
Police officers have the authority, on reasonable and probable grounds, to enter and search any premises without warrant, using force if necessary, to locate a child in need of protection whose health and safety is a substantial risk. A warrant must be obtained if there is no substantial risk to the child’s health and safety.
477
The criminal code sets out the following 4 abduction – related offenses
Abduction of a person under 16 – non-parental
Abduction of a person under 14–9 parental
Abduction in contravention of/a custody order – parental
Abduction – parental
478
When circumstances indicate a non-– parental or stranger involved abduction notify who?
Sex crimes (The divisional Det. will notify)
479
Who shall be assigned a non-parental child abduction case?
A major case manager
480
In circumstances of a stranger involved adduction who should you contact?
The on-call detective sergeant at intel (The divisional Det. will contact)
481
Good to know…
Ensure that any children’s law reform act order for apprehension is immediately entered on to CPIC
482
Window of opportunity refers to?
The time between when they were last seen in the time they were believed to be missing
483
What should be considered in all cases of missing children investigations?
Amber alert
484
What shall be implemented in all amber alert cases?
Major case management
485
Before an Amber alert is initiated, the following guidelines must be met:
– The investigator believes a child under 18 years of age has been abducted
– the investigator believes the child is in danger
– there is descriptive information about one or more of the following *child
*abductor
*vehicle
To believe in immediate broadcast alert will help in locating the child
486
Who creates and posts a BOLO?
Records management services (RMS)
487
Good to know…
The supervisory officer shall notify the officer in charge in cases of child abductions
Will ensure that EMPO has been notified and EMPO should be consulted in all level 2 in 3 searches
488
Who will request the activation of an amber alert?
The divisional Detective by contacting OIC
489
Good to know…
Custody disputes may involve allegations of parental child abduction. Where no intent to deprive is established, the matter must be documented and both parties should be referred to family court for resolution of the custody dispute.
Should there be grounds to believe there was intent to deprive the custodial parent of the rights to the child and there is no evidence of a custody order in effect, proceedings may only commence with the consent of the Attorney General.
490
In child abductions the divisional Detective Shall?
Ensure the school principal and other caregivers are interviewed
Notify sex crimes if non-parental abduction
Ensure MCM compliance
Stranger involved abduction – notify D/S Intel
491
After the divisional Det. contacts the officer in charge to request an amber alert, what transpires?
Divisional Det. To
Officer in charge To
TPOC
Duty senior officer TPOC consult with Det.
Duty senior officers then contact the chief or designate
Chief or designate make final decision
If approved, duty senior officer initiate through TPOC – contacts duty senior officer OPP
492
Parental abduction means
Unlawful removal of a child by parent, guardian or caregiver of child under 14, whether or not there is a custody order, with intent to deprive
493
Divisional Det. shall lead the investigation of all aggravated assault and attempted homicide that occur within the city of Toronto with the exception of?
Shootings – organized crime enforcement shall lead
With the victims under 16 and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or person in position of authority – investigator from CYAC Shalit investigations
494
In relation to a serious assault (aggravated assault or attempted homicide) who needs to attend the scene?
Supervisory officer and divisional detective mandatory attendance.
OCE detective or investigator mandatory notification where a shooting has occurred
495
Good to know…
A scenes of crime officer SOCO shall not be deployed to examine any scene of an aggregate assault and/or an attempted homicide without consulting with FIS
496
In regards to serious assault the notification of a Det./investigator from the OCE is based on the discharge of a firearm with the intent to?
Wound a person(s)
497
In relation to serious assaults the OIC shall notify?
The unit commander if I’m duty or the officer in charge – TPOC
498
Good to know…
Decisions regarding the safe placement of siblings or other children who might be at risk are time sensitive. Collaborative information sharing facilitates timely decisions that will safeguard children who may potentially be at risk, well preserving the integrity of the criminal investigation
499
Aggravated assault means
Everyone commits aggravated assault who wounds, maims, disfigures or endangerous life
500
The mental health act provides for?
The treatment and apprehension of persons in crisis.
