Skeletal Disorders, Teeth Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

3 disorders of endochondral ossification

A
  • chondrodystrophies
  • osteochondrosis (OD)
  • osteochondrosis dessicans (OCD)
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2
Q

chondrodystrophy is marked by a primary lesion in the ________ and/or ________

A
  • growth plate (physis)

- articular epiphysis (AE) complex

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3
Q

________ can result in disproportionate dwarfs, such as dachshunds or basset hounds

A

chondrodystrophy

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4
Q

chondrodystrophy causes abnormalities in _____ and _____ of the bones

A
  • shape

- size

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5
Q

_______ is a degenerative process of cartilage with focal or multifocal failure/delay of endochondral ossification

A

osteochondrosis

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6
Q

__________ is described as a retention of growth cartilage due to failure to mineralize and replace by bone

A

osteochondrosis (OD)

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7
Q

one possible pathogenesis of osteochondrosis is __________________

A

the ischemic necrosis of the cartilage

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8
Q

what age group is osteochondrosis most prevalent in?

A

young animals

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9
Q

osteochondrosis of large breed dogs is most prevalent in which 3 areas

A
  • shoulder
  • elbow
  • tarsus
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10
Q

2 symptoms of osteochondrosis

A
  • lameness

- pain

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11
Q

_____________ is dysplasia occurring in the AE complex

A

osteochondrosis dessicans (OCD)

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12
Q

in ___________, clefts form in the retained cartilage with subsequent fracture of the overlying articular cartilage

A

osteochondrosis dessicans (OCD)

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13
Q

when the cartilage flaps formed in osteochondrosis dessicans fracture off it is called a ______

A

joint mouse

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14
Q

4 symptoms of osteochondrosis dessicans

A
  • pain
  • effusion
  • lameness
  • synovitis
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15
Q

common site of osteochondrosis dessicans in the dog

A

shoulder

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16
Q

common site of osteochondrosis dessicans in the horse

A

tarsus

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17
Q

common site of osteochondrosis dessicans in the pig

A

medial condyle of the femur

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18
Q

_________ is the consequence of osteochondrosis dessicans

A

degenerative joint disease

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19
Q

5 types of bone disorders

A
  • disorders of bone modeling
  • disorders of endochondral ossification
  • metabolic bone disease
  • inflammation/necrosis of bone
  • neoplasia
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20
Q

3 metabolic bone diseases

A
  • osteoporosis
  • rickets/osteomalacia
  • osteodystrophy (nutritional and renal)
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21
Q

_________: defined as low bone mass that results in minimal fractures after only minimal trauma

A

osteoporosis

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22
Q

most common sites for bone fractures resulting from osteoporosis

A
  • hip (femoral neck)
  • thoracic and lumbar vertebral bodies
  • wrist (distal radius and ulna)
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23
Q

_______/_______: failure of mineralization with subsequent bone deformities and fracture

A

rickets/osteomalacia

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24
Q

__________: failure of mineralization in a growing skeleton

A

rickets

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25
_________: failure of mineralization in an adult skeleton
osteomalacia
26
osteomalacia/rickets is caused by a deficiency of ______ or _______
- vitamin D | - phosphorus
27
3 consequences of rickets/osteomalacia
- bone pain - pathologic fractures - deformities
28
thickened growth plates are symptomatic of _________
rickets
29
_________: increased osteoclastic resorption of bone and replacement by fibrous tissue
fibrous osteodystrophy
30
3 clinical signs of fibrous osteodystrophy
- deformities - lameness - pathologic fractures
31
what causes fibrous osteodystrophy?
hyperparathyroidism (primary or secondary)
32
Which type of hyperparathyroidism is a rare cause of fibrous osteodystrophy?
primary hyperparathyroidism
33
2 forms of secondary hyperparathyroidism
- nutritional | - renal
34
layman's term for renal fibrous osteodystrophy
"rubber jaw"
35
what kind of diet results in nutritional hyperparathyroidism (leading to fibrous hyperparathyroidism)
a diet low in calcium or high in phosphorus
36
2 "classic examples" in veterinary sciences of nutritional osteodystrophy
- "bran disease" | - "Popeye long bone"
37
2 processes by which decreased renal function results in osteodystrophy
- ↓ glomerular function (results in hyperphosphatemia) | - ↓ activation of 1, 25 D3 (results in ↓ calcium absorption)
38
______: infectious inflammation/necrosis of bone
osteomyelitis
39
______: non-infectious inflammation/necrosis of bone
hypertrophic osteodystrophy
40
________ - "lumpy jaw"
actinomycosis
41
2 categories of bone neoplasia
- primary (osteosarcoma) | - secondary (metastatic)
42
osteosarcoma is ________ neoplasia
primary
43
metastatic (breast, prostate cancer, etc.) is _______ neoplasia
secondary
44
4 different types of teeth
- incisor - canine - premolar - molar
45
________ teeth grow continuously throughout life
hypsodontic
46
________ teeth do not grow continuously throughout life
brachydontic
47
_________ teeth require floating
hypsodontic
48
_________ teeth do not have enamel covered roots
brachydontic
49
from superficial to deep, what are the material layers of hypsodontic teeth?
- cementum - enamel - dentine
50
from superficial to deep, what are the material layers of brachydontic teeth?
Crown: - enamel - dentine Root: - cementum - dentine
51
species with hypsodontic teeth
- horses (all) | - ruminants (cheek teeth)
52
species with brachydontic teeth
- man - carnivores - pigs
53
3 types of teeth abnormalities
- malocclusion - gingivitis/peridontitis - tooth retention
54
_________: failure of the upper and lower teeth to interdigitate properly
malocclusion
55
_________: protrusion of the lower jaw
prognathia
56
________: a disproportionately shortened lower jaw
brachygnathia
57
malocclusion leads to difficulties on the _______ and _______ of food
- prehension | - mastication
58
malocclusion results from ____________ or _____________
- abnormal jaw conformation | - abnormal tooth eruption patterns
59
4 consequences of long term periodontitis
- chronic gingivitis - pocket formation - loss of attachment - alveolar bone loss
60
6 indications for tooth extraction
- mobile teeth - crowding of teeth - retained deciduous teeth teeth in the line of a fracture - teeth destroyed by disease - endodontically diseased teeth
61
6 stages of normal healing of an extraction socket
- intact molar and alveolar bone - clot formation and removal phase - repair phase - initiation of bone formation - woven bone - lamellar bone