Short Answer Flashcards

(120 cards)

1
Q

What three noninvasive technologies help understand sleep stages by measuring electrical potentials and changes in electrical activity

A

EEG (Electroencephalography)
EMG (Electromyography)
EOG (Electro-oculography)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two distinct classes of sleep stages

A

Non-rapid eye movement (NREM)
Rapid eye movement (REM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What three stages are in the NREM class of sleep stages

A

NREM1
NREM2
NREM3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does an individual experience during wakefulness (before NREM1)

A

Desynchronized patterns of electrical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three main types of encoding

A

Semantic encoding
Visual encoding
Acoustic encoding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What model is a framework for understanding an individual’s risk of mental disorders based on their genetic background and experiences

A

Diathesis-Stress Model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Individuals with low diathesis are _________ and ________likely to develop mental disorders

A

resilient; less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Individuals with high diathesis are _________ and ________likely to develop mental disorders

A

vulnerable; more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The ________ road and the ________ road are the two levels of fearful stimulus processing

A

low; high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which theory states that autonomic arousal precedes emotion

Example:
Normal: I am shaking because I am scared
This theory: I am scared because I am shaking

A

James-Lange Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which theory states that arousal and emotion happen at the same time and is supported by observations of sham rage in rats

Example:
Normal: I am shaking because I am scared
This theory: I am shaking and feeling afraid at the same time

A

Cannon-Bard Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which theory states that cognitive appraisal of a stimulus determines which emotion is experienced, whereas arousal levels determine the emotion’s intensity

Example:

A

Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, arousal that spills over from one event to the next, influencing responses is called the …

A

Spillover effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, what are the two ingredients of emotion

A

Cognitive appraisal
Physical arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(True or False) In Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory, emotional experiences DOES NOT require a conscious interpretation of arousal

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which theory states that when a stimulus is appraised, we experience an emotional response to that appraisal, and that emotion triggers physiological response

A

Lazarus’s Cognitive-Mediational Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(True or False) In Lazarus’s Cognitive Mediational Theory, the brain processes much information without conscious awareness and mental functioning DOES NOT take place

A

False
(Mental functioning does still take place)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(True or False) In Lazarus’s Cognitive Mediational Theory, emotions arise when an event is appraised as harmless or dangerous

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which emotion theory fits the example below

Stimulus: A barking dog
First Response (ANS system): changes in the body
Second Response: Conscious notes the experience as fear

A

James-Lange Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which emotion theory fits the example below

Stimulus: a barking dog
First response: Subcortical brain activity
Second response: Autonomic Nervous System arousal, changes in the body, and conscious recognizes the experience as fear

A

Cannon-Bard Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which emotion theory fits the example below

Stimulus: a barking dog
First response: Cognitive appraisal determines the emotion, Autonomic Nervous System arousal & bodily changes determines the degree/intensity of the emotion
Second response: Conscious recognizes the experience as fear

A

Schachter’s Cognitive Attribution Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The ______ road level of fearful stimulus processing provides ________ processing for an ________ emotional response

A

Low road; bottoms-up processing; immediate emotional response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The ______ road level of fearful stimulus processing provides _______ processing by integrating visual information with _______, ________, and _________

A

High road; top-down; memory, expectations, and context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In the high road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is perceived by the eyes and sent to the ________ then the primary visual cortex and the ______ cortex and then the _________

