sheep, goats, and cattle II Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

Other names for Bacillus anthracis

A

”Woolsorter’s disease”, “splenic fever”, “charbon”, “milzbrand”

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2
Q

C/S of anthrax

A

hyperthermia, anorexia, depression, listlessness, tremors, peracute deaths and hemorrhage
Bloody secretions in urine, feces, milk
Usually fatal within 1-3 days, esp in sheep and goats, but subacute/chronic state may occur

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3
Q

C/S of brucellosis in sheep

A

B. melitensis in ewes: usually self-limiting; 3rd trimester abortions
B. melitensis in rams: orchitis or pneumonia
B. ovis in sheep: epididymitis, testicular atrophy; rarely, abortion

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4
Q

C/S of brucellosis in goats

A

B. melitensis: 3rd trimester abortions; systemic disease can occur
B. abortus: rare, but can be transmitted if in close contact with cattle

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5
Q

C/S of brucellosis in cattle

A

B. abortus: abortions with retained placenta after the 5th month; orchitis, epididymitis; lameness may occur

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6
Q

Why are ruminants particularly susceptible to brucellosis

A

Higher levels of erythritol (sugar alcohol), esp in placenta and male genitalia

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7
Q

Which brucella spp are zoonotic?

A

B. abortus and B. melitensis (not B ovis)

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8
Q

Most important cause of ovine abortion in the US

A

Campylobacter

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9
Q

Dx of campy

A

Gull wing rods

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10
Q

C/S of Clostridium perfringens

A

Diarrhea

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11
Q

C. perfringens releases what type of toxin

A

Epsilon toxin

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12
Q

What are pathognomonic in acute cases of C. perfringens type D?

A

Hyperglycemia and glucosuria

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13
Q

Pathogenesis of C. perfringens

A

epsilon toxin causes neuronal death and shock through vascular damage and increasing gut permeability

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14
Q

Lesions of C. perfringens

A

subendocardial hemorrhage, pericardial effusion, plus extremely necrotic, soft kidneys (not always); goats tend to have more GI lesions rather than systemic (like sheep)

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15
Q

Pathogenesis of tetanus

A

exotoxin is a multiunit protein consisting of tetanospasmin (neurotoxic) and tetanolysin (hemolytic)
Toxin diffuses retrograde through motor neurons; inhibits release of glycine and GABA (blocks inhibitory neurons)

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16
Q

Which two organisms cause foot rot

A

Dichelobacter nodosus, Fusobacterium necrophorum

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17
Q

3 forms of Listeria in ruminants

A
  1. Encephalitis – most common form in ruminants
    Can affect cranial nerves
    Rapid death often occurs
  2. Placentitis with abortion – usually results in late-gestation abortion; adult female may be asymptomatic
  3. Septicemia with hepatitis and pneumonia – may occur in neonatal lambs
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18
Q

Lesions in Listeriosis

A

microabscesses of midbrain are characteristic with encephalitic form
Septicemic form: microabscesses throughout viscera

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19
Q

Which Mycobacterium spp do sheep, goats, and cattle get?

A

Cattle TB: M. bovis
Sheep TB: M. bovis or M. avium
Goat TB: M. bovis, M. avium, or M. tuberculosis

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20
Q

c/s of mycobacteriosis

A

primary sites of infection are respiratory (M. bovis) or GI (M. avium) systems; weight loss is common

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21
Q

Q fever c/s

A

usually asymptomatic in ruminants; abortion, stillbirth, endometritis, mastitis, infertility and weak lambs can occur

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22
Q

Transmission of Q fever

A

very stable in the environment; free-living or arthropod cycle; especially concentrated in placental tissues; shed in milk, urine, feces, and oronasal secretions
Multiple spp of ticks are reservoirs

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23
Q

Zoonotic transmission of Q fever

A

Most common mode of transmission in humans is inhalation of infectious aerosols directly from birth fluids of infected animals or via inhalation of dust contaminated with dried birth fluids or excreta
Greatest concern in pregnant and immune-compromised humans
A single organism can cause disease

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24
Q

What kind of virus is Jaagsiekte (pulmonary adenomatosis)

