sie exam part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary function of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in the U.S. capital markets?
a. Regulating interest rates
b. Enforcing tax laws
c. Protecting investors and maintaining fair and efficient markets
d. Issuing currency

A

c. Protecting investors and maintaining fair and efficient markets

The primary function of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is to protect investors and ensure fair and efficient markets.

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2
Q

In a corporate bond, what does the term “par value” refer to?

a. The market price of the bond
b. The face value or principal amount of the bond
c. The interest rate paid by the bond
d. The maturity date of the bond

A

b. The face value or principal amount of the bond

In a corporate bond, “par value” refers to the face value or principal amount of the bond.

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3
Q

What is the role of market indices such as the Dow Jones Industrial Average or S&P 500?
a. Indicating inflation rates
b. Measuring economic growth
c. Benchmarking the performance of the overall market
d. Setting interest rates

A

c. Benchmarking the performance of the overall market

Market indices such as the Dow Jones Industrial Average or S&P 500 serve as benchmarks for measuring the performance of the overall market.

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4
Q

Define the term “liquidity” in the context of financial markets.

a. The ability to convert an asset into cash quickly without a significant price change
b. The total value of a company’s outstanding shares
c. The interest paid on a loan
d. The risk associated with market fluctuations

A

a. The ability to convert an asset into cash quickly without a significant price change

Liquidity in financial markets refers to the ability to convert an asset into cash quickly without a significant impact on its price.

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5
Q

What is the main purpose of a stock exchange?

a. To regulate commodity prices
b. To provide a platform for buying and selling securities
c. To issue government bonds
d. To set monetary policy

A

b. To provide a platform for buying and selling securities

The main purpose of a stock exchange is to provide a platform for buying and selling securities.

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6
Q

What does the term “dividend yield” represent in the context of stocks?

a. The percentage of profits paid to shareholders as dividends
b. The total market value of a company’s outstanding shares
c. The annual interest rate paid on a bond
d. The volatility of a stock’s price

A

a. The percentage of profits paid to shareholders as dividends

Dividend yield represents the percentage of profits paid to shareholders as dividends relative to the stock’s price.

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7
Q

In the context of options trading, what does it mean to exercise an option?

a. Closing the option position
b. Buying the underlying asset at the strike price (for call options) or selling (for put options)
c. Holding the option until expiration
d. Writing a new option contract

A

b. Buying the underlying asset at the strike price (for call options) or selling (for put options)

Exercising an option in the context of options trading involves buying (for call options) or selling (for put options) the underlying asset at the strike price.

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8
Q

What is the primary goal of portfolio diversification for investors?

a. Maximizing potential returns
b. Minimizing risk by spreading investments across different asset classes
c. Predicting market trends
d. Achieving short-term capital gains

A

b. Minimizing risk by spreading investments across different asset classes

The primary goal of portfolio diversification is to minimize risk by spreading investments across different asset classes.

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9
Q

When a company goes public through an initial public offering (IPO), what is the first public market where its shares are traded?

a. OTC market
b. NASDAQ
c. NYSE (New York Stock Exchange)
d. AMEX (American Stock Exchange)

A

c. NYSE (New York Stock Exchange)

When a company goes public through an initial public offering (IPO), its shares are typically first traded on a stock exchange such as the NYSE.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of a market order in stock trading?

a. Executing the trade at a specific price
b. Buying or selling a security at the current market price
c. Placing a limit on potential losses
d. Freezing the price of a security temporarily

A

b. Buying or selling a security at the current market price

A market order in stock trading involves buying or selling a security at the current market price.

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11
Q

What is the role of the Federal Reserve in monetary policy?

a. Setting tax rates
b. Controlling the money supply and interest rates
c. Regulating stock exchanges
d. Enforcing securities laws

A

b. Controlling the money supply and interest rates

The Federal Reserve influences monetary policy by controlling the money supply and interest rates.

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12
Q

How does the Federal Reserve influence interest rates through open market operations?

a. By directly setting interest rates
b. By buying or selling government securities to adjust the money supply
c. By issuing new currency
d. By controlling inflation rates

A

b. By buying or selling government securities to adjust the money supply

The Federal Reserve influences interest rates through open market operations by buying or selling government securities to adjust the money supply.

