Sgt Test

Question 1

A MACTAC Squad is comprised of…?

Answer 1

Two or more Strike teams and a squad leader.

Question 2

How many Officers should be on a MACTAC Strike Team..?

Answer 2

4-5 man strike team.

Question 3

What does MACTAC stand for?

Answer 3

Multi Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities.

Question 4

What is the MACTAC Mission?

Answer 4

To save life’s!

“Our collective mission will be to develop a domestic police force which can continue to perform its day-to-day duties in a way that is acceptable within a free society, but which can adapt quickly to an emerging new paradigm that assumes degraded communication emphasizes small team leadership, and embraces decentralized command and control”

Question 5

A MACTAC incident occurs in SEAC, who should respond to the incident?

Answer 5

All uniformed SEAC will respond directly to the incident.

Question 6

What are the areas of responsibility (Missions) for MACTAC Squads and Strike Teams?

Answer 6

Assault , Rescue, Containment, Reconnaissance, and Force Protection.

Question 7

What is a Rescue Task Force (RTF)?

Answer 7

Rescue Task Force is comprised of officers and FD or Medical. They will enter the warm zone and assess patients. FD or Medical will tag patients based on assessments and officers will provide security to medical personnel.

Question 8

What is an Extraction Team?

Answer 8

An extraction team will enter the warm zone and extract victims that have been tagged by the Rescue Task Force (RTF).

Question 9

What are the 4 A’s that the first officer on scene should consider?

Answer 9

Assess, Announce, Assemble, Act

Question 10

What are the 4 C’s?

Answer 10

Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate.

Question 11

What is a MACTAC
1. Notification
2. Alert
3. Activation

Answer 11

1. (Notification) A general notification for the area commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to a rally point but should be ready for an Alert in any confirmed MACTAC incident. Communications should broadcast a valley wide MACTAC notification.
2. (Alert) A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. In-the-Box patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to actives units.
3. (Activation) A MACTAC Incident is confirmed, compelling the affected area command to respond directly.

Question 12

What is SARA model?

Answer 12

Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment.

Question 13

T/F: The suspect must be armed with either a firearm or other deadly weapon to meet the criteria for STAR?

Answer 13

True

Question 14

T/F: STAR protocol exists when there is a credible information that a subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon OR is simulation a firearm or other deadly weapon in a threatening manner?

Answer 14

False IT CANT BE SIMULATED

Question 15

How many officers must be dispatched to a STAR Protocol?

Answer 15

3

Question 16

T/F: Per policy, a BAC of above .02 at the time of the BAC test, is per se impairment?

Answer 16

True

Question 17

Who must you notify if an employee is using medication and they have been informed they may have the potential to cause impairment?

Answer 17

Health and Safety

Question 18

What must be done if forced entry is made into a structure that causes damage to the Structure?

Answer 18

Document damage with photos/BWC. Complete an Officer Report. Leave information and advise to contact risk management.

Question 19

T/F: Community Care Taking Doctrine is limited in SCOPE and may be used for welfare check and certain traffic stops?

Answer 19

True

Question 20

T/F: The purpose of making entry under the Community Caretaker Doctrine is to render aid and save life.

Answer 20

True

Question 21

List three types of Administrative Warrants (Agencies that we assist)?

Answer 21

1- Animal Control
2- Attorney General
3-Constable
4-Gaming Control
5-Health Administration
6-Child Protective Services
7-Taxi-Cab Authority

Question 22

T/F: LVMPD Officers can assist in the service of Administrative Warrant to the extent of clearing a structure for that agency.

Answer 22

True

Question 23

Under which two conditions may a sergeant utilize the self dispatch feature on the MDT?

Answer 23

1-To close out a pending non-response required type call with out using the radio (i.e., a sergeant calls a person report and determines a 416B subject is gone. The sergeant can self-dispatch to update and close the call)

2- After contacting the PR and deeming the call can be canceled, or if the sergeant resolves the call, they may utilize the self-dispatch feature.

Question 24

Once a sergeant has been advised of calls holding in excess of 60 minutes, the area sergeant will _______?

A. Send a Unit to the call
B. Handle the call themselves.
C. Monitor the call
D. All of the above

Answer 24

C. Monitor the call

Question 25

T/F: IF a call continues to hold in excess of 90 minutes, it is the responsibility of the area sergeant to contact the PR and advised them of the extended delay and/or other possible resolutions.

Answer 25

True

Question 26

T/F: In Custody Events: At 90 minutes unless an emergency exists the area sergeant may have an officer sent to the call.

Answer 26

False- They WILL have an officer sent to the call.

Question 27

How many days does a supervisor have to provide the employee a copy of LVMPD’s Pregnant Workers Fairness Act flyer after she has notified a supervisor that she is pregnant?

Answer 27

3 Days

Question 28

An Employee Performance Review (EPR) gives a snapshot of an employees work history over what period of time?

Answer 28

3 Years

Question 29

How many days does a supervisor have to respond to EIIP alerts after receiving an EIIP Alert notification?

Answer 29

14 Days

Question 30

Who can receive complaints of harassment or discrimination?

Answer 30

Any Supervisor, EDS, IAB.

Question 31

Disparate Treatment VS Adverse Impact

Answer 31

Disparate treatment - involves intentional discriminatory actions. Adverse impact- focuses on unintentional discrimination, caused by seemingly neutral policies or practices that disproportionately harm a protected group.

Question 32

According to the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 and Suzanne’s Law entry into NCIC will be made for persons under what age?

Answer 32

Under 20 years old

Question 33

How many days does an employee have to file a complain of harassment or discrimination?

Answer 33

300 Days

Question 34

Name the three types of Witness Identifications?

Answer 34

1. Show Up 2. Photo Line Up 3. Live Line Up

Question 35

T/F: The show up should be done within a relative time from of 1-3 hours.

Answer 35

True

Question 36

What is the difference between a Collision VS an Incident?

Answer 36

COLLISION- is if damage is more that $750, Complaint of injury or injury or death INCIDENT- is if damage is $750 or less, no complaint of injury.

Question 37

A non violent protest where there is an intentional breach of the law is a_______?

Answer 37

Civil Disobedience

Question 38

An assemble that constitutes a clear and present danger of violent or unlawful acts including Civil unrest, destruction of property, arson, looting or when another immediate threat to public safety, peace or order appears is a ________?

Answer 38

Riot

Question 39

If a threat of harm needs to be immediately addressed, how many times does the dispersal order need to be given?

Answer 39

One (1)

Question 40

T/F: Dispersal orders must be issued in serval languages.

Answer 40

False- Only needs to be given in multiple languages if it is determined that most of the crowd speaks a certain language.

Question 41

T/F: Using force during protest must be authorized by the incident commander.

Answer 41

False

Question 42

A lawful public expression of objection, disapproval, or dissent toward an idea or action is a ________?

Answer 42

Protest

Question 43

________ and ___________ searches are done to protect officers from any possible devises that may be placed to injure many and kill first responders upon their arrival on scene.

Answer 43

25 foot and 100 foot searches

Question 44

_________ occurs when an employee is subjected to adverse employment action based on their participation in a complaint regarding charges of harassment or discrimination.

Answer 44

Retaliation

Question 45

Who can receive complaints of harassment or discrimination?

Answer 45

Any Supervisor, EDS, IAB.

Question 46

How many days, from the last incident does a complainant have to forward a written complaint to the EDS Supervisor?

Answer 46

300 Days

Question 47

A supervisor is hailed by a citizen who advised him that they would want to make a complaint against an officer. The supervisor listens to the complain and determines that the complaint does not rise to the level of misconduct. However the complainant insists on making the complaint. What should the supervisor do?

Answer 47

Supervisor should take the complaint and forward the SOC to IAB.

Question 48

How many hours of sick leave can be taken prior to receiving a contact for abuse or sick leave?

Answer 48

80 hours At 90 hours a contact is issued 100 second contact is issued 110 a SOC May be opened

Question 49

How many contacts must an employee receive prior to a SOC being opened for abuse of sick leave?

Answer 49

2 contacts , one at 90 hours and the second one at 100 hours. SOC may be opened at 110 hours

Question 50

Who must be consulted prior to opening an SOC for abuse of sick leave?

Answer 50

Labor

Question 51

You are dispatched to a call as a supervisor, and learn that a child who is 5 years old is dead. There are no suspicious circumstances. Who must be notified?

Answer 51

Abuse /Neglect

Question 52

If you observe blunt force trauma on a child’s death, who must be notified?

Answer 52

Abuse / Neglect, and Homicide

Question 53

How many days after the issuance of a contact may the employee submit a rebuttal?

Answer 53

30 days

Question 54

EIIP thresholds are calculated over a rolling year, with the exception of ___________, which are calculated over a rolling 60 months.

Answer 54

Firearm discharges

Question 55

T/F: Employees are permitted to access text messages and e-mail while driving but ONLY if they are currently stopped at a stop signal.

