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ShowPad Study Flashcards

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1
Q

A patient with Stage 5 ESKD is classified to have a GFR measurement of?

A

15 ml/min

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2
Q

What are key contributing factors that cause ESKD? (please select all that apply)

A

A) Obesity
B) Smoking
C) genetics
D) diabetes

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3
Q

Peritoneal Dialysis Can be done at home by Cleansing fluid (dialysate) flows through catheter into abdomen stays 4 - 6 hrs?

A

True

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4
Q

Which of the following are initiatives recommended by K-DOQI in the treatment of dialysis patients?

A

Recirculation of less than 2%

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5
Q

What are two primary arteries used for surgical AV access creations?

A

A) Radial
C) Brachial

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6
Q

What Veins does your central veins consist of?

A

A) Brachiocephalic
B) Subclavian
C) Superior vena cava (SVC)

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7
Q

Select all the advantages of a native AV Fistula?

A

A) Durable
B) Permanent
C) High blood flows
D) Fewer infections & Complications

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8
Q

The GlidePath Family dialysis catheter offers what 4 Fr sizes?

A

14.5Fr, 13Fr, 10Fr & 7.5Fr

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9
Q

Pristine’s clinical study shows 100% patency through _______ Days?

A

60

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10
Q

What is the FR size of the Pristine dialysis catheter?

A

15.5

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11
Q

AirGuard Valve introducer biggest benefit is that it minimizes air leakage to ______ CC/sec?

A

0.15 cc/sec

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12
Q

What are common causes of catheter dysfunction

A

A) Patient positioning
B) Kinking
C) Thrombus
D) Fibrin Sheath

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13
Q

The most ideal anatomic position for the tip placement of the Glidepath dialysis catheter, wich would offer the lowest complication rate is:

A

Right Atrium

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14
Q

The Glidepath Dialysis catheter comes in both a 14.5 and 16 fr XK version

A

False

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15
Q

Which of the following statements are advantage of the Glidepath Catheter?

A

A) Single Pre-Loaded stylet
B) Tapered Cuff
C) Optimized inner Lumen

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16
Q

GlidePath Dialysis Cather offers a recirculation rate of _______ %

A

1

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17
Q

The optimized inner lumen design in Glidepath resulted in ________% lower pressures when compared to palindrome

A

16

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18
Q

The optimized inner lumen design in GlidePath Resulted in ______% higher flows when compared to Palindrome

A

15

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19
Q

Covera and Fluency are __________ Impregnated to decrease platelet accumulation

A

Carbon

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20
Q

What does the Flared ends offer the MD during stent deployment: (select all that apply)

A

A) Faster Wall Apposition
B) Migration Resistance

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21
Q

The E-Luminexx Stent Systems have the following total catheter lengths?

A

111cm, 166cm

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22
Q

E-Luminexx & LifeStar Vascular Stent Systems are available 7-10 mm diameters and 20 – 100 mm lengths

A

True

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23
Q

The E-Luminexx Stent Systems offers an operator how many deployment options

A

4

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24
Q

E-Luminexx™ and LifeStar™ are based on the same stent platform:

A

True

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25
What Covered Stents does BD offer (select all that apply) :
A) Covera B) Fluency
26
Stenosis is the most common cause of vascular access failure and treatment, including frequent reinterventions, and is associated with an additional cost burden
True
27
Bare Metal Stents have superior clinical date and patentcy rates over covered stents
False
28
The indications for the Fluency Plus Stent Graft
In-stent restenosis in the venous outflow of hemodialysis patients dialyzing by either an arteriovenous (AV) fistula or AV graft and for the treatment of stenosis in the venous outflow of hemodialysis patients dialyzing by an AV graft.
29
X-rays and gamma rays are classified as ionizing radiation.
True
30
Radiation is found in: (Choose all that apply)
A) Operating Room B) Standalone Access Center C) Cardiac Cath Lab D) Interventional Radiology
31
Hospitals are required to clearly identify restricted areas where radiation is being used.
True
32
ALARA stands for:
As Low As Reasonably Achievable
33
The image intensifier is where the x-rays are collected after they pass through the patient.
True
34
Imaging systems can be classified into two general categories:
Fixed system and Mobile C-arm
35
The three primary keys to radiation safety include: (Choose three)
A) Time B) Distance D) Shielding
36
Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) includes: (Choose all that apply)
A) Leaded eye glasses B) Thyroid shield C) Mobile lead barrier D) Lead apron
37
Leaded protective aprons and barriers can reduce radiation exposure by as much as 95%
True
38
A radiation monitor's sole purpose is to:
Record the cumulative amount of radiation you're exposed to
39
What is the optimal post-stent diameter of the Common Iliac Vein (CIV)?
16-18mm
40
What is the optimal post-stent area of the External Iliac Vein (EIV)?
150mm^2
41
True or False: Veins are more elastic but less compliant than arteries.
False
42
At what time point is a clot considered "acute"?
<14 days old
43
True or False: May-Thurner Syndrome (MTS) is the compression of the left iliac vein between the right iliac artery and the lumbar spine.
True
44
Based on the 2020 update of the CEAP (Clinical-Etiology-Anatomy-Pathophysiology) classification system, choose the correct definition of the C3 score:
Edema
45
The Venovo™ Venous Stent System IFU recommends oversizing by how much?
1 – 3 mm
46
True or False: Venography is used for both diagnostic and intraprocedural imaging.
True
47
Which of the following is a negative aspect of venography?
High radiation
48
Which of the following is a positive aspect of IVUS?
- Ability to measure diameters and areas - Accuracy identifying lesion location - No radiation - Reduces need for contrast
49
True or False: In the VIDIO Trial, IVUS identified 81% stenotic lesions while venography only identified 51% stenotic lesions.
True
50
The Aspirex offers advanced aspiration through:
Strong aspiration created at the catheter tip, and wall-apposed side window(s)
51
While the Rotarex utilizes a beveled rotating tip in the peripheral arterial system, the Aspirex utilizes a ________ catheter tip in the peripheral venous system.
Rounded, non-rotating
52
The DVT Thrombectomy market consists of three key competitors: Boston Scientific AngioJet, Penumbra Indigo, and Inari ClotTriever. What are their respective modes of operation?
Rheolytic, Aspiration, Retrieval
53
The Aspirex Thrombectomy System is indicated for removal of ________ emboli and thrombi from vessels in the peripheral venous system.
acute
54
The Aspirex Thrombectomy System is available in what catheter French sizes?
6F, 8F, 10F
55
Ultra non-compliant balloons have a growth factor of _____% or less
1
56
What PTA Balloon is our Large Diameter PTA balloon? (Select all that applys)
A) Atlas Gold B) Atlas
57
Conquest 40 offers a rated Burst up to how many ATM's?
40
58
The GeoAlign® Marker System offers a _____ % reduction in fluoroscopy time.
27
59
What are two major improvements that were made to Conquest® 40 as compared to the original Conquest? (Select all that apply)
A) Tapered tip B) Higher ATM ratings
60
Which PTA balloon offers an ultra non-compliant balloon with Checker Flex Points, 3-10 mm and 40, 80, 120, 135 catheter lengths?
Dorado
61
What are some key benefits to the Presto 40 inflation? (Select all that apply)
A) Pressure rating up to 40 atm B) Larger 30cc barrell C) Ergonomic handle D) Fills up to 24x40 Atlas Gold Catheter
62
Succesfful PTA treatment is characterized by (Select all that apply)
A) No significant residual stenosis (>30%) B) The waist of the balloon is effaced C) Thrill is restored in the access site D) Patient is able to resume dialysis
63
Balloons come in what catheter designs? (Select all that apply)
A) Coaxial B) Dual Lumen C) Triple Lumen
64
What is Barotrauma?
Over dilation of a balloon causing damage to healthy tissue
65
Per the VERNACULAR trial, the Venovo stent had a 100% deployment accuracy.
True
66
An open cell venous stent design, like Venovo, allows for the stent to be ________ flexible than a closed cell design
more
67
All of the following are true statements about Venovo except for which one?
closed cell design
68
What is the longest length the Venovo stent comes in?
160 mm
69
Venovo is indicated for the common iliac arteries. True or False
False
70
Venovo has ______ mm flared ends to help with migration resistance?
3
71
Where is the a Stent Graft placed between in the TIPS procedure
Between the Portal Vein and Hepatic Vein
72
What is Cirrhosis
- Cirrhosis is a condition in which the liver is fibrotic and permanently damaged - Scar tissue replaces healthy liver tissue and prevents proper liver function and metabolism - The liver shrinks and becomes hard
73
What is Portal Hypertension?
Portal hypertension is an increase in the pressure within the portal vein
74
What is the Second Line of treatment
TIPS
75
A big Selling point of the BD Liverty is
Steerable Cannula
76
Select the significant design differences of Denali vs. previous generations of Bard IVC filters
A) One Piece of laser cut nitinol B) Conical Design, Dual Level Filtraion C) Robust hook and Smooth neck design D) Staggered leg lenghts
77
Where does stenosis occur in Radiocephalic?
junxa- anastomosis
78
Where does stenosis occur in the Brachial-cephalic
cephalic arch
79
Where does stenosis occur in the Brachial-basilic
swing point
80
Where does stenosis occur in the Graft
venous anastomosis
81
What are the main fistula creations
Radio-cephalic Brachial-cephalic Transposed- brachial-basillic
82
What is the main surgical veins in the arm for the fistula
Bascillic Cephalic forearm Cephallic
83
The venovo deployment system comes in __, ___, __ fr sizes.
8, 9, 10 Fr

Vascular (24 decks)

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