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13
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of common stock?

a. Fixed interest payments to shareholders
b. Priority in receiving dividends
c. Limited voting rights
d. Maturity date

A

c. Limited voting rights

Common stock typcally comes with limited voting rights for shareholders.

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14
Q

What is the primary risk associated with investing in junk bonds?

a. Market risk
b. Credit risk
c. Inflation risk
d. Interest rate risk

A

b. Credit risk

The primary risk associated with investing in junk bonds is credit risk, as these bonds are issued by companies with lower credit ratings.

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15
Q

What is the key feature of a Treasury Inflation-Protected Security (TIPS)?

a. Fixed interest rate
b. Adjusted principal value based on inflation
c. Tax-exempt status
d. No maturity date

A

b. Adjusted principal value based on inflation

The key feature of a Treasury Inflation-Protected Security (TIPS) is that its principal value is adjusted based on inflation.

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16
Q

In the context of mutual funds, what does the term “net asset value (NAV)” represent?

a. The total market value of the fund’s assets minus liabilities, divided by the number of shares outstanding
b. The total capitalization of the fund
c. The annual return on the fund
d. The fund’s current market price

A

a. The total market value of the fund’s assets minus liabilities, divided by the number of shares outstanding

Net Asset Value (NAV) in the context of mutual funds represents the total market value of the fund’s assets minus liabilities, divided by the number of shares outstanding

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17
Q

What type of risk is associated with changes in interest rates affecting bond prices?

a. Credit risk
b. Market risk
c. Inflation risk
d. Liquidity risk

A

b. Market risk

Changes in interest rates affecting bond prices are associated with market risk.

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18
Q

What is the primary function of a prospectus in the context of securities offerings?

a. Predicting future market trends
b. Providing historical stock prices
c. Disclosing information about the investment and its risks to potential investors
d. Setting the initial public offering (IPO) price

A

c. Disclosing information about the investment and its risks to potential investors

The primary function of a prospectus in the context of securities offerings is to disclose information about the investment and its risks to potential investors.

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19
Q

Which investment product is designed to track the performance of a specific market index?

a. Corporate bonds
b. Mutual funds
c. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs)
d. Treasury bills

A

c. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs)

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) are investment products designed to track the performance of a specific market index.

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20
Q

What is the primary difference between a closed-end fund and an open-end fund (mutual fund)?

a. Closed-end funds have a fixed number of shares, while open-end funds can issue and redeem shares continuously
b. Open-end funds have a fixed number of shares, while closed-end funds can issue and redeem shares continuously
c. Closed-end funds are actively managed, while open-end funds are passively managed
d. Open-end funds can only invest in equities, while closed-end funds can invest in any asset class

A

a. Closed-end funds have a fixed number of shares, while open-end funds can issue and redeem shares continuously

The primary difference between a closed-end fund and an open-end fund (mutual fund) is that closed-end funds have a fixed number of shares, while open-end funds can issue and redeem shares continuously.

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21
Q

What is a convertible bond?

a. A bond with a fixed interest rate
b. A bond issued by a government entity
c. A bond that can be converted into a specific number of common shares of the issuing company
d. A bond with a variable interest rate

A

c. A bond that can be converted into a specific number of common shares of the issuing company

A convertible bond is a type of bond that can be converted into a specific number of common shares of the issuing company.

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Options Clearing Corporation (OCC)?

a. To regulate stock exchanges
b. To clear and settle options trades
c. To issue new securities
d. To set interest rates

A

b. To clear and settle options trades

The primary purpose of the Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) is to clear and settle options trades.

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23
Q

What is a call option?

a. An option to sell a security at a specified price
b. An option to buy a security at a specified price
c. An option to convert a bond into common stock
d. An option to extend the maturity date of a bond

A

b. An option to buy a security at a specified price

A call option is an option to buy a security at a specified price.

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24
Q

What is the main risk associated with investing in real estate investment trusts (REITs)?

a. Credit risk
b. Market risk
c. Inflation risk
d. Interest rate risk

A

b. Market risk

The main risk associated with investing in real estate investment trusts (REITs) is market risk.

