SGU Term 5 BSCE Book 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Colestyramine

A

management of cirrhosis
help puritis
4g/8h PO, 1 hr after other drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Bacterial Endocarditis

A

Janeway lesions
Osler nodes
Roth spots
Splinter hemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Causes of liver cirrhosis

A
Alcohol
Hep B,C,D
Hemochromatosis
a1 antitrypsin def.
Wilson’s disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
NAFLD
Biliary tract disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cirrhosis complications

A
Ascites
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Gastroesophageal varices
Hepatic encephalopathy
Hepatorenal syndrome
Hepatopulmonary syndrome
Hepatocellular carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Palmar erythema

A

Increased estrogen bc cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Decreased ammonia metabolism in cirrhosis

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

compensated cirrhosis

A

Calculate MELD every 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MELD >12

A

High risk of complications of cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MELD score

A

3.78 x log serum bilirubin + 11.2 x log INR + 9.57 x log serum creatinine + 6.43

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pt has been dialyzed twice in last week

A

Serum creatinine 4 in MELD score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Child Tircotte Pugh Classification of Cirrhosis

A
A = 5 to 6
B = 7 to 9
C = 10 to 15
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ascites management

A

Spironactone 100 mg/day increase dose every 2 days to 400 mg/day

Should have daily weight loss of .5 kg
If not, add furosemide 120 mg/day

Do U&E, Cr often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ascites fluid restriction

A

1.5 L per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ascites low salt intake recommended

A

40-100 mmol/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Therapeutic paracentesis for ascites

A

Concomitant albumin transfusion 6-8g/L removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Refractory ascites

A

Trans jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cirrhosis + ascites of 15g/L protein or less

A

Prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin, until ascites resolves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Presenting w fever usually

WCC 250mm3 in ascitic fluid or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bacterial peritonitis empiric treatment

A

Cefotaxime (claforan) and ceftriaxone (rocephin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bacterial peritonitis prophylaxis

A

Ciprofloxacin 250mg PO daily
OR
CoTrimoxazole 960 mg weekdays only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cirrhosis, esophageal varices screening

A

Endoscopy every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cirrhosis + medium or large esophageal varices

A

Endoscopic variceal band ligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cirrhosis + upper GI bleeding

A

Prophylactic IV Abx and vasoactive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cirrhosis or significant fibrosis
METAVIR stage > or equal to F2
Ishak stage > or equal to 3

A

Surveillance every 6 mo for HCC by: hepatic ultrasound, alpha fetoprotein testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
no significant fibrosis or cirrhosis
METAVIR < F2
Ishak < 3
Older than 40
Family Hx of HCC
HBV DNA > or equal to 20,000
A

Surveillance every 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
no significant fibrosis or cirrhosis
METAVIR < F2
Ishak < 3
Younger than 40
HBV DNA < 20,000
A

No surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Early Hep C

A
Arthralgia
Paresthesia
Myalgia
Pruritis
Sicca
Sensory neuropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Late Hep C

A
Hepatic encephalopathy
Ascites
Hematemesis or melena
Palmar erythema
Dupuytren contracture
Asterixis
Leukonychia
Clubbing
Icteric sclera
Temporal muscle wasting
Enlarged parotid
Cyanosis
Fetor hepaticus
Gynecomastia
Testicular atrophy
Paraumbilical hernia
Caput medusae
Hepatosplenomegaly
Abdominal bruit
Scant body hair
Spider nevi
Petechiae
Excoriations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Sustained eradication of HCV

A

Absence of HCV RNA in serum 12 weeks post antiviral treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Antiviral treatment for Hep C?

A
High ALT
> 18y/o
\+ HCV antibody and serum HCV RNA
compensated
Hb at least 12 for women 13 for men, neutrophil > 1500, creatinine <1.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hep C treatment

A
Oral PI (boceprevir BOC or telaprevir TVR)
Pegaylated IFN (PegIFN)
Ribavirin RBV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Alcohol cirrhosis risk

A

7-13 drinks/week women

14-27 drinks/week men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Alcoholic fatty liver

A

AST/ALT >2

High GGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Maddrey Discriminate function

A

Bilirubin + 4.6 x prothrombin time -control

High if alcoholic hepatitis has poor prognosis

> 32: 50% mortality w/in 2 mo of onset of alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DF>32

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DF<32

A

Pentoxifylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

DF<32
MELD<21
Glasgow<9

A

Supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DF>32
MELD>21
Glasgow>9

A

Prednisolone 40mg/day
(Or pentoxyfylline 400mg 3x per day)

Lillie score at one week

<0.45 continue prednisolone 28 days
>0.45 stop prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Upper GI bleed

A

Peptic ulcer
Mallory weiss tears
Esophageal varices
Esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Glasgow Blatchford Score

A

0: low risk

>8: ICU admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Glasgow score of 0

A
Hb>12.9 men or 11.9 women
Systolic BP >109
Pulse <100
BUN <39
No melena or syncope
No liver disease or heart failure ever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Upper GI bleed

A

Blood transfusion at 70-80 g/L Hb, higher threshhold of severe bleeding w hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Upper GI bleed + glasgow <1

A

Outpatient endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Upper GI bleed treatment

A

Erythromycin (prokinetic agent) and PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Endoscopic therapy

A
Injection therapy (epi, always followed by second modality)
Thermal probes (bipolar electrocoagulation, heater probe)
Clips
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Recurrent bleeding

A

Repeat endoscopic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Subsequent bleeding

A

Trans arterial embolization

Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Esophageal variceal bleeding

A

Ligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Gastric varices

A

Injection of tissue adhesive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Massive refractory esophageal variceal bleeding

A

Removable covered metal stent is preferred to balloon tamponade as temporizing measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ulcers w high risk lesions post endoscopy

A

High dose PPI for 72 h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Post endoscopy, pts with cirrhosis

A

Continue Abx for a week regardless of bleeding source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Post endoscopic Variceal bleeding

A

Vasoactive drugs for 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Following hemostasis post endoscopy

A

Reintroduce aspirin/antithrombotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

External hemorrhoids

A

Minimally invasive:
Rubber band ligation
Sclerotherapy
Coagulation

Hemorrhoidectomy
Hemorrhoid stapling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Colon cancer clinical presentation

A

Iron deficiency anemia
Rectal bleeding
Abdominal pain
Intestinal obstruction/perforation

Early disease: nonspecific
Advanced disease: abdominal tenderness, macroscopic rectal bleeding, palpable abdominal mass, hepatomegaly, ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Colon cancer marker

A

Serum carcinoembryonic antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Colon cancer in cecum and right colon

A

Right hemicolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Colon cancer in proximal or middle transverse colon

A

Extended right hemicolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Colon cancer in splenic flexure and left colon

A

Left hemicolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Colon cancer in sigmoid colon

A

Sigmoid colectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

For pts with HNPCC, FAP, metachronous cancers in separate colon segments, acute malignant colon obstructions w unknown status of proximal bowel

A

Total abdominal colectomy w ileorectal anastomosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Chemo for colon cancer

A

5-FU w leucovorin or capecitabine (either alone or w oxaliplatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Non surgical colon cancer options

A

Cryotherapy
Radiofrequency ablation
Hepatic arterial infusion of chemo agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Diverticulitis etiology

A

Perforation of diverticula causing extracolonic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Clinical diverticulitis

A

Abrupt onset
LLQ pain/tenderness
Low fever
Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Peritonitis caused by perforation

A

Rebound tenderness and abdominal rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Diverticular abscess causing bowel obstruction

A

Diffuse abdominal pain
Abdominal distention
High fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Diverticulitis I

A

Symptomatic uncomplicated
Fever, abdominal pain
Colonoscopy or enema to rule out neoplasms and colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Diverticulitis II

A

Recurrent symptomatic

CT or barium enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Diverticulitis III

A

Complicated
(Abscess, hemorrhage, stricture, fistula, peritonitis, obstruction, etc)
CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Uncomplicated diverticulitis

A

Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Conplicated diverticulitis

ACS hinchey Ib or II

A

Abx plus percutaneous drainage for large abscess, small one just Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Conplicated diverticulitis

ACD hinchey III or IV

A

Emergency surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Ib

A

Pericolic or mesenteric abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

II

A

Large abscess extending into pelvis (walled off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

III

A

Gaseous release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

IV

A

Fecal discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Drugs to avoid in diverticulitis

A

Nonsteroidal nonaspirin anti inflammatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Resolution of acute diverticulitis (high quality exam not done in past 6 mo)

A

Colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Colon cancer nutritional eval

A

Vit B12
Iron
RBC folate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Marker of intestinal inflammation

A

Fecal calprotectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Enzyme check before initiation of therapy w mercaptopurine and azathioprine

A

TPMT thiopurine methyltransferase

If low, leukopenia, sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

pANCA

A

Ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

ASCA Anti saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies

A

Crohn disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Diagnose crohn’s using

A

Ultrasonography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Determine extent and severity of colitis

A

Colonoscopy

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Crohns location

A

Entire GI tract

Mostly transition from small to large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Ulcerative colitis location

A

Colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Crohns etiology

A

Skip lesions

Increased risk of cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

UC etiology

A

Uniform from rectum up to colon

Marked cancer risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

UC stmptoms

A

Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Crohns symptoms

A

Toxic megacolon

Perf of colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

UC extraintestinal

A

Liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Crohns extraintestinal

A

Fistulas

Abscesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Crohns histology

A

Granulomas
Lymphocytic
String sign on x ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

UC histology

A

Neutrophilic

Lead pipe colon on x ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

UC endoscopy

A

Crypts, continuous lesions, residual tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Crohns endoscopy

A

Discontinuous lesions, strictures, linear ulcerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

IBD diet

A

B12, D, iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

IBD meds

A

Aminosalicylates/metronidazole or ciprofloxacin
Steroids (oral prednisone at 10-40 mg/day tapered once symptom relief)

If steroids cant be tapered without recurrence, use immunomodulators or anti TNF therapy

TNF monoclonal antibody therapies
Immunomodulator azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Achalasia

A

Myenteric plexus degeneration

Nitric oxide neurons (inhibition)
VIP neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Achalasia due to malignancy secondary to

A

Pancreatic cancer
Prostatic cancer
Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Achalasia due to diseases

A

Amyloidosis
MEN
glucocorticoid deficiency syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Chagas disease may cause

A

Achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Achalasia left untreated

A

Increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma after 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Achalasia meds (not very useful)

A

Nitrates
Ca channel blocker
Viagra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Achalasia treatments

A

Pneumatic balloon dilation
Surgical myotomy
Endoscopic myotomy
Botox injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Achalasia on x ray

A

Bird’s beak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Scleroderma stages

A

Neuropathy
Myopathy
Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Consequence of severe GERD

A

Scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Scleroderma and GERD

A

Complicated by decreased saliva production

Decreased gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Non cardiac chest pain

A

Nutcracker

DES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Diffuse esophageal spasm

A

Simultaneous prolonged contractions
Intermittent dysphagia
Atypical chest pain

(Ca channel blockers, nitrates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Nutcracker esophagus

A

High amplitude peristaltic contractions

Odynophagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Boerhaave syndrome

A

Transmural distal esophageal rupture due to retching

Surgical Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome

A

Dysphagia (esophageal webs)
Iron deficiency
Glossitis

In ELDERLY FEMALE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Eosinophilic esophagitis

A

Atopy in childhood
Children>men>women
Like GERD but doesn’t respond tk gerd tx
PPI responsive EoE do not have gerd

Omeprazole blocks IL13 induced Eotaxin-3 secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

EoE path

A

> 15 eos/hpf

High TGFB1
Subepithelial fibrosis/stenosis
Mucosal fragility
Rings/furrows/exudates/strictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Cowdry Type A inclusion bodies

A

HSV esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Decreased LES

A
Drugs
Alcohol
Chocolate
Peppermint
Fatty foods
Smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Hypersalivation

A

GERD symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Barrett’s esophagus

A

Metaplastic process
Squamous to columnar epithelium w goblet cells

Progresses to adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Esophageal impedance

A

Measures reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

GERD med adjustment

A

Discontinue aggravating meds (anticholinergics)

Therapy:
H2 antagonists
PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Fundoplication

A

Surgery for GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Most common in US

lower 1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Most common in world
Upper 2/3
Alcohol and smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Secondary esophageal cancer

A

Extrinsic: lung
Submucosal: breast w pseudoachalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Cases entering population

A

Incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Current cases

A

Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Cases leaving population

A

Recovery, death, migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Type 1 and 2 error

A

1: false pos
2: false neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Variance

A

(Xi - mean)^2 / n-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

St deviation

A

Square root of variance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Positively skewed

A

Peak happens earlier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Interval variables

A

Temp in C or F

Exam score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Plus or minus 1 standard deviation

A

68%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

R^2

A

Determination

Percentage of variance of y explained by x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Regression

A

Units of outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Lead time bias

A

Earlier detection by screening so longer survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Length time bias

A

Excess of asymptomatic cases detected, while fast progressing only detected after symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Deceleration of gastric motility

A

Pylorostenosis
Hypokalemia
Diabetes
Peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Parietal cell