A

thalamus; prefrontal cortex; amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In the high road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is ______ relayed to the ________
indirectly; amygdala
26
In the low road level of fearful stimulus processing, visual information is relayed by the ________ directly to the ________ (eyes => thalamus => amygdala => peripheral nervous system)
thalamus; amygdala
27
Which level of fearful stimulus processing is used for the quickest possible response
Low road fearful stimulus processing
28
__________ are essential for short-term stress while ________ are essential for sustained, long-term periods of stress
Catecholamines; glucocorticoids
29
As an adult, minimal stressful circumstances leads to a ________ probability of developing mental disorder while excessive stressful circumstances and _______ to cope with them lead to a ______ probability of developing mental disorder
lower probability; inability to cope; higher probability
30
The Diathesis-Stress Model is similar to which theory
Reaction Range Theory of Intelligence
31
Which psychiatric disorder involves dissociative thinking, characterized by major disturbances in thought, perception, emotion, and behavior
Schizophrenia
32
What percent of people have schizophrenia
1%
33
What are the three types of schizophrenia symptoms
Positive symptoms Negative symptoms Cognitive symptoms
34
(Schizophrenia) Positive symptoms involve the _______ of abnormal thoughts and behaviors
presence
35
(Schizophrenia) Negative symptoms involve the _______ of normal thoughts and behaviors
absence
36
(Schizophrenia) _________ symptoms involve problems with processing and acting on external behaviors
Cognitive symptoms
37
What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following Delusions Hallucinations Disorganized thinking Disorganized motor behavior
Positive symptoms
38
What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following Flat Affect Avolition Alogia Asociability Anhedonia
Negative symptoms
39
What type of schizophrenia symptoms are characterized by the following Memory problems Poor attention span Difficulty making plans Poor social cognition Abnormal movement patterns
Cognitive symptoms
40
If both twins suffer from schizophrenia, they are _________ for the disease; however, if only one twin suffers from schizophrenia, they are _________
concordant; discordant
41
As the number of ______ shared with a schizophrenic individual ________, the concordance rate _________
genes shared; decreases; decreases
42
Malfunctions of the _________ gene are closely associated with schizophrenia
DISC-1 gene
43
A few genes have been identified as abnormal in some schizophrenics. Several of those genes are involved in ___________
Synapse rearrangement
44
Older fathers are ________ likely to have a child with schizophrenia
more likely
45
Family, twin, and adoptive studies show a __________ incidence of schizophrenia among biological relatives
higher incidence
46
(True or False) Schizophrenia is fully heritable
False (Schizophrenia is PARTLY heritable)
47
(True or False) A single gene causes and increases susceptibility to schizophrenia
False (No single gene causes or increases susceptibility to schizophrenia)
48
What is an epigenetic factor of schizophrenia
Paternal age
49
Anatomical hallmarks of Schizophrenia ________ lateral ventricles and ________ frontal cortex gray matter Smaller ______ and ________ _________ _________ of pyramidal cells in the hippocampus Altered ________ and _______ of the corpus callosum Reduced _________ activity in the _______ lobes
enlarged; reduced hippocampus; amygdala Disorganized arrangement structure; function metabolic activity; frontal lobes
50
The hypofrontality hypothesis states that schizophrenia may be caused by ....
Underactivation of the frontal lobes
51
________ generation antipsychotics block dopamine receptors in the __________ through the use of __________ antagonists
First generation; mesolimbic pathway; dopamine antagonists
52
First gen antipsychotics lead to reduced ________
Positive symptoms
53
Long term use of antipsychotics can lead to ...
Tardive dyskinesia Involuntary movements of the arms, legs, tongue, and facial muscles
54
Antipsychotics for negative schizophrenic symptoms work on the ...
Nigrostriatal pathways
55
Antipsychotics for negative schizophrenic block _______ which ordinarily increases dopamine release in the _______ cortex
serotonin; prefrontal
56
What is the term for when drug doses are lowered, an upregulation of receptors occurs
Supersensitivity psychosis
57
_______ binding affinity of medication means a smaller dose is needed
Higher
58
_______ binding affinity of medication means a larger dose is needed
Lower
59
Repetitive movements involving the face, mouth, lips, and tongue
Tardive dyskinesia
60
The issues started below regard which hypothesis Drugs block D2 receptors much faster (hours) than symptoms are reduced (weeks) Some patients do not respond to dopamine antagonists at all
Dopamine hypothesis
61
Second-gen antipsychotics are less likely to cause ____________, but some research shows that they are no more effective than first-generation antipsychotics
motor side effects
62
The glutamate hypothesis states that schizophrenia is caused by ...
underactivation of glutamate receptors
63
The glutamate hypothesis is possibly accounts for the _______ in _______ cortex activity (AKA hypofrontality)
reduction; frontal
64
_________, a second gen antipsychotic, blocks _________ receptors as well as _________ receptors
Clozapine; serotonin receptors; dopamine receptors
65
(True or False) Second-gen antipsychotics have affinity for other receptors
True
66
Compounds that increase ________ activity they are not possible treatment options because they cause ________
glutamatergic activity; seizures
67
(Glutamate hypothesis) __________ produces both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia
Phencyclidine
68
Other ______ receptor _________, like ketamine, produce effects similar to phencyclidine
NMDA; antagonists
69
This is the ______ of schizophrenia Modern view: schizophrenia is caused by the interaction of genetic factors and stress Usually appears in adolescents or young adults Prenatal stress Exposure to influenza, low birth weight or lack of oxygen at birth Stress of city living