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25
What is the purpose of a stop order in securities trading? a. To buy or sell a security at the current market price b. To execute a trade at a specific price or better c. To limit potential losses by buying or selling at a specific price d. To freeze the price of a security temporarily
c. To limit potential losses by buying or selling at a specific price The purpose of a stop order in securities trading is to limit potential losses by buying or selling at a specific price.
26
Which of the following is a characteristic of a fixed annuity? a. Payments that vary based on the performance of underlying investments b. Payments that are guaranteed for a specific period, regardless of market conditions c. Payments that are not subject to taxation d. Payments that are made only after the annuitant's death
b. Payments that are guaranteed for a specific period, regardless of market conditions A fixed annuity provides payments that are guaranteed for a specific period, regardless of market conditions.
27
What is a key feature of a margin account in securities trading? a. All transactions must be settled in cash b. The investor borrows funds to buy securities, using the securities as collateral c. No short selling is allowed d. No interest is charged on borrowed funds
b. The investor borrows funds to buy securities, using the securities as collateral A key feature of a margin account in securities trading is that the investor borrows funds to buy securities, using the securities as collateral.
28
What is the primary goal of a bond ladder investment strategy? a. Maximizing potential returns b. Minimizing interest rate risk c. Achieving short-term capital gains d. Concentrating investments in high-risk bonds
b. inimizing interest rate risk The primary goal of a bond ladder investment strategy is to minimize interest rate risk.
29
What is the primary function of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)? a. To set monetary policy b. To regulate stock exchanges c. To protect investors and ensure fair and efficient markets d. To issue government securities
c. To protect investors and ensure fair and efficient markets The primary function of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) is to protect investors and ensure fair and efficient markets.
30
Which type of risk is associated with the potential for a loss due to insufficient diversification in an investment portfolio? a. Market risk b. Credit risk c. systematic risk. d. Inflation risk
c. systematic risk. systematic risk affects all securities in the market to some degree and includes factors such as economic downturns, interest rate changes, political events, and other broad market influences.
31
What is the main advantage of a 401(k) retirement account? a. Tax-free withdrawals b. Employer contributions c. Immediate access to funds without penalties d. Guaranteed returns
b. Employer contributions The main advantage of a 401(k) retirement account includes employer contributions.
32
In the context of options, what does it mean to write a call option? a. To buy a call option b. To sell a call option c. To exercise a call option d. To cancel a call option
b. To sell a call option To write a call option means to sell a call option.
33
What is the primary function of a securities exchange commission (SEC) filing, such as a Form 10-K? a. Disclosing information about the company's financial performance to potential investors b. Setting the initial public offering (IPO) price c. Regulating stock exchanges d. Issuing new securities
a. Disclosing information about the company's financial performance to potential investors The primary function of a securities exchange commission (SEC) filing, such as a Form 10-K, is to disclose information about the company's financial performance to potential investors.
34
What is the purpose of a credit rating for a bond? a. To predict future interest rates b. To measure the bond's market value c. To assess the issuer's creditworthiness and default risk d. To determine the maturity date of the bond
c. To assess the issuer's creditworthiness and default risk The purpose of a credit rating for a bond is to assess the issuer's creditworthiness and default risk.
34
Which of the following is a characteristic of a 529 college savings plan? a. Tax-free withdrawals for any purpose b. Tax-deductible contributions c. Fixed interest rate d. Specific use for qualified education expenses
d. Specific use for qualified education expenses A characteristic of a 529 college savings plan is its specific use for qualified education expenses.
35
What is the primary function of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC)? a. To regulate stock exchanges b. To insure investors against market risk c. To protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure d. To issue government securities
c. To protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure The primary function of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) is to protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure.
36
What is the key feature of a Roth IRA? a. Tax-deductible contributions b. Tax-free withdrawals in retirement c. Fixed interest rate d. Mandatory withdrawals after a certain age
b. Tax-free withdrawals in retirement A key feature of a Roth IRA is tax-free withdrawals in retirement.
37
What is the primary purpose of "suitability" in the context of securities transactions? a. Ensuring that securities transactions are executed at the best possible price b. Matching customers with investments that align with their investment objectives and risk tolerance c. Regulating stock exchanges d. Preventing insider trading
B. Matching customers with investments that align with their investment objectives and risk tolerance The primary purpose of "suitability" in the context of securities transactions is to match customers with investments that align with their investment objectives and risk tolerance.