A

HCl

Intrinsic factor - B12 absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Chief cell

A

Pepsinogen - protein digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Surface mucous cells

A

Mucus, bucarbonate
Trefoil factors

For protectiob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

ECL cells

A

Histamine - regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

G cells

A

Gastrin - secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Nerves

A

Gastrin-releasing peptide - regulation

ACh - regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

D cells

A

Somatostatin - regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Achylia gastrica

A

No HCl

No enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Long term increase of stomach secretion

A
Proteinases
Hyperacidity
Peptic ulcer
Liver disease
Hypercalcemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Decreased stomach secretions

A

Achlorhydria
Achylia
Atrophic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Infectious gastritis

A

Decrease acid production in most people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Atrophic gastritis

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Type A gastritis

A

Autoimmune
Corpus affected
Pernicious anemia (B 12 def)
Megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Type B gastritis

A
H pylori
Corpus affected
Gastric cancer phenotype
Or
Duodenal ulcer phenotype - Antral infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Causes of gastritis

A
Crohns
Sarcoidosis
Syphilis
Atrophic (Type A and B)
Infectious
NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Curlings ulcer

A

Dec plasma volume

Burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Cushings ulcer

A

Inc vagal stimulation
High ACh
High H+
Head injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Gastritis vs ulcer

A

Gastritis - mucosa

Ulcer - muscularis/submucosa involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Chronic atrophic gastritis

A

Inflammatory cell infiltrate
Atrophy of mastric mucosa
Risk of adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

H pylori

A
Gram neg
Spiral
Microaerophilic
Motile
UREASE

Associated: gastritis, ulcer, adenocarcinoma, MALToma, non-ulcer dyspepsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Chronic H pylori

A

Duodenal ulcer - high gastrin and acid, protection from gastric cancer

Simple gastritis - majority, high gastrin, normal acid

Gastric cancer - very rare, corpus, multifocal atrophic gastritis, high gastrin, low chloride, low pepsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

H pylori culture

A

100% specific

Affected by PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

UBT

A

Most Sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Serology

A

Sensitive

Not useful after eradication therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

COX 1

A

GI mucosal integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Peptic ulcer disease pathophys

A

Increased vagal activity
Parietal cell hyperplasia
More acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Alcohol diet and caffeine cause

A

Gastritis

NOT peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Gastric ulcer causes

A

Impaired mucosal defense
Motility defects (bile backs up and messes with mucous barrier)
Delayed gastric emptying
Mucosal ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Weight loss is seen in

A

Only in gastric ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Gastric ulcer

Duodenal ulcer

A

Gastric - aggravated by meals

Duodenal - relieved by meals then recurs a couple hours later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Gastric ulcer bleeding

A

Lesser curvature bleeds from left gastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Gastric cancer after

A

Gastric ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Men w Blood group o inc risk of

A

Duodenal ulcer (into submucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Rapid gastric emptying causes

A

Duodenal ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Zollinger ellison associated w

A

Duodenal ulcers most common

tumor of G cells in langerhans islets of pancreas (can also come from duodenum)

Secretory diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Posterior surface bleed

A

Gastroduodenal art

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

H pylori

A

Duodenal ulcer

High gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Duodenal perforation

A

Ant > post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Bleeding va perf

A

Bleeding more in post wall

Perf more in ant wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Duodenal perf leads to

A
Air under diaphragm on x ray
Peritonitis
Pancreatic pain
Hypovolemic shock
OBSTRUCTION
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Diagnosis of duodenal ulcer

A

Stool antigen test
UBT
serology (active infx)
Antral biopsy w urease test (endoscopic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Refractory ulcer

A

Zollinger ellison syndrome
Cancer
Crohn’s
Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

Acute gastroparesis

Antral hypomotility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Scleroderma, vagotomy, hypothyroidism

A

Chronic gastroparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Motility disorders more in

A

Female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Diabetic gastroparesis

A

Autonomic neuropathy
Reduced relaxation
Inc pyloric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Gastroparesis sympt

A
Bloating
N/v
Anorexia
Dehydration
Not much pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Dumping syndrome

A

Hyperosmolarc cholesterol rich
Early or late (hypoglycemia)
Postvagotomy diarrhea

Billroth ii surgery (stomach wall removed) - iron and calcium malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Infx leading to gastric cancer

A

EB virus

H pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Gastric cancer genetics

A

Germline mutation cdh1 (e-cadherin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Predysposing syndrome for gastric cancer

A

Pernicious anemia (autoimmune atrophic gastritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Hypertrophic gastropathy leads to

A

Gastric cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Menetrier disease

A
Gastric hypertrophy
Protein loss
Parietal cell atrophy
Inc mucous cells
Stomach looks like brain
Precancerous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Chronic gastritis leads to

A

Antral gastritis or

Multifocal atrophic gastritis -> adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Acanthosis nigricans

A

Adenocarcinoma due to hp, early mets to liver and LN’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Ulcer w raised margins

A

Intestinal type adenocarcinoma

Lesser curvature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Signet ring cells

A

Linitis plastica
Diffuse type adenocarcinoma
NO hp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Gastric lymphoma

A

Secondary to hp - MALToma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Symptoms of stomach cancer

A

Virchow nodes - left supraclavicular node

Krukenberg tumor - bilateral ovaries, signet ring cells, mucous

Sister mary joseph nodule - subcutaneous periumbilical mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Interstitial cells of Cajal

A

GI stromal tumor

Mesenchymal tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Leiyomyoma sarcoma

A

Smooth muscle tumor

GIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Acute diarrhea

A

Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Chronic diarrhea

A

Ca and P balance disturbance
Steatorrhea
Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Osmotic gap

A

<50 secretory

>125 osmotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Cholera

A

Over secretion of Cl
Na and water follow
Night and day
Fasting doesnt help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Vibrio cholera

A
Gram neg
Oxidase pos
Curved
Flagellated rod
Shooting star motility
Rice water stool
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Increase cAMP in intestinal mucosa

A

Increased Cl secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Cholera risk inc w

A

PPI

grows on highly alkaline media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

ETEC

A

Heat labile toxin LT - inc camp
Heat stable toxin ST
Pili attach intestinal epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Cholera toxin

A

Activates Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Osmotic diarrhea

A
Laxatives
Lactose intolerance
High fructose corn syrup
Sorbitol
Antibiotic related
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Infx gastroenteritis

A

Norovirus - most common
Rotavirus - child
Usually viral, usually self limited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Severe diarrhea and pregnant

A

Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Sympt w in 6 hours diarrhea

A
Preformed toxin
Staph aureus (mayo)
Bacillus cereus (rice)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

8-16 hours diarrhea

A

C perfringes - reheated meat, gas gangrene (lecithinase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Lecithinase

A

Splits phospholipids

C perf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

After 16 hours

A

Viral

ETEC or EHEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Bloody diarrhea

A
EHEC
Campylobacter jejuni
Yersinia enterocolitica
Shigella
Salmonella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

EHEC

A

Shiga toxin (verotoxin)
O157:H7
Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

Undercooked ground beef

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

C jejuni

A

Children
Domestic animal exposure
Precedes guillan barre and reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Yersinia

A

Puppies

Mimics crohn disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Shigella

A

Preschool outbreak

No HS on TSI agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Salmonella

A

Undercooked poultry, eggs, produce
Kids playing with pet reptiles
HS on TSI agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Shiga toxin vs Shiga like toxin

A

SLT does not cause host cell invasion

Shiga invades intestinal mucosa
Small inoculum 50-100 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Shiga toxin

A

Stops 60s ribosome

Blocks trna binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Pediatric renal failure

A

HUS

bc cytokine release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

HUS

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia MAHA
Thrombocytopenia
Renal failure
Schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Salmonella typhi

A
Gram neg rod
Facultative anaerobe
Fecal oral
Flagella
HS
ENCAPSULATED Vi antigen - asplenics!

Rose spots on chest
Sickle cell and osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Campylobacter

A
Gram neg
Comma shaped
Corkscrew motility
42 C
Precedes guillan barre
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Rotavirus

A

Infant

Dehydration and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Cryptosporidium

A

Acid fast oocytes
In water
AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Giardia

A

Camping/hiking
Foul smelling
Fatty diarrhea
Smiley face trophozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Entamoeba

A

Bloody diarrhea
Liver abscess
Anchovy paste exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

C dif

A

Toxin A - brush border, inflamm and fluid secretion

Toxin B - cytotoxic, pseudomembrane

PPI inc risk
Gram pos
Spore forming
Toxic megacolon
Fecal transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Inflamm diarrhea can lead to

A

Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Pancreatic cholera

A

Non beta islet cell tumor
VIP
multiple endocrine tumors
Chronic diarrhea - secretory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A
5-hydroxytryptophan
Histamine
Paroxysmal flushing, explosive diarrhea, tachycardia, low BP
ELEVATED URINE 5-HIAA
Chronic diarrhea - secretory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Limited ileal resection

A

<100 cm
malabsorbed bile in colon causes secretion

Rx - cholestyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Extensive ileal resection

A
>100 cm
Impaired enterohepatic circulation
Impaired micelles
Fat malabsorption and secretion
Rx - low fat diet, medium chain triglycerides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Uncontrolled diabetes

A

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Osmotic gap

A

290 - 2(Na + K) stool

50-125 mixed diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Stool fat > 14g/100g stool

A

Malabsorption
Pancreatic insufficiency
Bacterial overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Stool fat <14

A

Lactose intolerance (genetic or old)
Laxatives
Sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Normal stool weight

A

<300g/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Normal osmotic gap or <50
Normal stool fat
Increased wt >300

A

> 1000 secretory diarrhea

Laxative abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Hematochezia

A

Bleeding from rectum, red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Stable

A

<500 cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Orthostatic inc HR

A

500-700 cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Orthostatic dec BP

A

700-1000 cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Resting inc HR

A

20% or >1L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Resting dec BP

A

30-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Death

A

> 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

When to transfuse

A

High risk: HCT <27% Hb <9

Variceal bleeding: <21% Hb <7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Melenic stool

A

200 cc blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

BUN/Cr >35

A

UGIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Clean based ulcers

A

Almost no serious recurrent bleeding

Can go home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Vasoactive meds for esophageal varices

A

Octreotide
Somatostatin
Vapreotide
Terlipressin

For 2-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Long term meds for esophageal varices

A

Nonselective Beta blockers + endoscopic ligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Dont use barium x rays for

A

GI bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Acute acid suppression in UGIB bc

A

Platelets aggregate poorly at pH < 6

Inhibit pepsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Small intestine bleeding in kids

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Eval small intestine bleeding

A

Angio
Second look procedure
Capsule endoscopy to look at whole small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Pts with small bowel narrowing

A

Use CT enterography instead of capsule endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Small intestine bleed meds

A

Hormonal tx: orthonovum 1/50 BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

LGIB in kids

A

IBD or juvenile polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Positive fecal occult blood

A

Colonoscopy
Upper endoscopy if upper symptoms
If iron deficiency do both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

D-xylose

A

Differentiate btw malabsorption from small intestine vs pancreatic insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Celiac diseased

A
Diarrhea chylosa
Consumption of bowels
Small bowel disorder
Mucosal inflammation
Villous atrophy
Crypt hyperplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Chances of getting celiac

A

1 first degree = 10%
2 first degree = 25%
1 second degree = 8%
Identical twins = 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Celiac disease genetics

A

Genetic predisposition

HLA-DQ2 and/or DQ8 + other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Celiac trigger

A

Virus or bacteria allow gliadin to pass to lamina propria

Adenovirus type 12 sensitizes T cells to gliadin

TTG deaminates glutamine at 4,6,7 on gliadin

Inc T cell response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Celiac serology

A

Anti-deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP) IgA, IgG

DO NOT USE antigliadin IgA, IgG
Antiendomysial IgA (EMA)
ANTI-tissue transglutaminase IgA (TTG IgA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Celiac symptoms

A
Diarrhea
Overweight/obese - 32%
Bruising, skin rash
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Iron deficiency anemia
Bone pain
Ascites
Epilepsy
Infertility
Short stature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Extraintestinal celiac

A

Liver disease - elevated transaminases, autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary corrhosis

Ascites
Weight loss
Anemia (iron/folate def)
Bruising - vit k def, elevated prothrombin time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Celiac path

A
Small intestine
Villi blunted
Crypts elongated
Inflammatory infiltrate
Mucosal cracks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Celiac treatment

A

Gluten free diet plus

Take glutenases
Tight junction modulator: larazotide .5 mg TID
Antiinflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Non-celiac gluten sensitivity

A

IBS-like symptoms
More common than celiac
No evidence of celiac or wheat allergy
More symptoms than celiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Wheat allergy

A

IgE mediated
Itching
Swelling of lips, tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Tropical sprue

A

Persistent Contamination of mucosa by: klebsiella, enterobacter cloacae, e coli)

Toxins make structurally abnormal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Tropical sprue symptoms

A

Megaloblastic anemia (folate def)
Watery diarrhea
Abdominal cramps
Flatulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Tropical sprue treatment

A

Tetracycline and folate for 6 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Bacterial overgrowth dx

