SKV Glen Flashcards
(152 cards)
1
Q
The 737- 700/800 minimum obstruction clearance path, in a turn, is determined by
A
the wingtip arc
2
Q
The 737-900 minimum obstruction clearance path, in a turn, is determined by
A
the tail arc
3
Q
Which flight deck lights are powered with loss of normal electrical power?
A
Standby compass light, dome lights, instrument flood lights, and selected system information and warning lights.
4
Q
Cabin EXIT lights will automatically illuminate when
A
EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch is ARMED and electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power has been turned off.
5
Q
On aircraft equipped with LED strakelet taxi lights, the Captain should slowly cycle the taxi light switch to signal the Marshaller because
A
LED lights need time to activate after the switch is placed to ON
6
Q
Turning the STERILE light switch ON will
A
Illuminate a blue light above the flight deck door to alert the flight attendants and disable the passenger electronic outlets.
7
Q
An illuminated ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) light represents
A
The ELT has been activated and is transmitting.
8
Q
What is the function of the unlock push button on the Jamco flight deck door control panel?
A
Electrically unlocks flight deck door
9
Q
f the unlock push button on the Jamco Flight Deck Door Control Panel illuminates flashing red, ____________.
A
A fault in the door system or status lights has occurred and security of the door is unknown
10
Q
What is the function of the hard lock push button on the Jamco flight deck door control panel?
A
Stops door emergency entrance unlock function that would occur after 30 seconds, thus keeping door HARD LOCKED for 30 minutes.
11
Q
What happens to the Jamco flight deck door if the flight deck door emergency entrance open button is pushed, and the flight crew does not intervene?
A
“DOOR, DOOR, DOOR” warning message will stop after 30 seconds and the door will electrically unlock for only 5 seconds to allow access
12
Q
With the emergency exit switch in the armed position, lights automatically illuminate when:
A
all answers are correct
- DC bus No. 1 fails
- AC power is turned off
13
Q
The passenger oxygen system is supplied by ___________located at each Passenger Service Unit (PSU)
A
individual chemical oxygen generators
14
Q
The passenger oxygen system is activated automatically by a pressure switch at a cabin altitude of ______ or when the Passenger Oxygen Switch on the aft overhead panel is positioned to ON.
A
14,000 feet
15
Q
An illuminated “PASS OXY ON” light on the aft overhead panel indicates:
A
The passenger oxygen system has been activated
16
Q
ow is the flow of oxygen initiated to the passenger masks?
A
By pulling any mask in the unit down
17
Q
Once passenger oxygen is activated, oxygen flows for approximately _____ and cannot be shutoff.
A
12 minutes
18
Q
B737-800, bleed air is obtained from the ____ & ____ stages of the compressor section of the engine.
A
5th; 9th
19
Q
B737-800, when 5th low-stage pressure is insufficient, the ___ high-stage valve modulates open to maintain proper pressure.
A
9th
20
Q
he engine bleed air valve is normally DC power activated and ______ operated.
A
pneumatically
21
Q
The illumination of the BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates ________.
A
engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit
22
Q
What occurs when the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates?
A
The respective engine bleed air valve closes automatically
23
Q
What sources of air can be used to start the engine?
A
APU, ground air cart, and engine bleed air
24
Q
With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed air switches ON, and both air conditioning pack switches AUTO or HIGH, the isolation valve is _____.
A
closed
25
conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF, the isolation valve is _____.
open
26
Does the APU bleed air switch affect the isolation valve position?
No
27
Does the APU bleed air valve, on the B737-800, automatically close when the APU is shut down?
Yes
28
The APU bleed air valve is___ activated and ______ operated.
DC; pneumatically
29
With the DUAL BLEED light illuminated, engine thrust must be _______.
limited to idle, if not conducting single engine taxi operations on the ground.
30
What causes a wing-body overheat condition?
a bleed air duct leak
31
If a leak in the bleed duct from the APU occurs, which WING-BODY OVER HEAT light will illuminate?
Left
32
With the ISOLOATION VALVE switch in AUTO, the isolation valve _________ if either engine BLEED air or air condition PACK switch is positioned OFF.
Automatically opens
33
The Wing-Body Overheat (OVHT) TEST switch _____________.
All answers are correct
- Tests wing-body overheat detector circuits
- Illuminates both WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights
34
Conditioned air for the cabin comes from _________________.
either the aircraft air conditioning system or a preconditioned ground source
35
Conditioned air from the ______, upstream of the mix manifold, flows directly to the flight deck.
left pack
36
Air from the left pack, air from the right pack, and air from the recirculation system is combined in the ________.
mix manifold
37
The APU can supply air for ________ on the ground for all operations
two packs
| Left AND Right
38
In flight with the air conditioning PACK switches in AUTO and both packs operating, _________.
the packs provide “normal air flow”
39
Inflight with one PACK operating _________.
the operating pack provides high air flow automatically, if the flaps remain retracted.