38
In the context of margin trading, what is the maintenance margin? a. The initial amount required to open a margin account b. The minimum equity level that must be maintained in a margin account c. The interest rate charged on borrowed funds in a margin account d. The maximum amount that can be borrowed in a margin account
b. The minimum equity level that must be maintained in a margin account The maintenance margin in margin trading is the minimum equity level that must be maintained in a margin account.
39
What is the primary responsibility of a registered representative (RR) in a brokerage firm? a. Setting monetary policy b. Executing trades on behalf of clients c. Regulating stock exchanges d. Issuing government securities
b. Executing trades on behalf of clients The primary responsibility of a registered representative (RR) in a brokerage firm is to execute trades on behalf of clients.
40
What is the main function of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) Rule 2111 regarding suitability? a. To prevent market manipulation b. To establish margin requirements c. To ensure that securities transactions are suitable for customers d. To regulate stock exchanges
c. To ensure that securities transactions are suitable for customers The main function of FINRA Rule 2111 regarding suitability is to ensure that securities transactions are suitable for customers.
41
What is the primary purpose of the Anti-Money Laundering (AML) regulations in the securities industry? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent and detect money laundering activities c. To set monetary policy d. To protect investors from fraud
b. To prevent and detect money laundering activities The primary purpose of Anti-Money Laundering (AML) regulations in the securities industry is to prevent and detect money laundering activities.
42
What is the key characteristic of a discretionary account in securities trading? a. The account owner makes all trading decisions b. The registered representative (RR) makes trading decisions on behalf of the client without prior approval c. No trading decisions are allowed d. The account owner must follow specific investment recommendations
b. The registered representative (RR) makes trading decisions on behalf of the client without prior approval A discretionary account in securities trading allows the registered representative (RR) to make trading decisions on behalf of the client without prior approval.
43
What is the purpose of the "know your customer" (KYC) rule in the securities industry? a. To set interest rates b. To ensure that customers have sufficient funds to cover their trades c. To prevent market manipulation d. To gather information about customers and assess their suitability for investments
d. To gather information about customers and assess their suitability for investments The "know your customer" (KYC) rule in the securities industry is in place to gather information about customers and assess their suitability for investments.
44
What is the primary function of the Consolidated Tape Association (CTA) in securities trading? a. To regulate stock exchanges b. To report trade data and disseminate it to the public c. To clear and settle securities trades d. To issue government securities
b. To report trade data and disseminate it to the public The primary function of the Consolidated Tape Association (CTA) in securities trading is to report trade data and disseminate it to the public.
45
What is the main purpose of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent fraud and manipulation in securities trading c. To establish margin requirements d. To set monetary policy
b. To prevent fraud and manipulation in securities trading The main purpose of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 is to prevent fraud and manipulation in securities trading
46
What is the role of a designated market maker (DMM) on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)? a. To regulate stock exchanges b. To facilitate trading by maintaining an orderly market and acting as a buyer or seller for assigned securities c. To set interest rates d. To issue government securities
b. To facilitate trading by maintaining an orderly market and acting as a buyer or seller for assigned securities The role of a designated market maker (DMM) on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) is to facilitate trading by maintaining an orderly market and acting as a buyer or seller for assigned securities.
47
What is the primary goal of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC)? a. To insure investors against market risk b. To protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure c. To regulate stock exchanges d. To set monetary policy
b. To protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure The primary goal of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) is to protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure.
48
In the context of securities regulation, what does the term "churning" refer to? a. Excessive trading in a customer's account to generate commissions without regard to the customer's investment goals b. Unauthorized trading in a customer's account c. Front-running customer orders d. Insider trading
a. excessive trading in a customer's account to generate commissions without regard to the customer's investment goals "Churning" in the context of securities regulation refers to excessive trading in a customer's account to generate commissions without regard to the customer's investment goals.
49
What is the primary function of the Securities Act of 1933? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent fraud in the issuance of securities and provide full and fair disclosure to investors c. To establish margin requirements d. To set monetary policy