A

Small bowel barium x ray
13c-xylose breath test
Lactulose hydrogen breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Whipple’s disease

A

Tropheryma whipplei - gram pos bacilli

Small bowel, CNS, heart, kidneys, joints
Edema

PAS pos granules in macrophages on biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Whipple’s disease tx

A

Ceftriaxone then bactrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

IBD smoking

A

Causes crohn’s

Prevents UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Appendectomy IBD

A

Protective in UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Abx use in first year of life: risk factor for

A

IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

IBD breastfeeding

A

Protective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Omegas in IBD

A

High omega 6, low omega 3: inc risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Vit D IBD

A

Protective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

IBD: regulation of secretory activity

A

XBP1
ORMDL3
OCTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

IBD: innate immunity and autophagy

A

NOD2
ATG16L1

IRGM
JAK2
STAT3
C13orf31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

IBD: regulation of adaptive immunity

A

IL23R
IL12B
IL10

PTPN2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

IBD: development and resolution of inflammation

A

MST1
CCR6
TNAAIP3
PTGER4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Fibrostenosing CD

A

NOD polymorphisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Fistulizing CD

A

ATG16L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Loss of haustrations
No granuloma
Limited to mucosa and submucosa

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

Granuloma formation
Transmural
Rectum spaired

A

Crohns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

Ilieocolitis mimics appendicitis

A

Crohns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

Crohn’s

A

Oxalate kidney stones bc Ca bound by fat, so Na binds oxalate and is absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Gallstones

A

CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Pyoderma gangrenosum

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

Sweet’s syndrome

A

Map like red lesion
High neutrophils
Extraintestinal for IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Episcleritis

A

CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Aphthous ulcers

A

CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

AA, hispanic, asian

A

Ileocolonic CD

pancolonic UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

East asians

A

Perianal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

African American

A

Joint and ocular involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Hispanic

A

Dermatologic manifestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Endoscopy in crohns

A

Cobblestoning
Serpiginous ulcers
Aphthous ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

IBD treatment

A

5-ASA (mesalamine) - remission
Anti inflammatory
Azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine, methotrexate, tacrolimus
anti TNF (infliximab, adalimumab)
anti integrins (natalizumab, vedolizumab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Rome IV diagnostic criteria

A

For IBS

Symptom onset 6 mo ago
Criteria fulfilled for last 3 mo
Abdominal pain 1 day/week in 3 mo + 2:

Defacation
Frequency of stool
Appearance of stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Prolonged fasting

A

Improves diarrhea in IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

IBS pathophys

A

Mid cingulate cortex - more pain
More motility

Inc IL-6,IL1ß, TNF and TRPV1 -> visceral hypersensitivity, permeability

Inc EC cells, TPH1 polymorphism -> inc serotonin -> inc motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Visceral hypersensitivity in IBS

A

Afferent disfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Hydrophilic colloid, psyllium

A

Stool bulling agents for IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Anti depressants for IBS

A

TCA’s - delay gut transit time, visceral afferent neural function changed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

Post infectious IBS

A

Campylobacter
Shigella
Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Good bacteria in low levels in IBS

A

Bifidobacterium

Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

True diverticulum

A

Ex. Meckel’s

Herniation of entire bowel wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

False diverticulum

A

Mucosa and submucosa thru muscularis propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Diverticula more common in

A

Left colon
Sigmoid
(Rectum spared)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Diverticula in Asians

A

70% in right colon and cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Diverticula pathophys

A

Nutrient artery (vasa recti) penetrates muscularis propria

Vasa recti compressed or eroded -> bleeding or perf

High press in sigmoid colon -> high amp contractions -> chronic inflamm -> neuron degeneration -> dysmotility and high intraluminal pressures

High fat stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Diverticulosis

A

Hematochezia
Or
Asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

Diverticulitis

A

Symptomatic uncomplicated diverticular disease (SUDD)

fever
Anorexia
LLQ pain
Obstipation

Complicated: perf, abscess, stricture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Abdominal distension + localized peritonitis

A

Pericolonic abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Diverticulitis Tx

A

Bowel rest
3rd gen cephalosporin
Cipro + metro
Amp added for non responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Most colorectal cancers arise from

A

Adenomatous polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Sessile, serrated polyps

A

Invasive cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Villous adenoma

A

Mostly sessile

Malignant 3x more than tubular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Colorectal cancer pathophys

A

Microsatellite/chromosomal instability

APC inactivation or b catenin activation
KRAS or BRAF activation
SMAD4 or TGFbII inactivation
TP53 inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Polyposis coli

A

5q deletion
Absence of tumor suppressors
1000s of adenomatous polyps, cancer by 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

MYH associated polyposis

A

MUT4H mutation

Polyposis coli or colorectal CA w/out polyposis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon CA

A

Lynch’s syndrome
hMSH2 or hMLH1 mutations
Errors in DNA replication

Proximal/ascending colon by 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

IBD and colorectal CA?

A

UC>CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Endocarditis from Strep Bovis

A

Higher risk of colorectal CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

Tobacco use >35y

A

Higher risk of colorectal CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Colorectal cancer - cecum

A

Tumor may be large w/out obstructive sympt bc stool is liquid here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

Colorectal CA - right colon

A

Ulcerate
Hypochromic microcytic anemia
Fatigue
Palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Colorectal CA - transverse and descending colon

A

Obstruction
Abd cramping
“Apple core” lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

Colorectal CA - rectosigmoid

A

Hematochezia
Tenesmus
Narrowed stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Colorectal CA screening

A

Flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 y after 50

Colonoscopy every 10 y after 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

Descending colon colorectal CA

A

Apple core

Napkin ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

Sigmoid colon CA

A

U shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

Lab tests for colorectal CA

A
Liver function (most common for mets)
Plasma CEA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

Post op colon CA

A

CEA every 3 mo
PE every 6 mo for 5 yr
Endoscopy every 3 yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

Rectal cancer

A

Recurrence of 25% so give post op radiation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

Primary prevention of colorectal CA

A

Aspirin and NSAIDs

Suppress proliferation by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Acute liver failure

A

In a previously healthy person

Coagulopathy (PT>20 or 4-6 sec longer, INR>1.5)

Encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

Fulminant liver failure

A

Encephalopathy w/in 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

Subfulminant liver failure

A

W/in 3 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

Hyperacute LF

A
Acetaminophen toxicity
Acute Hep A or E
Jaundice -> encephalopathy <1 week
Severe coagulopathy
Moderate intracranial HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Acute LF

A

Hep B
Jaundice -> encephalopathy 1-4 weeks
Moderately severe coagulopathy
Mild to moderate intracranial HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Subacute LF

A
Nonacetaminophen drug toxicity
SEVERE JAUNDICE
Jaundice -> encephalopathy 4-12 weeks
Mild coagulopathy
Absent or mild intracranial HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

Viral Hepatitis

A

PAMPs

Innate immune mediated response leading to ALF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

Toxin mediated liver injury

A

DAMPs
Innate immune mediated response
Leading to ALF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Acetaminophen liver damage

A

Causes necrosis of hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

Metabolism of acetaminophen

A

Some acetaminophen -> NAPQI (cyp450 2E1)

NAPQI needs glutathione to flush it out as cysteine and mercapturic acid

Not enough glutathione? Liver cell damage (covalently binds proteins, oxidative damage and mitochondrial dysfunction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

Acetaminophen toxicity antidote

A

N acetylcysteine

Precursor of glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

NAPQI excretion?

A

Renally excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

NAPQI hepatocellular damage

A

Necrosis in centrilobular (zone III) region bc greater production of NAPQI here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Liver biopsy indicated

A

Lymphoma

Wilson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Lab findings in ALF

A

Decreased platelets

Hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

AST of 3500 units/L

A

Acetaminophen hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

Alcoholic liver injury fibrosis

A

Stellate cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

Wilson’s

A
Hepatolenticular degeneration
Autosomal recessive
Copper
Mutation in ATP7B (chr 13q)
Late childhood onset
Acute hepatitis -> cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

Wilson disease pathophys

A

Defective copper transporting P-type ATPase bc of ATP7B mutation

Most common: histidine to glutamine H1069Q

Copper doesnt get into bile for excretion
Copper not incorporated into apo-ceruloplasmin to form ceruloplasmin (binds Cu in blood)

Free radicals, oxidation of lipids and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

Non toxic Cu storage

A

Metallothionein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

Kayser fleischer

A

Cu in descemet membrane in limbus of cornea

Electron dense granules rich in copper and sulfur

Also seen in chronic cholestatic disorders - primary biliary cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

Wilson’s kidneys

A

Renal disease bc proximal tubule damage leading to Fanconi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

Hemolytic anemia in wilsons

A

Oxidative injury by Cu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Lab findings in wilsons

A

Decreased total serum copper

Decreased serum ceruloplasmin (early stage)

Increased cerum and urine free copper (late stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

Diagnosing wilsons

A

Low ceruloplasmin <50

Urinary Cu >100/day

In hepatic tissue >250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

Wilsons Tx

A

D-penicillamine or Trientine - Cu chelator

Zinc therapy - inhibits Cu reabsorption in gut

Ammonium tetrathiomolybdate - competes for Cu reabsorption in bowel, inc Cu excretion in urine

380
Q

Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Def

A
Autosomal co-dominant
Defects in SERPINA1 (chr 14q)
North european
Liver, lung, skin
Most common cause of cirrhosis in kids
Early onset panacinar emphysema
381
Q

M/c cause of cirrhosis in children

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin def

382
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin

A

Inhibit neutrophil derived proteases - elastase

MM - normal, 150-350

Def variants - Z, S

Severe def - ZZ (PiZZ)

383
Q

PiZZ

A

Misfolding and aggregation in liver bc glutamine to lysine

Accumulate in endoplasmic reticulum

Unfolded protein response -> apoptosis

384
Q

Panniculitis

A

Painful cutaneous nodules at sites of trauma in alpha-1 antitrypsin def

385
Q

Lab findings in alpha-1 antitrypsin def

A

Decreased a1-AT <80 or dec activity

PAS-pos, diastase-resistant globules in periphery of hepatic lobule

386
Q

a1-AT def Tx

A

IV a1-AT

387
Q

Hereditary hemochromatosis

A

Iron in parenchymal organs

Autosomal recessive

HFE mutation - chr 6p

Reduced Hepcidin secretion so overload of Fe released from macrophages and enterocytes, uncontrolled absorption

Northern european

388
Q

Hepcidin

A

Low in low Fe or anemia or hypoxia

Elevated in inflammation, High Fe

Binds ferroportin and internalizes it

Loss of Fe absorption

389
Q

HHC iron deposition

A

Liver then endocrine organs, heart etc

390
Q

HHC asymptomatic until

A

20g of stored Fe accumulated

391
Q

Liver damage in HHC

A

Lipid peroxidation
Stimulation of collagen formation
DNA damage by ROS

392
Q

Nonreversible effects of HHC

A
Hypothyroidism
DM
Arthropathy (mp joints) - hemosiderin and Ca pyrophosphate in joints, pseudogout
Chondrocalcinosis
Pituitary gonadotropins MSH - Fe in pituitary, amenorrhea, dec libido
Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Testicular atrophy
Impotence
393
Q

Reversible HHC symptoms

A

Skin pigmentation
Cardiomyopathy - a fib
Liver biochemistries

394
Q

Pigmentation in HHC

A

Inc melanin production

Hemosideron deposition in macrophage and fibroblast

395
Q

DM in HHC

A

Bronze diabetes
Destruction of ß islet cells -fibrosis, atrophy
Inc insulin resistance

396
Q

Malabsorption in HHC

A

Destruction of exocrine pancreas

397
Q

HHC lab findings

A

Inc Fe, %transferrin sat, ferritin (ferritin used to follow therapy)
Dec TIBC, LH, FSH

398
Q

HHC best screening test

A

Inc % transferrin saturation, cutoff at 45%

HFE gene testing for C282Y mutation

399
Q

AIH pathophys

A

1) cytotoxic T cell, diverse autoantibodies - cell mediated cytotoxicity
2) plasma cell - antibody mediated cytotoxicity

400
Q

Type 1 AIH

A

Middle age and older
ANA, ASMA, anti-SLA/LP
HLA DR3 and DR4

401
Q

Type 2 AIH

A

Children and teens
ALKM-1 antibody
HLA DR7

402
Q

Clinical AIH

A

Acute - inc transaminase
Fulminant
Cirrhosis

Fatigue
Dark urine light stool
RUQ pain
Anorexia

Fever, hepatomegaly
Scleral icterus
Encephalopathy

403
Q

AIH may be associated w

A

Autoimmune diseases

UC

404
Q

AIH histo

A

Interface hepatitis
Bridging necrosis
Lymphocytes invading limiting plate

Lymphoplasmocytic infiltrate in portal triad

405
Q

AIH lab findings

A

Elevated ALT, AST (10x)

Serum gamma globulin (3x)

406
Q

Bile components

A

Bile acids 80%
Lecithin and PL 16%
Cholesterol 4%

407
Q

Pancreas secrets

A

3L alkaline fluid daily

408
Q

Acinar cells secrete

A
Enzymes
Amylase
Lipase
Phospholipase A2
Colesterol esterase
Endopeptidases trypsin and chymotrypsin
Exopeptidases carboxypeptidase and aminopeptidase
Elastase
409
Q

