Sheet1-表格 1 Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
(T/F) The outer membrane for G+ and the cell membrane for G- act as major surface antigens
A
FALSE: they DO act a major surface antigens BUT the outer mb for G- and the cell membrane for G+
2
Q
Are endotoxins heat stable?
A
yes, stable at 100C for 1 hr.
3
Q
Are endotoxins secreted from cells?
A
NO
4
Q
Are endotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?
A
no, they don’t produce protective immune response
5
Q
Are exotoxins heat stable?
A
no, destroyed rapidly at 60C (exception: Staphylococcal enterotoxin)
6
Q
Are exotoxins secreted from cells?
A
YES
7
Q
Are exotoxins used as antigens in vaccines?
A
Yes, TOXOIDS are used as vaccines
8
Q
Describe the chemical composition of peptidoglycan.
A
Sugar backbone with crosslinked peptide side chains.
9
Q
Describe the major components of a G- cell wall.
A
- inner and outer lipid bilayer membranes
- thin layer of peptidoglycan
- periplasmic space
- contains lipopolysaccharide, lipoprotein and phospholipid
10
Q
Describe the major components of a G+ cell wall.
A
- one lipid bilayer membrane
- thick layer of peptidoglycan
- contains teichoic acid
11
Q
Describe the process of conjugation.
A
DNA transfer from one bacterium to another.
12
Q
Describe the process of transduction.
A
DNA transfer by a virus from one cell to another
13
Q
Describe the process of transformation.
A
purified DNA is taken up by a cell
14
Q
Does endotoxin induce an antigenic response?
A
no, not well
15
Q
Does exotoxin induce an antigenic response?
A
Yes, induces high-titer antibodies called antitoxins
16
Q
Give two general functions of peptidoglycan
A
- Gives rigid support
- Protects against osmotic pressure
17
Q
How are Group A and Group B Strep primarily differentiated?
A
- Group A are Bacitracin sensitive
- Group B are Bacitracin resistant
18
Q
How are the pathogenic Neisseria species
differentiated?
A
on the basis of sugar fermentation
19
Q
How are the species of Streptococcus primarily differentiated?
A
on the basis of their HEMOLYTIC capabilities
20
Q
List the four phases of the bacterial growth curve.
A
- Lag phase
- log (exponential) phase
- stationary phase
- death phase
21
Q
Name 2 G- rods that are considered slow lactose fermenters.
A
Citrobacter and Serratia
22
Q
Name 3 G- rods that are considered fast lactose fermenters.
A
1) Klebsiella
2) E. coli
3) Enterobacter
23
Q
Name 3 G- rods which are lactose nonfermenters and Oxidase(-)?
A
Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus
24
Q
Name 4 bacteria that use IgA protease to colonize mucosal surfaces.
A
1) Strep. pneumoniae
2) Neisseria meningitidis
3) Neisseria gonorrhea
4) H. flu
25
Name 4 genus of bacteria that are G- 'coccoid' rods.
1) H. flu
2) Pasteruella
3) Brucella
4) Bordetella pertussis
26
Name 6 bacteria that don't Gram's stain well?
- Treponema
- Rickettsia
- Mycobacteria
- Mycoplasma
- Legionella pneumophila
- Chlamydia
27
Name 4 genus of bacteria that are G+ rods.
1) Clostridium (an anaerobe)
2) Coynebacterium
3) Listeria
4) Bacillus
28
Name 7 G+ bacteria species that make exotoxins.
1) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
2) Clostridium tetani
3) Clostridium botulinum
4) Clostridium perfringens
5) Bacillus anthracis
6) Staph. aureus
7) Strep. Pyogenes
29
Name 3 diseases caused by exotoxins.
- Tetanus
- botulism
- diptheria
30
Name 3 G- bacteria species that make exotoxins.
1) E. coli
2) Vibrio cholerae
3) Bordetella pertussis
31
Name 3 Lactose－fermenting enterics.
Eschericia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter
32
Name 2 diseases caused by endotoxins.