Officers are to respond appropriately to the behaviors and circumstances they observed
501
A person in crisis means
A member of the public whose behavior brings them into contact with emergency services, either because of an apparent need for urgent care within the Mental health system, or because they are otherwise experiencing a mental, emotional or substance use crisis involving behavior that is sufficiently erratic, threatening or dangerous that emergency services are called in order to protect the person or those around them. This includes persons who may require assessment under the MHA.
502
T.P.S goal in regards to persons in crisis is?
Zero deaths and ensuring the well-being, safety, rights and dignity of individuals and communities. In every encounter, the service is committed to taking all reasonable steps to assess, De-escalate and safely resolve the situation.
503
Good to know…
Person in crisis
Officers may consider completing an eReport for any circumstances where the details of the incident would assist officers in resolving conflicts in any future crisis related contacts.
504
Is a supervisor attendance mandatory for persons in crisis calls?
No, only for person in crisis who is or may be armed with a weapon is attendance mandatory
505
As an officer if you were detained at a psychiatric facility for longer than one hour what should you do?
Notify a supervisory officer
506
Good to know… 
Report for all apprehensions or attempt to locate someone on a form
507
What is section 33 of the MHA?
Section 33 of the MHA states that officers must stay with person in custody at the facility until facility accepts custody
508
Can an officer use third-party information for an apprehension?
There is no longer a requirement for a police officer to observe the persons behavior and may use information obtained from a third-party to form reasonable and probable grounds for apprehension
509
Good to know…
Community referral police access line is available to police officers with dealing with:
– any person over 16 who is believed to be emotionally disturbed/substance use at significant risk of involved in the criminal justice system
– Who has not been apprehended under the mental health act
***Proceed only on the consent of the person in crisis
510
Section 17 MHA states-
Where in officer has a reasonable and probable grounds to believe that a person is acting or has acted in a disorderly manner and has reasonable cause to believe that the person;
A) Has threatened or attempted or is threatening or attempting to cause bodily harm to himself or herself
B) Has behaved or is behaving violently towards another person or has caused or is causing another person to fear bodily harm from him or her
C) Has shown or is showing a lack of confidence to care for himself or herself
And in addition the police officer is of the opinion that the person is apparently suffering from mental disorder of a nature or quality that likely will result in,
D) Serious bodily harm to the person
E) Serious bodily harm to another person, or
F) Serious physical impairment of the person
And it would be dangerous to proceed under section 16 Justice of the peace order for examination/form to, the police officer may take the person in custody to an appropriate place for examination by a physician
511
Good to know…
The CMHA Will only accept individuals who can be safely supported in the community. This means that the individual does not pose a threat to the safety of the public or is not a serious risk of harming themselves or others. Prior to providing the support, the person in crisis must voluntarily agree to the services being provided and any other required conditions for admittance.
512
-MCIT program is
A collaborative partnership between participating hospitals and the service bound through a memorandum of understanding. The-MCIT program partners a mental health nurse with a police officer with additional training in working with persons in crisis that will respond, or assist in the response to calls for service involving individuals experiencing a mental, emotional or substance use crisis.
513
-MCIT response will assist with?
– Assessing the situation
– attempting to stabilize and defuse the crisis
– providing supportive counseling as needed
– connecting the individual to appropriate community services
514
When requested by paramedics to transport a violent EDP from a residence or a hospital to a psychiatric facility shall?
– Ensure an application for admission (Form 1) has been signed by a physician
– ETF is notified prior to attending the address. ETF will determine whether they attend or not
515
What are members encouraged to access when considering a referral to a community support agency?
T.P.S mental health referrals guide
516
Form 1 – application by a physician is
For a psychiatric assessment signed by a doctor within 7 days of examining the person, giving any person the authority to take the person named to a psychiatric facility. A Form 1 is valid for 7 days from when it was signed
517
Form 2 - Justice of the Peace order for examination is?
Directing police officers to take the person in custody to a psychiatric facility where a physician may order the person further detained. A Form 2 is valid for 7 days from and including the day it was signed.
518
Form 9 - Order for Return
For an elope, issued by a psychiatric facility authorizing Police to return the person to the facility. A Form 9 is valid for one month after the person is absent without leave
519
Form 47- Order for examination
Issued by the physician who issued the person a community treatment order. Can be used if:
- has reason to believe person has failed to comply with conditions of community treatment order
– fails to let the physician assess their condition within 72 hours
Form 47 authorizes a Police officer to take that person into custody and return to the physician. Valid for 30 days.