Ductal cells secrete

A

Fluid and bicarb

410
Q

Enterokinase

A

In duodenum

Trypsinogen -> Trypsin

411
Q

Pancreas intracellular Ca

A

Low in acinar cell to promote destruction of spontaneously activated trypsin

412
Q

Pancreatic secretory trypsin inhibitor

A

PSTI

SPINK1

413
Q

Bind and inactivate intracellular trypsin

A

Chymotrypsin C

414
Q

Common Acute pancreatitis

A
Idiopathic
Gallstones - microlithiasis
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids - estrogens
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion sting
Hypercalcemia/hypertriglyceridemia
ERCP
Drugs - azathioprine, 6-MP, sulfonamides, tetracycline, valproic acid, antiretrovirals, 5-ASA

Postop

415
Q

Uncommon acute pancreatitis

A
Vascular
Connective tissue disorder, TTP
Cancer
Periampullary diverticulum
Pancreas divisum
Hereditary pancreatitis
CF
RF
Infx - mumps, coxsackie, CMV, echo, parasite
416
Q

Acute pancreatitis pathophys

A

1) digestive enzyme activation, acinar cell injury
2) leukocytes, macrophages, inflammation
3) effects on distant organs

417
Q

Causes of acute pancreatitis

A

Duct obstruction
Acinar cell injury
Defective intracellular transport

418
Q

Acute pancreatitis clinical features

A
And pain - steady and boring, radiate to back
Abd distention - GI hypomotility
PE: distressed
Low fever
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Rare Jaundice - edema of pancreatic head 
Abd rigidity
Dec bowel sounds
Basilar rales
419
Q

Acute pancreatitis signs

A

Cullen sign - periumbilical

Grey turner sign - flank

420
Q

Acute pancreatitis diagnosis

A

Atlanta classification (2/3)

Abd pain acute persistent severe, radiates to back

High serum lipase or amylase (3x upper limit)

Imaging

Also:
Leukocytosis (15-20k)
Hemoconcentration (Hct >44%: necrotizing)
Metabolic panel:
Azotemia (BUN >22) hypoxemia (PaO2 <60)
Hyperglycemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperbilirubinemia
Hypertroglyceridemia
High LDH and persistent hypocalcemia: bad prognosis
421
Q

Normal pancreatic secretion

A
Isoosmotic
Higher bicarb
Lower chloride
Secretin triggers fluid and bicarb release
Cck triggers enzyme release
Somatostatin inhibits any release
422
Q

Early acute pancreatitis complications

<2 weeks

A

Shock, SIRS
DIC
ARDS
organ failure

423
Q

Late acute pancreatitis complications

>2 weeks

A
Persistent organ failure (>2 days)
Pancreatic paeudocysts
Necrosis
Pancreatic ascites
Pancreatic fistulas
424
Q

Modified Marshall scoring

Organ failure

A

Assesses CPR
2 or higher in any category - organ failure
If 2 or more systems involved - multiorgan failure

425
Q

Chronic pancreatitis

A

Toxic-metabolic - alcohol, tobacco, phenacetin abuse, DBTC
Idiopathic
Genetic - PRSS1, CFTR, CAASR, CTRC, SPINK1
Autoimmune - type 1,2, IgG4 systemic
Recurrent
Obstructive

426
Q

Pancreatic stellate cells

A

Maintain architecture of pancreas
Normally quiescent
When activated -> fibrogenesis
Periacinar myofibroblasts (other name)

427
Q

Chronic pancreatitis clinical

A

Abd pain, diabetes, steatorrhea

Eating makes pain worse
N/V
Maldigestion
Weight loss

428
Q

Chronic pancreatitis labs

A
Gold standard: secretin test (abnormal when 60% function lost) + MRCP
Hyperglycemia
Inc ALP
X ray: calcifications
FPE-1 <100
429
Q

Fecal pancreatic elastase-1

A

Marker of exocrine pancreatic function

<100 - severe insufficiency

430
Q

Chronic pancreatitis on MRCP

A

Dilated pancreatic duct w side branches

431
Q

Pancreatic cancer

A
Worst survival rate of any cancer
African american males
Cadmium
Cigarette
Meat, fat, fizzy sugary drinks
BRCA2, PRSS1/SPIN11
DM
432
Q

Pancreatic infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma

A

Infiltrating desmoplastic stromal rxns
Late dx bc posterior location

KRAS
p16/CDKn2A
TP53
DPC4/MADH4

433
Q

Elevated bilirubin in Pancreatic Cancer

A

Jaundice at 3

Pruritis at 6

434
Q

Pancreatic cancer clinical

A
Abd pain like CP
worse when lying flat 
Weight loss
Jaundice, pruritis
Light stool
Steatorrhea
Diabetes onset in last year
435
Q

PE for pancreatic cancer

A
Palpable gallbladder - courvoisier sign
Hepatosplenomegaly
Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis - Trousseau Syndrome
Virchow node
Sister mary joseph node
436
Q

Pancreatic cancer diagnosis

A

Surrounds sma so contrast enhanced CT
PET for mets
Markers: CA19-9, CEA, CA125 (if others are neg)

Whipple procedure - surgical resection

437
Q

NPO

A

management of acute pancreatitis

Dont eat until pain and nausea resolve

438
Q

Gallstones

A

Cholesterol stones - cholesterol monohydrate

Pigment stones - calcium bilirubinate

Mexican female >50

439
Q

Cholesterol stones

A

Clofibrate
Inc HMG-CoA Reductase activity
Gain of function ABCG5/G8 (hepatic cholestorl transporter)

CYP7A1 mut -> low cholesterol 7-hydroxylase -> cholesterol not turned into bile

MDR3 (ABCB4) mut - phospholipid/lecithin export pump to hepatic canaliculi (dec Lecithin)

Inc pro nucleating - mucin, igg, pigment (gilbert syndrome)

Dec anti nucleating - apo A-1, A-2

Pregnancy - 3rd trimester

440
Q

Pigment stones

A

Black/dark green

Ca w unconjugated bilirubin - ß glucuronidase (unconjugates)

Chronic hemolytic state - sickle cell, spherocytosis, thalassemia, liver cirrhosis, gilbert, CF, ileal disease

Infx - bacteria produce ß glucuronidase

Asia

441
Q

Cholelithiasis clinical

A
Biliary colic
Sudden onset severe
After fatty meal
N/V
Radiate to interscapular area or right shoulder
442
Q

Cholelithiasis US

A

Acoustic shadowing

443
Q

Gallbladder x ray

A

Porcelain GB
emphysematous cholexystitis
Limey bile - high Ca
Gallstone ileus

444
Q

Cholecystitis

A

After stone
Mechanical - ischemia
Chemical - phospholipase converts lecithin to lysolecithin (irritant)
Bacterial - e coli, klebsiella, strep, clostridium

445
Q

Acute cholecystitis

A
Progressively worse
RUQ tenderness, fever, leukocytosis
Murphy sign
Abd distention
Hypoactive bowel
Pain w jarring movement
446
Q

Bile duct obstruction dx

A

Bilirubin and aminotransferases mildly elevated

447
Q

Mirizzi syndrome

A

Comp of cholecystitis

Gallstone in GB neck or cystic duct compresses common bile duct -> obstruction, jaundice

448
Q

Choledocholithiasis

A

Cholesterol stones move into cbd

De novo - pigment stones - MDR3 mut

449
Q

Choledocholithiasis labs

A

Elevated liver enzymes acutely

Alk phos elevated, bilirubin elevated

Jaundice

450
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

IBD - UC

Riedel struma, pseudotumor of orbit

451
Q

PSC histo

A

Fibrous obliteration of small bile ducts replaced by connective tissue in ONION SKIN pattern

Ludwig staging:

1) portal inflammed
2) periportal
3) septal fibrosis/necrosis
4) biliary cirrhosis

452
Q

PSC Dx

A

Beaded appearance on cholangiography bc strictures

453
Q

PSC Tx

A

Cholestyramine, Abx
Vit D, Ca
Balloon stenting

454
Q

PBC vs PSC

A

PBC - female, older, intrahepatic, granulomatous, sjogren, RA, thyroid, AMA and ANCA, loss of small ducts

PSC - male, younger, intra and extrahepatic, fibrosis, IBD-UC, pancreatitis, only ANCA, onion skin

455
Q

Bilirubin

A

Normal <1

Jaundice >2

456
Q

First place to see jaundice

A

Conjunctiva

Under tongue

457
Q

Hep B

A
Double stranded DNA
hepadnavirus
Reverse transcription like HIV (DNA to RNA)
Sexual, blood, vertical
Hepatocellular CA
Acute phase - sicker patient more likely to clear it
Mostly asymptomatic
Vaccine - anti HBs pos only
458
Q

Hep B associated conditions

A

Polyarteritis nodosa
MPGN
Cryoglobulinemia

459
Q

Hep B phases

A

Proliferative - CD8 destroy hepatocytes

Integrative

460
Q

Hep B only hepatitis virus to have

A

DNA dependent DNA pol

461
Q

HBsAg

A

First to appear in serum
Screening
Acute and chronic

462
Q

Bilirubin

A

Normal <1

Jaundice >2

462
Q

First place to see jaundice

A

Conjunctiva

Under tongue

462
Q

Hep B

A
Double stranded DNA
Enveloped
hepadnavirus
Reverse transcription like HIV (DNA to RNA)
Sexual, blood, vertical
Hepatocellular CA
Acute phase - sicker patient more likely to clear it
Mostly asymptomatic
Vaccine - anti HBs pos only
462
Q

Hep B associated conditions

A

Polyarteritis nodosa
MPGN
Cryoglobulinemia

463
Q

Hep B phases

A

Proliferative - CD8 destroy hepatocytes

Integrative

464
Q

Hep B only hepatitis virus to have

A

DNA dependent DNA policy

465
Q

HBsAg

A

First to appear in serum
Screening
Acute and chronic

466
Q

Anti-HBs

A

Previously vaccinated or

Recovered from acute hep b

467
Q

HBcAg

A

Core antigen
Not circulated in blood
Cant be checked

468
Q

Anti-HBc

A

IgM - acute hep b and window phase

IgG - chronic hep b and recovery

469
Q

HBeAg

A

High rates of viral replication

Acute and chronic hep B with high infectivity

470
Q

Anti-HBe

A

Dec viral rep
Pos for several years after acute infx
Window phase, chronic hep with low infectivity, recovery

471
Q

Immune due to natural infx Hep B

A

anti-HBc

anti-HBs

472
Q

Immune due to hep B vacc

A

anti-HBs

473
Q

Acutely infected

A

HBsAg
anti-HBc
IgM anti-HBc

474
Q

Chronically infected hep B

A

HBsAg

anti-HBc

475
Q

Only pos for anti-HBc

A

Resolved infx
False pos
Low level chronic
Resolving acute

476
Q

Hep C

A
RNA pos flavivirus enveloped
Cirrhosis
HCC
No proofreading (no 3 - 5 exonuclease)
Blood
Chronic
Acute - asymptomatic
477
Q

Hep B transmission

A

Sex

478
Q

Hep C screening

A

Anti-HCV Ab

479
Q

Hep C Dx

A

HCV viral load

480
Q

Hep C Tx

A

RNA dep pol inhibitors
Inhibit enzymes needed for Hep C RNA synth

Sofosbuvir
Ledispasvir

481
Q

Hep A

A

RNA pos naked
picornavirus
Raw or steamed SHELLFISH
Fecal oral

NO HCC RISK

482
Q

Active Hep A

A

IgM antibody to HAV

Acute only, resolves in 3-6 weeks
Vaccinate international travelers

483
Q

Hep D

A

Enveloped circular RNA
Dane particle
Requires Hep B surface antigen to coat hep d and allow hepatocyte entry

Maternal fetal transmission

HCC

superinfection - hep d and chronic hep B

Most fatal

484
Q

Hep E

A
Naked
ssRNA
fecal oral
Waterborne
Clinically like hep A
485
Q

Hep E Dx

A

Check HEV Ag or RNA in stool

486
Q

Susceptible to Hep E

A

Expectant mothers

Immunosupression after organ transplant

487
Q

Waterborne epidemics

A

Hep E

488
Q

Alcoholic liver disease

A

> 35 drinks per week (each one 10g ethanol)

Female - bc less alcohol dehydrogenase and lower body fluid

489
Q

At risk of developing ALD

A

Chronic hep C
Acetaminophen overdose
Hereditary hemochromatosis

490
Q

Metabolism of alcohol

A

NAD used by cytosolic ADH

NADPH and O2 used by MEOS (microsomal ethanol oxidizing system - cyp 450 2E1)