- Meningococcemia
| - sepsis by G(-) rods
33
Name 2 type of Strep that exhibit alpha hemolysis?
- S. pneumoniae
| - Viridans strep. (e.g. S. mutans)
34
Name 2 types of Strep. that are non-hemolytic (gamma hemolysis).
- Enterococcus (E. faecalis)
| - Peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)
35
Name 2 types of Strep. that exhibit beta hemolysis.
- Group A Strep. (GAS)
| - Group B Strep. (GBS)
36
Teichoic acid induces what 2 cytokines?
TNF and IL-1
37
What are the effects of erythrogenic toxin?
it is a superantigen
| => causes rash of Scarlet fever
38
What are the effects of streptolysin O?
- it is a hemolysin
| - it is the antigen for ASO-antibody found in rheumatic fever
39
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bacillus anthracis? (1)
one toxin in the toxin complex is an adenylate
| cyclase
40
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Bordetella pertussis? (3)
- Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation
- causes whooping cough
- inhibits chemokine receptor, causing lymphocytosis
41
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium botulinum?
- blocks release of acetylcholine: causes
anticholenergic symptoms,
- CNS paralysis; can cause 'floppy baby'
42
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium perfringens?
alpha toxin is a lecithinase - causes gas gangrene - get a double zone of hemolysis on
blood agar
43
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Clostridium tetani?
blocks release of the inhibitory NT glycine; causes 'lockjaw'
44
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Corynebacterium diphtheria?
(3)
1) inactivates EF-2 by ADP ribosylation
2) pharyngitis
3) 'pseudomembrane' in throat
45
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by E. coli? (2)
this heat labile toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein - causes watery diarrhea
46
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Staph. aureus?
superantigen; induces IL-1 and IL-2 synthesis in Toxic Shock Syndrome; also causes food poisoning
47
What are the effects of the exotoxin secreted by Vibro cholerae? (3)
- Stimulates adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of G protein
- increases pumping of Cl and H2O into gut
- causes voluminous rice-water diarrhea
48
What are the general clinical effects of endotoxin?(2)
fever, shock
49
What are 3 primary/general effects of endotoxin (especially lipid A)?
1) Acivates macrophages
2) Activates complement (alt. pathway)
3) Activates Hageman factor
50
What are 2 exotoxins secreted by Strep. pyogenes?
Erythrogenic toxin and streptolysin O
51
What are 2 functions of the pilus/fimbrae?
- Mediate adherence of bacteria to the cell surface
| - sex pilus forms attachment b/t 2 bacteria during conjugation
52
What are 2 species of Gram (-) cocci and how are they differentiated?
1) Neisseria memingitidis:maltose fermenter
| 2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae: maltose NONfementer
53
What bacteria produces a blue-green pigment?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
54
What bacteria produces a red pigment?
Serratia marcescens ('maraschino cherries are red')
55
What bacteria produces a yellow pigment?
Staph. aureus (Aureus= gold in Latin)
56
What culture requirements do Fungi have?
Sabouraud's agar
57
What culture requirements do Lactose-fermenting enterics have?
MacConkey's agar (make pink colonies)
58
What culture requirements does B. pertussis have?
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
59
What culture requirements does C. diphtheriae have?
Tellurite agar
60
What culture requirements does H. flu have?
chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)
61
have a little rest~baby~~
I miss u ~~
62
What culture requirements does Legionella pneumophia have?
Charcol yeast extract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
63
What culture requirements does N. gonorrhea have?
Thayer-Martin (VCN) media
64
What G- rod is a lactose nonfermenter and is Oxidase + ?
Pseudomonas
65
What is a function of the plasma membrane in bacterial cells.
site of oxidative and transport enzymes
66
What is a toxoid?
exotoxin treated with formaldehyde (or acid or
| heat); retains antigenicity but loses toxicity
67
What is an acronym for remembering 6 bacteria that don't Gram's stain well?