A

RNA retrovirus

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25
Lesions found in Jaagsiekte
small adenomas/adenocarcinomas throughout the lungs
26
Pathogenesis of Jaagsiekte
histologic changes caused by uncontrolled proliferation of type II pneumonocytes
27
Another name for Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP), what kind of virus
RNA retrovirus. Maedi Visna
28
Lesions and c/s of Maedi Visna
pulmonary adhesions, ventral lung consolidation; mastitis; degenerative arthritis; meningeal edema, leukoencephalomalacia weak, unthrifty, weight loss, dyspnea, tachypnea, pneumonia; ataxia, tremors, paresis; mastitis common
29
Most important viral dz of goats
CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus)
30
What kind of virus is CAEV
retrovirus
31
C/S of CAE
Most commonly: progressive arthritis in goats > 6 months old- swollen, painful carpal joints; pneumonia may occur in older animals; “hard udder” syndrome Also causes neuro signs in kids 2-6 months old: unilateral weakness progressing to hemi- or tetraplegia (lower motor neuron disease); head tilt, blindness
32
Lesions of CAE
severe synovial hyperplasia with inflammatory cell infiltration; demyelination and inflammation in brain/spinal cord; lungs gray and do not collapse
33
What kind of virus causes Pseudorabies
Suid herpesvirus-1
34
C/S pseudorabies
: rapid course, usually fatal Intense pruritis, alopecia, swelling, abrasions Neurological signs: stamping, head-pressing, circling, CP deficits, nystagmus, strabismus, progresses to coma and death
35
Is pseudorabies reportable?
Yes
36
What virus causes Orf?
Poxvirus
37
Orf is most commonly seen where?
Commissures of mouth
38
How to prevent BSE
Don't feed ruminant protein to ruminants
39
Which breed of sheep is esp susceptible to scrapie?
Suffolk
40
BSE c/s
hyperesthesia, nervousness, difficulty negotiating obstacles, reluctance to be milked, ataxia, and tremors, weight loss, decreased milk production; terminal state by 3 months after onset
41
Which animals most affected by Crypto
Young calves
42
Most important intestinal parasite of small ruminants
Haemonchus
43
C/S of Haemonchus infection
anemia, weight loss, decreased milk production, poor wool growth, “bottle jaw” due to hypoproteinemia
44
When does shedding of Haemonchus increase?
During parturition (spring rise)
45
PPP for esophagostomum
6 weeks
46
c/s of esophagostomum infection
Penetrate large intestinal mucosa, occasionally deeper areas near serosa Inflammation results in caseous nodules that eventually mineralize
47
3 types of lungworms
Dictyocaulus, Protostrongylus, Muellerius
48
Which lungworm has a direct life cycle?
Dictyocaulus
49
Which lungworm has an indirect life cycle?
Protostrongylus, Muellarius (require snail intermediate host)
50
Which is the only lungworm in cattle?
Dictyocaulus
51
Which cestode has triangular eggs
Monensia
52
Fringed tapeworm
Thysanoma actinoides
53
Which louse is intermediate host of Thysanoma?
Psocid louse
54
Cysticercosis occurs due to larval form of which worm?
Dog tapeworm (taenia hydatigena and echinococcus granulosis)
55
Intermediate host of trematodes
Snails
56
Which mites are reportable? (3)
Sarcoptes, Psoroptes, Psorergates
57
Which 2 lice can affect ruminants?
Mallophagia, Anaplura
58
2 ticks seen in ruminants
Ixodidae (hard shell), Argasidae (soft shell)
59
Nasal bots are caused by which organism
Oestrus ovis
60
Screwworm g/s
Cochliomyia hominivorax
61
Sheep ked g/s
Melophagus ovinus
62
B-mannosidosis of goats manifests how?
Carpal flexion and pastern hyperextension; deafness with many musculoskeletal deformities
63
What is spider leg syndrome, and in which sheep breeds do you see it?
Hereditary chondrodysplasia, primarily in Suffolk and Hampshires
64
Which side is abomasum most commonly displaced?
L
65
What is frothy bloat caused by?
ingestion of green legumes and leguminous hay or grain
66
What does copper deficiency in pregnant ewes cause?
Enzootic ataxia
67
What copper toxicity cause?
Acute hemolytic anemia
68
What does thiamin deficiency cuase?
Polioencephalomalacia