Answer 55

False

Question 56

T/F: PO’s must attend EVOC each year for the first four years of service.

Answer 56

False- Three years of service

Question 57

BWC video from a vehicle collision or incident must be manually labeled as _________. The retainment of the incident video will be ________years.

Answer 57

Pending Review 5 years

Question 58

A statement of Complaint will be filed against an officer, after the ________missed attendance of EVOC without proper notification. A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

Answer 58

Second

Question 59

LVMPD Forms_________ and ________ will be completed by the supervisor after a LVMPD vehicle collision.

Answer 59

LVMPD 393, Supervisors Report of Department Vehicle Incident, LVMPD 461 Check Ride Report,

Question 60

Supervisors shall conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least________. A. Monthly B. Weekly C. Semi annually D. Yearly

Answer 60

At least Monthly

Question 61

T/F: Officers will wear their BWC on their weapon bearing shoulder.

Answer 61

False- Opposite side of weapon bearing shoulder.

Question 62

Should a supervisor record the interview with the reporting citizen who is filing a complaint?

Answer 62

Yes

Question 63

Should a supervisor watch BWC video in the presence of the complainant?

Answer 63

NO

Question 64

Should a supervisor record the interview of a subject or witness officer of a citizen complaint?

Answer 64

No

Question 65

If a supervisor has probable cause, based on BWC video, to believe a reportring citizen is in violation of NRS 207.280, False Reporting of Crimes, he/she should notify the _________ section, on call supervisor for further direction.

Answer 65

Criminal Intelligence Section, Internal Affairs Bureau

Question 66

Who is responsible for the collection and upload of BWC when investigations an officer involved shooting?

Answer 66

FIT

Question 67

__________ means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of the incident.

Answer 67

Unity of Command

Question 68

The process of moving the responsibility for the incident command from one incident commander to another is____________.

Answer 68

Transfer of Command

Question 69

_________ pertains to the number of individuals or resources that on supervisor can mange effectively?

Answer 69

Span of Control

Question 70

__________ is a proven management system, based on successful business practices.

Answer 70

ICS

Question 71

_________ is an oral or written plan containing general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident?

Answer 71

IAP- Incident Action Plan

Question 72

The recommended span of control is a ration of one (1) supervisor to ______ reporting elements.

Answer 72

5

Question 73

In ICS the base is established and managed by the _____ section.

Answer 73

Logistics section

Question 74

What are the five major management functions of ICS?

Answer 74

Incident Command Planning Section Operations Section Logistics Financial and Administrative

Question 75

In ICS, the person in charge of a branch is knows as a _____.

Answer 75

Director

Question 76

In ICS the _____ section is responsible for ensuring that resources are released from the incident in an orderly, safe, and cost effective manner.

Answer 76

Demobilization Unit

Question 77

________ The systematic removal of person(s) from hazardous situation or environment. (Inside the designated contaminated area). _______ in the contaminated area will only be conducted by properly equipped personnel.

Answer 77

—- Rescue

Question 78

______- The systematic removal of person(s) from a POTENTIALLY hazardous situation or environment (Outside the designated contaminated area.)

Answer 78

Evacuation

Question 79

An officer should establish a perimeter of at least ______ feet, from any item that they can visually identify as evidence.

Answer 79

300

Question 80

T/F: A suspicious item is any item identified as potentially containing CBRNE that requires specialized equipment and training to further evaluate. Suspicious indicator based upon communicated threat, placement and proximity of the item to people and valuable assets.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

The Critical Incident Review Process (CIRP) is comprised of the________ and the ________. These are two separate but related boards whose combined purpose is to conduct a through review of all aspects of incidents involving the use of deadly force by department member.

Answer 81

Tactical Review Board and Use of Force Review Board

Question 82

When should a supervisor make an immediate notification to PEAP? A. When the employee is the victim of a crime and is in need of emotional support. B. An LVMPD employee has been arrested for a crime. C. An employee had been involved in a stressful incident during their work shift and the supervisor feels the employee or team needs additional resources. D. All of the above

Answer 82

D. All of the above

Question 83

What form should be completed, by a supervisor, when it is determined that an employee has been identified as being a potential harm to themselves or others?

Answer 83

Employee Crisis Intervention Form

Question 84

Sick time can be taken for which of the following. A. Illness / Injury B. Public Health C. Doctors appointment/ Medial Emergency D. Bereavement E. All of the Above

Answer 84

All of the Above

Question 85

Sick leave request must be completed within ______ hours of returning to work.

Answer 85

24 hours

Question 86

Employees will complete a leave application form in ESS ______ weeks prior to scheduled military leave.

Answer 86

2 weeks

Question 87

T/F STAR Protocol: If the call resulted in a legitimate threat, the patrol supervisor will complete the information regarding a hazard on the property and the subject involved.

Answer 87

True

Question 88

Abuse Neglect detail will be notify of all deaths of elders, _________ years of age or older, caused by abuse or neglect.

Answer 88

60 years

Question 89

Foot pursuits are inherently dangerous and require ________, _________, and __________ safety awareness.

Answer 89

Good judgement Sound Tactics Heightened Safety Awareness

Question 90

A(n) _________ is the pursuit of a subject wherein the intent of pursuing officer is to take the subject into custody as quickly as possible.

Answer 90

Apprehension

Question 91

When deciding whether to initiate or continue a foot pursuit, officers should consider other possible, reasonable alternatives such as pursue to _________ vs. pursue to _________.

Answer 91

Pursue to Apprehend vs. Pursue to Contain

Question 92

The initiating officer shall be responsible for coordinating the progress of the pursuit unless______.

Answer 92

Relieved by another officer or supervisor

Question 93

What are the five (5) things, an officer in a pursuit should broadcast.

Answer 93

Description Direction of travel Crime If Armed Unit Call sign

Question 94

T/F: Officers will summon emergency management after a prolonged physical encounter

Answer 94

False

Question 95

When an officer loses sight of the suspect, the officer should consider transitioning from __________ to _________.

Answer 95

Pursuit to apprehend TO Pursuit to contain

Question 96

T/F: Supervisors physical presence is required to exercise control over the foot pursuit an the supporting resources.

Answer 96

False

Question 97

A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when? 1._____ 2. ____ 3._____ 4._____

Answer 97

1. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect 2. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if is occupied or not 3. Any reportable force or 4. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants a supervisory oversight

Question 98

What should the supervisor conduct with the officers involved if any of the following 1. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect 2. Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if is occupied or not 3. Any reportable force or 4. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants a supervisory oversight

Answer 98

After Action Review

Question 99

Upon apprehension of the suspect, the supervisor should promptly do what? ________ to the termination point and direct ______, ______ activity.

Answer 99

Respond, Post Pursuit

Question 100

First responding officer who is not actively engaged in the immediate apprehension of the subject will establish what?

Answer 100

360 perimeter

Question 101

Which of the following is not an example of an incident? A. Fire both structural and wild land B. Hazardous materials incidents C. Routine calls for service D. Search and Rescue Missions

Answer 101

C. Routine Calls for service

Question 102

A/An ________ is an occurrence either caused by humans or natural phenomena that requires response actions to prevent or minimize loss of life or damage to property and or the environment A. Incident B. Event C. Accident D. Ongoing Demonstration

Answer 102

A. Incident

Question 103

Studies found that response problems for ICS were far more likely to result from _______ than any other single reason. A. Lack of common sense B. Inadequate management C. Miscommunication D. Lack of man power

Answer 103

B. Inadequate management

Question 104

ICS is all of the following except: A. A proven management system based on successful business practices B. The result of decades of lessons learned in the organization and management of emergency incidents C. A system designed to help organize systems, tools, and ideas

Answer 104

C. A systems designed to help organize systems, tools, and ideas.

Question 105

Designer of the system recognized early that ICS must be interdisciplinary and organizationally flexible to meet the following management challenges except: A. Meet the needs of the incident of any kind or size B. Allow personnel from a variety of agencies to mold rapidly into a common management structure C. Use common terms and common sense to create a functional system D. Provide logistical and administrative support to operational staff E. Be cost effective by avoiding duplication of efforts

Answer 105

C. Use common terms and common sense to create a functional system

Question 106

ICS helps ensure full utilization of all incident resources by all of the following except: A. Maintaining a manageable span of control B. Establishing predestinated incident locations and facilities C. Implementing resource management practices D. Ensuring integrated communications E. Allowing officers from different agencies to work amongst each other

Answer 106

E. Allowing officers from different agencies to work amongst each other

Question 107

T/F: A critical part of an effective multiagency incident management system is for all communication to be in plain English. That is, USE CLEAR TEXT. DO NOT USE RADIO CODES, AGENCY SPECIFIC CODES OR JARGON. Even if you use radio codes on daily basis, other responders may not. The goal is to ensure responders from all agencies can communicate with one another.