520
Good to know…
Persons in crisis
Custody occurs with the hospital arranges for their staff to take charge of the individual, or when the person is taken for an assessment. With a supervisor’s approval, a police officer may remain at the psychiatric facility if it is in the public interest, requested by hospital staff or charges against the person are being considered, and a decision on whether or not to admit the person has yet to be made
521
Good to know…
Within reason, an officer may transport the person to more than one psychiatric facility if the officer feels it is in the public interest to do so. Officers must be prepared to articulate their reasons for taking this course of action
The officer shall submit a T.P.S 649 to the unit commander detailing the problem
522
The divisional mental health liaison officer shall?
– Coordinate divisional community mental health needs through community service providers
– coordinate with internal divisional resources and community mental health professionals
– review mental health related events and occurrences, and identify opportunities to make referrals
– coordinate with the divisional FOCUS representative
– coordinate with community relations officer to engage the FOCUS table
– liaise with community partnerships and engagement unit
– Ensure that hospitals within the division have sufficient 710 forms
523
Service vehicle collisions attendance is mandatory for who?
A supervisor and a TSV officer attendance is mandatory for all service vehicle collisions.
***Subject to availability, the attorney supervisory officer shall be from TSV
Supervisory officer notification mandatory for all collisions involving a service vehicle
524
What are the hospitals partnered with the-MCIT program?
– St. Joseph’s Hospital
– Humber River Hospital
– North York general hospital
– Scarborough health network
– St Michaels hospital
– Michael Garron Hospital
525
Who is responsible to manage the-MCIT deployment to mental health related calls for service?
Although-MCIT’s remain assigned to the community response unit the on duty PRU management team will be responsible to manage MCIT
526
When a member is involved in a service vehicle collision and they are determined at fault the member may be subject to?
– Criminal/provincial charges
– disciplinary action
– driving assessments/driver development training
– revocation of blue card
527
What form does a supervisor complete for each service vehicle involved collision?
T.P.S 559 and will complete the supervisors determination section
528
The Service has an obligation to submit an SLRD40 one within how many days of the vehicle collision?
10 days
529
When a supervisor is notified of the service vehicle collision outside of the city of Toronto what shall they do?
Notify TPOC
530
If a collision involves a vessel who will investigate?
Marine unit
531
Good to know…
All service vehicle collisions deemed reportable shall be recorded on a SLRD401 and submitted to the MTO
Service vehicle collisions deemed not reportable shall be recorded on a report and do not need to be documented on a SLRD401
532
In relation to service vehicle collisions, intentional contact includes?
Person, vehicle, or object
533
Reportable collision includes?
Death, personal injury, or damage over 2000
534
When a member is in a reportable service vehicle collision, the members address shall be?
40 College St., Toronto and the phone number
416–808–2222
535
In the event that the service vehicle collision location is at or near a covert police facility, officer should?
Consult with a supervisory officer prior to entering the location on reports.
Members shall record the particulars as described on the documents of the unmarked vehicle
536
Good to know…
Supervisor: send a copy of SRLD401 or eReport to you to Commander Fleet and materials fourthwith
537
As a supervisor, with criminal or provincial charges are warranted against the involved member in a service vehicle collision shall?
–if immediate action is not required, consult with the involved members unit commander prior to leaving a charge
– if immediate action is required, take appropriate action, then advise the involved members unit commander as soon as practicable
538
As a supervisory officer upon receipt of a provincial offenses – notice of trial shall?
Assume the role of case manager, as appropriate
539
Driving assessment means
A practical, on the road driving assessment conducted by the divisional traffic Sgt, or Traffic Services sergeant
540
As a supervisory officer with notified that a reportable or non-reportable service vehicle collision has occurred in the city of Toronto shall?