Hydrogen peroxide used by peroxismal catalase

Makes acetaldehyde

491
Q

Consequences of too much NADH produced by alcohol metabolism

A

Fasting hypoglycemia
Lactic acidosis
Triglycerides
ßOHB

492
Q

Earliest response of liver to alcohol abuse

A

Hepatocellular steatosis

493
Q

Alcohol increases fatty acid synth

A

SREBP-1c

494
Q

Alcohol decreases mitochondrial ß oxidation of fatty acids bc

A

Less NAD+/NADH

495
Q

Alcohol inhibits FA oxidation in liver by

A

Inactivation of PPAR-alpha

496
Q

Long term alcohol consumption inhibits

A

Autophagy

497
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis

A

Inflammation
Bc acetaldehyde at toxic level
Free radicals - produced by neutrophils

498
Q

Final stage of ALD

A

Alcoholic cirrhosis

Gut bacteria and bacterial LPS go to portal system

Gut derived endotoxin activate kupffer cells

TNF-alpha and TNF-ß

Stellate cell activation

499
Q

ALD labs

A

Hugh AST ALT, <500
High GGT (SER enzyme)
Low folate - macrocytosis, MCV >100
Hypertriglyceridemia, neutrophilic leukocytosis, hypoglycemia

500
Q

Hepatic steatosis

A

Macrovesicular fat
Centrilobular
Perivenular

501
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis

A

Perivenular fibrosis -> pericellular fibrosis

Ballooned hepatocytes w Mallory’s hyaline

Fatty change

Necrosis and neutrophil rxn

502
Q

Mallory Bodies

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

503
Q

NAFLD

A

Accumulation of triglycerides

Either simple steatosis (no inflamm) or steatohepatitis (NASH - inflamm and fibrosis)

504
Q

NAFLD associated w

A

Metabolic syndrome
Obesity
Diabetes
Hyperlipidemia

505
Q

NAFLD path

A

First hit - insulin resistance

Second hit - inflammatory cytokines, lipopolysaccharides, oxidative stress, TNF-alpha and interleukins

506
Q

Absence of insulin in NAFLD

A

Failure of suppression of hormone sensitive lipase

FFA come to liver

507
Q

Elevated insulin in NAFLD

A

Synth of triglycerides

508
Q

NAFLD lipid peroxidation and release of OH radicals caused by

A

FFA

hyperinsulinemia

509
Q

NAFLD labs

A

AST/ALT < 1

510
Q

NASH vs uncomplicated NAFLD

A

Liver biopsy

511
Q

NASH Dx

A

Steatosis
Lobular inflamm
Ballooned hepatocytes

512
Q

PBC path

A

Susceptible
Exposure
Molecular mimicry
Anti mitochondrial antibodies to pyruvate dehydrogenase E2 complex (PDC-E2)

CD8T cell infiltrate portal triad and ensue destruction of biliary epithelial cells of intrahepatic bile ducts

BEC loss inflammation - mixed cells respond B T macro eos NK

regeneration of bile ducts not possible

513
Q

AMA+ against PDC-E2

A

PBC

514
Q

PBC clinical

A

Early - skin hyperpigmentation, excoriation from itching, steatorrhea

Late - jaundice, xanthomas, kayser fleischer, stigma of cirrhosis

Sicca, systemic sclerosis
Fatigue
Pruritis - inc opioidergic tone, worse at night and exacerbated by heat

RUQ discomfort

515
Q

PBC labs

A

High ALP, GGT, cholesterol, IgM

AMA+ not correlates w activity of disease

516
Q

Addison’s

A

Def cortisol

Hyperpigmentation

517
Q

Cushings

A
Cortisol excess
Striae
Telangiectasias
Buffalo hump
Hypertrichosis
518
Q

Diabetes

A
Acanthosis nigricans
Diabetic dermopathy
Necrobiosis lipoidoica
Eruptive xanthomas
Foot ulcers
519
Q

Hypothryroidism

A
Alopecia - lateral third of eyebrow
Dry rough pale skin
Myxedema
Cool skin
Brittle nails
520
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A
Warm skin
Thine fine hair
Alopecia
Vitiligo
Pretibial myxedema - Graves
Hyperpigmentation
521
Q

Low thyroglobulin

Low thyroid uptake

A

Exogenous hormone for weight loss

522
Q

Increased thyroglobulin

(Low thyroid uptake

A

Iodide exposure
Thyroiditis
Extraglandular production

523
Q

High TSH

High T4

A

Secondary hyperthyroidism

In hypothalamus or pituitary

524
Q

Suppressed TSH

Normal T3 and T4

A

Subclinical hyperthyroidism

525
Q

Hyperthyroidism management

A
Beta blockers
Antithyroid drugs (thionamides) - inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis

Methimazole
Propylthiouracil

SE: agranulocytosis

526
Q

Propylthiouracil

A

For hyperthyroidism
Inhibits T4 to T3
1at trimester pregnancy
Less teratogenic than methimazole

527
Q

Rapid decrease in thyroid hormone level

A

Iodides
Sodium ipodate
Iopanoic acid
Block T4 to T3 and inhibit hormone release

528
Q

Amiodarone induced hyperthyroidism

A

Iodides + antithyroid drugs

529
Q

Graves disease tx

A

Radioiodine 131 - nonpregnant

CONTRAINDICATED if moderate or severe ORBITOPATHY

Destroys follicular cells
Can cause hypothyroidism

530
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis labs

A

Increased antimicrosomal antibodies

Anemia - normocytic
High LDL, low HDL

531
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism Tx

A
Levothyroxine if:
TSH>10
Inc thyroid peroxidase antibody titer
Desires pregnancy
Symptomatic
532
Q

Cushings syndrome from ectopic ACTH

A

lung, small cell carcinoma

533
Q

Cushings clinical

A
Weakness
Weight gain
HTN
Amenorrhea
Back pain
Moon face
Acne
Purple striae
534
Q

Cushings test

A

Late night salivatory cortisol
24 hr urine free cortisol
1mg overnight DST
48hr 2gm DST

535
Q

1 mg DST

A

Given at night, cortisol should be suppressed in morning, if not, pos test

536
Q

ACTH < 5

A

ACTH independent

Tumor in adrenals

537
Q

ACTH > 15

A

ACTH dependent

Cushings disease (pituitary)
Ectopic ACTH (malignancy, eg lung)
538
Q

Pituitary source excreting excess ACTH

A

Cushings disease

539
Q

Addison’s

A
Primary adrenal insufficiency
Destruction of adrenals
Cortisol and aldosterone def
Inc ACTH
Inc pro-opiomelanocortin synth
Inc in melanocyte stimulating hormone
540
Q

Addisons labs

A
Hypotension
N/V
Abd pain
Low Na
High K
Metabolic acidosis
541
Q

Standard ACTH test

A

Give IV ACTH, in primary adrenal insufficiency cortisol does not increase sufficiently

542
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Low cortisol

High ACTH

543
Q

Secindary adrenal insufficiency

A

Low cortisol

Low ACTH

544
Q

Adrenal insufficinecy Tx

A

Daily oral glucocorticoid (hydrocortisone or prednisone) and daily fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid, only if primary)

545
Q

PTH in kidney

A

25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25-dihgdroxyvitamin D

546
Q

Hypocalcemia w hypoparathyroidism

A

Surgery (thyroidectomy, parathyroidectomy)
Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome
Radiation
HIV

547
Q

Hypocalcemia w secondary hyperparathyroidism in response

A
Vit D def
PTH resistance
Renal disease
Pancreatitis
Osteoblastic metastasis
Phenytoin
Disorders of Mg metabolism
548
Q

Hypocalcemia

A
Paresthesias
Muscle twitching
Spasms
Prolonged QT
Papilledema

Chronic: parkinsonism, extopic calcification, extrapyramidal

549
Q

Hypocalcemia signs

A

Chvostek’s sign - tap facial nerve, get contraction of facial muscles

Trousseau’s sign - BP cuff higher than systolic for 3 min, elicits carpal spasms

550
Q

Low Ca
High P
PTH way too low
Low urine cAMP

A

Hypoparathyroid

551
Q

Hypoparathyroid Tx

A

IV calcium gluconate if severe

Oral calcium if mild or moderate

Vit D supplement (calcitriol)

Goal is Serum Ca 8-8.5

552
Q

Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome Type 1

A

Addison
Hypoparathyroidism
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

Onset in childhood, adolescents

553
Q

Autoimmune polyendocrine Syndrome type II

A

Autoimmune adrenal insufficiency
Autoimmune Thyroid disease
Type I DM

Onset adolescent to adulthood

554
Q

Prolactin releasing hormone secreted by hypothalamus

A

thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

555
Q

Artery that supplies anterior pituitary

A

Superior hypophyseal artery

556
Q

Artery supplying posterior pituitary

A

Inferior hypophyseal artery

557
Q

Postpartum pituitary necrosis

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

558
Q

Hypopituitarism in children

A

Growth retardation

Delayed puberty

559
Q

Hypopituitary test for female (FSH LH)

A

17 ß-estradiol

560
Q

Hypopituitary test GH

A

Arginine stimulation test

561
Q

Pituitary adenoma

A

Benign, epithelial cell
Micro - <10 , secretory, hormone overproduction
Macro - >10 , non secretory, mass lesions

562
Q

Incidence of pituitary adenoma

A

Prolactin - m/c
Nonsecretory/null
GH,ACTH,LH/FSH
TSH - rare

563
Q

Pit adenoma path

A

Single clone
MEN-1, CNC, GNAS1 mut
Chromosomal instability
Aneuploidy

564
Q

MEN-1

A

Pituitary
Parathyroid
Pancreas

565
Q

Bitemporal hemianopsia

A

Nasal fibers pushed by pit tumor

566
Q

Mild hyperprolactinemia

A

Maybe pit macroadenoma bc loss of dopamine inhibition bc infundibular stalk disrupted by tumor

567
Q

Acromegaly labs

A

High GH in blood from inferior petrosal sinuses

568
Q

Acromegaly associated w

A

Colonic polyps

Preneoplastic adenomatous polyps

569
Q

GH direct action

A

Insulin resistance - causes HTN and hyperglycemia, DM

Lipolysis

570
Q

GH indirect

A

IGF1 secretion

Growth
Protein synth
Cell proliferation

571
Q

Headache in Acromegaly

A

Stretching of dura matter

572
Q

Acromegaly Dx

A

Elevated serum IGF-1, GH 2 hours after 75 g oral glucose

573
Q

Prolactinoma Dx

A

Serum PRL >200

Mild elevation could be infundibular stalk compression

Hypogonadism: low GnRH, LH, FSH, Sex steroids

574
Q

Primary polydipsia

A

Psychiatric pt
like diabetes insipidus
Overdrinking in absence of genuine thirst

575
Q

Central diabetes insipidus

A

Craniopharyngioma
Pit macroadenoma
Meningioma

Vascular
Sheehans
Aneurysm

Sarcoidosis
Histiocytosis

576
Q

Nephrogenic DI - congenital

A

Defect in V2 receptor in principal cell of distal nephron, x linked recessive (most)

Aquaporin 2 channel defect, autosomal dom or rec

577
Q

Acquired nephrogenic DI

A

Hypokalemia
Hypercalcemia

Lithium
Demeclocycline

All reversible!

578
Q

Urine in DI

A

Always hypotonic

Unlike osmotic diuresis or medullary washout by diuretics

579
Q

Plasma ADH in DI

A

Central - low

Nephro - high

580
Q

Water deprivation then vasopressin inj

A

Central - urine osmolarity inc

Nephro - no

581
Q

SIADH

A

opposite of central DI

Primary polydypsia - like central DI, but low plasma osmolarity

582
Q

Graves Dx

A

Detection of TSH receptor stimulating antibodies

583
Q

Congenital hypothyroidism

A

Thyroid peroxidase def

584
Q

Hashimoto’s antibodies

A

Thyroid peroxidase antibody - TPO Ab

Thyroglobulin antibody - Tg Ab

585
Q

Grave’s antibodies

A

TSH stimulating (TSH-R stim Ab)

586
Q

Maternal serum of newborn w congenital hypothyroidism

A

TSH blocking (TSH-R block Ab)

587
Q

Polyglandular failure syndrome

A

More than one endocrine gland being destroyed by autoimmunity

588
Q

Myxedema

A

Hypothyroidism

589
Q

Goiter vs thyroid nodule

A

Goiter - high TSH and diffuse

Nodule - benign or malignant neoplasm, focal

590
Q

Toxic multinodular goiter

In hyperthyroidism

A

Autonomous hyperfunction

591
Q

Follicular adenoma

In hyperthyroidism

A

Autonomous hyperfunction

592
Q

Pituitary adenoma

In hyperthyroidism

A

TSH hyper secretions

593
Q

Hypothalamic disease

In hyperthyroidism

A

Excess TRH production

594
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

In hyperthyroidism

A

Transient release of stored hormone

595
Q

Ingestion of excess exogenous thyroid hormone

A

Thyrotoxicosis medicamentosa

Thyrotoxicosis factitia

596
Q

Cardio in hyperthyroidism

A
High CO
Inc pulse pressure
Tachycardia
A fib
High output heart failure
597
Q

thyroid hormone and growth hormone

A

TH allows GH to exert its action

TH important in growing kids

598
Q

Graves path

A
defect in suppressor T cells
helper T's stimulate B's
antibodies against TSH in follicular cells
thyroid stimulated by LATS
familial
599
Q

