shit I dont know Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

how does hepcidin work?

A

blocks ferroportin iron absorption in the GI tract (enterocytes).
-Capacity of hepcidin to block iron absorption can be overwhelmed if you take in TOO much Fe or if it is bypassed by Fe infusion

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2
Q

is there renal exertion of iron?

A

no

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3
Q

What can cause the elastin-rich eye to turn yellow

A

elastin

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4
Q

common in anemia due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity of blood causing elevated heart rate

A

angina

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5
Q

approximately half-saturated with oxygen at 2 torr, reason oxygen can be stripped from hemoglobin and stored in muscles

A

myoglobin

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6
Q

only actively regulated pharmacokinetic process to control the amount of iron in the body

A

absorption

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7
Q

nanoparticle used to treat iron deficiency, can infuse faster than colloidal iron

A

FERUMOXYTOL

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8
Q

among the choices for IV administration of iron due to malabsorption or intolerance of oral forms, administration bypasses hepcidin regulation

A

iron dextran

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9
Q

this and sustained-release formulations drastically reduces the bioavailability of orally administered iron

A

enteric coating

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10
Q

oral iron pill

A

ferrous sulfate

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11
Q

has been one of the leading causes of death by toxicological agents in children < 6 years old

A

iron overdose

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12
Q

iron chelator administered as therapy for potentially lethal iron poisoning

A

deferoximine

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13
Q

use of this for analgesia during surgery can cause rapid onset of vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms

A

nitrous oxide

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14
Q

potential characteristic of neurological pathology due to vitamin B12 deficiency

A

irreversible

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15
Q

often expected within a few days after initiating appropriate therapy for microcytic or macrocytic anemia; increases in hematocrit and hemoglobin follow shortly thereafter

A

reticulocytosis

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16
Q

visible GI tract consequences of folate deficiency

A

mouth ulcers

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17
Q

potentially especially vulnerable to cognitive decline cause by vitamin B12 deficiency that has been masked by the consumption of folate fortified foods

A

elderly

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18
Q

folate deficiency may cause this, but is not associated with the neurological problems caused by vitamin B12 deficiency

A

depression

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19
Q

prevents formation of complement membrane attack complex, treat paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria caused by insufficient GPI-linked CD59 and CD55 on the RBC cell surface that otherwise protects from this type of attack

A

eculizumab

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20
Q

atypical form of this is an indication for eculizumab

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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21
Q

recombinant erythropoiesis-stimulating glycoprotein with a.a. sequence identical to erythropoietin; administered to treat anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease or chemotherapy to reduce the need for allogeneic RBC transfusions

A

epoeitin alfa

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22
Q

this use of filgrastim is considered warranted if calculated risk for getting neutropenic fever > 20% or if its use permits timely administration of potentially curative chemotherap

A

prophylaxis

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23
Q

a recombinant granulocyte-colony stimulating factor, it increases growth and proliferation of
neutrophil progenitor cells and also facilitates actions of mature neutrophils (e.g., phagocytosis, respiratory burst)

A

filgastrim

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24
Q

for sargramostim, this includes fluid retention, dyspnea due to sequestration of granulocytes in pulmonary circulation, fatal “gasping syndrome” in premature infants