Determine if any of the following apply
– criminal offense
– provincial offense
– conduct issue
– training requirement
– no further action required
541
Good to know…
If a service vehicle collision has occurred outside of the city the officer in charge shall notify the officer in charge – TPOC
The officer in charge – TPOC will then notify the duty senior officer
542
Police service collision reduction committee means
A panel consisting of, but not limited to, the unit commander and/or designate From
– Professional standard support
– Traffic Services
– Toronto Police college
With the mandate to monitor Toronto Police service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues, and report its findings to the chief of police
543
Service vehicle collision reduction program means
E program managed by professional standard support which monitors Toronto Police service vehicle collisions
544
Is a supervisor notification required for a traumatic critical incident?
Yes, supervisory officer shall be notified
545
Is a supervisor notification required for a traumatic critical incident?
Yes, supervisory officer shall be notified
546
Is a supervisor notification mandatory with a member is involved in a traumatic critical incident?
Yes, supervisory officer notification is mandatory
547
Good to know…
Critical incident response team (CIRT)/peer support volunteer (PSV) is available and can be contacted at the discretion of the OIC after a critical incident
548
True or false?
An injured-on duty report must be completed by a supervisor for all members involved in a critical incident?
True.
In the nature of injury section put “traumatic critical incident”
549
Traumatic critical incident, mitigation process is?
– Defusing session lasts (15–30 minutes)
– debriefing session (takes place a few days after the incident and could last up to 2.5 hours)
– referral (if required to EFAP or psychological services)
550
What is a post incident firearms exposure session?
Post incident, firearm, exposure sessions (not for animal dispatching) at the Toronto Police College are mandatory for officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty in office is deemed to be directly impacted by the event.
Arranged through unit commander, and an officer may also request to attend.
551
How can critical stress be experienced?
Physically or psychologically
552
In critical incident scenarios when should unmarked vehicles be used?
When transporting family members
553
Who is utilized media inquiries?
Corporate communications
554
When did determining whether it event is “traumatic critical incident” the supervisor was consult with?
The officer in charge of Tpoc
CIRT and PSV- contact will depend on assessment by the OIC with TPOC however must be contacted when a member requests immediate support
555
The designated “on call person” to liaise with family members must be available?
24 hours a day
556
When does the Chief make contact?
The chief makes secondary contact after the initial notification
557
Good to know…
EFAP services are provided to members, auxiliary and lifeguards (critical incident stress only)
558
The decision, whether an event is a traumatic critical incident should be based on?
The nature and circumstances of the event, rather than reaction, or lack there of the involved individuals
559
Good to know…
The unit commander will consult with supervisor, OIC and armament officer - Toronto Police college and a Service psychologist as required when determining officers directly impacted by officer involved shootings
560
Good to know…
OIC Tpoc, after consulting with Unit Commander of officer involved in determining CIRT will be initiated, immediately notify:
On-call CERT/PSV, EFAP liaison , duty, senior officer, Tpoc, on call member of senior officer organization
561
Healthcare professionals means
Member of college regulated under regulated, health professionals act
562
Medical advisor means?
A licensed, qualified medical practitioner, engaged by T.P.S
563
For substance abuse is supervisor notification mandatory?
Yes supervisor notification is mandatory
564
When a supervisor is made aware of a member with substance abuse, what shall they do?
The supervisor shall offer members MAS and EFAP and follow up with the member and provide the appropriate support and encouragement
565
Substance-abuse refers to the use of?
– Cannabis
– alcohol
– prescription, non-prescription, or illegal drugs?
– any other substance?
566
In relation to substance-abuse, if on leave of absence for longer than 90 days, the officers, firearm and use of force equipment shall be returned where?
The armament unit at Toronto Police college
567
In relation to workplace violence is a supervisory officer, attendance mandatory?
Yes, a supervisory officer shall be notified and their attendance is mandatory for any incident involving workplace violence
568
Good to know…
A police officer cannot refuse to work when the work is a normal condition of the workers, employment, or when the refusal to work, would directly endanger, the life, health, or safety of another person
569
Good to know…
The officer in charge of members being aware of how to immediately summon assistance if workplace violence occurs.
The OIC to ensure applicable eReports provided to members unit commander and PRS commander prior to the completion of tour of duty.
570
In relation to, workplace harassment is supervisory officer, attendance mandatory?