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism ONLY IN GRAVES

A

eye complaints - proptosis

Swelling of legs - pretibial myxedema

600
Q

Graves hypersensitivity

A

Type II hypersensitivity

601
Q

orbital soft tissue in graves

A

inc sympathetic tone

infiltration of lymphocytes, mucopolysaccharides, edema

602
Q

diplopia in graves

A

fibrosis of extraocular muscles

603
Q

circulating autoantibodies in graves attack

A

thyroid and orbital fibroblasts

604
Q

dermopathy in graves

A

late manifestation

605
Q

pretibial myxedema

A

hyperthyroidism
graves
antibodies to fibroblasts in skin

606
Q

Graves Dx

A

low TSH
high fT4
TSH - R (stim) antibodies pos

ophthalmopathy and/or dermopathy

607
Q

Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis

A

de Quervain thyroiditis
viral etiology
self limited
young girl

608
Q

de Quervain thyroiditis path

A

triphasic

1) acute - tender enlarged gland 3-6 wk
2) hypothyroid phase - 2-4 mo
3) recovery 4-6 mo

609
Q

follicular adenoma of thyroid

A

benign

fibrous capsule

610
Q

radionuclide scanning of thyroid

A

cancer is a cold nodule

611
Q

most aggresive thyroid neoplasm

A

anaplastic carcinoma

612
Q

mets to lymph nodes of neck

A

thyroid papillary carcinoma

psammoma bodies

613
Q

bloodstream to bone or lung

A

thyroid follicular carcinoma

614
Q

medullary carcinoma of thyroid

A

C cells (parafollicular)
calcitonin
MEN2

615
Q

hypophyseal arteries are branches of

A

internal carotid

616
Q

cells of anterior pituitary

A

acidophil: somatotropes, lactotropes
basophil: corticotropes, thyrotropes, gonadotropes
chromophobes - nonsecretory, undifferentiated

617
Q

GH increases bone mass by

A

endochondral formation

618
Q

linear bone growth by GH

A

IGF-1
differentiating prechondrocytes
inc epiphyseal plate growth

619
Q

GH effects on adipose tissue

A

stimulates HSL

inhibits LPL

620
Q

GH direct

A

lipolysis
IGF-1
insulin resistance

621
Q

endogenous GH in obese person

A

cleared rapidly

622
Q

obesity causes

A

suppresses IGF-1 binding protein from liver
high free plasma IGF-1
inhibition of pit GH release
promotes more fat

623
Q

V2 receptor mechanism for ADH

A

cAMP

624
Q

V1 receptor mechanism for ADH

A

IP3

625
Q

SIADH

A

small cell carcinoma of lung, ectopic ADH

626
Q

pulmonary cause of SIADH

A

TB
COPD
(impaired baroreceptor input from thorax)

627
Q

Drug induced SIADH

A

carbamazepine
chlorpropamide
narcotics
phenothiazine

628
Q

SIADH CNS effects

A

central pontine myelinolysis

629
Q

SIADH clinical

A

euvolemia (bc ANP)

hyponatremia (<136)

630
Q

cerebral salt washing (CSW) vs SIADH

A

extracellular volume inc in SIADH

dec in CSW

631
Q

active thyroid histo

A

scanty colloid

reabsorption lacunae

632
Q

graves histo

A

packed follicles

scalloping

633
Q

hashimotos histo

A

scattered follicles
eosinophilic hurthle cells
lymphocytes and germinal centers
fibrosis

634
Q

T3 and T4 in serum

A

bound to thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)

Albumin and Transthyretin (30%)

635
Q

interacts w intranuclear receptors more

A

T3

636
Q

5′-deiodinase

A

converts T4 to T3 in target cells

637
Q

5-deiodinase

A

converts T4 to rT3

638
Q

congenital hypothyroidism

A

sporadic - PAX-8, TTF-2 (transcription factors) mut
hereditary - inborn
transient - transplacental TSH-R block Ab from mom

639
Q

Thyroid hormones CNS effects

A

mental retardation in kids - irreversible

decreased hearing, “hung up” relaxation phase of reflexes in adults, slow thinking etc - reversible

640
Q

hypothyroidism cardiac

A

mucopolysaccharide deposition

pericardial effusion w HIGH PROTEIN

641
Q

hypothyroid skin

A

carotene makes u yellow, mistake for jaundice

642
Q

hyperprolactinemia

A

hypothyroidism (thyroid hormone normally inhibits prolactin secretion)
high TRH stimulates prolactin release

643
Q

thyroid has permissive action on

A

GH

644
Q

low T3 reduces

A

GH secretion

645
Q

ECG in hypothyroidism

A

low voltage

inc circulation time

646
Q

TRH administration in secondary hypothyroidism

A

corrected - hypothalamic

not corrected - pituitary

647
Q

antithyroid meds

A

propylthiouracil
methimazole

both inhibit thyroid peroxidase

648
Q

elevated CK in

A

hypothyroidism

649
Q

Wolff-Chaikoff block

A

large amount of iodide -> blocks iodide organification in graves -> hypothyroidism

650
Q

lithium

A

concentrated in thyroid, inhibits hormone secretion -> hypothyroidism

651
Q

hashimoto’s goiter

A

nontender

652
Q

hashimoto’s hypersensitivity

A

type IV

653
Q

hashimoto’s genetics

A

HLA-DR5

654
Q

hashimoto’s labs

A

Antithyroglobulin antibody Tg Ab - early stage

Antithyroid peroxidase Antibody TPO Ab - many years

655
Q

parathyroid glands

A

superior: 4th pharyngeal pouches
inferior: 3rd pharyngeal pouches (also gives rise to thymus)
blood supply to all: inferior thyroid arteries

656
Q

parathyroid histo

A

chief cells/clear cells

657
Q

Type 1 PTH receptors

A

bone and kidney (PTH and PTHrP)
cAMP
Type 2: only PTH, no Ca homeostasis

658
Q

PTH effect on bone

A

receptor on osteoblast, which then activates osteoclast

bone resorption

659
Q

PTH on kidney

A

Ca resorption in DCT
phosphate uric effect - PCT (Na,P cotransporter, Na in, P out)
1 alpha hydroxylase to get activated vit D

660
Q

Ca sensing receptors (CaSR)

A

in parathyroid and kidney (thick ascending loop of henle)

661
Q

Factitious Hypercalcemia

A

Hypergammaglobulinemia
inc Ca binding proteins
total Ca high, Ca2+ normal

662
Q

drugs that cause hypercalcemia

A

lithium

thiazides

663
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma secretes

A

PTHrP -> hypercalcemia

664
Q

clinical hypercalcemia

A
short QT
impaired concentration
peptic ulcer
pancreatitis
muscle weakness
665
Q

brown tumors

A

hyperparathyroidism, bone resorption, puched out lesions

666
Q

familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

A

autosomal dominant

faulty CaSR

667
Q

archibald sign

A

fist, if you can see dimples, shortened metacarpals

668
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

Albright’s hereditary osteodystrophy - AD, cafe au lait spots, short stature, obese, mental retardation, short 4 and 5 joints
defective PTH receptors of target organs
hypocalcemia

669
Q

hypocalcemia in Renal Failure

A

low GFR -> hyperphosphatemia -> Ca efflux from bone inhibited
low 1 alpha -> low vit D3 -> low Ca absorption

stimulates PTH -> secondary hyperparathyroidism

670
Q

basal ganglia calcifications

A

HYPOcalcemia

671
Q

PTH and phosphate both high

A

renal failure

pseudohypoparathyroidism

672
Q

always low in vit D def

A

25-hydroxy vitamin D

673
Q

hypomagnesemia can cause

A

hypocalcemia

674
Q

confirm pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

inject PTH, measure urinary cAMP and Phosphate

normal: both inc
positive: no rise in either one

675
Q

C-peptide catabolized only by

A

kidney

676
Q

insulin catabolized in

A

liver and kidney

677
Q

GLP and GIP

A

gut hormones/incretins

stimulate insulin release

678
Q

glucose sensor in beta cells

A

GLUT2 - beta cells, hepatocytes

679
Q

insulin responsive glucose transporter

A

GLUT4 - skeletal, cardiac, adipocyte

680
Q

insulin enzyme effects

A
inc phosphofructokinase
dec fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
dec hormone sensitive lipase
inc acetyl co A carboxylase
dec glycogen phosphorylase
dec glucose-6-phosphatase
681
Q

DM criteria

A

RBS 200 + classic symptoms
fasting venous 126
HbA1c 6.5%
OGTT 200 in 2 hr

same test 2 diff times or 2 diff tests at one time

682
Q

Type 1 DM antibodies

A
anti-GAD65
IAA
ICA
antityrosine phosphatase IA2 (ICA-512)
anti-ZnT8
683
Q

signaling activated by insulin

A

tyrosine kinase phosphorylates IRS 1,2 -> P13k -> insulin actions

684
Q

obesity and insulin

A

TNF-alpha, resistin, fatty acids
activate serine/threonine kinase
blocks IRS tyrosine phosphorylation

685
Q

acanthosis nigricans in insulin resistance

A

bc epidermal karatinocyte proliferation

NOT MELANOCYTES

686
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis

A

more common in type 1, in type 2 if stress
kussmaul breathing
hyperkalemia - bc k comes out of cells, but total k is low in body
inc HSL activity

687
Q

coma in DKA

A

hyperosmolarity and acidosis

688
Q

hyperosmolar coma

A

type 2 DM
dec fluid intake
worse hyperglycemia and dehydration than DKA
k loss less than DKA

689
Q

somogyi effect

A

hyperglycemia after overcorrection of hypoglycemia in DM due to insulin Tx

690
Q

B cells secrete

A

insulin, c-peptide, amylin

691
Q

F cells secrete

A

pancreatic polypeptide

692
Q

liver effects

A

both insulin and glucagon

glycogenesis and lipid synth inc insulin

693
Q

muscle protein catabolism

A

dec insulin

694
Q

adipose fatty acid esterification

A

inc insulin

695
Q

type 1 DM genetics

A

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ

696
Q

HTN in DM

A

type 1 - nephropathy

type 2 - metabolic syndrome (syndrome x)

697
Q

polyol pathway

A

inc aldose reductase

698
Q

advanced glycated end products (AGE)

A

angiopathy

699
Q

earliest clinical sign of diabetic retinopathy

A

microaneurysms

700
Q

proliferative retinopathy

A

initiated by ischemia
cotton wool spots/soft exudates
vitreous hemorrhage/retinal damage

701
Q

nonproliferative retinopathy

A

initiated by microaneurysms

hard exudates

702
Q

prevent progression of diabetic nephropathy

A

control HTN

703
Q

autonomic neuropathy

A

sexual dysfunction
neurogenic bladder
anhidrosis

704
Q

hypoglycemia Dx

A

whipple’s triad: symptoms, low gluc, better w food

705
Q

sulfonylurea

A

hypoglycemia

706
Q

zellballen

A

nests of cells in pheochromocytoma

707
Q

sipple syndrome

A

MEN type 2a

708
Q

pheochromocytoma screening

A

1) urine vanillylmandelic acid, metanephrine, normetanephrine
2) plasma metanephrine and normetanephrine (more sens and spec)

709
Q

locating extraadrenal pheochromocytoma

A

radionuclide test - uptake of radioactive amine by chromaffin cells

710
Q

MEN 1

A

Wermer’s
parathyroid
pituitary
pancreatic

711
Q

MEN 2a

A

medullary carcinoma of thyroid
parathyroid
pheochromocytoma

712
Q

MEN 2b/3

A

medullary carcinoma of thyroid
neuromas of oral/intestinal mucosa
pheochromocytoma

713
Q

osteomalacia and rickets labs

A

low Ca and P

high ALP and PTH

714
Q

phases of paget

A

lytic, mixed lytic and blastic, sclerotic

715
Q

paget histo

A

mosaic pattern

716
Q

paget clinical

A

inc hat size
hearing loss
high CO failure

717
Q

paget labs

A
high BSAP (bone specific alkaline phosphatase)
high urine hydroxyproline
718
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

autosomal recessive

719
Q

21 hydroxylase def

A
elevated 17-OH progesterone
virilization/ambiguous genitals in girls
hypotension
salt washing
hyponatremia
hyperkalemia
720
Q

11 hydroxylase def

A

elevated 11-deoxycortisol
virilization/ambiguous genitals in girls
HTN
hypokalemic alkalosis

721
Q

ACTH affects which zones of adrenal gland

A

inner 2 (fasciculata and reticularis)

722
Q

primary adrenal insufficiency

A

hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis

hyperpigmentation

723
Q

cushings disease

A

pituitary tumor that secretes high ACTH

724
Q

high dose dexamethasone suppression test

A

to identify where ACTH secretion is coming from? pituitary or ectopic?