b. To prevent fraud in the issuance of securities and provide full and fair disclosure to investors The main purpose of the Securities Act of 1933 is to prevent fraud in the issuance of securities and provide full and fair disclosure to investors.
50
What is the main purpose of the Trust Indenture Act of 1939? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent money laundering activities c. To protect bondholders by requiring disclosure and adherence to specified terms in bond indentures d. To establish margin requirements
c. to protect bondholders by requiring disclosure and adherence to specified terms in bond indentures The main purpose of the Trust Indenture Act of 1939 is to protect bondholders by requiring disclosure and adherence to specified terms in bond indentures
51
What is the role of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) in the U.S. financial system? a. To regulate interest rates b. To supervise and regulate national banks and federal savings associations c. To prevent market manipulation d. To set monetary policy
b. To supervise and regulate national banks and federal savings associations The role of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) in the U.S. financial system is to supervise and regulate national banks and federal savings associations.
52
What is the main function of the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (SIFMA)? a. To regulate stock exchanges b. To promote fair and efficient financial markets and represent the interests of securities firms c. To establish margin requirements d. To insure investors against market risk
b. To promote fair and efficient financial markets and represent the interests of securities firms The main function of the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association (SIFMA) is to promote fair and efficient financial markets and represent the interests of securities firms.
53
What is the primary purpose of Regulation SHO in the securities industry? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent money laundering activities c. To establish margin requirements d. To prevent abusive short-selling practices
d. To prevent abusive short-selling practices The primary purpose of Regulation SHO in the securities industry is to prevent abusive short-selling practices.
54
What is the main function of the Market Access Rule (Rule 15c3-5) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent market manipulation c. To establish margin requirements d. To regulate access to securities markets by broker-dealers
d. To regulate access to securities markets by broker-dealers The main function of the Market Access Rule (Rule 15c3-5) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 is to regulate access to securities markets by broker-dealers.
55
In the context of securities transactions, what does the term "front-running" refer to? a. Executing customer orders ahead of large block transactions b. Unauthorized trading in a customer's account c. Violating the "know your customer" (KYC) rule d. Engaging in excessive trading to generate commissions
a. executing customer orders ahead of large block transactions "Front-running" in securities transactions refers to executing customer orders ahead of large block transactions.
56
What is the primary purpose of the Blue Sky Laws in the United States? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent money laundering activities c. To protect investors from fraudulent securities offerings at the state level d. To establish margin requirements
c. To protect investors from fraudulent securities offerings at the state level The primary purpose of the Blue Sky Laws in the United States is to protect investors from fraudulent securities offerings at the state level.
57
What is the role of the U.S. Department of the Treasury in the securities industry? a. To regulate interest rates b. To supervise and regulate national banks c. To issue government securities and manage the country's finances d. To establish margin requirements
c. To issue government securities and manage the country's finances The role of the U.S. Department of the Treasury in the securities industry is to issue government securities and manage the country's finances.
58
What is the primary goal of the Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) in the securities industry? a. To regulate interest rates b. To prevent money laundering activities c. To supervise and regulate national banks d. To establish margin requirements
b. To prevent money laundering activities The primary goal of the Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) in the securities industry is to prevent money laundering activities
59
What is the function of the Securities Information Processor (SIP) in the U.S. securities markets? a. To regulate interest rates b. To facilitate the clearance and settlement of securities trades c. To report trade data and disseminate it to the public d. To establish margin requirements
c. To report trade data and disseminate it to the public The function of the Securities Information Processor (SIP) in the U.S. securities markets is to report trade data and disseminate it to the public.
60
What is the primary function of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in the United States? a. To regulate interest rates b. To supervise and regulate national banks c. To prevent money laundering activities d. To protect investors and maintain fair and efficient markets
D. Protecting investors and maintain fair and efficient markets The primary function of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in the U.S. capital markets is protecting investors and ensuring fair and efficient markets.
61
What is the purpose of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) in the U.S. securities industry? a. To regulate interest rates b. To facilitate the clearance and settlement of securities trades c. To supervise and regulate national banks and federal savings associations d. To protect investors and ensure fair and efficient markets