A

adverse effects

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25
name means that polyethylene glycol was attached to filgrastim to prolong its half-life
pegfilgastrim
26
considered severe if absolute count of these cells is <500/microliter; low-grade fever, sore mouth, severe pain from swallowing, upper and lower airway inflammation and perianal pain and irritation are among its symptoms
neutropenia
27
recombinant GM-CSF, acts in the bone marrow to increase production of neutrophils, eosinophils and monocyte/macrophages (e.g., after a transplant)
sargamostrim
28
partial agonist at CXCR4 receptors important for homing of hematopoietic stem cells, an expensive orphan drug administered when G-CSF or GM-CSF alone cannot mobilize enough stem cells for autologous transplant (10)
plerixafor
29
life-threatening complication of chemotherapy; hypotension, COPD, dehydration and age >60 years are among the risk factors for underlying gram-negative (e.g. Pseudomonas), gram- positive (e.g., Staph. epidermidis) and/or fungal (e.g., Candid, Aspergillus) infections
neutropenic fever
30
adverse effect of filgrastim, sargramostim and erythropoietin, makes sense given site of their effects
bone pain
31
c-kit, has potent synergistic actions on early progenitor cells, but cannot be used since this stimulatory effect extends to mast cells and gives rise to severe allergic reactions
stem cell factor
32
indication (abbr.) for romiplostim or eltrombopag, after failure of first choice
ITP
33
a "peptibody" has 2 IgG constant regions linked by a peptide; has no homology to thrombopoietin but nevertheless stimulates the thrombopoietin receptor to promote platelet production
romiplostim
34
orally active non-peptide thrombopoietin agonist approved for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and the thrombocytopenia seen with hepatitis C
eltromobag
35
recombinant form of IL-11, early agent that increases platelet levels via unknown mechanism, no longer has a major clinical use
OPRELVEKIN
36
stimulates platelet production in vivo, but recombinant forms for treating thrombocytopenia were withdrawn from the market due to frequent autoantibody production leading to profound thrombocytopenia
thrombopoietin
37
type of anemia frequently caused by cephalosporins and some penicillins (e.g., piperacillin)
hemolytic anemia
38
.type of anemia caused by cancer chemotherapeutics, chloramphenicol and benzene
aplastic anemia
39
most common cause of drug-induced immune thrombocytopenia
heparin
40
antiarrhythmic drug, a classic cause of drug-induced non- immune thrombocytopenia
quinidine
41
50% water and 50% oil with an emulsifier, base that is usefulf or covering large and/or wet areas with a drug but preservatives, etc., can cause allergic reactions
creams
42
comprised of ~20% water and 80% oils, best for dry skin, stay on the surface of skin and are not well absorbed, permit more complete drug absorption and less likely to cause allergic reaction skin no preservatives
ointment
43
refers to substances in moisturizers that form an oily layer to trap water in the skin/treat dry skin; petrolatum, lanolin and mineral oil are among common examples
emollients
44
urea, alpha-hydroxyl acids and allantoin are among the agents found in moisturizers to soften this and give skin a smoother feeling
horny substance
45
refers to agents such as glycerin, lecithin and propylene glycol found in moisturizers to draw water into the outer layer of skin; note I erred and gave this definition for emollients in the narration for psoriasis
humectant
46
applied to skin to kill microbes
antiseptic
47
good wound coverings during the debridement phase of healing
hydro gels
48
among the wound coverings preferred during the granulation and epithelialization phases of wound healing
low adherence
49
peptide antibiotic with activity against gram-positive organisms and some anaerobes; only applied topically to limit systemic toxicity, often causes contact dermatitis
bacitracin
50
antibiotic that works similar to macrolides, kills anaerobes, useful for range of infections including topical treatment of acne and for osteomyelitis; associated with increased risk of C. difficile
clindamycin
51
peptide antibiotic with efficacy against gram-negative bacteria including pseudomonas, has a detergent-like effect that damages the bacterial cell membrane
polymyxin B
52
class of antifungal drugs with a wide range of activity, blocks ergosterol synthesis
imidazoles
53
prescription synthetic topical antimycotic agent with broad spectrum of activity
CICLOPIROX
54
imidazole antifungal drug applied topically for range of fungal infections, also noteworthy as a classic inhibitor of cytochrome P450
ketoconazole
55
organophosphate anticholinesterase insecticide, kills ectoparasites
malathione
56
late choice for treating ectoparasites, works by disrupting GABAergic transmission
lindane
57
synthetic insecticide similar to that of chrysanthemums, ectoparasite therapy that blocks membrane repolarizing
PERMETHRIN (blocks Na+ channel)
58
orally administered insecticide to treat ectoparasites, binds glutamate-activated Cl- channels to hyperpolarize the nerve and muscle cells
ivermectin
59
macrolide among the systemic therapies used to treat acne; not a cytochrome P450 inhibitor, unusual pharmacokinetics in that it is taken up in phagocytes and released by them at sites of infection
azithromycin
60
retinoid administered orally for treatment of severe acne, powerful teratogen that mandates participation by prescribers and users in the iPledge program
isotretoin
61
topical retinoid administered for the treatment of acne, alters gene expression to normalize keratinization, decrease keratinocyte cohesiveness and reduce microcomedone formation
tretinoin
62
administration for psoriasis and topical administration for anogenital pruritus
calcineurin
63
monoclonal antibody against IL-12 and IL-23, a biologic agent used to treat psoriasis
USTEKINUMAB
64
treatment for actinic keratoses derived from Euphorbia peplus sap, causes chemoablation with neutrophil-mediated antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity eliminating remaining tumor cells
ingenol mebuate
65
effective topical therapy for actinic keratoses, causes fast- proliferating dysplastic cells to die a thymidine-less death; necrosis/erosion gives way to re-epithelialization over several weeks (has number, no hyphen)
5-FU
66
topical immune response modifier used to treat actinic keratoses and basal or squamous cell carcinomas; also used to treat genital warts
IMIQUIMOD