TRMMLC: These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color
68
What is meant by alpha, beta, and gamma hemolysis?
On a Blood agar plate:
- alpha= complete; clear
- beta= partial; green
- gamma= no hemolysis; red
69
What is the chemical composition of a glycocalix?
polysaccharide
70
What is the chemical composition of bacterial
| ribosomes?
RNA and protein in 30S and 50S subunits
71
What is the chemical composition of endotoxin?
Lipopolysaccharide
72
What is the chemical composition of exotoxin?
polypeptide
73
What is the chemical composition of spores?
keratin-like coat - dipicolinic acid
74
What is the function and chemical composition of the flagellum?
for motility - made of protein
75
What is the function of a glycocalix?
mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (i.e. catheters)
76
What is the function of spores?
provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and
| chemicals
77
What is the major chemical composition of the capsule?
Polysaccharide (*except Bacillus anthracis, which contains D-Glutamate)
78
What is the major function of the capsule?
antiphagocytic
79
What is the mode of action of endotoxin?
includes TNF and IL-1
80
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in conjugation?
Chromosomal or plasmid
81
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transduction?
Any gene in generalized transduction; only certain genes in specialized transduction
82
What is the nature of the DNA transferred in transformation?
Any DNA
83
What is the periplasma? Where is it found?
the space between the inner and outer cell membranes found in G(-) bacteria.
84
What is the primary test to subcatergorize G- rods?
are they Lactose Fermenters?
85
What is the source of endotoxins?
cell wall of most G- bacteria (think N-dotoxin=gram Negative)
86
What is the source of exotoxins?
certain species of some G+ and G- bacteria
87
What is the unique chemical component of Gram (-) cell membranes?
Lipopolysaccharide
88
What is the unique chemical component of Gram + cell membranes?
Teichoic acid
89
What is used to stain Legionella?
Silver stain.
90
What species is Group A Strep?
S. pyogenes
91
What species is Group B Strep?
S. agalactiae
92
What stain is amyloid and gives an apple-green birefringence in polarized light?
Congo red
93
What stain is used for acid fast bacteria?
Ziehl-Neelsen
94
What stain is used for Borrelia, Plasmodium,
| trypanosomes, and Chlamydia?
Giemsa's
95
What stain is used for Cryptococcus neoformans?
India ink
96
What stains gylcogen, mucopolysaccharides and is used to diagnose Whipple's disease?
PAS (periodic acid Schiff)
97
What test distinguishes Staph. and Strep?
- Staph. are Catalase (+) and are in clusters
| - Strep. are Catalase (-) and are in chains
98
What test distinguishes Staph. aureus from Staph. epidermidis and Staph. saprophyticus?
- S. aureus is Coagulase (+)
| - S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus are Coagulase (-)
99
What two things distinguish S. pneumoniae from Viridans Strep.?
- S. pneumoniae: have Capsule; Optochin Sensitive
| - Viridans strep: No capsule; Optochin Resistant
100
What type of enzymes allows certain bacteria to colonize mucosal surfaces?
IgA proteases
101
When endotoxin activates complement, what are the secondary effects?
C3a: hypotension, edema
C5a: neutrophil chemotaxis
102
When endotoxin activates Hageman, what are the secondary effects?
coagulation cascade: DIC
103
When endotoxin activates macrophages, what 3 cytokines are released and what are the secondary effects?
- IL-1--fever
- TNF--fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis
- Nitric oxide--hypotension, shock
104
Where are the genes for endotoxin located?
on the bacterial chromosome
105
Where are the genes for exotoxin located?
on a plasmid or in a bacteriophage
106
Where are the spores of Clostridium botulinum found?
canned food - honey
107
Where is LPS found?
in the outer membrane of G (-) cell walls
108
Which has a higher toxicity: exotoxin or endotoxin?
EXOTOXIN: fatal dose is ~1ug!
| for endotoxin, fatal dose is hundreds of micrograms
109
Which type of Neisseria ferment Glucose only?