c. To supervise and regulate national banks and federal savings associations The main function of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) in the U.S. financial system is to supervise and regulate national banks and federal savings associations.
62
What is the main function of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC)? a. To regulate interest rates b. To insure investors against market risk c. To promote fair and efficient financial markets and represent the interests of securities firms d. To protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure
d. To protect investors in the event of a brokerage firm failure is to protect investors in the United States in the event that a brokerage firm fails, by providing limited coverage for their brokerage accounts, ensuring the return of certain securities and cash held by the firm
63
What is the primary purpose of the Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) in the securities industry? a. To regulate interest rates b. To supervise and regulate national banks and federal savings associations c. To prevent money laundering activities d. To protect investors and ensure fair and efficient markets
c. To prevent money laundering activities to prevent and detect money laundering and other financial crimes. It imposes certain recordkeeping and reporting requirements on financial institutions
64
What is the main goal of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act? a. To regulate interest rates b. To protect consumers and enhance financial stability c. To privatize financial institutions d. To eliminate taxation on financial transactions
b. To protect consumers and enhance financial stability
65
A customer buys 1 ABC Jan 35 put for a premium of $3 and simultaneously buys 100 shares of ABC stock for $35 per share. The customer will break even when the stock is selling at what price per share at expiration? A. $3 B. $32 C. $35 D. $38
D. $38 Breakeven point = Strike price of put + Premium paid for the put Breakeven point = $35 + $3 = $38
66
A firm is a participant in a public offering. To sell a substantial amount of the securities to its customers, the firm agrees to repurchase the shares at no less than the original sales price. Such agreements are: A. prohibited as fraudulent and manipulative B. permissible if the securities are deposited into escrow C. prohibited unless the firm immediately sets aside funds for the repurchase D. permissible if the customers retain the right to sell the securities into the open marke
A. prohibited as fraudulent and manipulative These agreements can create a misleading appearance of market demand, and regulators prohibit such practices to maintain the integrity of the market.
67
Under Rule 144A, an issuer of restricted stock is permitted to sell to which of the following investors? A. financial institutions B. Accredited investors C. qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) D. non accredited investors who have previously purchased restricted stock
C. qualified institutional buyers (QIBs) Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs) are institutions that meet specific criteria allowing them to participate in certain securities transactions, including those involving restricted securities.
68
Which of the following responses describes an advantage of index funds? A. the protection of principal during bearish markets B. high turnover to take advantage of market opportunities C. higher management fees due to active management of the fund D. lower management fees due to passive management of the fund
D. lower management fees due to passive management of the fund. Index funds typically have lower management fees compared to actively managed funds because they aim to replicate the performance of a specific market index rather than relying on active management strategies. This cost efficiency is often considered an advantage for investors.
69
Which of the following statements is true about all U.S. government agency issues? A. they are exempt from federal taxes B. they are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 C. they are issued in bearer form only D. they are general obligations of the federal government
B. they are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933. U.S. government agency issues are typically exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933. These agencies may issue securities to raise funds, and while they are not direct obligations of the federal government, they may carry an implicit or explicit government guarantee.
70
Roth 401(k) and Roth individual retirement account (IRA) plans are which of the following features? A. contributions are made pretax B. neither account has maximum contribution limits C. neither account is subject to early distribution penalties D. qualified distributions are excluded from federal income tax
D. qualified distributions are excluded from federal income tax. One of the key features of Roth 401(k) and Roth IRA plans is that qualified distributions, which meet certain criteria, are excluded from federal income tax. Contributions to Roth accounts are made with after-tax dollars, and as a result, qualified withdrawals, including earnings, can be tax-free.
71
A married couple who earned income that exceeded $300,000 in each of the prior two years and reasonably expects the same for the current year is: A. a qualified investor B. an accredited investor C. an institutional investor D. a qualified institutional buyer (QIB)
B. an accredited investor. Accredited investors, as defined by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), include individuals who have earned income exceeding $200,000 in each of the two most recent years (or $300,000 combined income with a spouse) and expect to reach the same income level in the current year.
72