Answer 107

True

Question 108

____________ is major resources (personnel, facilities, and equipment/supply items) are given common names and are “typed” or categorized by their capabilities. This helps to avoid confusion and to enhance interoperability.’ A. Organizational Functioins B. Resource Descriptions C. Incident Facilities D. Position Titles

Answer 108

B. Resources Descriptions

Question 109

How many steps are included in management by objectives?

Answer 109

Six

Question 110

Incident Action plans include the measurable strategic operations to be achieved and are prepared around a timeframe called an/a___________? A. Timeline period B. Basic period C. Standard period D. Operational period

Answer 110

D.Operational period

Question 111

At the simplest level, all Incident Action Plans (oral or written) must have all of the following elements except: A. What do we want to do? B. Who is responsible for doing it? C. Why are we doing what we are doing? D. How do we communicate with each other? E. What is the procedure if someone is injured?

Answer 111

C. Why are we doing what we are doing?

Question 112

Effective span of control on incidents may vary from _____ to _____: A. 2-6 B.1-8 C. 3-5 D 3-7

Answer 112

D. 3-7

Question 113

A ratio of one supervisor to ________ reporting elements is recommended: A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D.4

Answer 113

B. 5

Question 114

___________ are temporary locations at an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments. A. Camp B. Staging area C. Base D. Spot

Answer 114

B. Staging area

Question 115

Tactical resources are always classified as one of the following except: A. Assigned B. Standby C. Available D. Out of service

Answer 115

B. Standby

Question 116

Resource management includes processes for all of the following except: A. Categorizing resources B. Ordering resources C. Dispatching resources D. Tracking resources E. Recovering resources

Answer 116

B. Ordering resources

Question 117

Effective ICS communications includes all of the elements except: A. Modes B. Planning C. Networks D. Communication

Answer 117

D. Communication

Question 118

_________ means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of an incident. A. Chain of command B. Unified command C. Single command D. Unity of command

Answer 118

D. Unity of command

Question 119

A unified command may be needed for the following incidents except: A. Múltiple jurisdictions B. Unavailable jurisdictions C. A single jurisdiction with multiple agencies sharing reponsibilites D. Múltiple jurisdictions with multiple agency involvement

Answer 119

B. Unavailable jurisdiction

Question 120

Transfer of command may take place when: A. A more qualified individual person assumes command. B. Any higher ranking officer arrives. C. The incident situation changes over time, resulting in a legal requirement to change command. D. The incident response is concluded and incident responsibility is transfered back to the home agency. E. All of the above

Answer 120

E. All of the above A more qualified individual person assumes command. Any higher ranking officer arrives. Any higher ranking officer arrives. The incident situation changes over time, resulting in a legal requirement to change command. The incident response is concluded and incident responsibility is transferee back to the home agency.

Question 121

The following are guidelines that must be adhere to in ICS. -Check in -Incident action plan -unity of command -span of control -resources tracking There are guidelines for what concept? A. Accountability B. Mobilization C. Information and intelligence Management D. Roles and authority

Answer 121

A. Accountability

Question 122

T/F: Check in múltiple times for accountability.

Answer 122

False

Question 123

Below are guidelines for _______: -Print or type all entries -Enter dates by month/day/ year format -Enter date and time on all forms and records. Use local time -Fill in blanks. Use N/A as appropriate -Use military 24-hour time -section chiefs and above assign record keeper (Scribe) A. Communications Discipline B. Incident record keeping C. Initial incident briefing D. Check in

Answer 123

B. Incident record keeping

Question 124

T/F: The ICS organization is unique but easy to understand. There is no correlation between the ICS organization and the administrative structure of any single jurisdiction. This is deliberate because, confusion over different position titles and organizational structures has been a significant stumbling block to effective incident management in the past.

Answer 124

True

Question 125

Which of the following is not one of the five major management functions: A. Incident Command B. Operations section C. Planning section D. Staffing sections E. Logistic section F. Finance/Administration section

Answer 125

D. Staffing sections

Question 126

On small incidents and events, once person, the ___________, may accomplish all five management functions. In fact, the _________ is the only position that always staged in ICS applications. A. Sergeant B. Staging manager C. Incident commander D. Watch commander

Answer 126

C. Incident commander

Question 127

Which one of the following is not the incident commanders responsibility: A. Ensuring incident safety B. Overseeing financial situations C. Providing information services to internal and external stakeholders D. Establishing and maintaining liaison with other agencies participating in the incident

Answer 127

B. Overseeing financial situations

Question 128

T/F: Rank, grade and seniority are the factors used to select the incident commander. The incident commander is always a highly qualified individual trained to lead the incident response.

Answer 128

False

Question 129

Which of these personnel do not make up the command staff? A. Public information officer B. Safety officer C. Liaison officer D. Finance officer

Answer 129

D. Finance officer

Question 130

Which of the following are used to divide an incident geographically: A. Divisions B. Groups C. Branches D. Sections

Answer 130

A. Divisions

Question 131

______ are a combination of mixed resources with common communications operating under the direct supervision of a leader. __________ can be versatile combinations of resources and their use is encouraged. A. Task force B. Strike team C. Single resource D. Salvage crew and wrecker

Answer 131

A. Task force

Question 132

The major activities of the planning section may include all of the following except: A. Collection evaluating and displaying incident intelligence and information B. Preparing and documenting Incident Action Plans C. Conducting plans for de mobilization D. Directing traffic during a critical incident

Answer 132

D. Directing traffic during a critical incident.

Question 133

T/F: The incident commander will determine if there is a need for logistics section at the incident, and designate an individual to fill the positions of the logistics sections chief.

Answer 133

True:

Question 134

The Finance/administration section may staff four units. Not all units may be required: They will be established based on need. Which of the following is not one of the 4 units. A. Procurement Unit B. Time unit C. Cost unit D. Compensation/ claims unit E. Tracking unit

Answer 134

E. Tracking unit

Question 135

MACTAC: According to the manual the LVMPD vision is:

Answer 135

To be the safest community in America

Question 136

According to the manual the LVMPD mission is :

Answer 136

Partner with the community to provide outstanding service and protection through prevention innovation and leadership.

Question 137

According to the manual the acronym MACTAC stand for?

Answer 137

Multi Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities

Question 138

According to the manual the LVMPD values are

Answer 138

ICARE

Question 139

According to the manual what is the MACTAC mission?

Answer 139

To save lives. To develop a domestic police force which can continue to perform its day to day duties in a way that is acceptable with a free society, but which adapt quickly to an emerging new paradigm, that assumes degraded communications, emphasizes a small team leader ship, and embraces decentralized command and control.

Question 140

According to the Manual, area command ________, approve the “in the box” assignments?

Answer 140

Captains

Question 141

According to the manual, a _______ squad is a pre-designated patrol squad utilized to affect a response to a major violent incident. These squads are pre-identified and scheduled 24 hours per day, 7 days a week.

Answer 141

In the box squads

Question 142

According to the manual, each area command will have ______ “in the box” squads assigned and on duty each day and per shift.

Answer 142

One

Question 143

According to the manual PSU/COP squad can augment ____ squads in protecting department assets.

Answer 143

Stay at Home squads

Question 144

According to the manual all ____ personnel are always considered “In the Box” squads but will not leave their assigned area commands

Answer 144

DTAC, CCAC, Airport

Question 145

T/F: According to the manual officers assigned to the “in the box” squads that did not arrive at the rally point prior to the squad meeting, will not attempt to catch up or follow the squads, but will be reassigned to the “stay at home” squad 

Answer 145

true

Question 146

According to the manual, ______ squads may be tasked to protect key department infrastructure buildings.

Answer 146

Stay at Home

Question 147

According to the manual an on scene ______ should assume initial overall Incident Command and tactical control as soon as practical. A. Sergeant B. Lieutenant C. Captain D. All of the above E. A and B

Answer 147

E. A and B Sergeant and Lieutenant

Question 148

According to the manual MACTAC strike teams consist of _______ commissioned officers which is similar to the current model employed by the US military Infantry forces and are the base of the current LVMPD Active Shooter Team

Answer 148

4 to 5

Question 149

According to the manual, strike teams may be broken down into ____ officer-buddy teams. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Answer 149

A. Two (2)

Question 150

According to the manual a strike team is composed of a set number of resources of the same kind and type. This is compliant with the _________ incident protocol and terminology. A. Unified Command B. NIMS C. ICS D. ICP

Answer 150

B. NIMS

Question 151

According to the manual, “teams assigned to prevent threat from expanding/retreating from an area of the initial threat or contained area” falls under which team mission? A. Assault B. Rescue C, Containment D. Forcé Protection E. Reconnaissance

Answer 151

C. Containment

Question 152

According to the manual, “first responders on scene, moving to neutralize the immediate threat to save lives”, falls under which team mission? A. Assault B. Rescue C. Containment, D. Force protection E. Reconnaissance.