725
Q

primary hyperaldosteronism

A

HTN
hypokalemia
high renin
low aldosterone

726
Q

Conn syndrome

A

hyperaldosteronism
metabolic alkalosis
solitary, unilateral

727
Q

idiopathic hyperaldosteronism

A

bilateral

728
Q

hyperaldosteronism Dx

A

PAC/PRA >20 gold standard - primary, if less, secondary
low plasma renin
high plasma aldosterone

729
Q

bilateral adrenal vein catheterization

A

to determine if conn’s or bilateral

730
Q

SCID genetics

A

cytokine - IL2RG, JAK3, IL7Ra
migration - ADA
antigen receptor: RAG1, RAG2, ARTEMIS

731
Q

x linked SCID

A
IL2RG mut
gamma subunit problem
IL 2,4,7,9,15,21 dont work
T-NK-B+ (no antibodies produced tho)
only boys
732
Q

SCID bc JAK3

A

AR
T-NK-B+ like x linked but more rare
boys and girls

733
Q

ADA def SCID

A

adenosine deaminase def (involved in purine metabolism)
toxic levels of nucleotide metabolites - high in thymus and bone marrow
T-NK-B-
Tx - PEG-ADA, stem cell, gene therapy

734
Q

ADA def SCID path

A

high d-adenosine activatese caspase 9
low ribonucleotide reductase activity
block DNA synth

735
Q

IL7RA def SCID

A

T-NK+B+

IL7 alpha chain defect

736
Q

di george

A
22q11 deletion (TBX1 gene)
10p13 less common
3, 4 pharyngeal pouches not formed
hypocalcemic seizures bc no parathyroid
CHD7 mut -> charge association
infant of diabetic mother
737
Q

complete di george

A

low excision circles (TREC - marker of maturation/thymic development)

738
Q

bruton’s x linked agammaglobulinemia

A

BTK Xq21.22
drives maturation signals - stops after heavy chain rearrangement
symptomatic at 6 mo when don’t have moms ig

739
Q

common variable immunodeficiency

A

heterogenous for ppl w symptoms
autoimmunity - develop RA!!!
lymphoproliferation, immunodef
inc risk of lymphoma and gastric cancer

740
Q

LRBA def - CVID

A

dec CTLA4 in T cell endocytic vesicles
competes w CD28 for CD80/86 to downregulate costimulation
Tx - abatacept - a CTLA4 Ig-fusion protein, chloroquine - prevents degradation of CTLA4 by inhibiting lysosomes

741
Q

IgA def

A

usually asymptomatic
<5, normal is 130-250
can get autoimmune
naïve B cells don’t become IgA plasma cells

fatal anaphylaxis to transfused blood bc IgA in blood looks foreign to body

742
Q

Chediak Higashi

A
AR
CHS1/LYST mut
microtubule dysfunction
defective formation of melanin granules
albinism, visual defects
bone marrow transplant corrects immunologic but not neurologic probs
743
Q

chronic granulomatous

A
phagocytes cant make H202 to counter microbial catalase
 recurrent catalase pos infx
acne
gingivitis
granulomas
nasal inflammation
massive lymphadenopathy
744
Q

cat pos infx in chronic granulomatous disease

A
staph aureus
burkholderia cepacia
serratia marcescens
aspergillus
nocardia
745
Q

chronic granulomatous path

A

defect in NADPH oxidase complex

746
Q

respiratory burst

A

identify chronic granulomatous
no change - pos
green - normal, neg

747
Q

CGD Tx

A
trimethoprim sulfa
itraconazole
IFN-gamma
3 yrs old - x linked
8 yrs old - AR
more ability to produse ROS, live longer
748
Q

leukocyte adhesion def

A

leukocytes and monocytes
Type 1 - ß-2 integrin CD18 mut
delayed separation of umbilical cord, peridontal disease,

749
Q

hypersensitivities

A

1) anaphylactic, allergy, asthma
2) Ab (killer cell w Fc, complement)
3) immune complex (serum sickness, SLE)
4) delayed or cell mediated - TB, contact dermatitis, cellular transplant rejection, also know it peaks 48-96 hr

750
Q

idiopathic membranous glomerulopathy

A

autoantibodies to phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R1)

some have THSD7A - only 5% have autoantibodies to this

751
Q

Th1 and Th17

A

Th1 - macrophages

Th17 - neutrophils, monocytes

752
Q

nitroblue tetrazolium assay

A

insoluble blue formazan crystals in phagocytes that can oxidize

753
Q

hyper IgM

A
defect in Ig class switching
only have IgM

x linked - CD40L (CD154), NEMO
AR - CD40, activation induced cytidine deaminase (AID), uracyl DNA glycosylase (UNG)

754
Q

to opsonize bacteria you need

A

IgG

755
Q

stem cell transplant for HIGM

A

busulfan, cyclophosphamide, ATG

756
Q

hyper IgE (Job syndrome)

A

chronic skin infx - “cold”

bone defects, late shedding of baby teeth

757
Q

HIES path

A

defect in Th17
dont respond to IFN-gamma, IL 6, 10,12,23
AD: STAT3
AR: Tyk2, DOCK8

758
Q

LAD Type 1 Tx

A

neutrophil infusions
IL 12/23 therapy
GVHD chemo for stem cell transplants
ustekinumab

759
Q

LAD Type 2

A

rare
mental retardation, short
absence of E-selectin ligands (sialyl Lewis X, or CD15s)
Tx fucose if defective fucose synth

760
Q

Wiskott Aldrich

A
x linked recessive
WAS gene mut
T cell depletion in periphery
low igM, high igA and igE
no response to sugar or protein Ag
thrombocytopenia
eczma
vasculitis
761
Q

Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

AR
ATM mut (imp for fixing ds DNA breaks, make cell cycle go)
purkinje in cerebellum degenerate
low Ig, low T cell function

762
Q

C3 def

A

Fc receptor dependent leukocyte activation is impaired

763
Q

C5-9 def

A

neisseria

764
Q

C1 inhibitor def

A

hereditary angioedema
AD
high bradykinin
C1R,C1S,XII,kallikrein targeted by C1 inh

765
Q

defect in C’ reg

A

glycophosphatidyl inositol linkages needed for CD55 and 59

766
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A
PIGA mut (needed for GPI linkages)
excessive C' activation -> hemolysis
767
Q

HIV infx of non-T cells

A

lungs and brain
dendritic - carry to LN
polyclonal B cell activation

768
Q

vpr gene

A

allow HIV replication in non-dividing cells

769
Q

malignancy immunosuppresion

A

TGF-ß, T regs, myeloid derived suppressor cells
indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO)

toxic products of Trp breakdown inactivate effector T cells and make DC immunosuppressive

770
Q

sarcoidosis

A

non caseating granulomas

anergy due to expansion of Tregs

771
Q

TB

A

lower lobes
ghon foci - walled off calcified caseated granuloma
ghon complex - LN involvement
treat for 6 mo

772
Q

PPD

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

if pos - 9 mo INH

773
Q

interferon gamma release assay

A

Quantiferon-TB Gold
BCG doesnt affect it
measure IFN-gamma released by T lymphocytes

774
Q

reactivation TB

A

upper lobes

775
Q

scrofula

A

TB affecting LN of neck

776
Q

TB meningitis

A

looks like bacterial meningitis EXCEPT:

LYMPHOCYTES instead of pmn

777
Q

Thrush/candida

A

oral - red bleeding base, <400 CD4
esophageal - <100 , HIV
KOH - pseudohyphae, budding yeast
germ tube - true hyphae at 37

778
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV
cant scrape off
tobacco
lateral tongue

779
Q

kaposi sarcoma

A

HHV 8

purple nodules

780
Q

pneumocystic jirovecci

A
CD4 100-200
fungal/yeast
ground glass
hypoxia more than CXray shows
silver stain of lung - cysts/sporozoites
TMP-SMX in <200 CD4 prophylaxis
781
Q

histoplasmosis

A
soil fungus
CD4 100-200
inhale spores, bird bat droppings
tongue ulcer, hepatosplenomegaly
ohio river valley
lung granulomas
Dx from lungs - OVAL yeast in macrophages at 37, 
branching hyphae at 25 - sabouraud agar
782
Q

coccidiomycosis

A
valley fever
CD4 100-200
soil fungus, larger than RBC
earthquake
erythema nodosum
deser rheumatism
thick walled spherules containing endospores
hyphae at 25
southwest - AZ,NM,CA
783
Q

cryptococcus neoformans

A
encapsulated fungus
meningitis in AIDS, but signs may be absent
soap bubble lesions in brain
fatal
pigeon droppings
CD4 50-100
mucicarmine stain
narrow based budding and large capsule
culture on sabouraud agar
784
Q

cryptosporidiosis

A
CD4 50-100
protozoan parasite
severe diarrhea in AIDS
mucous stools
acid fast oocytes in stool
contaminated water
785
Q

CMV

A
HHV5
CD4 50-100
mono - like for immunocompetent
for compromised - chorioretinitis - cotton wool, esophagitis, colitis, hepatitis
transplant pts
owl eyes inclusion bodies
786
Q

MAC

A
CD4 <50
azithro prophylaxis
intracellular
acid fast, non branching bacilli
fatal
787
Q

Hegar’s sign

A

pregnancy

softening of isthmus

788
Q

chadwick’s sign

A

pregnancy

blue cervix

789
Q

naegle’s rule

A

estimate due date

LMP - 3 mo + 7 days

790
Q

normal fetal heart rate

A

120-160 BPM

791
Q

pregnant mom weight gain, food

A

normal is about 25 lb

300 kcal more food for baby

792
Q

leopold’s maneuver

A

head or is the baby breach

793
Q

urine tests during pregnancy

A

ketones - dehydration
proteins - pre eclampsia
leukocyte esterase - UTI

794
Q

20 weeks pregnant

A

uterus palpable at umbilicus

btw umbilicus and symphysis at 16 weeks

795
Q

drugs to terminate pregnancy

A

mifepristone/RU486 - antiprogestin

misoprostol - prostaglandin E analog

796
Q

small stable ectopic pregnancy

A

methotrexate

797
Q

placentia previa

A

placenta overlies cervix
painless bleeding
needs a c section

798
Q

hypoglycemic drugs for pregnant diabetics

A

metformin
glyburide
insulin

799
Q

pre eclampsia

A

HTN 140/90
edema
proteinuria 300g/day

too much thromboxane, too little prostacyclin

800
Q

HELLP

A

hemolysis
elevated liver enzymes
low platelets

liver can rupture
symptom of preeclampsia

801
Q

abruptio placenta

A

placenta prematurely separates
risks - HTN, cocaine
medullary vessels of desidua basalis rupture

802
Q

pre eclampsia Tx

A

hydralazine, labetalol, nifedipine for BP
MgSO4 for seizures
deliver baby immediately

baby aspirin for prevention

803
Q

eclampsia

A

new onset tonic clonic seizure
headache
hyperreflexia
photophobia, blurry vision

give valium, give MgSO4 for seizure, lower BP, deliver baby

804
Q

HLA gene location

A

chr 6

805
Q

acute humoral rejection

A

type 2/3 hypersensitivity

deposition of inactive C4d

806
Q

acute cellular rejection

A

liver - venous endothelium
lung - arterioles
heart - myocytes

therapy: pulse steroids, anti T cell Ab (OKT-3)

807
Q

post transplant therapy

A

cyclosporine
prednisone
azathioprine

808
Q

chronic allograft rejection

A

linked to all hypersensitivities

kidney vasculature
liver - vanishing bile ducts
lung - bronchioles
heart - vasculature

thickening intimal vasculature

809
Q

obliterative bronchiolitis

A

chronic rejection

810
Q

chronic GVHD Tx after HSCT

A

ibrutinib - anti BTK mAb

811
Q

acute GVHD

A

apoptosis

812
Q

alpha subunit of which hormones is the same

A

TSH
LH
FSH
HCG

813
Q

when does implantation happen

A

6th day post fertilization

814
Q

ectopic pregnancy rupture

A

6-8 wk: isthmus

8-12 wk: ampulla

815
Q

hCG discriminatory zone

A

above this level u should see gestational sack

816
Q

progesterone

A

<5 - abnormal pregnancy

>20 - normal pregnancy

817
Q

complete mole

A

empty ovum + haploid sperm that duplicates or 2 sperm
46XX (or 46XY - less common)
46YY - LETHAL, not seen
high risk or choriocarcinoma

818
Q

partial mole

A

normal ovum + 2 haploid sperm
69XXY
69XXX
69XYY

819
Q

P57, PHLDA2 immunostaining

A

partial mole - pos

complete mole - neg

820
Q

c-erbB-2, c-myc, c-fms, mdm-2 oncogenes

A

more aggressive mole

821
Q

EGFR

A

highly expressed in complete mole and choriocarcinoma

822
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

high EGFR
downreg of p53, p21, Rb tumor suppressor genes

malignant trophoblastic cells from normal or abnormal pregnancy or mole, anaplasmic tissue made of cyto and syncitiotrophoblast

no villi! vs molar pregnancy which has villi

823
Q

paternal vs maternal genes

A

paternal - placental

maternal - fetus

824
Q

preeclamspsia before 20 weeks

A

mole

825
Q

H mole complications

A

pulmonary embolism

high output congestive heart failure

826
Q

blood in myometrium from abruptio placenta

A

uterine tetany

fibrinogen correlates w severity of bleeding

827
Q

placentia previa

A

placenta covering inner cervical os, bc placenta grows toward areas that are well vascularized