The redemption value of an open-end investment company's shares is based on the: A. previous offering price B. previous closing net asset value (NAV) C. NAV competed after the order is received D. offering price computed after the order is received
C. NAV computed after the order is received. The redemption value of an open-end investment company's shares is typically based on the Net Asset Value (NAV) computed after the order is received. The NAV is calculated by taking the total value of the fund's assets, subtracting liabilities, and dividing by the number of outstanding shares.
73
Which of the following investment risks is the greatest risk in a variable life insurance policy? A. credit risk B. market risk C. inflation risk D. interest rate risk
B. market risk The greatest risk in a variable life insurance policy is market risk, as the policyholder's cash value is invested in underlying assets, subjecting it to fluctuations in the financial markets. Changes in market conditions can impact the policy's cash value and, subsequently, the death benefit.
74
Which of the following statements are true regarding the concept of an annuity contract? A. payouts of an investment in a non qualified annuity are all income-tax-free B. the kind of annuity selected partly determines the payment amounts to the annuitant C. in the case of life annuity contracts, the age and sex of the annuitant do not affect the payment amounts D. the amounts of the periodic payments to the annuitant are determined by the performance of the insurance company's investment returns
B. The kind of annuity selected partly determines the payment amounts to the annuitant. Different types of annuities (such as fixed, variable, or indexed annuities) have varying methods for determining payment amounts to the annuitant, depending on the terms of the contract.
75
all of the following following risks apply to both foreign and domestic debt instruments except: A. political B. exchange C. repayment D. interest rate
B. exchange. Exchange rate risk, or currency risk, is specific to foreign debt instruments and does not apply to domestic debt instruments.
76
When is interest on Treasury notes paid? A. quarterly B. semiannually C. annually D. at maturity
B. semiannually Treasury notes have fixed interest rates, and investors receive interest payments every six months until the maturity date of the note.
77
A transaction in which the writer covers a position by purchasing an option is called: A. a closing sale B. a closing purchase C. an opening sale D. an opening purchase
B. a closing purchase. When an investor or trader covers a position by purchasing an option, it is referred to as a "closing purchase" transaction. This action effectively closes out the existing position in the options market.
78
A broker-dealer permitted to accept payment for a new issue from a new customer when the: A. registration is effective B. red herring is delivered C. preliminary prospectus is amended D. transaction takes place during the cooling-off period
A. registration is effective. A broker-dealer is permitted to accept payment for a new issue from a new customer when the registration of the securities is effective. This means that the securities have been registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), and the offering is ready to proceed
79
The primary purpose of a syndicate desk in the context of an equity offering is to: A. determine the list of selling shareholders B. build an order book and allocate the stock C. solicit interest from investors in the stock offering D. chaperone company management during the road show
B. build an order book and allocate the stock. The syndicate desk is responsible for managing the distribution of shares to investors, coordinating orders, and ensuring a smooth process for the offering.
80
Which of the following actions is required when a firm receives cash in excess of $10,000 from one customer in one business day? A. file a currency transaction report (CTR) B. file a suspicious activity report (SAR) with the SEC C. issue a cash transfer receipt to the customer D. place a five-day hold on the customer's account for the funds received
A. file a currency transaction report (CTR)
81
Under the Securities Act of 1933, registration is required for which of the following securities? A. eurodollar bonds B. municipal securities C. American depositary receipts (adrs) D. securities issued by the federal government
C. American depositary receipts (adrs)
82
The owner of which of the following products is MOST exposed to inflationary risk? A. utility stocks B. Treasury bills C. treasury bonds D. blue chip industrials
C. Treasury bonds are exposed to inflationary risk because the fixed interest payments they provide can lose purchasing power in an inflationary environment.
83
Which of the following statements is true regarding a customer account held as tenants in common? A. the owners must equally share the assets B. the ownership of the dependent's is governed by their will or state law C. tenants in common is permitted for use only for two individuals D. tenants in common is permitted for use only for married couples or family members
B. The ownership of the decedent's share is governed by their will or state law. In a tenants-in-common arrangement, each owner has a distinct share, and upon the death of one owner, their share doesn't automatically pass to the other owner(s). Instead, it is typically transferred according to the decedent's will or state laws governing inheritance
83
Which of the following security types provides investors with a stated maturity date, a floating interest rate, and an option to put the security back to a financial intermediary on a daily or weekly basis? A. equity put option B. perpetual preferred stock C. variable rate demand note D. tax-deferred variable annuity
C. variable rate demand note This put feature gives investors liquidity and flexibility in the short term.
84