Answer 152

A. Assault

Question 153

According to the manual, “These teams should be no smaller than a buddy team” falls under which of team mission? A. Assault B. Rescue C. Containment D. Forcé Protection E. Reconnaissance

Answer 153

C. Containment

Question 154

According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does formal ICS formation occur? A. MACTAC Incident B. MACTAC Activation C. Control Phase D. Investigative Phase

Answer 154

C. Control Phase

Question 155

According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does grief counseling occur? A. MACTAC incident B. MACTAC activation C. Control phase D. Investigative phase

Answer 155

D. Investigative phase

Question 156

According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does the informal ICS formation occur? A. MACTAC incident B. MACTAC activation C. Control phase’ D. Investigative phase

Answer 156

B. MACTAC activation

Question 157

According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does the 4 A’s occur? A. MACTAC incident B. MACTAC activation C. Control phase D. Investigative phase

Answer 157

B. MACTAC activation

Question 158

According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does the medical triage occur? A. MACTAC incident B. MACTAC activation C. Control phase’ D. Investigative phase

Answer 158

C. Control Phase

Question 159

According to the manual, sergeants and lieutenants should occasionally conduct ________ minute white board tactical training sessions during briefing or debriefing.

Answer 159

5 to 15 minutes

Question 160

T/F: According to the manual non-uniformed commissioned officers should have clearly identifiable equipment and clothing prior to arriving at the incident to avoid a “Blue on Blue” Incident

Answer 160

True

Question 161

4 A’s are

Answer 161

Assess, Announce, Assemble, Act

Question 162

4 C’s are

Answer 162

Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate

Question 163

In the box squads respond to the rally points and await further orders or information occurs during which notification? A. Notification B. Alert C. Activation D. All of the above E. B and C

Answer 163

B. Alert

Question 164

According to the manual if communication is lost within an area command, all area units will respond to the _______for accountability, and command and control. A. Área Command B. Rally Point C. LVMPD HQ D. All of the above E. A and B

Answer 164

A. Área command

Question 165

According to the manual, when you arrive at the RallyPoint, a call into the dispatch supervisor is needed to get the brief. It is recommended that it is either the sergeant or the ____ to the Rally Point that makes contact with communications. A. First person B. Second person C. Third Person D. Fourth person

Answer 165

B. Second person

Question 166

The____ to the Rally Point should be performing site security for arriving units. A. First Person B. Second person C. Third person D. Fourth person

Answer 166

A. First person

Question 167

When leaving the rally point, the Strike Team Leader will report to dispatch (Via MDT) only _________ of the officers ACTUALLY LEAVING the Rally Point. This is for ACCOUNTABILITY. A. Names B. P Numbers C. Call Signs D. A and c E. All of the above

Answer 167

C. Call signs

Question 168

According to the manual, Current Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) for Southern Nevada Tactical Teams and Bomb Squad is a _________ Chemical Light to mark Hazards, both known and unknown. A. Red B. Green C. Blue D. Yellow

Answer 168

A. Red

Question 169

According to the manual, the “Salute” report is defined as _______. A. Size, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment B. Size, Activity, Location, Unit, Time, Equipment C. Size, Account, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment

Answer 169

A. Size, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment

Question 170

According to the manual, the term “presence” as used in the Miranda v. Arizona opinion means the right to have an attorney ____________. A. Before questioning begins B. During questioning C. After questioning D. All of the above E. A and B only

Answer 170

E. A and B only

Question 171

T/F: According to the manual, as a general rule, there is a requirement to advise a defendant of all possible charges which could be brought against him, prior to an interrogation.

Answer 171

False - There is NO requirement to advise a defendant

Question 172

According to the manual, under Miranda the term _________ means more than arrest. A. Presence B. Custody C. Rights D. Interrogation

Answer 172

B. Custody

Question 173

T/F: According to the manual, all custodial interrogations require Miranda warnings regardless of the crime classification or seriousness of the offense.

Answer 173

True

Question 174

An officer conducts a vehicle stop. The driver of the vehicle has a warrant. The officer places the driver under arrest and takes him into custody for the warrant. The officer then questions the driver about ownership of the vehicle to avoid towing it. According to the manual are the officers questions an example of interrogation.

Answer 174

No

Question 175

According to the manual, _________________ questions are designed to ascertain the nature of an emergency or whether a current danger exists to the public or the officers, and they are not considered interrogations for purposes of Miranda. A. Threshold B. Public Safety Exception C. Volunteered D. All of the above E. A and B

Answer 175

B. Public Safety Exception

Question 176

T/F: According to the manual, under the Nevada Constitution, Miranda applies even where the suspect is unaware he is talking to a police agent, such as an undercover police officer or police informant.

Answer 176

True

Question 177

According to the manual, unless the detention evolves into an arrest, Miranda is not required for __________. A. Traffic and Roadside Stops B. Search Warrant Detention C. Terry Stops D. All of the above E. A and C

Answer 177

D. All of the above

Question 178

A rookie officer conducted a person stop on a male for jaywalking. After conducting a pat-down for weapons, the officer immediately advised the male of his Miranda Rights. According to the manual, is the male now considered in custody?

Answer 178

No

Question 179

According to the manual, ____________ is the affirmative communication by the suspect to the government agent that the suspect is exercising the rights granted to him under the Constitution. A. Testimonial act B. Waiver C. Invocation D. All of the above E. B and C

Answer 179

C. Invocation

Question 180

According to the manual, under the 5th Amendment, the suspects can invoke _____________. A. The right to silence B. The right to due process C. The right to counsel D. All of the above E. A and C

Answer 180

A and C The right to silence and The right to Counsel

Question 181

According to the manual ______ has the right to invoke a Miranda right. A. An attorney B. The person being questioned C. A parent or guardian D. All of the above E. A and B

Answer 181

B. The person being questioned

Question 182

T/F: According to the manual, if the suspect invokes the right to silence, absent a break in custody, they may not be approached by a police again, regardless of the passage of time

Answer 182

False - IF the suspect invokes the right to counsel

Question 183

A Patrol officer responded to a burglary in progress as the officer approached the scene he will observed a male running from the area. After a short foot pursuit, the male was taken into custody. The officer then read the male his Miranda rights. The male told the officer that he wanted a lawyer, and that he would not answer any questions. A short time later a detective responded to the scene, the detective made contact with the male, and again advised him of his Miranda rights. The male advise the Detective that he understood his rights, agreed to talk to him, and confess to committing the burglary. According to the manual, will the male confession, be admissible in court?

Answer 183

No

Question 184

T/F: According to the manual, a juvenile is not entitled to have his parents present during custodial interrogations.

Answer 184

True

Question 185

According to the manual, courts use a “_____________” test in evaluating voluntariness. A. totality of the circumstances B. Preponderance of evidence C. Functional equivalent D. A and C E. All of the above

Answer 185

A. Totality of the circumstances

Question 186

According to the manual, the ____________ amendment is offense specific. A. Fourth B. Fifth C. Sixth D. Fourteenth

Answer 186

C. Sixth

Question 187

T/F: According to the handbook, it is the policy of LVMPD that only commissioned employees have the right to work in an environment free of discrimination and harassment (sexual and otherwise)

Answer 187

False. All employees have the right to work in a environment free of any discrimination and harassment

Question 188

According to the handbook, when there is evidence that harassing or discriminatory conduct has occurred, the Office of Employment Diversity or supervisors in the complainants Chain of Command will conduct an _______ and _______. Investigation of the incident. A. Immediate, thoughtful B. Expedited , thorough C. Immediate, thorough D. Understanding,, non-biased

Answer 188

C. Immediate, thorough

Question 189

Every member of the LMVPD has the responsibility for preventing harassment and discriminatory acts by A. Reporting and encouraging others to report the behavior B. Encouraging other to participate in acts that could be perceived as harassment or discrimination C. Refraining from participating in or encouragement of actions that could be perceived a harassment or discrimination D. All of the above E. A and C

Answer 189

E. A and C.- Reporting and encouraging other s to report the behavior / Refraining from participating in or encouragement of actions that could be perceived a harassment or discrimination

Question 190

It shall be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to fail or refuse to hire or to discharge any individual, or otherwise to discriminate against any individual with respect to his compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, because of such individuals, race, color, religion, sex, or national origin , or to limit, segregate, or applicants for employment in any way which would deprive or tend to deprive any individual of employment opportunities or otherwise adversely affect his status as an employee, because of such individuals race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. This is according to that federal law? A. Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1991 C. Civil Rights Act of 1991 D. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

Answer 190

D. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

Question 191

According to the handbook, who enforces prohibiting discrimination in the workplace at the state level? A. NERC B. EEOC C. OED D. Patrol Supervisor

Answer 191

A. NERC

Question 192

According to the handbook, ________ incident may be sufficient for the Department to sustain a complaint of harassment or discrimination. A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Answer 192

A. One

Question 193

According to the handbook, department policy includes ____________ as protected classes. A. Veteran Status B. Marital Status C. Political Status D. All of the above E. A and C

Answer 193

E. A and C Veteran Status and Political Status

Question 194

T/F: Veteran Status is included as a protected class under the Rehabilitation of 1973.