Gonococci (Glucose= Gonococci)
110
Which type of Neisseria ferment maltose and glucose?
Meningococci (MaltoseGlucose= MeninGococci)
111
Which types of transfer can eukaryotic cells do?
only transformation
112
Which types of transfer can prokaryotic cells do?
all 3: conjugation, transduction, and
| transformation
113
Why don't Mycobacteria Gram's stain well?
high lipid content cell wall requires acid-fast stain
114
Why don't Mycoplasma Gram's stain well?
no cell wall
115
love love love~~~
baby bear~~
116
Why don't Rickettsia, Chlamydia, and Legionella Gram's stain well?
They are intracellular (Legionella is Mainly
| intracellular)
117
Why don't Treponema Gram's stain well?
too thin to be visualized (use darkfield microscopy and antibody staining)
118
Name 5 species of bacteria that are transmitted to humans from animals.
(Acronym: BBugs From Your Pet.)
- Borrelia burgdorferi
- Brucella spp.
- Francisella tularensis
- Yersinia pestis
- Pasteurella multocida
119
All Rickettsiae (except one genus) are transmitted by what type of vector?
arthropod (Coxiella is atypical: transmitted by
| aeresol)
120
Are G(-) bugs resistant to Pen G? to ampicillin? to vancomycin?
G- bugs are resistant to PenG but may be susceptible to pen. derivative like ampicillin.
The G- outer mb inhibits entry of PenG and
vancomycin.
121
Are Strep. pneumoniae sensitve to optochin? Are Viridans strep.?
- Strep. pneumoniae is optochin-Sensitive
| - Viridans streptococci is optochin-Resistant
122
Are Strep. pyogenes Bacitracin-sensitive?
YES. both are catalase +
123
Are Viridans strep. alpha, beta, or non-hemolytic?
alpha
124
Because of drug resistance, what in an alternate treatment combination for leprosy?
rifampin with dapsone and clofazimine
125
Besides the rash, what other body systems are affected by Lyme disease? (3)
- joints
- CNS
- heart
126
Describe lab-findings for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
- Aerobic,
- G(-) rod.
- Non-lactose fermenting
- Oxidase positive
- Produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment)
127
Describe the disease associated with M. aviumintracellulare.
often resistant to multiple drugs; causes disseminated disease in AIDS.
128
Describe the H. flu vaccine. When is it given?
contains type b capsulare polysaccharide conjugated to diphtheria toxoid or other
protein.
- Given b/t 2m and 18m.
129
Describe the typical findings with diarrhea caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli. (3)
1) Ferments lactose
2) watery diarrhea
3) no fever/leukocytosis
130
Describe the typical findings with Vibro cholerae. (3)
1) Comma-shaped organisms
2) rice-water stools
3) no fever/leukocytosis
131
Do Streptococcus pneumonia have catalase? Do Viridans Strep. have catalase?
YES. both are catalase +
132
Enterococci are harder than non-enterococcal group D bacteria. What lab conditions
can they grow in?
6.5% NaCl (used as lab test)
133
Following primary infection with TB, if pre-allergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination occurs, what follows?
- dormant tubercle bacilli form in several organs
| - REACTIVATION can occur in adult life
134
Following primary infection with TB, if severe bacteremia occurs, what follows?
Miliary tuberculosis and possibly death
135
Following primary infection with TB, if the lesion heals by fibrosis, what is the result?
Immunity and hypersensitivity -> tuberculin positive
136
Following primary infection with TB, under what conditions would the lesion likely progress to lung disease?
HIV, malnutrition. This progressive lung disease can rarely lead to death.
137
Following primary infection with TB, what are 4 possible courses the disease could take?
1) Heals by fibrosis
2) Progressive lung disease
3) Severe bacteremia
4) Preallergic lymphatic or hematogenous dissemination
138
Give 3 examples of obligate anaerobes.
- Clostridium
- Bacteroides
- Actinomyces
139
Give 3 types of infection Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly responsible for.