828
Q

bleeding pain or no pain

A

pain - abruptio

no pain - previa

829
Q

abortion timeline

A

occurs before 20 weeks

830
Q

prostatic carcinoma mets

A

check iliac LN

831
Q

testicular tumor or ovarian

A

check para-aortic nodes

832
Q

leydig cells

A

synth testosterone
last step: androstenedione to testosterone via
17 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

833
Q

cholesterol desmolase in leydig cells

A

stimulated by LH

cholesterol to pregnenolone

834
Q

17 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

A

only present in leydig cells

835
Q

testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in target cells

A

5alpha reductase

836
Q

testosterone to estrogen

A

in bone and brain

by aromatase

837
Q

sertoli cells

A

spermatogenesis and inhibin

838
Q

inhibin feedback

A

only on FSH

839
Q

testosterone feedback

A

only on LH

840
Q

seminiferous tube failure

A

high FSH, low sperm count

841
Q

absent seminal fructose

A

vas deferens or seminal vesicle problem

842
Q

secondary hypogonadism

A

low testosterone, LH, FSH

hypothalamic or pituitary failure

843
Q

primary ciliary diskynesia

A

abnormal sperm motility

844
Q

everything normal but no conception

A

acrosomal enzyme defect

845
Q

meds that inhibit testosterone synth

A

ketoconazole
spironolactone
alcohol

846
Q

autoimmune male infertility

A

disruption of blood testes barrier
anti-sperm antibodies
trauma, torsion, mumps/orchitis etc

847
Q

chlamydia

A

decreases sperm motility and viability

848
Q

bladder cancer

A

painless hematuria

849
Q

prostatitis

A

mostly gram neg aerobes - usually e coli

in young: gonorrhea or chlamydia

850
Q

kallman’s syndrome

A

GnRH def
anosmia
eunuchoid appearance
KAL1,2 mut - migration of GnRH neurons during embryogenesis - don’t migrate to ventral hypothalamus from olfactory placode

851
Q

Turner syndrome

A

elevation of Gonadotropins (FSH and LH) by 12 yr bc low estrogen
if y chr present, high risk for germ cell cancer

852
Q

mayer rokitansky kuster hauser

A

mullerian dysgenesis
no uterus or upper 1/3 vagina
type 1: no uterus or vagina
type 2: other defects - renal, cardiac etc

853
Q

androgen insensitivity syndrome

A
AR gene mut
x linked recessive
anti mullerian hormone
no internal genitalia at all
risk of gonadoblastoma bc temp
paramesonephric part of vagina is absent
854
Q

DHT vs Testeosterone

A

DHT - external male genitalia

Testosterone - internal male genitalia

855
Q

5 alpha reductase deficiency

A

AR in genetic males, voice deepens etc bc surge in testosterone in puberty
SRD5A1 - chr 5 - male pattern hair
SRD5A2 - chr 2p23 - no external genitalia

856
Q

CAH

A

17a - hydroxyprogesterone accumulation -> androstenedione and testosterone

zona reticularis hyperplasia

hyponatremia
hypoglycemia
hyperkalemia

advanced skeletal maturation

857
Q

urinary dehydroepiandrosterone

A

DHEA
<2x -> CAH
>2x -> adrenal tumor

858
Q

GnRH pulses

A

impaired in anorexia

originate in mediobasal hypothalamus, arcuate nucleus

859
Q

PCOS path

A

SHBG dec steroid hormone binding globulin
IGFBP-1 dec insulin growth factor binding protein 1

free testosterone and estradiol inc -> follicular atresia, hirsutism

high insulin and IGAF -> theca cells -> more androgens

LH inc
FSH dec

endometrial carcinoma

860
Q

AMH in women tells you

A

ovarian follicle reserve

861
Q

DUB

A

prolonged anovulation

anovulatory DUB - too much estrogen
ovulatory DUB - too much progesterone

862
Q

amenorrhea alternating w prolonged bleeding

A

obese women, high estrogen, ovulatory DUB

863
Q

ovary chocolate cyst

A

endometriosis

864
Q

young syndrome

A

sinusitis
bronchiectasis
obstructive azoospermia

865
Q

toxic to sperm

A

cyclophosphamide
chlorambucil
nitrogen mustard

alkylating agents

866
Q

genetic male infertility

A

deletion of Yq - long arm

AZFa,b,c - c most common (azoospermia factor regions) del

867
Q

xx males

A

SRY translocation to x

sertoli cell only syndrome (SCOS)

868
Q

klinefelter

A

47XXY

869
Q

kallman

A

Kal1 - x linked

kal 2 - autosomal

870
Q

kartagener

A

autosomal recessive
defective dynein arms

situs inversus
chronic sinusitis
primary ciliary dyskinesia

871
Q

turner

A

low testosterone and inhibin
high LH FSH and estradiol
degenerated leydig cells

tall stature

872
Q

cryptorchidism

A

intratubular germ cell neoplasia - early, immunostain for placental alkaline phosphatase to detect
seminoma

873
Q

varicocele

A

pampiniform plexus - venous drainage of testes

874
Q

alcohol and erectile dysfunction

A

low LH, leydig cell damage

cirrhosis - estrogen

875
Q

innervation of penis

A

parasymp: cavernous S2-4 - autonomic -> helicine arteries dilate
dorsal nerve: pudendal S2-4 - somatic -> contraction of ischiocavernosus muscles

876
Q

erection chemicals

A

NO -> sequesters Ca in cytoplasm -> muscles relax

Ach

877
Q

PDE5

A

removes cGMP during erection to stop erection

sildenafil/viagra -> inhibit PDE5 -> dec Ca

878
Q

cavernous never

A

branch of pelvic splanchnic (which innervates bladder etc)

879
Q

pretesticular, testicular, post

A

pre: kallman, steroids
test: klinefelter, kartagener
post: androgen receptor insensitivity, CF, erectile dysfunction

880
Q

nonseminoma

A

grow and spread fast

881
Q

seminoma

A

sensitive to radiation
distinct cell borders
clear
glycogen rich cytoplasm

882
Q

Yolk sack tumor

A

AFP

schiller duval body - central vessel surrounded by tumor

883
Q

hCG

A

choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma

leads to hyperthyroidism bc cross reactivity of hCG w TSH

884
Q

choriocarcinoma of testis

A
extensive mets
trophoblastic
sheets of small cuboidal cells
large eosinophilic syncitial cells
pleomorphic nuclei
blood tinged sputum, cough
unilateral gynecomastia
hepatomegaly
supraclavicular lymph nodes palpable
ß-hCG elevated
CANNON BALL masses in lung
885
Q

Teratoma

A

benign - prepuberty
mature - fully differentiated tissues
immature - small hyperchromatic, undifferentiated mesenchymal, little cytoplasm (blastema)

886
Q

embryonal carcinoma

A

hemorrhage and necrosis
primitive cells
indistinct cell borders

887
Q

leydig cell tumor

A
precocious puberty
adults - asymptomatic
high testosterone and estradiol
golden brown tumor
Reinke crytals on histo
888
Q

Sertoli cell tumor

A

calcifications in lumen, next to normal tubules w advanced spermatogenesis

889
Q

BPH

A

transition zone and central zone
tall columnar cells and flattened basal cells
corpora amylacea

890
Q

BPH path

A

bc of DHT and androstanolone

age related inc estrogen -> inc DHT receptors

891
Q

prostate cancer

A

african american
peripheral
single cell layer glands - basal layer absent
osteoblastic mets - radiodense

892
Q

why prostate cancer doesnt infiltrate rectum?

A

denonvillier’s fascia / rectoprostatic fascia

893
Q

PSA levels

A

normal - less than 4
above 20 - highly elevated: adenocarcinoma of prostate
PSA density more than 0.15 - cancer
PSA velocity of 0.75 per year - cancer

894
Q

prostatic acid phosphatase - PAP

A

prognostic, not diagnostic

895
Q

gleason score

A

cells got by needly biopsy
1- well diff, 5- poor diff

add 2 most common patterns
6 or more = adenocarcinoma

896
Q

prostate cancer and bone

A

cancer cells secrete bone paracrines -> inc osteoblastic activity

osteoblasts -> growth factors -> more cancer

897
Q

trichomoniasis

A

yellow-green frothy, mucopurulent
WBC>10
whiff test pos
strawberry cervix - colpitis macularis

898
Q

chancre

A

primary syph

painless

899
Q

chancroid

A
haemophilus ducreyi
painful
multiple lesions
ragged edges, purulent base, bleeds
"school of fish"
900
Q

condyloma acuminata

A

HPV

901
Q

condyloma lata

A

secondary syph

large raised grey lesion on warm mucous

902
Q

chronic granulomas

A

tertiary syph

903
Q

jarisch herxheimer rxn

A

Abx given for primary syph -> endotoxins released by dead syph -> resembles sepsis

904
Q

lues maligna

A

ulcertations
secondary syph
HIV, immunocompromised

905
Q

secondary syph

A

systemic
alopecia - moth eaten - reversible
uveitis
hepatitis

906
Q

tertiary syph

A

cardio - dilated aorta, regurg

gummatous - HIV pt

907
Q

argyll robertson pupil

A

neurosyph

908
Q

non treponemal tests NTT

A

reactivity of serum w cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin Ag
VDRL - pos weeks after infx, rapid plasma regain (RPR), Toluidine Red Unheated Serum Test (TRUST)

screening
monitor response to therapy

909
Q

NTT false pos

A

collagen vascular disorders
yaws
malaria
leprosy

910
Q

treponemal antibody tests TAT

A
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption FTA-ABS
micro hemagglutination assay MHA-TP
t pallidum particle agglutination TP-PA
enzyme immunoassays TP-EIA
chemiluminescence immunoassays CIA
911
Q

chlamydia tropism

A

columnar and transitional epithelium
A-C - trachoma
D-K urethritis, PID, conjunctivitis, reactive arthritis
L1-3 lymphogranuloma venereum

912
Q

fitz hugh curtis syndrome

A

perihepatitis - chlamydia and gonnhorea

913
Q

gonorrhea evading immune system

A

IgA 1 protease
blocking antibodies to reduction modifiable protein Rmp
antigenic/phase variation of Opa, Pil, and LOS
sialylation of LOS masks gonococcal antigen, prevents phagocytosis

914
Q

giant cells on Tzanck smear w eosinophilic inclusions (Cowdry A)

A

herpes

915
Q

HPV path

A

microscopic breaks in skin
integrates genes into nuc of replicating basal epithelial cells
6 E - gene regulation, cell transformation
2 L - virus shell
long control region/ upstream regulatory region

malignant - E6 and E7
E7 binds Rb (E2F/pRb)
E6 binds p53

G1 to S dysregulation (Rb issues)

916
Q

pain from testes

A

sympathetic afferents T10 - L2

917
Q

non infx epididymitis

A

amiodarone

cordarone

918
Q

acute epididymitis

A

pos phren sign

919
Q

scrotal lymphatics

A

inguinal nodes

920
Q

nerves of scrotum

A

genital branch of genitofemoral nerve

ilioinguinal nerve

921
Q

blue domed cysts of breast

A

fibrocystic - not malignant

922
Q

intraductal papilloma

A

blood from nipple

lactiferous ducts

923
Q

paget’s

A

DCIS into lactiferous ducts
eczematous rash
intraepithelial adenocarcinoma
noninvasive

924
Q

invasive lobular carcinoma

A

bilateral
multiple lesions
dec E cadherin
linear fashion-bulls eye, indian file

925
Q

medullary carcinoma of breast

A

bulky soft tumor, large cells
lymphoid infiltrate
BRCA
ER PR neg, poor prognosis

926
Q

menopause

A

E1 predominant, E2 goes down

FSH drastically increase 20x, LH 3x

927
Q

hot flashes

A

IL1,7
obese protected
less estrogen induced opioid activity on hypothalamus

928
Q

estrogen def

A
osteoclasts -> IL1,6, TNF-a, PGE2
inc IL7 -> T cell activation
T cells -> IFN-gamma, TNFa
IFN-gamma -> MHC II
MHC II -> T cells secrete RANKL
929
Q

RANK

A

receptor on osteoclasts

930
Q

osteoprotegerin OPG

A

inhibitor of RANKL

suppresses bone resorption

931
Q

bone density T , Z

A

T - same sex and age

Z - sex age race height weight

932
Q

osteopenia, porosis, severe porosis

A

penia - 1-2.5
porosis - 2.5
severe - 2.5 and fractures

933
Q

leiyomyomam

A

MED12 gene mut

934
Q

tamoxifen in post menopausal

A

type 1 endometrial CA (too much estrogen)

935
Q

nulliparity and breast CA risk for

A

type 2 endometrial CA (endometrial atrophy)

936
Q

overexpression of p53
ki-67
EGFR
HER2/neu

A

type 2 endometrial CA

937
Q

PTEN

KRAS

A

type 1 endometrial carcinoma

938
Q

area of squamous metaplasia

A

transformation zone of cervix

939
Q

Dysgerminoma

A

LDH

940
Q

non gestational choriocarcinoma

A

resistant to treatment

941
Q

Meig’s syndrome

A

fibroma/thecoma +ascites, pleural effusion

942
Q

granulosa theca cell tumor

A

inhibin marker
produce estrogen
endometrial cancer association
call-exner bodies, nests of cancer cells