Answer 194

False. Uniformed Serve Employment and Re-Employment Rights Act of 1994

Question 195

T/F: According to the handbook, adverse impact occurs when an employer treats an individual less favorably than other similarly situated individuals because of their race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.

Answer 195

False - This is an example of Disparate Treatment

Question 196

T/F: According to the handbook, the ultimate burden of proof always stays with the complainant in proving that discrimination against them was based on their race, color, religion, sex, national origin, or other projected classes.

Answer 196

True

Question 197

According to the handbook, the focus of the inquiry into a change of adverse impact is on the ________ of employment practices rather than the motive. A. Conditions B. Effects C. Consequences D. All of the above

Answer 197

C. Consequences

Question 198

Examples of harassing conduct include: A. Vulgar and offensive sexually related epithets B. Racially or sexually explicit cartoons, jokes, e-mais, or administrative messages C. Religiously offensive jokes, comments, cartoons, etc D. All of the above

Answer 198

D. All of the above

Question 199

T/F: Assume you are a newly promoted sergeant working dayshift at NWAC. An officer that was just transferred to your squad requests that he be allowed to arrive to work late on Mondays to attend church. You then advise that the officer, that Mondays is the busiest day of the work week and that you could not accommodate him. However you are willing to allow him to arrive to work late on any other day. You also advise him that you are aware of the church services that are offered on the other days of the work week at his specific church. After the explanation, the officer still insists that he be accommodated on Mondays. According to the handbook, you are required to accommodate him on Mondays?

Answer 199

False.

Question 200

Requests for religious accommodations will be considered on a case by case basis. These request will need to be forwarded to the _______? A. Bureau/ Area Commander B. Patrol Supervisor C. Office of Employment Diversity D. Health Detail

Answer 200

C. Office of Employment Diversity

Question 201

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 protects individuals who are ______ years of age or older from employment discrimination based on age. A. Fourteen B. Forty C. Fifty D. Sixty

Answer 201

B. Forty

Question 202

T/F: The pregnancy Discrimination Act amended Title VII to specifically prohibit discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Women that are affected by pregnancy must be treated in the same manner as employees with similar abilities or limitations.

Answer 202

True

Question 203

T/F: Assume you are a sergeant working the graveyard shift at DTAC. Officer Johnson approaches you a after briefing, and informs you of what he perceives as inappropriate interactions between a male and female officer on your squad. Officer Smith and Officer Gonzales. On several occasions, Officer Johnson has witnessed Officer Smith blow kisses in the direction of Officer Gonzales while passing her in the hallway. Officer Johnson states that hes only witnessed officer Gonzales smile when kisses were blown at her, but he’s afraid that Officer Gonzales may be too afraid to come forward with a sexual harassment complaint ( even though she never appeared to be upset or offended) According to the handbook, Officer Smiths actions does not constitute sexual harassment?

Answer 203

True

Question 204

T/F: Two basic requirements for sexual harassment must exist under EEOC definition, The Conduct in question, wether physical or verbal, must be both welcome and of a sexual nature.

Answer 204

False (Unwelcomed)

Question 205

T/F: Assume you are sergeant working BAC. An officer from your sister squad, approaches and advises you of some problems that she is having with her sergeant. According to the officer, after she refused multiple invitation to go out on a date with her sergeant, he began being very disrespectful to her and wrote her a negative annual evaluation. According to the handbook, this is an example of hostile work environment?

Answer 205

False - This is an example of Quid Pro Quo

Question 206

T/F: Assume you are a sergeant assigned to CCAC. Two officers on your squad Officer Robinson, and Officer Jackson, recently broke up from a 2 year intimate relationship. One day after briefing Officer Jackson advises you that Officer Robinson tells her “. I can’t wait to get in those panties again” every time he backs her on a call. According to the handbook you should inquire whether Officer Jackson by her conduct, indicate that the sexual comments by Officer Robinson were unwelcome.

Answer 206

True

Question 207

The ________ will coordinate job accommodations for matters involving ADA. A. Health and Safety Manager B. Patrol Supervisor C. Officer of Employment Diversity D. Bureau/ Arrea Commander

Answer 207

A. Health and Safety Manger

Question 208

Assume you are Sergeant assigned to BAC. Bob, the key room attendants job description requires him to stand during briefing. Bob advises you that due to a back injury, he is only able to stand for a short period of time. According to the handbook you should: A. Ask Bob what is the cause of his back injury B. Tell Bob that he needs to fill out a memo and forward it to the Captain C. Allow Bob to sit during briefing D. A and C

Answer 208

C. Allow Bob to sit during briefing

Question 209

T/F: The internal Affairs Section will conduct and or coordinate all internal investigations into complaints based on religion, sex, national origin, color, age, disability, sexual orientation, political affiliation or verbal status.

Answer 209

False- The office of Employment Diversity

Question 210

Assume you are a sergeant working BAC. You are requested at a vehicle stop that was initiated by one of your officers. When you arrive, the driver of the vehicle complains that your officer only stopped him because he was Hispanic. According to the handbook, who will investigate the complaint? A. Internal Affairs Section B. Office of Employment Diversity (OED) C. Watch Commander D. Director of Human Resources

Answer 210

A. Internal Affairs Section

Question 211

You are a sergeant assigned to CCAC, you respond to a high priority 417 call in SCAC because you were close to the border and the call was only two blocks away. When you arrive on a call, the scene static and you overhear a conversation between two of the officers there on the scene. One of the officer says to the other, “Yo, the wife had some big ass boobies. I suddenly am in the mood for some milk.” According to the handbook, you should: A. Go back to your area command and advise their sergeant later B. Intervene and advise them that type of conversation is inappropriate C. Report the officers to the Office of Employment Diversity D. All of the above E. B and C

Answer 211

B and C Intervene and advise them that type of conversation is inappropriate, and report the officers to the Office of Employment Diversity

Question 212

Assume you are a sergeant assigned to the graveyard shift at BAC. During briefing Officer Jackson who is a black officer , makes a black joke after one of the briefing lines was read. According to the handbook, you should: A. Counsel Officer Jackson about his behavior B. Do nothing since Officer Jackson is black C. Report Officer Jackson to the office of Employment Diversity D. A and C

Answer 212

D. A and C Counsel Officer Jackson about his behavior and Report Officer Jackson to the office of Employment Diversity

Question 213

Complaints of harassment of discrimination can be received by _________. A. Any supervisor B. The Director of OED C. The captain of Personnel D. The Captain of Professional Standards Bureau E. All of the above

Answer 213

E. All of the above

Question 214

You are a sergeant assigned to NE31. A female officer assigned to NE32 asks if she could speak to you in confidence. She then advises you, that another officer assigned to her squad, grabbed her butt after briefing the previous week. According to the handbook, you should: A. Tell her to advise her sergeant B. Ask her is she wants you to talk to that officer C. Assist her with documenting and filing a written complaint D. All of the above

Answer 214

C. Assist her with documenting and filing a written complaint

Question 215

Assume you are a sergeant assigned to DTAC. One of your officers, Officer Lebrow, stops you in the hallway and says that she wants to talk to you. She then says “Sarge, Officer Mackey tells me on a regular basis that he can’t wait to lick me up and down. I always laugh it off, even though it makes me uncomfortable but I don’t want to make a big deal about it, I just wanted you to know Sarge” According to the handbook, you should : A. Ensure Officer Lebrow understands the complaint process B. Wait until you witness Officer Mackey making the comments then act C. Advise Officer Lebrow to let Officer Mackey know that those comments make her uncomfortable D. All of the above

Answer 215

A. Ensure Officer Lebrow understands the complaint process

Question 216

According to the handbook, all complaints of harassment and or discrimination investigations should be completed within _______ days from receipt when possible. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D.90

Answer 216

B. 45

Question 217

T/F: According to the handbook, the supervisors actions are evidence of the action taken by the department to correct inappropriate behavior and prevent future incidents.

Answer 217

True

Question 218

The employer is responsible for the acts of its employees. It is know as what theory? A. Sexual Harassment B. Respondent Superior C. Quip Pro Quo D. Hostile Environment

Answer 218

B. Respondent Superior

Question 219

An individuals ________ expectation of privacy is protected from government (Police) intrusion A. Rational B. Legitimate C. Reasonable D. All of the above E. B and C

Answer 219

E. B and C Legitimate and Reasonable

Question 220

According to the manual, a _________ of a person occurs when police interfere with an individuals freedom of movement. A. Search B. Seizure C. Arrest D. All of the above E. B and C

Answer 220

B. Seizure

Question 221

According to the manual, _________ is defined as “ what a person knowingly exposes to the public even in his own home or office” A. Open View B. Plain View C. Rear View D. Front Sights

Answer 221

A. Open VIew

Question 222

According to the manual, ________ is a factor set forth to determine whether an area falls within the “Curtilage” of the property. A. Proximity of area to the home B. Whether an area is included in enclosure which surrounds a home. C. Nature of uses to which area is put D. Steps taken to protect area from observation by passers-by E. All of the above F. A and D

Answer 222

E. All of the above

Question 223

In order to have “standing” a person must have ______ and access to the police of items searched. A. Authority B. Dominion C. Control D. All of the above

Answer 223

D. All of the above

Question 224

T/F: A passenger may challenge a stop of a vehicle on Fourth Amendment grounds, only if they have possessory or ownership interest in the vehicle.