1) burn wound infection
2) nosocomial pneumonia
3) pneumonia with cystic fibrosis
140
Give 4 examples of encapsulated bacteria.
1) Strep. pneumoniae
2) Haemophilus Influenza (especially b)
3) Neisseria memingitidis
4) Klebsiella pneumoniae
141
H. Flu causes what? (4)
- Epiglottitis
- Meningitis
- Otitis media
- Pneumonia (haEMOPhilus)
142
How are Borrelia visualized?
using aniline dyes (Wright's or Giemsa stain) in light microscopy
143
How are Mycobacteria visualized in the lab?
acid-fast stain =Ziehl-Neelson
144
How are Treponema visualized?
by dark-field microscopy
145
How can secondary tuberculosis in the lung occur?(2)
1) Reinfection of partially immune hypersensitized hosts (usu. adults)
=> exogenous source
2) Reactivation of dormant tubercle bacilli in immunocompromised or debilitated hosts
=> endogenous source
146
How can you remember that Viridans strep are resistant to optochin?
they live in the mouth and are not afraid of the (opto-)CHIN
147
How does primary syphilis present?
with a painless chancre (localized disease; 2-10 wks).
148
How does secondary syphilis present?
```
disseminated disease (1-3m later) with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular
rash, condylomata lata (genital lesions)
```
149
How does tertiary syphilis present?
gummas (granulomas), aortitis, neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis), Argyll-Robertson pupil
150
How does the bacterium cause the disease?
via exotoxin encoded by beta-prophage; exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis via ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
151
How does the rash with typhus differ from the rash with RMSF?
- typhus: maculopapillary rash BEGINS ON TRUNCK, moves peripherally
- RMSF: maculaes progressing to petichiae BEGIN ON HANDS & FEET and move inward.
152
How is Brucellosis/Undulant fever transmitted?
dairy products, contact with animals
153
How is Cellulitis transmitted?
Animal bite; cats, dogs
154
How is H. flu transmitted?
aerosol
155
How is Legionnaires' disease diagnosed in lab?
- use silver stain (doesn't Gram stain well)
| - culture with charcoal yeast extract with iron and cysteine.
156
How is Legionnaires' disease transmitted?
aeresol transmission from envirnomental water source habitat (NO human-to-human transmission).
157
How is Lyme disease transmitted?
Tick bite; Ixodes ticks that live of deer and mice
158
How is Shigella spread?
food, fingers, feces, and flies
159
How is the Plague transmitted?
Flea bite; rodents, especially prairie dogs
160
How is Tuleremia transmitted?
Tick bite; rabbits, deer
161
Is Bacillus anthracis G+ or G-? What is its morphology?
It is a G+, spore-forming rod
162
Is there an animal reservoir for leprosy?
Yes, armadillos in the US
163
List 5 findings associated with rheumatic fever. (Hint: PECCS)
- Polyarthritis
- Erythema marginatum
- Chorea
- Carditis
- Subcutaneous nodules
164
List the 'ABCDEFG' of diphtheria.
- ADP ribosylation
- Betaprophage
- Corynebacterium
- Diphtheria
- Elongation
- Factor 2
- Granules
165
Name 2 alpha-hemolytic bacteria.
- Strep. pneumoniae
| - Viridans streptococci
166
Name 2 bugs that cause diarrhea but NOT fever and leukocytosis?
E. coli and Vibro cholerae
167
Name 2 disease processes that can be caused by enterococci
1) UTI
| 2) subacute endocarditis
168
Name 2 species of enterococci.
- Enterococcus faecalis
| - Enterococcus faecium
169
Name 2 symptoms of diphtheria.
- pseudomembraneous pharyngitis (grayish white membrane)
| - lymphadenopathy
170
Name 3 spore forming bacteria.
- Bacillus anthracis
- Clostridium perfringens
- C. tetani
171
Name 4 beta-hemolytic bacteria.
1) Staph. aureus
2) Strep. pyogenes (GAS)
3) Strep. agalactiae (GBS)
4) Listeria monocytogenes
172
Name 4 lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria.