Yes, supervisory officer attendance is mandatory for any incident of workplace harassment
571
Good to know…
The definition of workplace harassment, under OHSA is broader than the definition contained in the Ontario human rights code
572
How does the reporting of workplace harassment go?
Member to report to the supervisory officer, supervisor to report to officer in charge, officer in charge to ensure eReport to unit commander and PRS unit commander prior to completion of tour of duty
573
Workplace harassment-reasonable protection necessary for the protection of a member may include?
Reassignment to reasonable alternative duties
574
Is supervisory officer, attendance mandatory when naloxone is administered?
Yes, a supervisor needs to attend when no oxygen is administered or a member is critically injured
575
How many doses does naloxone nasal spray have in each?
Each naloxone nasal spray has two doses
576
What are the temperatures that naloxone can be stored at?
Luxe and can be stored between 15 to 25° and cannot be frozen.
577
True or false?
Members issued or using naloxone, must be up-to-date with their standard first aid
True
578
Good to know…
Any member attending an opioid related overdose shall complete a naloxone tracking form, regardless of it being administered or not
579
In instances where officers administer naloxone, SI, you may require a notification in scenarios where?
– The police officer used force against prior to or after the provision of first aid.
– the person suffered serious injuries or dies while detained by police or in police custody.
– the person suffers serious injuries or dies because of motor vehicle incident involving police or a police pursuit.
580
If a naloxone kit is damaged, expired or used what shall you do?
Mark the kit with an X and return the spoiled kit to Hanna garage
581
Where are used naloxone  kits disposed?
Use kids can be disposed of in a garage or a local pharmacy
582
Good to know…naloxone
Brief excursions permitted between 4°C to 40°C. Cannot be frozen, must be protected for direct sunlight.
583
If you were not up-to-date on your first aid and legally allowed to administer naloxone, who do you return the kit to?
The unit commander
584
What does supervisory officer attention scene where naloxone was used? Who do they notify?
The supervisory officer shall immediately notify the OIC and OIC – Tpoc
585
As the officer in charge, when naloxone has been used on a service member, who shall the OIC notify?
The OIC shall immediately notify the members unit commander, and the OIC - Tpoc
586
Tpoc, when notified of naloxone used on a service member will notify who?
Notify the on-call wellness, on-call S00, and duty inspector
587
Who determines if members are fit for duty medically?
MAS
588
The requirement to be fit for duty in relation to cannabis use is?
28 days
589
How long can THC stay in your body fat deposits for?
28 days
590
Workplace safety is ashared responsibility between who
Workplace safety is a shared responsibility between the board, the service and its employees, and service members
591
Good to know…
When reasonable grounds exist to investigate member for using alcohol or drugs in a manner, prejudicial to duty, members shall be offered the opportunity to take appropriate test (Intoxilyzer, DRE or other). Service reserves the right to undertake appropriate post incident drug testing.
592
When there is a fitness for duty issue, what does the supervisory officer do?
Notify OIC
unit commander on a TPS649
Also, notify the unit commander of wellness and request fitness for duty assessment
593
In regards to property, a separate bag is issued for the following prisoner property
– meds
– money not seized
– cannabis
– personal item.
– religious item
– gender item.
594
In relation to property when should you consider a non-see-through bag?
Consider at nine see-through bag for gender affirming items
595
What items will court services not transport?
Court services will not transport edged weapons, or alcohol in any form
596
Good to know…
An item of religious significance can be any item that the person identifies as having religious significance.
597
Good to know…
Refrigerate medication when required to do so
598
Is it necessary to weigh all cannabis?
No, it is not necessary to weigh, legally possessed cannabis. Place in a separate property bag in the presence of a supervisor and seal.
Any cannabis that is legally possessed, will be returned to seizing unit for a release to the owner
599
When is the property bag left open?
A bag containing meds shall remain open in case the accused needs their medication
600
If the officer in charge allows valuable property to be retained by a prisoner, they shall ensure who is advised?
The transporting officer(s)
Valuable property: money, jewelry, etc. may make the prisoner a target for robbery
601
The incident management system (IMS) is used mainly for?