40
The ram air system is used to provide cooling for the __________ in the air conditioning systems.
heat exchangers
41
In a B737-800, what happens if an amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates?
the MASTER CAUTION light will illuminate, and the trim air valve closes
42
The recirculation fan system __________ the air conditioning load and the engine bleed air demand.
reduces
43
What makes the equipment cooling OFF light illuminate?
loss of air flow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan
44
The TRIP RESET switch resets the ______________.
all answers are correct
- BLEED trip OFF, PACK trip OFF
- DUCT OVERHEAT on the B737-700, or the ZONE TEMP on the B737-800
45
annunciators during recall indicates _____________.
a failure of the primary or standby pack controls
46
If both primary and standby pack controls fail for the same pack _________.
the pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive temperatures cause the pack to trip off
47
Cabin pressurization and ventilation is controlled by?
he outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve
48
The main outflow valve is actuated by one of _____ DC motors and is the overboard exhaust exit for the majority of the air circulated through the passenger cabin.
two
49
On the cabin altitude panel, which scale on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the cabin altitude in feet?
Inner Scale
50
On the cabin altitude panel, which scale on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the differential pressure between cabin and ambient in psi?
Outer Scale
51
How can the intermittent cabin altitude warning horn be cut out?
By pushing the Altitude (ATL) HORN CUTOUT Switch
52
At what cabin altitude will the intermittent cabin altitude warning sound?
10,000 feet
53
How is the cabin rate of climb displayed?
on the cabin rate of climb indicator
54
On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, which modes automatically pressurize the aircraft?
AUTO & ALTN
55
On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, the MAN mode controls aircraft pressurization _____________.
manually by the Outflow Valve switch
56
On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, with the pressurization mode selector in the MAN mode, the outflow valve switch takes approximately _______ to move the outflow valve in the full range of motion.
20 seconds
57
On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, an amber AUTO FAIL
| light indicates _____________.
automatic pressurization system (dual channel) failure is detected
58
On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, if both the amber AUTO FAIL light and the green ALTN light is illuminated, _________.
a single channel controller failure has occurred
59
The OFF SCHED DESCENT light indicates the aircraft began descent before having reached the planned cruise altitude. The controller programs the cabin ____________.
to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs
60
Engine ignition must be selected to _____ prior to and during engine anti-ice operation.
CONT
61
Window heat must be ON _______ before takeoff.
10 minutes
62
Probe heat must be ____________.
ON before takeoff
63
Which flight deck windows are not electrically heated?
L3 and R3
64
Temperature controllers maintain window heat on windows ________ at the correct temperature to ensure maximum strength of the windows in the event of bird impact.
L1, R1, L2, and R2
65
On the Window Heat Panel, when an overheat condition is detected, power is removed from the window, __________, and the green ON light extinguishes.
an amber OVERHEAT Light is illuminated
66
On the Window Heat Panel when a green window heat ON light is illuminated, ___________.
window heat is being applied to selected window(s).
67
Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to OVHT_______________.
simulates an overheat condition.
68
Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to PWR TEST_______________.
provides a confidence test by applying full power to all windows that that the switch set to ON.
69
Windshield scratching will occur if the windshield wipers are operated on _____ windshield.
a dry
70
Engine bleed air thermal anti-icing prevents the formation of ice on the _____.
engine cowl lip
71
Each cowl anti-ice valve is _______ controlled and ______ actuated.
electrically; pressure
72
What occurs when the ENG ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to ON?
All answers are correct
- Turning ENG ANTI-ICE ON automatically adjusts FMC Vref speed.
- Turning ENG ANTI-ICE OFF returns stick shaker logic, minimum maneuver speeds and airspeed indications to normal.
73
If the cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position indicated by the ENG
ANTI-ICE switch, the COWL VALVE OPEN light ________ and an amber TAI indication illuminates on the CDS after a short delay.
remains illuminated bright blue
74
On the Engine Anti-Ice Panel, an amber illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE Light indicates __________.
excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip
75
A green TAI on the upper display unit above the N1 gage, indicates __________
cowl anti-ice valve(s) open
76
An amber TAI on the upper display unit above the N1 gage, indicates __________
cowl anti-ice valve is not in position indicated by related engine anti-ice switch.
77
The wing anti-ice system does not include the _______ or the_________.
leading edge flaps; outboard leading edge slats
78
On the ground, both of the wing anti-ice valves close if either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting or ____________.
either temperature sensor senses a duct over temperature
79
On the Wing Anti-Ice Panel, what does a bright blue Wing Anti-Ice VALVE OPEN Light indicate?