Answer 224

False- Even if they have no Possessory

Question 225

T/F: A traffic stop that is legitimate when initiated becomes illegitimate when the officer detains the car and driver beyond the time required to process that traffic offense, unless the extended detention is consensual , de minis, or justified by a reasonable articulable suspicion of criminal activity.

Answer 225

True

Question 226

Three categories of police interactions exits. One of the categories, _________ is defined as a seizure limited in length, scope and purpose, and for which a police officer must have articulable suspicion that the civilian has committed or will commit a crime. A. Consensual Encounter B. Detention C. Arrest

Answer 226

B. Detention

Question 227

T/F: If during a frisk, an officer feels an item that is not a suspected weapon, but it is immediately apparent from the mass and control that the item is probable contraband, the officer can legally seize it.

Answer 227

True

Question 228

Nevada Law places as an absolute limit of _______ minutes for a Terry Stop. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 90

Answer 228

C. 60

Question 229

To arrest a suspect in his own residence under Payton, Officers must have an arrest or search warrant for the person plus ‘______________” to believe the suspect resides there and is currently present. A. Reasonable Suspicion B. Probable Cause C. Good Faith D. All of the above

Answer 229

Probable Cause

Question 230

T/F: Police may search a jointly occupied premises if one of the occupants consent, even if an objecting spouse’s absence is due to a lawful arrest by police.

Answer 230

True

Question 231

The “Plain View” exception to the warrant requirement authorizes warrantless ____________. A. Searches B. Seizures C. Arrests D. All of the above

Answer 231

B. Seizures

Question 232

What is Expression or communications of thoughts or opinions in spoken words, in writing, by expressive conduct, symbolism. A. Speech B. Post C. Public Concern D. Profile

Answer 232

Speech

Question 233

What is Content an individual shares on social media site or the act of publishing content on site. A. Speech B. Post C. Public content

Answer 233

B. Post

Question 234

Topics that relate to a matter of political social or other concern to the community. It does not include topics that relate to employment/ personnel matters or information learned in the course of employment is? A. Public Concern B. Page C. Social media

Answer 234

A. Public concern

Question 235

A category of electronic resources that integrate user generated content and use participation such as, Facebook, X, Instagram, YouTube, Snapchat, etc, and smart phone or other portable device applications. A. Profile B. Page C. Social media

Answer 235

C. Social Media

Question 236

The specific portion of a social media sit where contenten is displayed and managed by an individual or individuals which administrative rights is? A. Social Media B. Page C. Profile

Answer 236

B. Page

Question 237

Personal information that a user provides on social media sites is. A. Page B. Profile C. Post

Answer 237

B. Profile

Question 238

Law enforcement personnel must work hard to gain trust and confidence of the community they serve. Department members must give thoughtful consideration to their actions to avoid damaging the ____ and______ the department has with the community A. Cost/ Maintanece B. Reputation / trust C, experience/ trust D. Communication / reputation

Answer 238

B. Reputation / Trust

Question 239

T/F: Department Members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does impair their relationships with citizens .

Answer 239

False,, Does not Impair

Question 240

Social media is a valuable tool when seeking _____ or information about______, ________ect. A. People or problems, problems public information B. Evidence, missing persons, criminal investigations C.Problems, theft, crime

Answer 240

B. Evidence missing persons, criminal investigations

Question 241

A department members speech is a reflection of ____ and ______. A. Thoughts and feelings B. Self and department C. Character and values D. Sheriff and public E. None of the above

Answer 241

C. Character and values

Question 242

A voluntary alternate dispute resolution process for resolving disputes and conflicts in which a neutral third party (Mediator) helps the parties to resolve a dispute or conflict an reach a mutually acceptable resolution. A. Harassment B. Discrimination C. Mediation D. Sexual Harassment E. Reasonable Person Standard

Answer 242

C. Mediation

Question 243

The unwelcome sexual advances, request for sexual favors and other verbal or physical contact of a sexual nature that could affect an individuals employment status,opportunities, or work performance or could create a hostile work environment is: A. Harassment B. Discrimination C. Mediation D. Sexual Harassment E. Reasonable Person Standard

Answer 243

D. Sexual Harassment

Question 244

Which states, the victim is subjectively offended and reasonable similarity situated member of the protected class against whom the harassment or discrimination is directed would be objectively offended: A. Harassment B. Discrimination C. Mediation D. Sexual Harassment E. Reasonable Person Standard

Answer 244

E. Reasonable Person Standard

Question 245

An act practice or pattern of behavior, based on an individuals, race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, genetic information, disability, military service, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, including non-binary, pregnancy, workers compensation status, family medical leave, or political affiliation pursuant to federal and state laws, which has an adverse impact of members of other identifiable groups: A. Harassment B. Discrimination C. Mediation D. Sexual Harassment E. Reasonable Person Standard

Answer 245

B. Discrimination

Question 246

Any conduct based on an individuals , race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, genetic information, disability, military service, sexual orientation, gender identity, or expression, including non binary, pregnancy, Worker’s Compensation status, family medical leave, or political affiliation pursuant to federal and state laws, that has purpose to affect of unreasonably interfering with an individual work performance, or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment A. Harassment B. Discrimination C. Mediation D. Sexual Harassment E. Reasonable Person Standard

Answer 246

A. Harassment

Question 247

A form of identity that has nothing to do with aspects of anatomy is? A. Sexual B. Gender C. Non-binary D. Racial E. All of the above

Answer 247

C. Non-binary

Question 248

Each supervisor has a responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and or discrimination by? A. Watching and waiting B. Monitoring and acting C. Monitor and refraining D. Counseling and stopping E. C and D F. A and B

Answer 248

E. C and D Monitor and refraining and Counseling and stopping

Question 249

This is a form of discrimination against an individual who has complained, assisted, or otherwise participated in complaints of harassment, and or discrimination. A. Mediation B. Sexual Harassment C. Adverse Impact D. Retaliation

Answer 249

D. Retaliation

Question 250

Who must a supervisor notify in an event and employee request religious accommodations? A. Bureau Commander B. His/Her Lieutenant C. Health and Safety D. EDS Director

Answer 250

D. EDS Director

Question 251

An employee who wishes to file a complaint for harassment and discrimination, can notify who? A. The EDS Director B. Health and Safety C. Risk Management D. Any Supervisor E. IAB Commander F. A,D,E

Answer 251

F. The EDS Director, Any Supervisor, IAB Commander

Question 252

When a supervisor received a complaint from a citizen, and it doesn’t amount to a Department policy violation of law, a supervisor will? A. Give the employee a written B. Document in blue team as a Citizen Contact C. Issue the Employee an SOC D. None of the above

Answer 252

B. Document in blue team as a Citizen Contact

Question 253

When is supervisor receives, an EIIP alert from an employees dashboard, the superiors has ____ days to respond to the alert? A. 10 B. 30 C. 14 D. 60

Answer 253

C. 14 days

Question 254

T/F: A supervisor will be solely responsible for identifying any/all significant events that may or may not affect employees?

Answer 254

B. False (Will Not)

Question 255

T/F: Off Duty Officers who witness an alleged crime will not be threatened or charged with insubordination for failure to cooperate with a criminal investigation.

Answer 255

True

Question 256

You as a supervisor receives information that one of your employees is a victim of a felony crime or other crime of violence ( eg., Domestic Violence) who must you notify? A. Your supervisor B. Bureau Commander C. Watch Commander D. Criminal Investigations Supervisor E. C and D

Answer 256

Watch Commander and Criminal Investigations Supervisor

Question 257

A nationally recognized model developed to implement and facilitate the problem solving, process const of 4 steps which are? A. Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment B. Scanning, Analysis, Report and Assessment C. Scanning, Acquire, Respond, and Assessment D. None of the Above

Answer 257

A. Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment

Question 258

________ is the movement progression, or reduction from the application of one force type to another.

Answer 258

Force Transition

Question 259

________ is an impeding violent act, harm, or resistance that will likely occur if not instantly confronted or addressed.

Answer 259

Imminent Threat

Question 260

________ are broad categories of force options in escalating stages of intensity that are identified as low level force, intermediate force, and deadly force.

Answer 260

Levels Control

Question 261

Officers are legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in cómplice with NRS and the legal standards under the court case ___________.