Unplanned emergencies
602
Good to know…
The incident management team - all are trained in the incident management system
603
EPC stands for?
The emergency preparedness committee
604
In relation to emergency incident response, when is a supervisory officers attendance mandatory?
Supervisory attendance is mandatory for level 2 or 3 incidents
Supervisory officer, notification is mandatory for level 1
605
In relation to an incident response when does Tpoc get notified?
Tpoc is notified for level 2 and 3
606
When is the unit commander notified in relation to Emergency incident response?
You recommend your notifications, mandatory for all level 2 and 3 incidents
607
When is the attendance of a duty senior officer requested?
For level 3 incidents only
608
Emergency incident response, Level 1 ~ Emergency
~ divisional level resources
– resolved in a short period of time
609
Emergency incident response
Level 2 – Major incident
– Incident that exceeds capabilities of dividual resources
– requires additional support.
– Tpoc and EM— PO.
– may require a major incident command center. (MICC)
– require a command post and major incident command center.
610
Emergency incident response.
Level 3 – disaster incident.
Dash affects a significant portion of the population.
– recovery may require a major incident Command center (MICC)
– political direction or support.
– official declaration of a disaster as per municipal code 59.
611
Where is the MICC located?
12th floor of HQ
612
Good to know…
And after action report is required for all levels as well as a UCMR entry
613
The public safety unit, sub of
EM-PO is staffed by?
Those who respond to level 2 or 3 incidents
614
Who will appoint a public information officer in relation to an emergency incident response?
The incident commander will appoint a public information officer who is on scene and will update Corp. comm
615
True or false?
The first officer on scene is the incident commander until they are relieved by a supervisor?
True
616
What can a staging area be used for?
A staging area can be used to track and control resources
617
Who’s decision is it to evacuate during civil disturbances or police situation’s (hostage, barricaded person, terrorism)?
It is the responsibility of the police
618
Who is decision? Is it to evacuate during a natural disaster or man-made disaster?
It is the responsibility of fire services
619
Where is the emergency operation centre located?
6th floor of 703 Don Mills Rd.
620
The explosive device unit and mounted unit are subunits of?
EM ~ PO
621
Specialized emergency response units are?
ETF, Marine unit, K9
622
Incident management system organizational chart.
COMMAND
Incident commander
– Incident specialist.
– liaison
– intelligence.
– health and safety.
– emergency information officer
623
Incident management system, organization chart
OPERATIONS
– Staging
– site management.
– evacuations
– search.
– crowd management
– prisoner management
– specialized operations.
624
Incident management system, organization, chart.
LOGISTICS
– services.
– support.
– communications
– supply.
– feeding
– medical.
– facilities
– transportation.
625
Incident management system organizational chart.
PLANNING
– situation
– resources
– demobilization
– documentation
626
Incident management system, organization chart
ADMINISTRATION & FINANCE
– Procurement
– cost
– claims
627
Incident management system, organization, chart
INVESTIGATIVE
– detective operations
– divisional investigative
– traffic services
– victim services
– major case management
628
In relation to bomb threats/suspicious devices in packages/explosions when is a supervisor attendance mandatory?
Supervisory officers shall attend for bomb or explosion related calls
629
In relation to bomb threats, suspicious packages, and explosions. When does the supervisory officer become incident commander?
Supervisory officer becomes incident, commander once on scene, and will set up a command post
630
Who can handle or transport a suspected bomb or explosive package/device?
Only a police explosive technician can handle or transport a suspected, bomb, or explosive package/device
631
How many metres should be secured around the suspicious package or device?
Secure an area of a minimum of 30 m around the package or device
632
In relation to major incidents , what is an explosion classified as?
Explosions are classified at a minimum as a level 2 – major incident
633
CBRNE stand for?
Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive
634
Good to know…
All members of EDU are CBRNE trained and are explosive technicians
635
What is the role of the first officer on scene of a situation where the ETF are required?
Control the scene
636
Situation where ETF are required, officers should not?
Not enter the scene, unless eminent threat to life
637
Situations that require the ETF a supervisory officer attendance is mandatory when?
Supervisory attendance is mandatory once it is determined, the situation requires the ETF
638
In situations where crisis negotiators and/or forensic psychiatrist are needed, who shall make the request?