in the event of a stock split, which of the following parties is required to maintain a record of the shareholders eligible to receive the additional shares? A. DTC B. Issuer C. custodian D. transfer agent
D. Transfer agent the transfer agent is responsible for maintaining a record of the shareholders eligible to receive the additional shares. The transfer agent handles the administrative tasks related to changes in the company's shareholder records, including stock splits and issuing additional shares to eligible shareholders.
85
Call protection is MOST valuable to a bond owner when bond prices are generally: A. rising B. falling C. stable D. fluctuating
A. rising
86
Which of the following situations is an employee of a public company permitted to trade upon information without violating insider trading laws? A. an independent securities analyst explains to the employee why the earnings for the company next quarter could be markedly poorer than expected B. the employee's neighbor works for the government and informs him that the government will award a major contract to the company next month C. the employee's spouse works in the corporate headquarters and shares with him a conversation overheard at work regarding possible acquisition targets D. a coworker informs the employee of a conversation he had with the administrative assistant to the company's general counsel regarding key developments in an ongoing class action lawsuit
A. an independent securities analyst explains to the employee why the earnings for the company next quarter could be markedly poorer than expected the information is coming from an independent analyst, not an insider of the company, and the employee is not in possession of material nonpublic information obtained through their position within the company.
87
A member of a stock exchange responsible for providing liquidity in a security by being willing to buy and sell at all times is known as: A. a broker B. an underwriter C. a market maker D. a transfer agent
C. a market maker. A market maker is a member of a stock exchange who plays a crucial role in providing liquidity to a security. Market makers facilitate trading by being willing to buy and sell a particular security at all times, helping to maintain an orderly market.
88
Which of the following outcomes are possible for the writer of a covered call option? A. profit limited and loss limited B. profit limited and loss unlimited C. profit unlimited and loss limited D. profit unlimited and loss unlimited
A. profit limited and loss unlimited. For the writer of a covered call option, the potential profit is limited to the premium received from selling the call option, while the potential loss is unlimited if the price of the underlying asset rises significantly. The writer is covered because they own the underlying asset, but they forgo potential gains beyond the strike price of the call option.
89
Direct participation programs (DPPs) provide: A. liquidity and transparency B. exposure to non-correlated assets with steady returns C. market-related correlations with higher average returns D. investors with direct purchases of stock from public companies
B. exposure to non-correlated assets with steady returns. Direct Participation Programs (DPPs) typically involve investments in non-correlated assets, such as real estate or energy projects, and are structured to provide investors with steady returns. They may not offer the same level of liquidity and transparency as publicly traded securities, but they are designed to provide diversification and income potential.
90
When a broker-dealer charges a commission on a securities transaction, it has acted as: A. an agent B. a principal C. an underwriter D. a market maker
A. an agent When a broker-dealer charges a commission on a securities transaction, it has acted as an agent. An agent facilitates the trade on behalf of the client, charging a fee (commission) for the service. In contrast, a principal trade involves the broker-dealer buying or selling securities for its own account.
91
Which of the following products is adversely impacted if the issuer's credit rating is downgraded? A. mutual funds B. unit investment trusts (UITs) C. Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) D. Exchange-traded notes (ETNS)
D. Exchange-traded notes (ETNS) If the issuer's credit rating is downgraded, Exchange-Traded Notes (ETNs) can indeed be adversely impacted. ETNs are unsecured debt securities, and their value is linked to the creditworthiness of the issuer. A downgrade in the issuer's credit rating can lead to a decline in the ETN's value.
92
What is the cost basis of an inherited mutual fund? A. the net asset value (NAV) of the shares when the owner dies B. the NAV 30 days after the owner's death C. the same cost basis as the decreased D. the same cost basis as the deceased plus capital gains distribution
A. The net asset value (NAV) of the shares when the owner dies. The cost basis of an inherited mutual fund is generally the fair market value of the shares at the time of the original owner's death.
93
Company ABC announces a 20% stock dividend for its common shareholders. If a customer holds 1,000 shares at $50, what is the new price and number of shares following the payment of the stock dividend? A. 800 shares at 62.50 B. 1000 shares at $41.67 C. 1200 shares at $41.67 D. 1200 shares at $50
C. 1200 shares at $41.67 After the dividend, the total number of shares becomes 1,000 + 200 = 1,200 shares. The new price per share is calculated by dividing the original investment amount by the new total number of shares: $50 / 1,200 shares = $41.67 per share (rounded).
94
The last transaction in XYZ 5.50s 2030 was at 102. The bond is selling at: A. par B. a premium C. a discount D. asset value
B. a premium When a bond is selling at a price higher than its face value, it is considered to be trading at a premium. In this case, with the last transaction at 102, the bond is selling at 102% of its face value, indicating a premium.