Answer 261

Tennessee v. Garner

Question 262

T/F: Officers may give a warning, if feasible, before use of deadly force

Answer 262

False. Not MAY they WILL

Question 263

Any officer present, regardless of rank, and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable under circumstances will, when in a safe position to do so, intercede to prevent the use of unreasonable force is known as ____________.

Answer 263

Duty to intervene

Question 264

Reporting on duty to intervene. The reporting Officer will document in writing no later than ______ days after the occurrence.

Answer 264

10 days

Question 265

Medical attention WILL be summoned for which of the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury for: A. Batón/Impact Weapons-any strikes to the head, neck, chest, spine, kidneys, or groin B. Canine- All bites C. Empty Hand Tactics (strikes, kicks) D. All of the above E. A and B Only

Answer 265

E. A and B Only Batón/Impact Weapons-any strikes to the head, neck, chest, spine, kidneys, or groin and Canine- All bites

Question 266

A subject who is walking or running away is in which level of resistance?

Answer 266

Obstructive

Question 267

The difference between obstructive and assaultive levels of resistance is ______

Answer 267

Subjects Intent to do harm

Question 268

T/F: Empty hand tactics (physical constraints, hand control (escorts), takedowns not likely to cause injury) all fall within low level Resistance?

Answer 268

False- Low Level Force

Question 269

Low Level Force Consists of which of the following: A. Batón ( as escort Tool ) B. OC C. PIT D. All of the above E. A and C only

Answer 269

A. Baton (as escort tool)

Question 270

You as a supervisor formulate a plan on a call for service where a male has been seen checking door handles in the parking lot and now the male is threatening to fight your officers. He keeps reaching into his pockets. (Unsure if he has a weapon) and not complying with any commands. You form an arrest team that contains an officer that is utilizing the low-lethality shotgun. As your verbal officer is trying to gain compliance with the individual. He begins approaching the arrest team him and your officers on low-lethality shotgun utilizes the tool when the subject is 6 yards away. A. What level of resistance is the subject in? B. What level of force did the Office Utilize with the low lethality Shotgun?

Answer 270

A- Assaultive B- Deadly Force

Question 271

An Officer on your squad utilizes the 40mm specially impact weapon from a distance of 6 yards. What Level of Force did the Officer in?

Answer 271

Intermediate

Question 272

____________ exist when a person is in a position to effectively resist and officers control or to use force or violence upon the officer or others.

Answer 272

Opportunity

Question 273

What are the four elements of deadly force?

Answer 273

Ability, Opportunity, Imminent Jeopardy, Preclusion

Question 274

__________ is when lesser alternatives have been reasonable considered and exhausted before the use of deadly force, to include disengagement.

Answer 274

Preclusion

Question 275

T/F: Per Policy, Officers will hand cuff individuals being transported to a detoxification facility?

Answer 275

True

Question 276

T/F: When responding to a security office where a subject has been placed in handcuffs prior to the officers arrival, the responding officer will immediately place his/her own handcuffs on the subject before beginning the investigation?

Answer 276

False- Officer must first establish reasonable suspicion or provable cause based on their own investigation before placing their own handcuffs on the individual

Question 277

An officer who uses their baton to “stir the pot” is using what level of force?

Answer 277

Low Level Force

Question 278

During a protests or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be used when authorized by a ________ in response to imminent threat of harm.

Answer 278

Incident Commander

Question 279

When using the ECD, once the subject has been exposed to _____ number of cycles, the tool will be deemed ineffective and another use of force option will be considered unless exigent circumstance exists.

Answer 279

3 (three)

Question 280

An officer on your squad utilizes the PIT technique on a vehicle travelling 39MPH. Which level of force did your Officer use?

Answer 280

Intermediate

Question 281

T/F: Application of PIT(successful or attempts ) requires a Use of Force Report and Pursuit Report.

Answer 281

True

Question 282

_______ is a series of questions to obtain information to determine if there is an immediate threat to public safety.

Answer 282

Public Safety Statement(PSS)

Question 283

T/F: Supervisors involved in the use of force incident will investigate the use of force and the use of force of other subject officer involved?

Answer 283

False-WILL NOT

Question 284

When the use of force is determined to be unfounded, the superviso will document it he investigation in a _____________ in Blue Team.

Answer 284

Citizens Contact (CC)

Question 285

Additional Police units, approved by a supervisor traveling on adjacent streets using emergency equipment to keep pace with a pursuit is known as a _________.

Answer 285

Paralleling

Question 286

T/F: Officers speed will not exceed more than 20 MPH over the posted speed limit during a pursuit?

Answer 286

False

Question 287

T/F: Any officer who assumes the primary position, at any point during a pursuit, regardless of duration in the primary position, will complete a separate Pursuit Report in Blue Team?

Answer 287

True

Question 288

T/F: If, during a pursuit, the officer is involved in a motor vehicle collision, he/she may continue in the pursuit if damage to the unit is minor. And it can still be operated without danger.

Answer 288

True

Question 289

MACTAC: An area designated between clean (unaffected) and Dirty (Affected) with Officers to sweep every person of weapons, injured area to medical and uninjured/witnesses to refuge is?

Answer 289

Transition Area.

Question 290

MACTAC: Defined by IC, this is the area with known threat.

Answer 290

Hot Zone

Question 291

MACTAC: A standardized, regional response to active assailant, hostage siege, and terrorist attack with this.

Answer 291

Life Safety as the absolute priority

Question 292

MACTAC: MACTAC response can not be used in conjunction with STAR protocol because.

Answer 292

STAR Protocol emphasizes slowed momentum to gather resources whereas MACTAC response policy highlights the need for immediate intervention.

Question 293

MACTAC: Assault teams are defined as.

Answer 293

Team aims to isolate, contain, or neutralize the threat and create a warm zone.

Question 294

You’re a Supervisor and a STAR protocol is announced. An unknown WMA is in parking lot of Apartment complex swinging sledgehammer and yelling threats. First arriving units states subject refuses to comply and male stated he will kill any officer that gets close. Per Barricaded Subject Plan this is a?

Answer 294

A barricaded incident because the subject is an armed subject refusing to submit to Officers orders

Question 295

You’re a Supervisor and a STAR protocol is announced. An unknown WMA is in parking lot of Apartment complex swinging sledgehammer and yelling threats. First arriving units states subject refuses to comply and male stated he will kill any officer that gets close. After you, the supervisor arrives on scene and sets up inner perimeter you will need to do the following:

Answer 295

- direct units to stop any inbound traffic - assign officers as immediate-action teams - gather intel and determine is SWAT is needed - (Will not notify crisis negotiation team)

Question 296

Per STAR protocol a minimum of how many units is the appropriate response for the scenario

Answer 296

Three Officers and a Supervisor

Question 297

STAR protocol: The Supervisor needs to maintain the STAR protocol until?

Answer 297

Until first arriving unit has confirmed that the incident no longer meets the criteria for a STAR Protocol response.

Question 298

You respond to a protest and are assigned as IC, several protesters of locked themselves to a protest device, you will?

Answer 298

Direct officers to create and maintain a buffer zone, ensuring inbound foot and vehicle traffic is diverted

Question 299

During a protest where demonstrators have attached themselves to a stationary object using a mechanical devise and have refused after de-escalation tactics have been used and they continue to refuse.

Answer 299

Each individual protestor will be advised they are under arrest and given an additional chance to comply before force is used to remove the devices.

Question 300

In a confirmed hostage situation, the ______ will notified by_____.

Answer 300

SWAT Tactical, Communications

Question 301

Hostage Plan: In a confirmed hostage situation, the supervisor should prioritize and communicate objectives then?

Answer 301

Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary perimeter.

Question 302

Hostage Plan: Once the SWAT commander and team arrive, the Patrol supervisor will retain____?

Answer 302

Command of the incident command post, staging area, secondary perimeter and other police operations.

Question 303

A patrol officer in a pursuit that gets into a collision may continue the pursuit if?

Answer 303

There is no apparent injuries as a result of the accident.

Question 304

NLVPD units are in a pursuit, they request LVMPD Air and K9 and two patrol units to join the lone NLVPD unit in pursuit. The vehicle is a 411 from a residential burglary a month ago with no suspect info. You may____?

Answer 304

Authorize your officers to drive in routine operation toward the area of the pursuit and be in good position to render backup and other aid once the pursued vehicle is stopped.

Question 305

A brief time after a foot pursuit, where the suspect in a vehicle struck a light pole a ran from the vehicle, and the driver was taken into custody after a short foot pursuit. According to department procedures on foot pursuits, as the supervisor monitoring this foot pursuit, you will respond to the foot pursuit for the following reasons?

Answer 305

- Any reportable use of force - Injury to the officer, citizen or suspect - Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight - ***NOT -any entry into residence or similar structure, only if occupied***

Question 306

On foot pursuits Supervisors are responsible for all of the following :

Answer 306

- Make reasonable efforts to ascertain info - Take command of foot pursuit - Direct responding resources. - ***NOT- initiate a code red***

Question 307

According to Department Procedure on Bomb Threats- Located Explosive Devices, upon your arrival on scene, the patrol supervisor you should?