All crisis, negotiators and/or forensic psychiatrist requests shall be made through the ETF
639
Good to know…
UCMR entry is required if ETF attend a scene
The OIC will update the UCMR
640
For an explosive or bomb call who maintains control of the scene?
For all explosive or bomb calls, the supervisor of EDU maintains control of the scene
641
Good to know…
Supervisor, ETF will assume rule of ETF tactical commander over all ETF, unless relieved by the unit commander ETF
642
In relation to threats to school safety, who makes the decision shelter in place, hold and secure, or lockdown, after consultation with the police
The principal
643
There is a threat to school safety, and the officer arrives on scene to investigate, What shall they do?
Always report to the office first when an investigation occurs on school property unless eminent danger to life prevents you from doing so
644
In relation to threats to school safety, when is a supervisors attendance mandatory
Supervisory attendance is mandatory for all level 3
645
Shelter in place (Level 1)
– hazardous material in or around the school
– often requested by Toronto fire services.
*normal operations can continue inside the school with windows closed and fans turned off in the event of a hazardous material close by.
646
Hold and Secure (Level 2)
– Suspect with a weapon near a school
– search near a school for a suspect wanted for a violent offence
– serious motor vehicle collision near a school requiring minimal pedestrian traffic.
*Normal movement within the school, however, all external doors and windows locked as the threat remains outside the school.
647
Lockdown (Level 3)
– person attacking a person with a knife in a school
– a person using or threatening to use a gun on school property
*Means movement in and out of the school is restricted and the danger is inside the school, and there is an immediate threat to staff/students
648
The officer on scene of a school lockdown, hold and secure, or shelter in place shall notify?
The supervisory officer and the OIC
649
In relation to a school lockdown, the officer shall request who to notify OIC, Tpoc?
Communications
650
Who will determine the final disposition of all external complaints, regardless of who investigates the complaints?
The 0IPRD
651
How can the OIPRD form be submitted?
– Electronically
– by mail
– T.P.S EFax
– in person (or an agent)
– by delivering the OIPRD form to any service station.
NOTE- complaints about a police officer from another service and third-party complaint will also be accepted in the above manner
652
True or false?
The OIPRD will accept anonymous complaints.
False, the OIPRD will not accept anonymous complaints
653
What is a local resolution?
An agreement prior to OIPRD notification
654
A local resolution is resolved in how many days?
Resolved in 30 days
655
Local resolution means
Dash deals with personal property other than money or firearms
– must be resolved within 30 days of the complainant report to police unless OIPRD authorizes an extension
– facilitated by supervisor and documented on an OIPRD form
– not placed in police officers, personnel file
656
Customer service resolution.
Is an agreement once the OIPRD has been notified/lodged but not formalized
Referred by OIPRD to professional standards
– must be resolved within 45 days of the date of notice to PRS from OIPRD
– Facilitated by supervisor and documented on an OIPRD form
– not placed in police officers personnel file
657
Studies have shown that it can take upwards of _____ hours of continuous exposure in in unventilated space were multiple smokers of cannabis are actively smoking to show secondhand absorption.
Four(4) hours
658
THC is responsible for the way?
The brain and body respond to cannabis
659
It accordance with standards of conduct member shall not use recreational cannabis for a minimum of ____ hours prior to attending work
24 hours
660
When responding to a level 3 – disaster incident who will establish communication with the MICC?
The incident commander
661
On a level two major incident in relation to emergency incident responses who does the first supervisory officer notify?
The first supervisory officer will notify the divisional officer in charge and notify the officer in charge – Tpoc
Will also request the assistance as required for emergency specialized units and services
662
The first supervisory officer Will request assistance from such specialized units/services as regional police air support units with the authorization from who?
When authorized by the duty senior officer or other senior officer
663
When receiving a call of a bomb threat the members shall attempt to note the following information about the callar?
Sex And approximate age
Speech characteristics
Background noises
Telephone number on call display if available
664
Who provides the evacuation distances from specific explosives based on the type of explosive?
National Ground intelligence Center
665
At the minimum explosive shall be treated as a?