Stress-Diathesis
70
What kind of encoding is described below Encoding of words and their meaning Words with similar themes/categories are organized together
Semantic encoding
71
What kind of encoding is described below Encoding of sounds The sounds of music and words are encoded, allowing us to remember songs, speeches, and more
Acoustic encoding
72
What kind of encoding is described below Encoding of images Mental images are more easily encoded than abstract things that can’t be pictured
Visual encoding
73
According to the Atkinson-Shiffrin Model of Memory, what are the 3 phases memory must pass through
Sensory buffer Short-term memory Long-term memory
74
Stores sensory impressions that only last a few seconds
Sensory buffer
75
What kind of memory involves temporary memories lasting hours to days and includes working memory
Short-term memory
76
What kind of short-term memory is described below Information is processed used and forgotten Lasts about 30 seconds in the absence of rehearsal Limited in capacity (7 chunks at a time) Intermediate STM lasts hours, but still temporary
Working memory
77
In Baddeley’s Working Memory Model, working memory is ...
subdivided
78
According to Baddeley's Working Memory Model, working memory is subdivided into which 3 parts
Phonological loop Visuospatial sketch pad Episodic buffer
79
Lesions of the _________ severely impair working memory
Prefrontal cortex
80
According to Baddeley's Working Memory Model, which subdivision of working memory contains more integrated, sensory information
Episodic buffer
81
What are the two main properties of long-term potentiation
Specificity Associativity
82
What is the sustained activation of both the presynaptic cell and postsynaptic cell, simultaneously called
Long-term potentiation
83
Long-term potentiation occurs in ___________ _________ of the hippocampal CA1 region
glutamatergic synapses
84
Connections in the brain are _______ by _______
altered; experience
85
Ability of the nervous system to change its activity in response to intrinsic or extrinsic stimuli by reorganizing its structure, functions, or connections
Plasticity
86
_________ is made possible by the formation of new synapses (synaptogenesis) and the strengthening of existing synapses in the _________ and _________
Memory; hippocampus; cortex
87
Long-term potentiation facilitates the ...
strengthening of existing synapses
88
Long-term potentiation increases ________ _________ to glutamate
postsynaptic sensitivity
89
Which sleep stage is characterized by alpha rhythm activity (lower frequencies with vertex spikes)
NREM-1
90
Which sleep stage is characterized by sleep spindles and K complexes
NREM-2
91
Which sleep stage is characterized by low frequency waves and high amplitude delta waves
NREM-3 (Slow-wave sleep stage)
92
Which sleep stage is known as paradoxical sleep and is characterized by Rapid eye movement Vivid dreaming Increased heart rate Rapid and irregular breathing Eyes darting left to right in 30 second bursts Muscle paralysis
REM (Stage 4)
93
For individuals deprived of REM sleep, the duration of REM sleep increases the next time the individual goes to sleep. This is know as ...
REM Rebound
94
What is the common sleep cycle
NREM-1 => NREM-2 => NREM-3 => NREM-2 => REM
95
Which sleep stage involves deep sleep
NREM-3
96
_________ individuals have longer sleep cycles; _________ individuals have shorter sleep cycles and generally get _____ sleep
Younger individuals; older individuals; less sleep
97
Mammals sleep more during ________ than in _________
infancy; adulthood
98
What stage do most vivid dreams occur
REM
99
Vivid dreams are associated with a lot of ____________ ________ activity in the posterior cortex region
high-frequency EEG activity
100
Sleep may have played a protective role in evolution by enforcing ...
niche adaptation
101
What are some of the reasons why we sleep
By sleeping when predators are searching, prey species are safer Sleep conserves energy Sleep helps restore and repair damaged tissue Glia cells are responsible for clearing debris, dead cells, and other things such as beta-amyloid build up During slow-wave sleep (NREM3), the pituitary gland secretes growth hormone necessary for muscle development Sleep helps strengthen neural connections that build enduring memories (helps with memory consolidation)
102
Sleep helps consolidate ________ memory with ________ memory
short-term memory; long-term memory
103
NREM sleep improves ....
Declarative memory
104
Sleep deprivation increases likelihood of creating ...
False memories
105
REM sleep may help consolidate ...
Nondeclarative memory
106
After a period of sleep, new _________ form; _______ leads to a decrease in _________
dendritic spines; sleep deprivation; dendritic spines
107
Sleep is an ________ state
active brain state
108
Declarative memory is made up of memories that can be ...
spoken
109
Reticular formation is located in the ...
brainstem
110
What is this part Activates the cortex Electrical stimulation of this part awakens animals Lesions to this part leads to persistent sleep Basal forebrain and this part are responsible for guiding the brain between NREM3 and wakefulness
Reticular formation
111
____________ is a specific region of the pons in the brain
 Subcoeruleus
112
The subcoeruleus triggers _____ sleep (Inhibits motor neurons during sleep)
REM sleep
113
Tuberomammillary Nucleus is located in the ...
hypothalamus
114
Hypothalamus sends __________ to other sleep centers and the hypothalamic tuberomammillary nucleus
hypocretin projections known as orexin
115
Loss of hypocretin cells can lead to conditions like ...
Narcolepsy
116
Tuberomammillary Nucleus enforces ...
patterns of sleep
117
Lesions to the subcoeruleus prevents ___________ during REM sleep
Loss of muscle tone
118
Severing the _______ creates an _________ _________
midbrain; isolated forebrain
119
Constant slow-wave sleep in the forebrain is generated by the _________
basal forebrain
120
Severing the _________ leads to an isolated brain that exhibits __________
brain stem; all the stages of sleep