- Klebsiella
- E. coli
- Enterobacter Citrobacter (think Lactose is KEE for first 3 listed)
173
Name 4 obligate aerobic bacteria.
- Norcardia
- Pserudomonas aeruginosa
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Bacillus
174
Name 5 bugs that cause watery diarrhea.
1) Vibrio cholerae
2) enterotoxigenic E. coli
3) viruses (rotavirus)
4) protozoa (Cryptosporidium
5) Giardia
175
Name 6 bugs that cause bloody diarrhea.
1) Salmonella
2) Shigella
3) Campylobacter jejuni
4) enterohemorrhagic/enteroinvasive E.coli
5) Yersinia enterocilitica
6) Entamoeba histolytica (a protozoan)
176
Name 7 faculatative intracellular bacteria.
1) Mycobacterium
2) Brucella
3) Francisella
4) Listeria
5) Yersinia
6) Legionella
7) Salmonella
177
Name 3 genera of spirochetes.
- Borrelia (big size)
- Leptospira
- Treponema (think: BLT; B is big)
178
Name 2 lab tests used to detect syphilis?
VDRL and FTA-ABS
179
Name 2 non-lactose fermenting bacteria that invade intestinal mucosa and can cause bloody diarrhea.
Salmonella and Shigella
180
Name 2 obligate intracellular bacteria.
Rickettsia and Chlamydia (Hint: 'stay inside when its Really Cold.')
181
RMSF is endemic to what part of the US?
the East Coast (in spite of the name)
182
Spore are formed by certain species of what type of bacteria?
Gram+ rods, usually in soil; form spores only when nutrients are limited
183
T/F Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites that cause mucosal infections.
TRUE
184
T/F Chlamys means cloak.
TRUE (intracellular)
185
T/F Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase negative and are glucose fermenters.
TRUE
186
T/F H. pylori infection is a risk factor for peptic ulcer and gastric carcinoma.
TRUE
187
T/F Penicillin is not an effective treatment against Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
TRUE Mycoplama are naturally resistant b/c they have no cell wall.
188
T/F Pseudomonas produces both endotoxin and exotoxin.
TRUE:
- endotoxin -> fever, shock
- exotoxin -> inactivates EF-2
189
T/F Rickettsiae are obligate intracellular parasites and need CoA and NAD.
TRUE
190
T/F Some enterococci are resistant to PenG.
FALSE: ALL enterococci are naturally resistant to Pen/cephlosporins.
191
T/F Spores have no metabolic activity.
TRUE
192
T/F: S. aureus food poisoning is due to the ingestion of bacteria that rapidly secrete toxin once they enter the GI tract.
FALSE: rapid onset of S. aureus food poisoning is due to injestion of PREFORMED
toxin
193
hug hug~!
mua~~
194
The Weil-Felix reaction usually tests positive for what two diseases? Negative for what? Cross reacts with what?
- Positive: typhus and RMSF
| - Negative: Q fever -Crossreacts: with Proteus antigen
195
Think COFFEe for Enterobacteriaceae. What
| does that stand for?
- Capsular
- O-antigen
- Flagellar antigen
- Ferment glucose
- Enterobacteriaceae
196
What's a pneumonic for remembering 4 obligate aerobes?
- Nagging Pests Must Breath (=Norcardia - Pserudomonas aeruginosa
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Bacillus
197
What (6) infections can Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause?
- burn-wound infections
- Pneumonia (esp. in cystic fibrosis)
- Sepsis (black skin lesions)
- External Otitis (swimmer's ear)
- UTI
- hot tub folliculitis
198
What 2 bugs can cause bloody diarrhea, fever, and leukocytosis, but do not ferment lactose?
Salmonella and Shigella
199
What animals carry Lyme disease?
The Ixodes tick transmits it.
- Deer are required for tick life cycle.
- Mice are important resservoirs.
200
What anitbody class is necessary for an immune response to encapsulated bacteria?
IgG2.