Answer 307

Assign an additional officer to the primary location to assist in communications

Question 308

After you, as the ranking field supervisor, assume command of the scene, you should?

Answer 308

Establish ICS and complete an ICS after action Report as required

Question 309

The two command and control locations which will need to be established are the ______ and the _______?

Answer 309

- Field Command Post, - Tactical Operations Center

Question 310

The standard tool used for command, control, response and overall management of complex incidents, preplanned events and emergencies is the___?

Answer 310

Incident Command System (ICS)

Question 311

You respond to a barricade of a possibly armed subject that committed a crime and is alone in a residence refusing to come out, upon arrival you determine the incieent is less complex and as the sergeant you______?

Answer 311

Allow the officer to maintain command but ensure all decisions made are within Depart guidelines before they are implemented

Question 312

The top three priorities that the Incident Commander will use to establish objectives will be?

Answer 312

Life safety, incident stabilization and property preservation

Question 313

As the first arriving supervisor on scene of an accident with a vehicle leaking unknown hazardous material you should?

Answer 313

Coordinate the evac of the area downwind of the spillage with the ARMOR section or fire department.

Question 314

Suspect with warrants is being taken into custody, the suspect pulls away from officers and attempted to throw a punch, the officer deployed the ECD and used an arm bar take down to take the suspect into custody. 1. At the time the Officer used the arm bar takedown, the suspect was in which level of resistance? 2. The officer was in what level of control? 3. This incident is considered a _______ use of force and photographs _____ required.

Answer 314

1. Assaultive 2. Intermediate 3. Non-deadly reportable / Are

Question 315

During a Use of force investigation where force is used you will respond, and you will______?

Answer 315

Determine the level of force.

Question 316

Effective span of control on incidents may very from_______ and a ratio of one supervisor to ________ reporting elements is recommended.

Answer 316

- 3 to 7 - 5

Question 317

The title of the supporting person when an ICS event expands and the IC needs a support position will be?

Answer 317

Deputy

Question 318

The General Staff is made up of which four sections?

Answer 318

- Operations - Planning - Logistics - Finance/Administration

Question 319

You learn that one of your Officers recently went through a bitter divorce and resounded to a mass casualty event, per EIIP procedure you will?

Answer 319

Create a significant event report, including a brief summary of both incidents.

Question 320

Who do you report an officer’s self-identification as an abuser of prescription drugs to?

Answer 320

The office of Labor Relations.

Question 321

You become aware of an employee's impairment, you conduct preliminary investigation, you should request a ___ to observe any indicators of impairment.

Answer 321

Secondary Supervisor.

Question 322

A concentration of alcohol that indicates of what percent or above, at the time of the BAC test, is per se impairment and may be grounds for discipline?

Answer 322

.02

Question 323

An off duty LAPD officer is under arrest for Fraudulent use of Credit Card as the supervisor you shall immediately notify who?

Answer 323

- Watch Commander - Appropriate Investigative Unit

Question 324

An Officer searched a vehicle with consent, but forgot to get the consent of BWC or a Consent to search card before releasing the subject. You will advise him to?

Answer 324

Document the consent given for the search in CAD

Question 325

The fourth amendment permits officers to search a vehicle if the vehicle is ______ and _____ exists to believe it contains contraband or evidence.

Answer 325

- Readily Mobile - Probable Cause

Question 326

Field strip searches will only be conducted where the life of officers and others may be placed at risk and only with the explicit approval of a _______ and only in the presence of a ____?

Answer 326

- Lieutenant - Supervisor

Question 327

Any Officer present, regardless of rank, observing another officer using force clearly beyond what is justified will ______report these observations and efforts to intervene to a supervisor.

Answer 327

Promptly

Question 328

Intermediate Force included a low lethality shotgun fired at a distance of _____yards or greater and a 40mm fired at a distance of _____yards or greater?

Answer 328

-7 -5

Question 329

43. An Officer will not place LVMPD handcuffs on a subject in custody by security until the officer has ______ or _______ based on their investigation.

Answer 329

- Reasonable suspicion - Probable cause

Question 330

Block with a department vehicle where no contact is made is?

Answer 330

Not a use of force

Question 331

A projectile weapon may be utilized against persons who are holding a firearm when?

Answer 331

If it can be used to de-escalate and intervene with a potential deadly force situation.

Question 332

What are approved uses of handcuffs?

Answer 332

- Plastic “flex cuffs” - Info that the suspect is armed - Articulable facts that subject is physically uncooperative - ***NOT- Articulable facts that subject is verbally uncooperative***

Question 333

An approved use of OC spray is?

Answer 333

In a protest or demonstration when authorized by an incident commander

Question 334

A PSR uses OC spray on subject, you respond and determine?

Answer 334

A use of force report us needed

Question 335

An officers arrestee wants to release his iphone (Value $800) to his cousin. You respond to the stop and will?

Answer 335

Sign the property report prior to the arrestee being transported to jail.

Question 336

An officer has discretion to arrest without a warrant for battery between who?

Answer 336

- Siblings - Cousins - Current roommates

Question 337

When an employee sustained on a DUI violation you will coordiante any voluntary follow-up through the?

Answer 337

PEAR Support

Question 338

In a standard patrol vehicle with a prisoner screen the second officer will sit where?

Answer 338

In the front passenger seat.

Question 339

When transporting to a detention facility, officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement activities unless?

Answer 339

The risk to third parties is both clear and grave and supervisory approval is given.

Question 340

In accordance of fed mandated Suzannes Law, officers will contact the records and fingerprint bureau to ensure entry into NCIC is made within two hours if?

Answer 340

The missing person being reproted is twenty years old or younger

Question 341

All internal investigations should be completed within how many days?

Answer 341

90

Question 342

A subject sustained substantial head trauma but is still alive, the officer has not substantiated any criminal activity, you will ensure?

Answer 342

An ICR and phots are taken to document the details of the event.

Question 343

A firearm used in a suicide will be impounded by CSA and all other firearms located on scene will be?

Answer 343

The responsibility of the Deputy Coroner Investigator or the public Administrator.

Question 344

A suspect that attempted to stab another officer suffered an unknown medical episode after being taken into custody. The subject needs to be transported to a hospital and potentially will be admitted. You should?

Answer 344

Not release the suspect from our custody but still allow for necessary medical attention to be provided

Question 345

A subject a denied at booking, who can authorize release?

Answer 345

Watch Commander

Question 346

Who can deny an arrestee from being booked?

Answer 346

Booking Sgt

Question 347

61. After a vehicle collision involving a department member you will ensure that a check ride report, LVMPD form 461 is completed and a copy is forwarded to VCB and ________ for entry into the department member’s_____?

Answer 347

- AOST - UMLV training record

Question 348

An Officer forgets to put his vehicle in park during a traffic stop and it rolls forward hitting a citizen vehicle resulting in no injuries and minor damage valued at less then $750, this collision is an?

Answer 348

Incident, a department vehicle incident report will be filled out by the traffic officer.

Question 349

Good judgement, communication and _______ are important elements of Code 3 driving.

Answer 349

Coordination

Question 350

Officers will immediately contact their supervisor when?

Answer 350

- Felony DV has occurred - Parties involved are believed to be pimp and prostitute - A mutual arrest is considered - ***NOT- Unable to determine primary aggressor

Question 351

In cases when law enforcement employees of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim of DV you will notify the ______ and the ______ to respond.

Answer 351

- Watch Commander - Area Lieutenant

Question 352

Communicaitons Bureau will dispatch shift units to routine calls up to?

Answer 352

45 minutes before the conclusion of their shift

Question 353

If an officer wants a religious accommodation, as their immediate supervisor you should?

Answer 353

Notify the Employment Diversity Director of the request in a timely manner to begin the formal interactive process.

Question 354

If an employee comes to you with a complaint about a single harassment incident, which would not meet Federal Law you____?

Answer 354

Must remember that Department policies are more stringent then Fed law and one incident can be enough to sustain a complaint.

Question 355

Sick Leave employees can absent themselves from work to personally care for a member of their immediate family, which includes?

Answer 355

-Mother In Law

Question 356

Sick leave emergency leave shall be taken as sick leave except for a one-time provision of _____ hours of _______leave that may be used per fiscal year.

Answer 356

-48 -Vacation

Question 357

An officer informs you that she is two months pregnant, the officer should?

Answer 357

Make an appointment with the Heath Section to develop a tentative plan for usage by the sixth month of pregnancy.

Question 358

Employees will be allowed to move during the bid year based upon their ___ and _____ within the area command.

Answer 358

- Seniority - Openings

Question 359

The top (3) priorities for establishing incident objectives are:

Answer 359

1. Life Safety 2. Incident Stabilization 3. Property Preservation.