The related wing anti-ice control valve is in transit, or, related wing anti-ice control valve position disagrees with WING ANTI–ICE switch position.
80
Which of the following Wing Anti-Ice system statements is not true?
Stall warning logic, airspeed indications, and minimum maneuver speeds return to normal when Wing Anti-Ice is turned OFF.
81
On the Probe Heat Panel, an amber CAPT PITOT light indicates ________.
the probe is not heated
82
What supplies conditioned air to No. 1 windows for defogging?
WINDSHIELD AIR Control knob located on the forward panel
83
The use of Aileron Trim with the Autopilot engaged is _______.
prohibited
84
The Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) is a dual system consisting of _____individual flight control computers (FCCs) and a single mode control panel.
two
85
All Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) modes can be disengaged either by selecting another command mode or _______________.
by disengaging the A/P and turning the F/Ds off
86
Autopilot engagement in CMD or CWS is inhibited unless ________.
all answers are correct
- No force is being applied to the control wheel.
- The STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cutout switch is at NORMAL
87
In single A/P operation, full automatic flare and touchdown capability and A/P go-around capability are ______.
not available
88
What allows both A/Ps to be engaged at the same time?
the Approach mode
89
The A/P automatically disengages when any of the following occurs:
all answers are correct
- Pushing either A/P disengage switch or pushing either Takeoff / Go-around (TO/GA) switch with a single A/P engaged in CWS or CMD below 2000 feet RA
- Activating either pilot’s control wheel trim switch or loss of respective hydraulic system pressure
90
The F/Ds can be operated __________.
with or without the A/P and A/T
91
How is the master FCC indicated?
by illumination of the respective master (MA) F/D indicator light
92
What following indications regarding AFDS status annunciations are displayed in the A/P status display located above the attitude indicator?
all answers are correct
- CMD, FD, 1 CH
- CWS P, CWS R
93
What does CMD in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?
one or both autopilots are engaged
94
What does FD in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?
the flight director is ON and the autopilot is either OFF or engaged in CWS
95
What does CWS P in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?
pitch mode engaged in CWS
96
What does CWS R in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?
roll mode engaged in CWS
97
What does 1CH in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?
for a single A/P ILS approach, annunciates after localizer capture and remains on for entire approach
98
What does N1 on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?
The autothrottle maintains thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display, including full go-around N1 setting.
99
What does GA on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?
The autothrottle maintains thrust at reduced go-around setting.
100
What does RETARD on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?
Displayed while autothrottle moves thrust levers to the aft stop. RETARD mode is followed by ARM mode.
101
What does FMC SPD on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?
The autothrottle maintains speed commanded by the FMC. The autothrottle is limited to the N1 value shown on the thrust mode display.
102
What does THR HLD on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?
No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can
103
What does ARM on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?
No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can set thrust levers manually.
104
To engage TO/GA for takeoff ______________ and press either TO/GA switch
both FD switches must be ON
105
To engage TO/GA for go-around, press either TO/GA switch when _______
all answers are correct
- Inflight below 2000 feet radio altitude
- not in takeoff mode and either F/D switch ON or OFF
106
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, VNAV SPD commands _______.
the AFDS to maintain the FMC speed displayed on the airspeed indicator and/or the CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages
107
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, VNAV PTH commands _______.
the AFDS to maintain FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands
108
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, V/S (engaged) commands _______.
pitch to hold selected vertical speed
109
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, ALT ACQ commands _______.
a transition maneuver entered automatically from a V/S, LVL CHG, or VNAV climb or descent to the selected MCP altitude.
110
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, ALT HOLD commands _______.
pitch to hold MCP selected altitude or uncorrected barometric altitude at which ALT HOLD switch was pushed
111
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, MCP SPD commands _______.
he AFDS to maintain the IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach
112
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, G/S (engaged) commands _______.
the AFDS to follow the ILS glideslope
113
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, FLARE (engaged) commands _______.
During a dual A/P ILS approach, flare engages at 50 feet radio altitude. FLARE accomplishes the autoland flare maneuver.
114
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the roll mode, LNAV commands _______.
the AFDS to intercept and track the active FMC route
115
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the roll mode, HDG SEL commands _______.
the aircraft to turn to, or remain on the heading selected in the MCP Heading Display
116
The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the roll mode, VOR/LOC (engaged) commands _______.
AFDS to track selected VOR course or track selected localizer course along the inbound front course bearing
117
The A/T system operates properly with the EECs ______.
all answers are correct
- ON
- ALTN
118
Which of the following actions or conditions will disengage the autothrottles?