Level 2 - major incident
666
When arriving at the scene of an explosion who notifies intelligence services?
Incident commander
667
The operational section of the ETF consists of special weapons teams and trained?
Crisis negotiators
668
In matters respecting an incident under investigation in relation to uniform external Complaint who will assume all the duties and powers of the chief of police?
The OIPRD liaison officer
669
What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution
Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above
669
What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution
Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above
669
What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution
Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above
670
What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution
Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above
671
What is an informal resolution?
And informal resolution is an agreement between all parties after a complete has been lodged with the OIPRD and involves conduct that is deemed less serious
672
There are two types of informal resolutions what are they?
Informal resolution – occurs during the investigation
Informal resolution – occurs after the investigation is completed
673
Informal resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on?
The prescribed 0IPRD form
674
True or false
No record of an informal resolution Shall be placed in a police officers personnel file
True
675
Notifications of a complete to a police officer is made on?
T.P.S 649
676
A complaint made against a Toronto police service officer in another province or territory, who has been appointed to act as a police officer in the province or territory, the complete shall be forwarded to?
The 0IPRD
677
When a supervisor receives a complete OIPRD complaint and reviewed the nature of the complete Shall?
Fax the form and any attachment to the OIPRD
Attempt to resolve the complaint by way of local resolution
678
Is an investigative report required by the unit complaint coordinator for an informal resolution?
No, an investigative report is not required by the UCC for an informal resolution 
679
The Toronto Police service is committed to ensuring that the complaint process is?
Accountable and transparent
680
The Toronto Police service is committed to ensuring that the complaint process is?
Accountable and transparent
681
Who is the OIPRD liaison?
The inspector at PRS
682
What shall be done with a complaint of a Toronto police officer acting in another province or territory?
It shall be forwarded to the OIPRD
683
The Toronto Police service is committed to ensuring the complaint process is?
Accountable and transparent
684
In regards to eat criminal alligation is the respondent compelled to provide a statement and attend an interview?
The respondent may provide a statement and attend interview, may answer questions but it’s not compelled to do so
685
In relation to a conduct complaint the officer has to?
The officer has to provide a statement, attend interview and answer questions.
It’s the same when witness to a criminal allegations
686
In regards to internal complaints how many days do you have to submit the completed file to PRS?
120 days
687
If a complaint is withdrawn but the investigation continues, did the officer being investigated must be made aware the investigation is continuing within how many days?
30 days
688
Who determines which unit will investigate an internal complaint?
PRS – complaints administration
689
In a complaint against a senior officer who shall delegate a supervisor to investigate?
The applicable deputy chief
690
Unit commanders shall forward the completed file in relation to a internal complaint including disposition to PRS – complaint administration within?
120 days
691
In regards to internal complaint/human rights code a copy shall be forwarded to?
Equity, inclusion and human rights
692
Good to know…
If at the conclusion of internal investigation, the subject officers conduct constitutes misconduct and unable to serve 90 one within six months, shall consult with PRS – prosecutions, prepare board report, summary of investigations and reason why the delay
693
Good to know…
Uniform complete withdrawal
When complainant wishes to withdraw – must be in writing inside, chief May continue to deal with complaint if he considers appropriate to do so.
If complainant wishes to withdraw after hearing has commenced, chief and OIPRD have to consent
694
When PS a hearing has commenced…
Only hearing officer may receive withdrawal
695
The chief of police or police services board may suspend the officer without pay when?
If the police officer is convicted and served a term of imprisonment. Even if the conviction is under appeal.
696
Regulated interaction
Applies to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual in a face-to-face encounter, to identify themselves or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual and include such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,
– Inquiring into offenses that have been or might be committed
– inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offenses
– gathering information for intelligence purposes
697
Regulated interaction
Does not apply to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual when;
– Investigating an offense the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed
– the individual is legally required to provide the information i.e. traffic stop, trespass to property
– the individual is under arrest or is being detained
– the police officer is engaged in a covert operation
– the police officer is executing a warrant
– The individual is employed in the administration of justice or providing services that are otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officers duty
698
Controller – regulated interactions
Must prepare a report to the unit commander aof the Toronto Police college every?
Three months