Moving the A/T Arm switch to OFF, pushing either A/T Disengage switch, or two seconds have elapsed since landing touchdown
119
For a dual A/P approach, the second VHF NAV receiver must be tuned to the ILS frequency and the corresponding A/P engaged in CMD prior to _______.
800 feet RA
120
If FLARE is not armed by approximately 350 feet RA, _______________.
both A/Ps automatically disengage
121
During a single channel A/P approach operation, _________ .
an A/P go-around is not available
122
During an A/P go-around, the first push of either TO/GA switch commands the thrust to advance towards the reduced go-around N1 to producing 1000 to
commands the A/T to advance to the full go-around N1 limit
123
The AFS provides speed, pitch and thrust commands to avoid exceeding the following limit speeds:
Vmo/Mmo, wing flap placards, landing gear placard and minimum speed
124
The flashing character A on the IAS/MACH Display represents _______.
"IAS/MACH A135"
an underspeed
125
On the Mode Control Panel, pressing the Changeover (C/O) Switch _______.
changes IAS/MACH display between IAS and MACH
126
The IAS/MACH Display is blank when __________.
VNAV mode is engaged
127
With the N1 light illuminated, pushing the N1 switch on the Mode Control Panel _______.
Deselects N1 mode and extinguishes switch light
128
On the Mode Control Panel, Speed mode engages automatically when:
all answers are correct
- ALT ACQ engages or ALT HOLD engages
- V/S engages or G/S capture occurs
129
Rotating the speed selector knob on the Mode Control Panel _______.
sets the speed in IAS/MACH display and positions airspeed cursor
130
Pushing the Speed Intervention (SPD INTV) Switch on the Mode Control Panel when VNAV is engaged __________________.
reveals the IAS/MACH display, activates FMC speed intervention, displays the FMC target
131
By engaging VNAV, the FMC command the AFDS pitch and ______________ to fly vertical profile selected on the ____________.
autothrottle; FMC CDUs
132
In a VNAV SPD descent, the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.
idle; holds FMC target speed
133
In a VNAV PTH descent, the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.
idle but can command FMC SPD mode if ground speed becomes too low to maintain FMC vertical path; tracks FMC descent path
134
The ALTITUDE Display on the Mode Control Panel is set by the Altitude Selector and displays selected altitude from 0 to 50,000 feet in ______ foot increments.
100
135
The Vertical Speed (VERT SPEED) Display window _____ when V/S is ______.
blanks; not active
136
The Vertical Speed Thumbwheel sets ___________.
vertical speed in VERT SPEED display
137
Pushing the Level Change (LVL CHG) switch in a climb commands the autothrottles to hold ______ thrust and the AFDS to hold selected airspeed.
limit
138
While in Altitude Hold, if the Altitude Selector on the Mode Control Panel is rotated the ______ mode is armed.
V/S
139
When descending or climbing with VNAV engaged, if the ALT INTV switch is pushed, the next altitude restriction in the FMC will be _________.
eliminated
140
Pushing the Altitude Hold (ALT HLD) switch commands pitch to hold
uncorrected barometric altitude at which the switch was pressed
141
On the Mode Control Panel, the COURSE display shows the course set by the _______.
course selector
142
On the Mode Control Panel, rotating the heading selector sets the heading in the_______.
heading display
143
On the Mode Control Panel, pushing the LNAV Switch commands the AFDS roll to intercept and track the active _______.
FMC route
144
On the Mode Control Panel, pushing the VOR localizer (LOC) Switch commands the AFDS roll to capture and track the selective _______.
all answers are correct
- VOR
- LOC
145
The bank angle selector sets the maximum bank angle for the AFDS operation in _______ mode(s).
HDG SEL or VOR
146
Initially, pushing the Heading Select (HDG SEL) switch commands a turn in the shortest direction towards the heading bug.
True
147
Pushing the Approach (APP) Switch arms the AFDS for ___________.
localizer and glideslope capture
148
The Command Engage (CMD ENGAGE) switch (A or B) ________.
all answers are correct
- engages the A/P, and displays CMD in the A/P status display
- enables all command modes
149
The Control Wheel Steering Engage (CWS ENGAGE) switch (A or B) ________.
all answers are correct
- engages the A/P, and displays CWS P and CWS R in the A/P status display
- engages pitch and roll modes in CWS
150
Pulling down on the Autopilot Disengage (DISENGAGE) bar_______.
disengages both A/Ps
151
The Autopilot Disengage Switch on the Control Wheel, ________.
all answers are correct
- disengages the A/P, and a warning tone sounds
- illuminates the flashing A/P disengage lights
152
The Stabilizer Out Of Trim (STAB OUT OF TRIM) light operates ________.
only with the autopilot engaged
